#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 353 of 1
What step are you on? d to a?
i did b to d but I don’t think it’s correct
It should be easier to just do a -> b -> c -> d -> a
Hi everyone, do you think it could be interesting to work on the transfer and its applications in group theory (notably the various theorems of Schur and Burnside) as a topic for a first-year master’s thesis?
What does it mean by factors uniquely through P, it is from Ravi Vakil's notes on Sheaves therefore I am asking here
exactly as it shows in the diagram
there is a morphism P' → P making the diagram commute, i.e. simultaneously factorising the morphisms ν' and μ'
Oh so diagram commutes simultaneously
thats quite literally what it means for a diagram to commute
im learning elementary group theory (just learned iso thms and now we are doing jordan-holder decomposition) and i find it very boring
are there any good things to read on that make it more interesting
like maybe a further topic which uses this stuff or whatever idk
or just a good book
If you care about physics/chemistry, groups show up everywhere
If you like geometry, you can look at algebraic groups
I agree it is extremely boring
I'm assuming that most of the interesting things lie in applications yeah
(In particular, linear algebraic groups, which are GL(n) and its subgroups are a very fruitful class of geometric objects)
a lot of symmetry stuffs in physics can be described with groups 
in particular lie groups do a big thing
If you care about cryptography there’s groups there too
Down with cryptography
its over
Ruining number theory courses since 1750
But the best application of groups is in the fact that every ring is an abelian group with some other stuff and rings are awesome
we did dirichlet's theorem instead of cryptography in my intro number theory course
alright thank you
Imo the fun in commutative algebra starts when you start looking at its applications/intersections with other fields
Representation theory is a big field with a lot of groups
literally all algebra stuffs are boring when you learn it, but it's fun when you do other stuffs that use them
e.g. AlgNT, AT, AG, ...
Gg
Oh algebraic topology
finite group theorists would be very upset with you right now
What is it with people needing “applications” for their ring theory? Do modules not just bring you joy?
Counterpoint: all three of those are boring (although AT much less than the other two)
I think applying rings to groups is bestest 
Group ring moment
In connection with Jordan-Hölder in particular, Galois theory might be good:
An irreducible polynomial has solutions in radicals if and only if all the factors in the composition series of the Galois group are abelian.
In particular this means there are polynomials not solvable in radicals for degrees 5 and above, because the composition factors of Sn are An and C2, and An isn't abelian.
But I guess throwing the question back to you. What things do you find interesting?
Jordan-Hölder is all but boring how dare you
G-sets appear in the classification of minimal algebras everyone cares about universal algebra cmon
Ohhh shit… aita?
100 downvotes i cast
do a lot of examples, there are a lot of nifty little groups
there are probably some example focused books out there not sure of any in particular
https://people.maths.bris.ac.uk/~matyd/GroupNames/ I like this page as a starting point
If you want all the groups
The thing I dislike about that page is that it’s all finite groups
Like
I feel one of the worst things about group theory for me for a while was that I didn’t really know any examples of infinite groups
For finite groups, if you know cyclic, dihedral, alternating, symmetric, Quaternion groups (and you know about semi-direct products), you know like
Enough groups for 95% of interesting finite group theory, unless you’re going deep into it
I mean like in terms of
Non-abelian ones
And you can contrive such examples, but I don’t know of many natural ones before like surface groups and infinite symmetric groups
infinite symmetric groups, SLnZ, infinite wreath products
free groups of course
BS(m,n)
Infinite product of Z/2Z
I learned a really fun theorem recently that the mapping class groups of surfaces of genus at least 3 can’t act properly cocompactly on CAT(0) spaces
matrix groups?
yeah those ofc
I'm trying to think of non "continuous" groups
since those tend to require more analysis to really study
Mapping class groups are cute, although a pain to compute in non-trivial cases
But also at some point with infinite groups you realise it’s all analysis or analysis-adjacent geo deep down (or at least needs a fair bit of topology) /hj
specifically I like the lamplighter group as an example for wreath products
cuz it has a fire name
You’re reminding me I have far too many papers to read
In addition to the book I’m reading
although I suspect this is my fate for most the rest of my life at this point
Groups like GLn, SLn, affine transformations should appear pretty early for most people
They’re too big to be groups 🙃
(Yeah idk why I forgot matrix groups
But also linear groups tend to be a little nicer in general)
I mean, is it a problem that groups are nice?
It is if you want counterexamples 🙃
I guess we need a "counterexamples in topology", but for algebra
Examples of infinite groups yeah so true. I think ill always remember Q/Z has being infinite group where every element is finite order lol
I was just thinking about this
Earlier today i googled examples in algebra and didnt find anything
BS(2, 3) gets its own chapter
That’s because we have good definitions in algebra and don’t get random bullshit counterexamples so often that we have to talk about spaces with 16 subtly different connectedness conditions
Lol thats funny
Realest shit I’ve heard all week
All month actually
Tbh I feel it’s more because we decide to work with definitions that aren’t just “the minimal condition such that this proof works”
that’s for the UAers
its often more interesting the other way around
Probably harder to think about too
"when this proof works / conclusion holds in a variety then it satisfies the minimal condition"
for example, if there is some term p(x, y, z) such that it satisfies certain equations, all congruences must commute. But if all congruences commute in a variety, then there must exist such a term
Erm
type shit
also you try working with operations that arent even guaranteed to satisfy any properties >:(
Universal algebra seems to definitely take a different kind of thinking
Cool
I don’t because I have ε > 0 sanity
Promise?
pinky
:3
let -ε < 0
Upon the Witnessing
No I do joke somewhat, I think the power of topology is that it’s such an incredibly minimal amount of structure that practically everything you care about is a topological space but somehow also rich enough that it’s incredibly useful
But equally that absolutely minimal structure does lead to some pretty frustrating nonsense, like the need for a book of counter examples
This is why I like algtop, you just assume all your spaces are sufficiently nice and everything is better
Algebra has good definitions?
lwk i do think so
Stuff does work out nicely in algebra doesnt it
thats probably just because y'all work with the nice algebraic structures
Anyway I always just pretend my rings are noetherian 😋
I was actually thinking earlier whats the significance of noetherian rings in practice. I feel like im aware somewhat now but not totally
Of course ideals being finitely generated is a nice property
I know of that fact f: M->N map of modules and if injective then surjective if theyre noetherian or something
That one seems nice
it is a surprisingly powerful property
one that I know of is that in Noetherian rings, every ideal has a reduced primary decomposition
Idk…
If youre willing to accept some algebraic geometry, you have that Spec A is noetherian (as a topological space) iff A is noetherian (as a ring)
Noetherian topological spaces are nice as hell
I kinda forget the topology on Spec A
Zariski topology
closed sets are the sets of prime ideals containing some ideal
In point set topology i think we defined Zariski on R^2 for example to have closed sets as R^2 minus finitely many points
Most rings one encounters naturally are noetherian
I know theres the connection to the prime ideals thing but i forget atm
prime ideals act like "points" in affine space
It’s essentially just a finiteness condition, it can be hard to work with rings without it because they can just be so ridiculously large that you can’t really get a handle on them
And thankfully a lot of interesting rings are
I got confused by prime ideals in like multi variables now
this is because points in k^n correspond to k-algebra homomorphisms k[x1, ..., xn] → k, so one can approximate them using ideals. These are the maximal ideals of the polynomial ring. Then, as simply taking maximal ideals doesnt work and you want your stuff to be a coherent condition you take all prime ideals
This sounds weird
If not wrong
Cuz i know over one variable its kinda like field theory stuff
decidedly different from Zariski (f.e. consider the complement of V(x^2 - y) )
cofinite topology is certainly included in Zariski on the reals
My general topology exam had a massive question about the zariski topology but didn’t assume anyone knew any ring theory (for some unknown reason) so everything was described set theoretically and it was the worst fucking question I’ve ever had to do in my life
Lol
I took algebraic geometry and still made a mess of that problem because just parsing it was neigh on impossible
I was also like dying with some unknown illness at the time which didn’t help
The open sets in my example were the finite collection of points i think
Closed sets were R^2-p
Truly just terrible to parse, I honestly think having done alggeo made this question harder
I got an 80 in alggeo and a 45 in that exam 
It kinda looks fun though
Ill be honest in an exam setting while youre also extremly ill... wasnt
But it does mean that I have As in 2 algebraic topology modules but I have D in both metric spaces and topology which is just amusing
Lol
Just notational jibber jabber
EVERY FINITE SET??? NO WAY NEW THEOREM JUST DROPPED
But yeah I think after much struggling with notation I did everything up to half of e and just gave up and moved on
The class of finite sets is not proper!!
Took me a second to read
People were not happy about that question lol, especially the people who hadnt taken AG because we never did any zariski stuff in class and it was almost 50% of the exam
This seems very easy if you’ve done AG, and incredibly horrible if you’ve not
Like
this should not be on an exam for anything other than AG
That entire course was a disaster becase the course organiser, the guy who wrote the exam, (he does FA) didnt teach any of the class due to illness, so we were taught by a homotopy theorist who doesnt belive in exams or lectures really, from notes he fundamentally disagreed with
none of it was good
Yeah this was the general sentiment among students. I honeslty think having done AG was helpful but I think it was still doable if not. In any case it was ass because the notation was just incomprehensible
The green highlighted part is everything in this question you wouldn’t have memorised if you did our AG exams
And that’s not to say it’s hard
why did he fundamentally disagree with it lol
Kinda just everything about it from the notation and words used to the things that were given attention and the order they were done in. Like theres an entire chapter proving Browers fixed point theorem just using pointset (its essentially stokes theorem but painfully unwrapped) and he just went yeah thats dumb were not doing that, take algtop next semester and do it in 2 lines
thats valid though
He just kinda waffled about schemes a lot, he had a lecture once where he turned off the recording and ranted about the algebra at this uni being shit because no one knew what a free group was and no one does any category theory
I feel like in a modern context there’s little reason to do a pure pointset proof of Brower’s
No it fully was, I wouldve loved to have taken his topology course, he taught it for like years before that I mean hes a pretty big name in topology
i like him but this does not seem good for students' learning lollll
The only reason he did it is because he taught it for the first time the year before and finished the course weeks early, and also realised all the content is incredibly easy
Can someone elaborate on b)
The green part
The identity map from Euclidean to Zariski is cts
Its a mixed bag lol, I wouldve been upset had it not been an topology course in my penultimate semester of UG after a required metric spaces course
Though when I audited his higher cat theory course it didnt seem much more organised
Oh yea ok cool but why do we care about that?
He told everyone they were going to use some textbook, then in the first lecture said actually nah im writing my own notes, but theyre not done and I don really have a plan but ill upload them when I can, they might not be in order
I don’t know of any uses for that specifically, but being able to transport properties between Euclidean and Zariski topologies I’ve been told is useful when you can do it
Algebra 😭
Algebra 🔥
algebra 
Algebra is cute
Fill brain with all the algebra!
Lol
i might've found a connection between tame congruence theory and universal algebraic geometry
owo
Breh
might be worth studying
I don’t even know how to feel about algebra anymore
Why
you know more than me and i still like it so what does that make me then
Yk
Just enjoy what u can
Or idk i mean tbh i dont really know on what level youre trying to understand algebra
It's exactly the condition needed for the category of finitely generated (or finitely presented) modules to be abelian.
Thats cool, so for morphisms to have kernels and u can “add” morphisms or something?
Idk if i remember the definitions
Yeah. Specifically having kernels is what Noetherianess grants you here
Oh that’s sick I didn’t know that
Do i need to understand what kernels are category theoretically for this
I havent learned that yet
It's sort of obvious if you think about it. An ideal I is the kernel of
R -> R/I
which is a map of finitely generated modules.
So you need all ideals to be finitely generated to get an abelian category
Not really.
Though learning the universal property of kernels is probably a good use of your time
U need ideals to be fg because kernel needs to be an object in the category or?
Yeah, otherwise you don't have kernels in the category
Oh yeah I guess haha, I just never put that together before
Ohh lol
Whats an example of a non abelian category?
Rings
Oh ya
The category of Hilbert spaces isn’t, neither is Ring
Yeah
I just say this because it catches some out initially
Yeah
Like topological spaces or Set for example would work lmao
I think infinite dimensions make things go badly generally
Hilbert spaces is another nice thing
A fun example is the category of topological abelian groups, which is preabelian, but not abelian
Condensed abelian groups tho
This is cool actually like lol
(the first isomorphism theorem fails)
In non abelian categories there still can be a notion of kernel but that object isnt in the category, or there also just couldnt be any notion of kernel at all? I guess if we’re not talking about algebraic things
Have you seen these quasi-abelian cats
No I mean you can still have kernels and stuff meaningfully, just the notions don't quite interact as in an abelian category
Cause kernel can be developed in cat theory ?
Ig that is what Jagr's example is for
Kernels can be defined in pointed categories
Yeah I mean kernel is defined by a pullback
f-1(0)
Indeed
Lol
In general you have kernel-pairs or whatever it's called
Ye
In abelian categories you can also add morphisms or something?
“Add”
Ok
Technically preadditive
Yeah
Is it just some binary operation on morphisms
The fact I still feel is underrated is how the addition in a (say, additive) category can be constructed from just universal properties
Each Hom-set should be an abelian group and composition should be bilinear
Like given maps f, g: a -> b you can form like a -> a (+) a -> b (+) b -> b
Cool im not totally sure what the bilinear condition is for but it makes sense to have that
Yeah, it's fun like
preadditivity is a structure you put on a category, but additivity is a property
3(f + g) = 3f + 3g etc
Ye
Yeah but the significance of it ig
Which seems reasonable
(which implies a unique preadditive structure)
Also 3? I thought more like (f+g) o h = foh+goh right
Maths is broken for me
Wait yeah ignore me
I guess what I wrote is fine if you interpret 3 as 3 id
Etc
Well a consequence is that it makes Hom(X, X) into a ring
Nice
Indeed preadditive categories are usually called "rings with several objects"
any category of algebras that isn't a category of abelian algebras I'm gonna guess tbh
(because that would just be equivalent to a module category)
Enpeace says stuff i dont understand lowkey
basically any category of algebraic structures that aren't ridiculously nice
an abelian category needs to be a (pre)?additive category?
both
Yes
especially when im just sitting here bored on a friday night
(ridiculously nice when looking at their equational logic, as opposed to how ridiculously nice and convenient e.g. commutative rings are)
Anyway, the hierarchy is
additive category = category with finite biproducts
example category of projective modules
preabelian = additive category with all kernels and cokernels
Example, topological abelian groups
abelian = preabelian and satisfies first isomorphism theorem
Examples, module categories, sheaves of abelian groups, finite length modules
An abelian category is what you get when you prove the snake lemma in RMod and write down everything categorical you use in the proof
actual generalised elements
that’s the other nice thing about (small) abelian categories, there is a fully faithful exact functor into R-mod for some ring
so you can do element chasing
if R is an integral domain and M is an free R-module. Say B = { e_i | i in I } is a basis for M, how do i show any maximal linearly independent set of M has same cardinality as B?
A hint could be that the statement is true when R is a field. So if you can somehow reduce to the case...
you mean i have to consider its ring of fraction
There's an idea
I mean, this is a pretty good idea...
If M is module over PID, then is it true that if M = N_1 + N_2 then rank M = rank N_1 + rank N_2 - rank (N_1 \cap N2), where M has finite rank?
Because I am not sure that I can extend the basis of N_1 to basis of M
Well, I guess that's technically what it is, but really you just need to notice that R^n is a subset of K^n, where K is the field of fractions
It is true, even for integral domains more generally
You mean I don't need PID there?
I assumed to pid to make sure rank of submodules exists
How can I show this?
I am trying to extend the basis but I don't think that's a way to show this result
Well, here extensions of scalars would be useful
Again extension of scalars 
But you're talking about basis, is M free?
Yes M is a free module of rank n
Well, then you can use the PID condition to simplify I guess.
Like you have a short exact sequence
0 -> N1nN2 -> N1(+)N2 -> N1+N2 -> 0
Then because N1+N2 is a submodule of M, and R is a PID this is also free. Hence the sequence splits.
So you can extend a basis for N1nN2 to a basis for N1(+)N2
I see
But turning your attention back to this:
Are you able to show that a maximally linearly independent set in R^n also is maximally linearly independent in K^n ?
(hence is a basis of size n)
To show maximal linearly independent first I will show they are linearly independent.
Claim: { r_1,..,r_k} are LI in R^n then they are LI in K^n.
Say, \sum k_i r_i = 0. But k_i are a_i/b_i, where a_i, b_i in R, b_i ≠0.
So \sum (a_i Π(b_j)_j≠i r_i) = 0.
Since a_i Π(b_j) in R, implies a_i Π(b_j) = 0. Since Π(b_j) ≠ 0 in R otherwise they are zero in K, so it implies a_i = 0.
Hence k_i = 0.
This is my first step, is it correct?
Yes I can show maximally independent set in R^n is also is maximally linearly independent in K^n
So in finite case we are done
What about infinite case?
I got it
I am dumb 
Thanks @rocky cloak 
The proof is exactly the same in the infinite case
Yes
i have looked around and genuinely NOTHING, not even ai can convince itself that such a connection exists
50/50 biggest UA discovery in years or enpeace has finally succumbed to full on crankery
haha who knows
the intersection between people who think about tame congruence theory and people who think about universal algebraic geometry is the singleton set containing me
Can I have a hint on how to show $\sqrt{(4, t)} \subseteq (2, t)$? Here we're in $\mathbb{Z}[t]$
okeyokay
(2, t) is a prime ideal
Wait does this have something to do with the Nullstellensatz lol I took a course in algebraic geometry but I forgot most of everything
Z isn’t a field so you’d struggle to apply that
radical of I is the intersection of prime ideals containing it
thats the fact relevant here
that is probably how id define it in the first place too but thats too based of an opinion
Recall as well that over a commutative ring semiprime and radical ideals are the same thing, if that gives you a push in the right direction
I've never heard of a semiprime ideal negl
Smh, kids these days don’t even study noncom rings
Yeah that’s fine, I wouldn’t worry about it then lol, my point was just to remind you that all prime ideals are semi prime but like all semi prime ideals over a commutative ring are just prime so it doesn’t actually matter
who the FUCK would study non commutative things
noncommutative algebraic geometry is popular
our uni has that as a masters course
does noncommutative algebraic geometry really use noncommutative rings though
i joke cause it does a bit but not nearly as much as one might expect
depends what you do lol i mean a lot doesn't have analysis
i have a friend who does stuff with quivers or something like that and he uses noncommutative rings
could universlw algebraic geometry be clasified under noncomm lol
Sure
oh yeah i didn't mean that as a counterpoint to you just some general comment
There’s non commutative geometry which is just functional analysis but non com AG is very much algebraic. It’s a bunch of motives nonsense. Theres also something about universal enveloping algebras of Lie algebras I think but I don’t really know how that ties together
ooo thats awesomeee
I may possibly try to do some NCAG stuff for my masters, there’s a pretty big name in it here
whats a motive again
Can somebody help me see why n^c = n'^c, I know we have n^c \subseteq n'^c since q \subseteq q'
I feel like this was the part i got stuck on when i looked at this chapter earlier in the year
One of these little lemmas lol
Some alggeo nonsense to do with generalising cohomology, I’ve got no idea about the specifics
draw a diagram and see what's happening
youve got this commutative diagram of rings, which implies that, if I ⊆ B is a prime ideal, then first contracting it to A and then passing to A_p is the same as first passing to B_p and then contracting to A_p
lmao
lol
Handwriting Reveal Handwriting Reveal !!!
also funny typo, we should be passing to B_p^e, not B_p
im pretty sure
or idk what they mean specifically by B_p
maybe they do still mean B localised by A\p?
yeah probably, ignore what i said
Holay Molay
i dont know how do they define B_p
Ok i gotta get off this server ive been here for like 24hrs
because p is an ideal of A
Localization of b
by what? can't be p itself, that contains 0
oh wait nvm the complement of p in A can't intersect n or n' we're all good
this is because q and q' correspond uniquely to their extensions in B_p
its true
kind of yeah? (i know it was joke) but like from my limited knowledge you are working with homological/"representational" properties of the ring
so instead of rings you more talk about their module category, instead of schemes you talk about their coherent sheaves
so like if you want to talk about the noncommutative equivalent of coherent sheaves on Proj R, you can talk about the quotient of the module category. by the finite lenght modules
Isn't non-commutative algebraic geometry, just taking questions from alggeo, formulating them as questions about the derived category of quasi-coherent sheaves, then asking the same question about arbitrary dg-categories?
In particular noncommutative dg-algebras
What is dg?
Differentially graded
In mathematics – particularly in homological algebra, algebraic topology, and algebraic geometry – a differential graded algebra (or DGA, or DG algebra) is an algebraic structure often used to capture information about a topological or geometric space. Explicitly, a differential graded algebra is a graded associative algebra with a chain com...
Seems maybe ncag is wider than this
This would be more derived ncag
thats all i understand about it lol
this is what i view it as more lol
My poitn anyway was more to emphasise that non-commutative AG doesn't (usually) use non-commutative rings in the way one might expect from its name
agreed
I can say there is always a unique ring homomorphism Z to any unitial ring [ I am allowing that 1 maps to 1 ], right?
ring of End(Z\times Z) is isomorphic to M(2, Z), right?
so Aut(Z \times Z) will be isomorphic multiplicative group of M(2,Z)
how it looks like? I know matrix should have determinant +- 1 here
quite a lot... for every a,d you choose you can have
a ad-1
-1 d
Famously if you quotient out by ±1 it should look like the free product of C2 and C3
But otherwise it looks like matrices with determinant ±1
what is the free product?
Coproduct in the category of groups 
Basically the elements are alternating sequence of group elements from each group, and the multiplication is concatenation where you multiply neighboring elements from the same group and remove the element any time you get the identity.
i see
Or in terms of group presentations, if you have a presentation for each group you just combine them
So C2 = <x | x^2> and C3 = < y | y^3 > and their free product is
<x, y | x^2, y^3 >
got it
The presentation for SL(2, Z) is fairly similar. It should be
< x, y | x^4, y^6, x^2=y^3 >
Here x^2 corresponds to -1, which you can then mod out to get the free product
All of this is just matrices with determinant 1
Then you can throw in a semidirect product with C2 to get negative determinants
how can i find this presentation by myself?
very painfully
I mean finding elements of finite order that generate the group is not too hard.
Think about elementary row operations.
But showing that there aren't any more relations ones you have the right generating set is probably pretty hard
you use something called the ping-pong lemma for the last step iirc
oaky
thanks jagr
can there be finitely generated module but it has no basis, i think any finite abelian group will work
The difference between free and fg really tripped me up when I first learned about it
That's kinda weird, since they're not really related at all
Yeah I’m not sure, I think I just got tripped up with how something could have a basis and yet not be finitely generated, and sorta vice versa
Like I don’t think I appreciated that the basis could be infinite and then also just forgetting that bases need to be linearly independent
okay, I have to prove that, Let M a left Q-module. Show that the given action of Q is the only one which can be used to make M a left Q-module.
So action of Q induce the ring homomorphism \phi: Q -> End(M).
Here now i am trying to give the module structure to End(M) as (q,f) -> qf given by (qf)(x) = q(fx).
Then we can see \phi( r ) = r\phi(1), but since \phi(1) is identity in End(M).
so it shows that \phi( r ) : M -> M given by m -> rm.
So if other action exists so it induce the same ring homorphism which shows that there only one possible way to make a M left Q-module, is it correct?
I'm not sure I follow your argument.
Surely relying on End(M) also having a unique Q-action is just pushing the problem...
Though thinking about the value of phi(r) for simple rational numbers is a good idea.
phi(1) and phi(0) you should have
what's the missing part in my argument?
Well, I don't understand what the parts are.
First you say you try to define a module structure on End(M), which you don't justify and I don't see the relevance of.
Then phi(r) = rphi(1) comes out of nowhere with no justification.
okay, we have to say phi ( r ) = rphi (1), we need to define what is rphi(1), because phi (1) in End(M) and r in R.
Therefore i defined the R-module on End(M).
Then we have phi ( r + s ) = phi( r ) + phi ( s ), [ i used the same technique here as cauchy functional equation, which says that if f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y) then f(x) = xf(1), domain is Q ]
Okay, I see. You have essentially proven it before and are just supressing the proof
just verifying that there is no problem in my argument
if M is R-module of rank n, if some subset of M spans M and cardnilaity of that subset is n, then is that basis set?
No problem, but yeah the missing part would be "by the same proof as the Cauchy functional equation"

It is if R is commutative or Noetherian (or more generally IBN)
how is it true when R is commutative?
say S is the subset of M which spans M, can i reduce S to basis set?
oh no, we can't
actually i have to show if R is commutative, then any surjective endomorphism of M[ has rank n ] is bijective
A useful thing is that homomorphisms of free modules can be described as matrices.
yes
If R is commutative, then you have things like determinants and adjugate matrix that are very helpful
yeah, but if i can show this then we are done
i am trying to avoid matrix computations here
Alright, can you use that a surjection onto a free module splits?
Hmm, so what do you know?
i think according to Jacobson textbook, matrix approach is needed
Wait, did you assume M to be free or just a module?
And do you define rank as smallest linearly independent subset?
in question he mention R^n instead of M
Alright, then no problem
so i think if M has rank n so it is isomorphic R^n, right?
Depends on your definition of rank, but let's say yes
yes there is confusion, yesterday i read about structure theorem of fg modules over pid, and then author define rank according to the decomposition
Anyhow.
You have a surjective map R^n -> R^n
Then in particular each of the standard basis vectors is in the image. So you can define a map in the other direction by sending each basis vector to one of its preimages.
This then means that R^n is isomorphic to K (+) R^n where K is the kernel of the original map.
From there you can finish using Nakayamas lemma if you have that...
i am trying to see this
do i have to use splitting lemma here?
Yes
But you can construct the isomorphism coordinate wise
You can, I guess you can also just show that K and the image don't intersect and so on, but I guess that would be reproving most of the splitting lemma
me too
Yeah
If HL = {hl | h in H and l in L}, then you usually wouldn't have HL be a subgroup
I’m think this is true but I’m not 100% sure off the top of my head, I would need to check. I know it’s certainly true if they intersect trivially but I’d need to think about non trivial intersections
Second iso assumes normality of one of the groups
That never happens if they're sylow subgroups
Unless H=L
Alright, then sure. If H normalizes L, then
HL/L = H/HnL is an isomorphism of groups
So yeah HL will have size |L| times a power of p
mq
Looks good
man, i took 1.5 hr to prove splitting lemma 
ooh this looks interesting
crazy
so f is monic and g is epic, right?
yes
and also ker(g) = im(f)
should i send my arguments to verify?
mhm, sure
yes
then i have to write a lot
i will send it later
i will try to write in latex
yea i quite enjoyed learning about split exact sequences
its nice
i looove split exact sequences
Oh, sorry I did mistake actually b,c are from G',
what is your doubt ?
Idk How to prove it . Even How start
that remark is so ahh
First prove this:
φ(a) = φ(b) <=> φ(ab^-1) = e
If is showing that kernel is trivial subgroup iff HOM... IS INJECTION
this is a standard fact
look at it closely
read it carefully
Yeah next question is about showing that phi is isomorphism if oder Domain group is prime number or target is trivial group
I did mistake in typo on Q. b,c are from Target not domain
So now I should start with onto on if |G| is prime , they already said it is injection, but idk how to show |G| being prime number does led to PHI IS ISO... or G' as just indentity
i am not used to Nakayamas lemma, can you tell me how can i use it here, and there are many version of it, i don't know how to use it
Say you take some prime p then localizing at p you have
(R_p)^n = K_p (+) (R_p)^n
so moding out by p you get that
K_p/(pK_p) = 0
then Nakayamas lemma say K_p = 0.
Then K_p = 0 for all primes means K=0
when in doubt, nakayama's always works
One of the 50 versions will apply
I feel like I've only really seen / used two versions.
The one that also works in the noncommutative case, and the one you need to reach for when proving something for commutative rings that's not true in the noncommutative case
ah localization, i have to learn about it
and this exercise also show that any subset of M which spans M and it has cardinality as rank of M then that subset is basis, when R is commutative
you've been focusing more on group theory for a while right
yes
ive been the opposite
focused on commutative algebra and now i kinda barely know group theory unfortunately
i havent had to think about groups much for a while
i never took a proper class in group theory
that's funny
, now i want to understand module theory and i think i need commutative algebra too
Can always look at G-modules if you're missing some groups in your life
(you're life being modules)
idk why i barely ever seen artinian rings jagr
Yes
Kiand, what book do you used for commutative algebra?
atiyah macdonald is very good
think about what could happen if you had some ideal in a field K
yeah
yeah good job
because any ideal would have 1
btw this also implies something about any homomorphism of fields f: K -> F
yeah
would be the same definition anyway because there is the same underlying operations u are working with
consider the kernel of f
im just asking you to think about the kernel if you had a homomorphism f: K -> F
there is something u can observe about it
If A is a 2-(krull)dim k-algebra generated by two elements is A=k[x,y] (polynomial ring)?
based on u saying that a field can only have 0 or itself as ideals
the fact im talking about is also pretty easy to see directly tho fyi
ideals map to ideals in the image

yeah nice
so what does that mean about the kinds of maps you could have?
yeah
thats kinda neat right
np
Bump
some recs:
atiyah-macdonald(standard recommendation)
altman (it has solutions)
eisenbud
(but this book is too long and i dont think it is not good for doing introductory stuffs)
Any commutative k-algebra generated by two things is a quotient of k[x, y]. So yes
how do u see that jagr
How does it follow from that?
Does a quotient must reduce the dimension?
probably correspondence theorem for ideals idk
The dimension is just the length of a chain of prime ideals
If you mod out by a non-zero ideal, then you can no longer have (0) in that chain, so it won't be maximal
Oh nice
i dont get it
The primes of R/I are the primes of R that contain I.
Now say I <= p0 < p1 < p2 is such a chain, then
(0) < p0 < p1 < p2 would be a chain of length 3
Which doesn't happen if R = k[x, y] has dimension 2
Thanks
Ring inside Ring
What about Matsumura, pardon me if I wrote wrong spelling
I dont think thats a good intro book personally
You also want 1 in the subring to be the same as 1 in the superring
Matrices with entries in Q?
You could classify the ideals...
I should try that question too tbh
There is an easier way though. One that uses linear algebra.
||You can show that it's a finite dimensional vector space over Q, and that||
||any ideal is also a vector subspace||
Can't we define determinants for matrices over non-commutative rings?
Probably
You might be able to define them, but they don't really have any nice properties. Won't be multiplicative and so on
Strictly speaking I don't see why not (since the determinant is just a polynomial), but I'm not sure if the nice properties would carry over
Damn sniped
Defining polynomials over noncommutative rings is already pretty fishy
Interesting
Why can't you just define it the normal way as you would for commutative rings?
Well what is "the normal way"?
I mean for commutative rings you just write them as sums of the monomials
I was thinking maybe something with evaluation map goes bad
Yeah, so if your base is a commutative ring (I guess Z would be natural here) you can define the free algebra
Z<x1, x2, ...>
which would be a non-commutative polynomial ring
Ohh I see
Someone was just asking about that earlier today lol
But then it begs the question, what is the determinant of
[a, b]
[c, d]
?
Is it ad - bc, or da - cb, or maybe ad - cb, or ad + ab - ba + cd - dc - cb, or something else
I was thinking one could just fix an order, say ad-bc
Yeah you can do that. Like that is a well defined function
Noo-ter (roughly)
Closer to the i in bird, than the oo in zoo I'd say
Yeah this is why I went with roughly I’m not sure exactly how I’d transcribe it using only English sounds (and I have a pretty strong accent which kinda makes it harder for me to transcribe phonetically in the first place)
Most people in English tend to just call her No-ther or No-ter in my experience though, but that is strictly speaking wrong
Either way, best is to just look up a sound clip. But it's fun to come up with sounds that sound like other sounds
Or learn the IPA, everyone needs a hobby
My book uses the notation x^g to mean conjugation by g, that is g-1 x g. Not quite sure where to start here for (a).
Something like this perhaps?
x^sigma here means sigma(x)
oh, so not the conjugation then?
no because sigma isn't an element of G
it's an automorphism of G
so it's a function acting on elements of G
oh right okay
If thats the case why does the author write it as a power and not just sigma(x)
just a matter of style?
it's more compact
idk it's a thing that's popular in algebra for some reason
anyways yes this is a good starting point
just remember that if xyx^-1y^-1 = e for every x,y then G is abelian
this is basically the solution lol
We need some sort of international group theory convention to decide on official notation because why does everyone and their mother do something differently
Probably so it's consistent with writing x^g for conjugation
obXkcd: https://xkcd.com/927
thanks guys
subset of a ring that contains 0, 1 and is closed under all the operations
Are there any nice results which use subrings (under the correct definition of a ring) other than the noncommutative hilberts basis theorem? I don’t think I know any others off the top of my head
Like subrings just dont seem to come up much (unless you’re a heathen)
I should review the proof for hilbert basis thm
Was thinking abt that the other day
Ik u gotta knock down degrees or smth
What's the nc hilbert basis theorem?
That an Ore extension is Noetherian?
Does that use subrings in any specific way?
That’s the one I’m referring to anyway, we called it the NC basis theorem in my course but maybe it’s not generally known as that
Well, the name makes sense I guess
I was thinking about this today too, my comalg is rather rusty, I’m kinda vague on the proofs of the NSS and basis theorem which is not ideal
It’s a nice result, a few things to check but rather handy. But I think that’s the only theorem that, off the top of my head, I remember using subrings
But anyway, something like if S is an integral extension of R, then they have the same Krull dimension.
Does that count as using subrings?
Oh that’s true actually I kinda forgot about integral extensions and stuff being about subrings
And I guess in a similar vein, localisation and stuff actually cares somewhat about subrings
Why localization? I guess localization is exact so that says something about how it interacts with subrings
If you localize at a regular set, then R is a subring of S^-1R
One that has no zero divisors?
sorry to butt in to these but i am interested @rocky cloak what localization r you thinking about ? i know it from a geometric sense like equi localization on some rings
but in this part thm i confused
If S is a multiplicatively closed set in R, then S^-1R has as elements r/s with r in R and s in S, such that rt/st = r/s for t in S
In commutative algebra and algebraic geometry, localization is a formal way to introduce the "denominators" to a given ring or module. That is, it introduces a new ring/module out of an existing ring/module R, so that it consists of fractions
m
s
,
...
I guess when you’re localising you’re really dealing with over rings as opposed to sub rings but that’s just a matter of perspective
Meant to say modules over rings?
No, if A is a subring of B then B is an overring of A
No, "over-" as the opposite as "sub-". In analogy to sets we might call them super-rings (but that comes with its own risks of ambiguity). It's most usual to speak of them in the language of unital algebras, I think.
i just have a diff def of localization in my head fr derived sheave on CY complex @rocky cloak but i think i need to learn more algebra 🙂
How u learning about sheaves without algebra
@tardy hedge i know algebra lol
My bad
i was wondering about the discussion about localization and the nc theorem
The point was that there's a difference in perspective between starting with a larger object and asking what its subobjects are (as is common, e.g. for groups and modules), and starting with the smaller object and asking how to make a larger object that it can embed in.
If you have some ring (it may have to be a domain I’ve only studied localisation for domains) A and some multiplicative set S then a left ring of fractions for A is an over ring B with some conditions so that it looks like a ring of fractions
The latter is the perspective of localization.
I see, thanks
In practice tho localization is more used to exploit the properties of its ideals right
How does one know if property P is a local property?
Or how would you intuit it
I’ll be honest I learned both commutative algebra and algebraic geometry from non com ring theorists, I actually know more about non com localisation than I do about “normal” localisation and I have pretty much no intuition for it
That’s roughly the extent of my understanding of it as well
For A is 0 iff Ap is 0 i guess there you notice that the property of an element being 0 is reflected in an ideal ann(x)
Bc if ann(x) is R then x must be 0
Yeah i guess if any property is somehow reflected in ideals its good
Because a prime ideal always contains such and such
I mention this because the comalg class did essentially nothing with it because, and I quote “I don’t really like geometry or commutative rings, and this is really only useful there”
Lol
That lecturer was insane, lovely and incredibly talented, but truly terrible to take a class was
tangentially related to this topic, subalgebras behave in general a lot less nice than quotients
for example, every collection of algebras can be some quotient of a bigger algebra, but not every collection of algebras can be simultaneously embedded into another algebra
congruences are in general also just way nicer objects than subalgebras
Does UA have any utility in other areas of math
its big in constraint satisfaction problems
I have a doubt
other than that you can convince yourself operads are an instance of UA
I don't see how det( delta \phi - a_ij) annihilates each x_i, I am not sure what is det( delta \phi - a_ij)
An infamous passage
Hmmm, thinking aloud here: Formally it looks a lot like the entries of tI-A from linear algebra, whose determinant is (up to sign conventions) the characteristic polynomial. Instead of t we have the endomorphism phi, and the a_ij are also the coefficients of phi in matrix form ... hmm, this smells like some Cayley-Hamilton analogue.
Indeed it is precisely a form of Cayley-Hamilton
Though actually I would view this more as a nice proof of Cayley-Hamilton
it's probably more obvious if you write it out as a vector lol, as in you have
[ (\phi\text{Id}n - A) \begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ \vdots \ v_n \end{pmatrix} = 0]
where $A = [a{ij}]$
anamono
As for "what is the determinant": It must be a determinant of a matrix over the subring of the endomorphism ring generated by phi . Subrings with a single generator are and multiples of I, which is always commutative, so speaking of determinants is meaningful and (delta_ij phi - a_ij) is the expression for entry i,j of the matrix whose determinant you're taking.
The point is this: firstly, given a matrix $M$ over any commutative ring $R$, there's a matrix $\mathrm{adj}(M)$ such that $\mathrm{adj}(M) M = \det(M) I$. Now the point here is that given a a module $M$ over $A$ with an endomorphism $\phi$, you can view $M$ as a module over $A[t]$ (via like $t.m \coloneq \phi(m)$. Now you can make sense of the matrix $(\delta_{ij} t - a_{ij})$ with coefficients in $A[t]$ and run the previous sentence for that matrix
Equivalently you can just do subring as Troposphere says. I find this a little more universal
Prismatic Potato
I think what I said might be nonsense, since the subring in question must be generated not just by phi, but by phi and \mathfrak{a}, and I'm not immediately sure how obvious it is that this would be commutative.
phi is A-linear so it should be fine
Oh, wait, \mathfrak{a} here means scalar multiples of I (which are central anyway), so it's okay.
(I have seen this written up precisely as you said btw troposphere, to give you confidence aha)
This seems a sort of famous passage cause (1) it's quite early on in Atiyah-Macdonald, (2) it's used in the proof of Nakayama, which is super important, and (3) it is quite terse lol
Sorry but I don't get it, i understand that we can make M as A[t]-module.
What I am thinking, if B is matrix representation of \phi, then if we can show det(tI-B) = 0 then we are done.
How (I\phi -A) is it valid here?
Oh here we are taking entries in matrix from A[t]
i'm just writing out what they're doing as a matrix
which will hopefully make it a little more clear
so you have
[ (\text{Id}_n\phi - A) \begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ \vdots \ v_n \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \ \vdots \ 0 \end{pmatrix}, ]
multiplying both sides by the adjugate matrix of $(\text{Id}_n\phi - A$), as potato mentioned above, gives you
[ \det(\text{Id}_n\phi - A) \begin{pmatrix} v_1 \ \vdots \ v_n \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \ \vdots \ 0 \end{pmatrix} ]
anamono
Expanding the determinant, you'll get the desired form (you can try it out for n=2 if you'd like)
(To be precise, multiplying by the adjugate matrix gives you the n x n diagonal matrix whose entries are det(Id \phi - A), from which you get det(Id \phi - A)x_i = 0 for each i. But that gets you the same thing as above)
Oh sorry replace v_i with x_i
Now i got it
So, take A[t] then (It - A) acts on M^n, and then (It-A) is a matrix in A[t] such that (It-A)x = 0.
So det(It-A)I x = 0.
But det(It-A)I x gives det(It-A)x_i = 0 for all i.
Therefore when we expand det(It-A) and act on x_i it gives 0.
Is it correct?
If there is any mistake then please let me know
Yeah looks right
look at where x and y are sent via the homomorphism
tbh it's a good idea to count how many elements the target ring has
and then look at where x and y can be sent
no
a direct sum would be a new module of tuples where the operations/actions are element wise
I think mq is referring to internal direct sums
these would be isomorphic
yes they should but i mean they have different representitives
Nigerian rings 🇳🇬
You only need to prove it’s true for the sum of 2 rings if that helps
I can help you more if you’re still stuck but it’s generally true that if R = S+T and I is an ideal of R then I is of the form J+K for J an ideal of S and K an ideal of T
It is straightforward to show that btw, you don’t need to come up with too much
Let $R = R_1 \times R_2 \times \cdots \times R_n$ be a finite direct product of rings, and let $A \subseteq R$ be a left ideal. For each $i$, define $e^{(i)} = (0, \ldots, 1, \ldots, 0) \in R$, where $1$ is in the $i$-th component and zeros elsewhere these $e^{(i)}$ are idempotent elements that act as projections so for any $a = (a_1, \ldots, a_n) \in A$, we have $e^{(i)} \cdot a = (0, \ldots, a_i, \ldots, 0) \in A$ by ideal closure under left multiplication this shows you that $A$ contains each component vector of any of its elements and Since $A$ is also closed under addition it must contain all finite sums of such vectors, i.e., $A = A_1 \times \cdots \times A_n$, where $A_i = { a_i \in R_i \mid \exists a \in A \text{ with } a = (a_1, \ldots, a_n) }$. One can check that each $A_i$ is a left ideal in $R_i$, so every left ideal of $R$ is a product of left ideals in the $R_i$
Yuxuan Wang (Trusted By Mods ®)
This is true but I think harder than it needs to be, if you just prove it for R+S the rest follows by induction and the proof is much more clear
I guess, yuxan has gave the proof above
I guess worth noting that a submodule of M1(+)M2 need not be of the form N1(+)N2 with Ni a submodule of Mi.
While for rings the ideals of RxS are of the form IxJ.
funny that they use the notation of direct sums for this
Ts? Pmo.
It's bad fr
It’s not technically a direct product, the co product in ring is the tensor product
it also doesn't really "sum" anything
It’s actually just a direct sum of abelian groups with a suitable ring multiplication iirc
But uh don’t quote me on that part
yeah sure but algebraically we care about the fact that its a product
i mean yeah lol, but thats just because Ab has biproducts
for nonabelian groups i can still somewhat stand by the notation to denote the group of sequences of elements with finite support, i.e. finite nunber of nonzero elements, but this does not form a subring in the infinite case
I personally am of the opinion that if it walks like a direct sum and quacks like a direct sum slap an \oplus on it so I’m happy enough to use that notation but yeah I guess it is worth bearing in mind that it’s not quite the same thing
but it doesnt walk or quack like a direct sum, there is no (guaranteed) embedding of R into R × S
(... when rings are unital, at least)
Yeah I was about to suggest sandwiching it in an exact sequence before realizing we weren't in R-Mod so I think it's genuinely bad notation
Ok yeah that’s fair, but as far as the context in which it was being used, I.e. for looking at its ideals, it’s close enough that I’m not personally bothered, but I do see that it’s not great notation
(So always…)
in the context of ideals we are treating them as rings
The most convincing argument might be that is does walk and quack like a product, so why not talk about them like that.
Ts? Pmo. It ain’t a biproduct it’s a product. Use \times
I literally just went to a pond and saw it. It was honking like a goose
Alright fair enough, I’ll concede it’s just irredeemable notation
🤝
So I'm trying to show this right, and I thought of a solution already and written it. But I thought of another solution like this, but kinda skeptical about it. Does this idea perhaps work?
So essentially I'm trying to create like this homomorphism (of course I'll have to show that pi is a homomorphism) then use the 1st isomorphism theorem.
hmm
on the level of sets this almost works
the only thing that you need is that equivalence classes of ker pi are all the same size
you could still invoke the first iso theorem actually, just a little differently
yea, this is what i am alluding to
but like
the issue is that equivalence classes in the kernel may not be the same size
so the division statement doesn’t follow immediately
hmmm
it shouldn't be too hard to prove that, if f : X -> Y is a map of G-sets, then G permutes the fibres of f
i.e. all the fibres of elements of connected components in Y must be the same size
and, as phi(G)/phi(H) is acted on transitively by G (using the action induced by that on G/H), then every fibre of pi, and thus equivalence class of ker pi, must be the same size
seems a little involved though lol
connected components in Y?
i can see the reasoning there lol
Im a geometer at heart..
would not have guessed it haha
can't tell if that's ironic lol
i just meant because we only really interact in this channel and the advanced algebra channel lol
well I'm learning about AG rn and have done some work in universal AG and generally enjoyed that a lot more than just the dry algebra
also tame congruence theory has somewhat geometric interpretations
sweet
and ofc quandles
AG.
do you mean: equational logic of classes closed under embeddings?
I hate to break it to you, but nothing you do is actually geometry. You can't just say "oh this latin square is actually a curve in quandle space" and call it geometry
i have been reading it as quandale this whole time
😔 I've been got
I should pack it up tbh
Dingle
G is finite
So you can literally pick a (proper) subgroup of largest order
bingle bongle dingla dangle
yickety do yickety da tippy tappy too ta
ooh i see okay thanks
Am I the only one disliking < here to mean strict subgroup? So confusing, I read it as "let H be a subgroup of G" 
No I mean then you would do <= innit
I guess it is already subsumed in the "maximal subgroup" part
Could just use subset symbols though smh
Or just "if H \neq G"
No need to even introduce H either smh
yeah
on the contrary, I hate when people use $\subset$ or < to denote non strict inclusion
Blake
< for strict comparison is alright imo, the rest is eh
Using $\subseteq$ for subset and $\subset$ for strict subset is so natural
Blake
They are precisely the connected components of the action groupoid, so that fits!
nah that's even more demonic arguably, because < is always strict with numbers
🙏
Unfortunately because some people don’t realise this is objectively correct, I usually use $\subseteq, \subsetneq$
mico
I used to do \subseteq but then I noticed no one cares
I honestly don't really like how \subset looks often in combination with letters such as C and then also using \cup
everything is too round
\subset sucks because one author will mean strict containment and another won't
I just changed all instances of \subset to \subseteq in what im working on and it looks much better

What is the endomorphism ring of ℤ/pℤ (+) ℤ/pℤ (+) ℤ/p^2ℤ (or more generally any finite abelian p-group)?
Hmm, one general strategy would be to consider the group as a subgroup of (Z/nZ)^m where m is the number of factors, and n is the highest power of p that appears among the orders -- namely, in each factor allow only elements from the subgroup of the appropriate summand. Then an endomorphism can be expressed as a an m×m matrix over Z/nZ with some conditions of the off-diagonal elements to ensure that each generator maps to something that's actually allowed in the other summands.
In the concrete example, I think we'd be looking at 3×3 matrices with entires in Z/p²Z
( a b c )
( d e f )
( g h i )
with the condition that c and f must be multiples of p.
Hmm, but then we need to quotient out matrices where a,b,d,e,g,h differ by a multiple of p too. Oof, that's somewhat messy.
(At least "a,b,d,e,g,h are multiples of p, and c,f,i are zero" is actually a two-sided ideal of "c,f multiples of 3", so it makes sense to quotient them out).
OK, I got a pretty picture for this (or rather the case of nilpotent matrices, which replaces ℤ, p with k[x], x for k a field) which implies that the endomorphism ring has length 1^2 + 1^2 + 2^2 (and in general sum of squares of exponents of factors) as a ℤ-module, i.e., it has cardinality p^{that sum of squares}.
Yeah, I think this kind of thing is the way to go. Specifically I can see 3 methods: let M be the group with r factors, the largest exponent of p being k; then (i) view the group M as a subgroup of L := (ℤ/p^kℤ)^r (IG this rs a bit messy because there's no guarantee of endomorphism of the subgroup extending to the larger group) (ii) view M as a quotient of L, so that endomorphisms of M are endomorphisms of L preserving the kernel, up to homomorphisms from L into M (iii) basically specify by mapping ℤ/p^kℤ summands into M, ℤ/p^{k-1}ℤ summands into M[p^{k-1}] = sum of <=p^{k-1} summands, extending that ... and so on until we've extended to the whole thing. (The last is what I did.)
That was a long rambly paragraph but here's the picture of approach 3.
(This is where there are c summands with exponent 3, b-c summands with exponent 2, and a-b summands with exponent 1.)
Can I get some help on this? I think orbit-stabilizer theorem is involved somehow I’m not really sure
I’ve written down the definitions but I’m still kinda struggling to make the connection
you haven't used the fact that the action is transitive
hint: ||if (x,y) is in some orbit, the transitivtiy guarantees that we can WLOG set x=alpha||
Oh i see so like basically the first term of the ( , ) can be kept constant and we’re free to make some kind of bijection from the second term to the orbits on Omega by the stabilizer of alpha?
something like that, you sound like youre on the right track
got it thanks
You have a ring morphism R -> R_i which gives each R_i an R-module structure
R_i is a two-sided ideal of R_1 (+) ... (+) R_n, so yes.
or that
(both are the same module structure)
🤝
I think this is the way to go - it seems easier to get at the ring structure this way.
By multiplying and seeing.
What's your definition of the ring R_1 (+) ... (+) R_n?
Better find that out first, then.
here R is an outer direct sum
which is isomorphic to your definition
you can view each R_i as a submodule of R using an embedding
R is tuples of the form (r1, r2, ..., rn) where r_i in R_i
so you have an embedding r --> (0,....,0,r,0,....0)
yes multiplication and addition in R is done component-wise
oh. my. science. it's just like le heckin vector spaces
#uponthewitnessing
what are we talking about
Are you sure R1 (+) ... (+) Rn has not been equipped with a ring structure?
well, there's really no other way to make sense of the "Noetherian" bit right?
TBH that should be specified by the question (or previous definitions), not by us.
surely it's not Noetherian as an abelian group, and it carries no natural module structure from any of its direct factors
I thought we solved this yesterday
yeah but it is what it is
we did lol
Correct, so if there's no ring structure given, the question is underspecified.
again I pledge, they shouldn't've fucking used the direct sum notation 😭
wdym "ideal method", this is a question about ideals
how
This was how my non com class did this
At least for the ideal structure stuff, I share this because my class also used the illegal notation
??? genuinely confused why they call it the direct sum

It is particularly confusing because that lecturers work is quite categorical so she definitely knows lol
I guess she maybe just wanted to avoid any in-depth discussion of products etc
why are you always cooked before exams do you have exams like every other week
diabolical to call that a direct sum when the natural inclusion maps are not unital homomorphisms
bro's slowly cooking at low temperature for the midterms in a month
bro getting sous vided
yeah that's my main gripe lol
"ermmmm the unit must be preserved because uhhh ermm uhh"
because else it wouldn't be a ring homomorphism, it would be a rng homomorphism
you said ring twice
you mean it would be a ring homomorphism, not a unital ring homomorphism
do not ever talk to me again 💔
even if you only care about nonunital rings isn't the coproduct still the tensor product
actually maybe u don't have one
for commutative rings I can imagine the direct sum still being the free product
no all categories of algebraic structures are complete and cocomplete
ah okay
enpeace 🎵
Or like nonunital rings are equivalently augmented rings ig so it is all chill
My intro to ring theory class didn’t require ring homomorphisms to be unital, much to the annoyance of literally everyone involved
all rings are unital
I'll find out what our convention here is next quarter lol
I agree, we also used that definition in the course, they just didn’t make homomorphisms map 1 to 1
what's even the point then 😭
Edinburgh could be good, I think you’ll be in the new curriculum as well which will be even better
Genuinely no one knew, the lecturer didn’t write the notes and he literally said it’s incredibly stupid please just ignore that and take care when they talk about homomorphisms, I will always require them to be unital
It’s not that cold, Edinburgh is very mild relative to the rest of Scotland, you’re in Sweden are you not? That’ll be colder
But yeah it’s not cheap
Very good
It was 16th in the world when I started, I think it’s slipped a bit now but it’s still top 50 for sure
For maths specifically it’s also very good, lots of very good algebraists and people in PDEs
The system for bachelors thesis at Edinburgh is a little odd but you will get a supervisor assuming you get to do one
big up edinburgh
If it’s required and they’re paired them I assume you are allowed but the system is weird
You either choose to do a 20 ECTS (but credits at Edinburgh are essentially meaningless) thesis on your own at a masters level OR you do a 10 credit UG level thesis in a group of up to 5
You also, unless you organise something in advance specially for you, choose 5 options from a big list of pre proposed projects and then it goes to a ranked choice lottery
Most people get their first choice, but like one or two people get one that wasn’t even in their options
group thesis is interesting
Nah edi is genuinely one of the like 3 places worth living in the UK
Yeah it’s an odd one, but you can all do entirely separate stuff and just stitch it together, that’s what I did
Yeah I mean you’ll need to speak to your people at your uni. As I said credits at Edinburgh are literally meaningless, but you can do a 10 or a 20 credit final project
I would recommend doing the 20 credit
Manchester and London
NEWCASTLE UPONNN TYNEEEE NUMBER 111
Ooh look at us we have 17 bridges and shit beer
wonderwaaallllll
the beer is dog shit but the city is great
saying "london" is absolutely fuckin mental btw
You’re watching too much right wing news, London is the most gentrified place in the world, it’s chill
sounds like you just said the city is shit
it's half a step away from birmingham
if the beer isn't good what am i supposed to drink?
technically it's ale not beer
unlivable
Isn’t there a Greggs pub now, that’s sorta redeeming
yeah there is
oh wow ale so classy omg
people in tokyo
London is huge though, like it’s not all that dense relatively speaking
Which is a style of beer, smh you’re not making the case of Newcastle
yep xD
We’ve got like 90 Wetherspoons per capita just simmer down
reese?
You make me sick
That’s actually an incredible stat, that does kinda sell me on Newcastle a bit
Leicester is really the odd one out there
Yeah I mean oxfords just kinda a town, no real reason to be there if not for the uni
Leicester is a dump
It’s in the midlands, that goes without saying
thanks
Warwick could offer me 50k a year to stay and do my PhD and I’d turn it down
Bruh
If they offered me 50k i'd transfer very quickly
Ts is a lie
Have you been to the West Midlands
Warwick is uncomfortably close to Birmingham but it’s just far enough
And they’re no longer there for a good reason
Offend potato speedrun jk
Place is wank
Hate it here
I stand by Edinburgh Manchester London as being the only places worth living in the UK
Maybe Cambridge if you’re at uni
Actually revolting take
London is class im sorry, it’s maybe massively over priced but it’s not at all bad
Everything you could want there, and top tier public transport
Huh wonder if that’s because they’ve been siphoning money from the rest of the country since 1947
I didn’t say the reasons for it being good are also good, the UK being entirely reliant on one city is like a super not good idea, but unfortunately it does mean it’s significantly less shit than the rest of this dump