#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 347 of 1
sorry I'm having trouble understanding the meaning of that
so basically that means like
every element in that subgroup satisfies that relation?
but then using that notation is a bit misleading tho isnt it
The point is that for a,b in G this product "measures" how close a,b are to commuting. If its trivial, they commute.
When you quotient by G' which is generated by all such products, in the quotient group G/G' all such products are trivial and hence this quotient grouo is abelian.
ok great
so just to make sure, im not supposed to read $<aba^{-1}b^{-1}>$ as the cyclic subgroup generated by $aba^{-1}b^{-1}$
lifelong dumbass
but rather
Not cyclic, its generated by all product aba-1b-1
Oh i read your message wrong
the subgroup containing all elements $g$ such that $g=aba^{-1}b^{-1}$ for some $a,b \in G$
lifelong dumbass
Not quite
This is not a subgroup
So you take the generated subgroup of that
the generated subgroup?
sorry whats the difference
oh wait you mean
the subgroup generated by these elements
is that what you mean?
Yeah
Its the smallest subgroup that contains all of them
can someone help me with q21 and 24
for 21, assume the direct sum of Ri has a unity, can you build a unity for R1?
for 24, if u_i is a unit in R_i then (u_1, u_2, ..., u_n) is a unit in the direct sum of R_i.
What book is that from
gallian
i don't understand ab = pk part
Well what does it mean for some number to be zero modulo p?
multiple of p
Exactly
I remember asking for help in this channel like 5 or 6 months ago for help to understand something, it was for a very important presentation i needed for my exams. Turns out i got a really good grade and got the uni i wanted which allows me to continue to do maths in the future. So i want to say a very big thank you to the people who helped me then
if i hadn't got that good of a grade on this project i wouldn't be where i am rn 
It might seem like nothing but it really helped me
This?
Then np, and @south patrol thx too
that's amazing!
great job to you too
K is the kernel of B(x)M -> B(x)N
(This is just the definition of exactness)
You want to use that tensoring with C if faithful
Let $h: M \to N$ be a monomorphism of $A$-modules. Let $M' = \ker(M \otimes B \to N \otimes B)$. Since $C$ is flat over $A$, the following sequence is exact:
[0 \to M' \otimes C \to (M \otimes B) \otimes C \to (N \otimes B) \otimes C]
Is this basically what you said?
okeyokay
So we want to show that (M (x) B) (x) C -> (N (x) B) (x) C is injective
Now M (x) B is a B-module so that M (x) B -> (M (x) B) (x) C is injective by assumption but I don't think this really tells us anything lol
This problem must be up there with the Riemann hypothesis
Is there a name for functions p on a vector space over a field k to k whose kernel is a vector subspace but are not linear?
For example let V=k[x,y,z]_2 be the vector space of two dimensional multivariate polynomials of total degree 2.
Let W=k^3. Then for each w in W define the function w:V->k by w(f)=f(w). Now w is not a linear functional on V but ker(w) is a linear subspace of V. I don’t know what I’d call such a thing, all I know is that w defines a hyperplane in V.
I don't really think there is a name for this - it seems quite a specialised notion cause you can just map any subspace to 0 and extend almost arbitrarily
for such a notion of a kernel we immediately just kinda need the function to be a homomorphism of abelian groups
unless you simply require the fiber of 0 (everything that gets sent to 0) to be a vector space
in that case, the notion isn't really, useful at all I can imagine
it corresponds to a choice of subspace U and a function f : V \ U -> W \ { 0 }
Lol
Oh wow false flag I am pretty sure this evaluation map is linear idk what I was thinking. Sorry for the confusion and thanks for the comments.
Idk why I thought this wasn’t a linear map
lol
its either a linear map, bilinear map, or youre doing algebraic geometry and its a regular map
all the others maps either dont appear or you try to not work with as much as possible
pro tip
Notice that M(x)B(x)C = M(x)C
is there a way for me to know if ive got all of them
If you give a proof that what you found is everything
Every homomorphism should depend on its value on some fixed generator
If by Z24 you mean cyclic of order 24
Are those supposed to be Z/24Z and Z/18Z?
i mean this
not this
i dont mean the quotient groups
So you mean cyclic groups okay
My intuition says if Hom_Grp(Z_24, Z_18) ~ Z then it checks out,
In other words if you can always find maps f: Z_24 → Z_18 for each integer then it is 100%
(or equivalently if it checks out as another group in GRP)
Revisiting this is kinda nostalgic lol
ok so it basically just depends on what i map $\phi (1) $ to (im letting $\phi$ be the homomorphism)
lifelong dumbass
because $\phi (k) $ = $k \phi(1)$
lifelong dumbass
so now
if i consider mod 18
ok so basically depending on my choice the possibilities are $\phi(1) =0, 1, 2 \cdots 17$
lifelong dumbass
in mod 18
✅
ok great thanks for the hint on generators
and using linearity
abstract algebra is lowkey kinda cool
its hard but like i just learned the isomorphism theorems and my brain i feel has expanded 3 times in size
i still kind of dont get it fully
They are all insanly useful
maybe its only because im still kinda new to algebra but the first isomorphism theorem is extremely useful
its also not too difficult to understand
basically its saying that if you have a surjective homomorphism from G to H, you can mod out the useless stuff from G to get an isomorphism to H
Which one is the third one for you?
Pretty much the only one that I’ve seen consistently numbered is the first
uh
the correspondence theorem
You can see the set of normal subgroups of G as a partially ordered set. This means that, for a normal subgroup N ⊂ G, there are normal subgroups N ⊂ M ⊂ G, which are "above" N. The correspondence theorem states that the normal subgroups of G above N correspond to the normal subgroups of G/N
my universal algebra book has this picture
(Con A here is a generalisation of the poset of normal subgroups)
θ is such a generalised nornal subgroup
this would mean that if N is maximal normal in G, then G/N is simple?
Is order of G p^n here?
exactly
if your group G is finite, then this process can be repeated to get a subnormal series
0 < N1 < N2 < ... < G
i.e Ni is normal in Ni+1, such that Ni+1 / Ni is simple. This is called a conposition series for G, and it turns out that each composition series has isomorphic factors
Jordan-Hölder my beloved
i gotta do more group theory
i was thinking about taking a course on it but it required grad alg 1 and 2 so i didnt think i was ready
it just seems really cool tho
What is Cl_H(A)?
use \;
Im not sure what this is, but I think you should look at elements in the center to get proper containment. The center will be nontrivial . This is what I would try:
||If there is an element of the center not in H, then you are done. Otherwise if H contains the center, pass to the quotient G/Z(G) where you know the corresponding subgroup of H will be properly contained in the normalizer by induction and then you can come back to G. ||
Allright, I don't completely see how you would use this to prove the exercise.
I can give you some hints for alternate approaches if you like though
What Herzog said would basically be my hint I guess.
And also ||the statement is true for nilpotent groups in general||
H is always contained in NG(H) though
That's just immediate from the definition
It is what makes the problem nontrivial, yes
anything algebra related is really cool
Not sure what you mean by that?
The idea is that simple groups don't have many normal subgroups
I know that, but what do you mean by kernel to subgroup is always 1
Kernel of what?
Which map?
Yes it involves an idea like this but you need to be more specific
This works yes
You don't need to compute the kernel. It will be trivial like you said. So the map G --> S_G/H is an injection which is what you want
I personally would use the two interchangeably, so it's no problem for me
Any hint?
||x^-1 y can be written in the form hk||
Yes but I don't see any idea from this
So $H^x K^y = xHx^{-1} yKy^{-1} = xH h^{-1} x^{-1} y k^{-1} K y^{-1} = xHKy^-1$
Can you finish from there?
mico
Yes
Got it, thank you
I proved that \sigma X(h) ≥ 2 | H |, now how do I use it?
think about what elements in G could vanish on X
i.e. what elements are in the kernel of the action
Which are not in any conjugation of H
Kernel is H
Do we ever have cases where G \wr H (reduced wreath or full wreath) is mysteriously finitely generated even if H isn’t?
I may simply be stupid, but I meant H infinite but finitely generated
No, G \wr H is f.g. iff G and H are both f.g. See Theorem 1 here for a reference
I see I see, checks out
i have to prove using group actions that the stabilizer of i for i in {1,2,...,n} is a subgroup of Sn
what im thinking of doing is that having the group action be sigma * x = i for any x in {1,2,...,n}
so then the kernel of this group action is exactly the stabilizer
you know i had a question coming in but im pretty sure just saying this solved my own problem
I don't want a hint, I just want to know what I have to prove in part a?
what part of the question statement do you not understand
What does it mean by invariant under right multiplication by H, does that mean the coset Hg such that HgH = Hg
So the number of orbits of size 1 under group action restricted to H ?
Yes,
(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x)
I forgot addition exists ngl, I was multiplying
hey somewhat irrelvant but what are your opinions on judson
im going through it but im worried im not learning anything deep (as in im worried the problems are too easy as ive heard)
that even makes it a ring
sheaf of continuous functions 🙏
Is that true when G is not finite
I don't understand the counterexample given there
HgH = Hg
if and only if
gHg^-1 is a subset of H
But g is in NG(H) if and only if gHg^-1 is equal to H.
If H is infinite it can happen that gHg^-1 is a proper subset, witch would mean HgH = Hg without g being in NG(H). So you don't have this natural correspondence between elements of NG(H)/H and these cosets.
However it seems plausible to me that in the cases where this natural correspondence fails, both of these sets will be infinite, so then they will probably have the same size even though there's no natural correspondence between them
Okay
Does this work? Let $h: M \to N$ be a monomorphism of $A$-modules. Let $M' = \ker(M \otimes B \to N \otimes B)$. Since $C$ is flat over $A$, the following sequence is exact:
[0 \to M' \otimes C \to (M \otimes B) \otimes C \to (N \otimes B) \otimes C] Moreover, the following diagram commutes, where all vertical arrows are isomorphisms:
[
\begin{tikzcd}
&& {M \otimes C} & {N \otimes C} \
0 & {M' \otimes C} & {(M \otimes B) \otimes C} & {(N \otimes B) \otimes C}
\arrow["{h \otimes 1}", from=1-3, to=1-4]
\arrow[from=1-4, to=2-4]
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=2-2, to=2-3]
\arrow[from=2-3, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=2-3, to=2-4]
\end{tikzcd}
]
Since $h \otimes 1$ is injective, we see that $(M \otimes B) \otimes C \to (N \otimes B) \otimes C$ is injective. Therefore, $M' \otimes C = 0$, and since $C$ is faithfully flat over $A$, $M' = 0$, as desired.
okeyokay
I think maybe you need to label your tensor products if I'm to follow this.
From you're surrounding text it doesn't seem like you're tensoring over A vs B at appropriate times
Let $h: M \to N$ be a monomorphism of $A$-modules. Let $M' = \ker(M \otimes_A B \to N \otimes_A B)$. Since $C$ is flat over $A$, the following sequence is exact:
[0 \to M' \otimes_A C \to (M \otimes_A B) \otimes_A C \to (N \otimes_A B) \otimes_A C] Now,
$(M \otimes_A B) \otimes_A C \cong M \otimes_A (B \otimes_A C)$. Since $(B \otimes_A C)$ is a $B$-module (via $b'(b \otimes c) = bb' \otimes g(b) c$) we have
[M \otimes_A (B \otimes_A C) \cong M \otimes_A C] Similarly, $(N \otimes_A B) \otimes_A C \cong N \otimes_A C$. The following diagram commutes, where all vertical arrows are isomorphisms:
[
\begin{tikzcd}
&& {M \otimes_A C} & {N \otimes_A C} \
0 & {M' \otimes_A C} & {(M \otimes_A B) \otimes_A C} & {(N \otimes_A B) \otimes_A C}
\arrow["{h \otimes 1}", from=1-3, to=1-4]
\arrow[from=1-4, to=2-4]
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=2-2, to=2-3]
\arrow[from=2-3, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=2-3, to=2-4]
\end{tikzcd}
]
Since $h \otimes 1$ is injective, we see that $(M \otimes B) \otimes C \to (N \otimes B) \otimes C$ is injective. Therefore, $M' \otimes C = 0$, and since $C$ is faithfully flat over $A$, $M' = 0$, as desired.
okeyokay
Then I don't see why
M(x)B(x)C -> N.. would be injective, nor would it help since C is not assumed faithfully flat over A
So you can't guarantee M'(x)C = 0 implying M' being 0
A hint could be that
$M \otimes_A B \otimes_B C = M \otimes_A C$
Not jagr2808
Oh I thought that was the hint you gave me before
I mean, I guess it was. But you never used it
So yeah, I guess your proof is essentially what I had in mind except
$M \otimes_A B \otimes_A C = M \otimes_A C$ is not correct
Not jagr2808
You meant the way that I showed that is not correct?
What I'm trying to say is that it would be correct if you just switched which ring you're tensoring over at appropriate places
I think I've shown that i. implies ii and that ii implies iii but I'm struggling to show that iii implies i
working the algebra out component-wise I think I can show that the squares of the diagonal entries of A^TA sum to n, but I'm not sure how to show that they're all necessarily 1
(that is by taking v to be the vector with 1/sqrt(n) as each entry)
try taking v to be the unit vectors (0, ..., 1, ..., 0)
that is a fantastic idea wow. ok I'll try again
pro tip: matrices like unit vectors
yeah idk what I was thinking. I'll report back shortly 👍
good luck soldier o7
A trick that can come in handy is that v and w are orthogonal iff
|v + w|^2 = |v|^2 + |w|^2
ok thanks
pretty sure I got it! some messy algebra in this problem but I just needed to think of the obvious choice of vectors 😅
thanks!
hmm actually not quite. this argument shows that each diagonal entry of A^TA is 1, but not that the remaining entries are 0. in fact, I'm not sure any choice of vector will show that non-diagonal entries of A^TA are 0, since the only vector with norm 0 is the 0 vector. but when v is the 0 vector all terms in ||Av|| vanish anyway
are you sure? I'm talking about the entries in A^TA not A itself
Sorry, I misread what you wrote
actually I think I solved it, though
But yeah the other entries being 0 means the columns of A are orthogonal
So you want to show that A preserves orthogonality of vectors
I'm not sure exactly what you're getting at, but I think noting the diagonal entries as being 1 and choosing v = (1, ..., 1) proves that non-diagonals are 0
oh wait nvm, I actually think you get it from v being a vector 0 everywhere except 2 entries
Why is this line true? My original thought was that we have as x 1/s = a, but q is an ideal of A, not of S^{-1}A so this doesn't make sense
there's nothing being done in this line with localisation yet
by definition of primary, a*s in q implies a in q or s in q or s,a in sqrt{q} = p. As s is not in p, and therefore also not in q, a must be in q
primary ideals essentially say that in the quotient every zero-divisor is nilpotent, and as s isn't nilpotent in A/q (it isnt in p, the set of elements which would become nilpotent in A/q), it must be the case that a becomes 0 in A/q, i.e. is in q
hydrogen bomb vs coughing baby but you could use the fact that A^T A is diagonalizable from spectral theorem and show from 3 that the only possible eigenvalue of A^T A is 1
I'll think on that but we have not covered the spectral theorem, thanks for the idea though
valid lol
oh i do see a really straightforward way of doing this though
proving that i and ii are equivalent isn't difficult, i -> ii by some manipulation and ii -> i by choosing appropriate unit vectors
proving ii -> iii is also easy, that's just a special case
to prove iii -> ii, we know that for arbitrary v, w,
|A(v + w)| = |v + w|
which expands to
|Av|^2 + |Aw|^2 + 2<Av, Aw> = |v|^2 + |w|^2 + 2<v, w>
and iii simplifies this down to
<Av, Aw> = <v, w>
which is exactly ii
i guess in other words iii -> ii -> i -> iii might be a tiny bit more straightforward than i -> ii -> iii -> i
since i -> ii and i -> iii are kind of the same principle anyway
yes I actually thought about this briefly (not in detail) after proving i -> ii -> iii but I figured I'd be better off getting through it with the current route since I'm pretty short on time today
but I will probably return to this problem in the future
ITS BACK
the problem?? 😨
no it's just that mathcord was down for like half an hour for me
oh lol. not sure if mine was, I was in lecture
ok its not just me
ive been like periodically semi-banned and unbanned from this server for the past hour
its not just this one, it seems to be an issue with "official" discord servers
because the official obsidian server which im in experiences the same shutdown at the same time
some shits going down at discord HQ i assume
shit's boutta be on the news fr
the mods have had enough of you talking about quandles and universal algebra and stuff
it appears so
😔
I'm not really sure how to approach this problem
it's been a while since I did linear algebra as well, so I'm shaky on important results and intuition
what does a matrix of rotation of R^3 around l by theta look like?
what’s your definition of SO_3(R)
the subgroup of GL_3(R) consisting of n x n invertible matrices A with A^TA = Id and det(A) = 1
but we did prove these conditions were equivalent to that definition of orthogonality earlier in the problem set
since you know it’s elements are orthogonal (or unitary) operators, it’s eigenvalues must be roots of unity
a unitary matrix is one whose transpose is equal to its inverse, right? are orthogonal matrices necessarily unitary?
unitary is conjugate transpose = inverse. orthogonal is transpose = inverse, so orthogonal implies unitary
ah ok. I thought we could have A^TA = Id but AA^T != Id, since matrices don't generally commute with their transpose
Lol
THIS MAN AND HIS QUANDLES!!!
Matrices generally commute with their inverse though.
Quick question, \Omega denotes the set of algebraic integers, (roots of monic polynomials with integer coefficients). I don't see how this proof fails in the more general case of alpha being an algebraic number (roots of polynomials in Q[x]). Am I correct in thinking the result holds in the case where alpha is an algebraic number?
Yes, Q(alpha) = Q[alpha] iff alpha is algebraic
Awesome thanks : )
I showed that the group of order 30 is not simple, but I want to show that if G has order pqr, p < q < r, then r-Sylow subgroup is normal.
In general i showed that the group of order pqr is not simple
what can you say about the quotient group?
(suppose that we are quotienting by some p or q sylow subgroup for now)
Can we do that?
well how did you show that a group of order pqr was not simple
By counting argument
yes, you count the number of elements of each order right?
a corollary of the argument you used should be that G has to have a normal sylow subgroup
Yes
Yes
It has order pr
Cyclic, because p can't divide r-1
p < q < r
Oh
there is still something you can say about it
the r Sylow subgroup in quotient is normal
yes, now try and figure out the question from here :)
very good, think more about that
that is very close
this question is very hard to do without using the Sylow theorems, mq
you need all 3
I am thinking that subgroup must be abelian
not necessarily
Group of order qr, q < r, q Sylow subgroup is already normal
yes, but groups of order qr do not need to be abelian
unless q does not divide r-1, but that is still not necessarily the case
q is normal, r is normal
Isn't make sense?
How?
take any prime diherdral group
But then subgroup of order 2 is not normal there
But why do you think it is not true
Group of order 2 is not normal
wait, what do you mean by this
Say G has order qr, where q < r and q has normal subgroup.
Now take H be normal subgroup of order q and K be normal subgroup of order r.
Now H commutes with K, so G = HK is abelian group
why are you sure H and K exist
can I see your sylow proof?
G has order qr, right?
Now i assumed G has q-Sylow subgroup which is normal, say H
Now by Sylow we have existence of r-sylow subgroup
Say K
K is normal, right?
okay, that is fine, but why did you assume G has a normal sylow q subgroup
Here, we have q Sylow subgroup which is normal so that will be normal in subgroup too
sorry, I do not understand what you have done here
can you pretend I did not hear anything just now and repeat all the steps that leads to this
Forgot it 
Now I have subgroup which have order qr and it is normal in G
Any further hint?
I am thinking that subgroup will be abelian
it's the same issue with the quotient group
if you do not tell me that q does not divide r-1, then it can be nonabelian
Okay
Simply say, H is subgroup of order q, K is subgroup of order r
We know H is normal in G
So HK makes subgroup of order qr
Which has index p
Which is smallest divisor of | G |
So HK normal in G
Now H is normal in G, H is normal in HK
okay, that's an alternate proof to show why G has a normal subgroup of order pr
so what next
So HK is abelian, right?
Oh K is normal in HK
HK cyclic
So every subgroup must be normal in G
So K is normal in G
Every subgroup of HK
okay, I see what you do there
I think this works, not the proof i had in mind but I think this works
Thanks @velvet hull
here was what I was thinking - any group of order pr has a unique sylow subgroup of order r.
but normal sylow subgroups are characteristic, so r char in pr, pr normal in G implies r normal in G
I see
Normal Sylow subgroups are characteristic is the main thing, yeah great
Can we prove that every group of order p^m q^n, is not simple, m,n≥1? Without using any advanced tool? I don't want a solution
you're thinking of burnside's theorem, which has a very nontrivial proof
but it is true
in fact groups of order p^mq^n are solvable
professor has not introduced about solvable yet
Yup
Yes
Every element generates some subgroup, then Lagrange implies subgroups are either trivial or the whole group
The first proof found used representation theory if I remember correctly
yee
Oh I don't know the representation proof
Any other hint?
it's an advanced proof that's beyond me
And also iirc there are known proofs without, but they were found much later?
Either that, or they don’t exist
Burnside’s theorem and “Frobenius kernel is normal subgroup” both originally needed Rep theory, and I remember one still ‘needs’ it, and the other only had another proof found a long time after it was originally proven
A lot of algebra is motivated by number theory lol
naive number theory is 90% abstract algebra
you are essentially studying number theory right now
wilson's theorem and fermat's little theorem are easy group theory proofs
And then non-naive is 50% depending on whether you do analytic stuff or not 
What like "group theoretic" way do u have in mind
Yeah so I discovered this joke the hard way

lmao which one?
When googling
bc they're both p straightforward
Wilson
Aw shit
I came up with it yesterday
Fawk
It is funny!
product of all the elements of a finite abelian cyclic group is the identity iff the group is not isomorphic to Z/2Z
What about Z/4 (additively)? The sum is 1 + 2 + 3 + 0 = 2
oh, wait it should be cyclic
Yeah sure
if it's abelian it needs to be modified to talk about the set of 2-torsion elements
Fiber product is different I think
but you dont need that for wilson's anyway
The proof I know is quite funny. Consider the polynomials (x-1)...(x - (p-1)) and x^(p-1) - 1 over Fp. The difference is of degree < p-1 and has p-1 roots, so it is the zero polynomial. Now take constant coefficients
ahh, that's spicy
It's cute
with that proof you can modify to work for F_p^n
O nice
which is also cool
Yeah if you have no elements of order 2 you just pair up with inverses but then idk how it works with them
Like for a converse
It’s called product because it’s like the cartesian product
Anyway your statement doesnt sound like it should be true
To like avoid doubt like fibre product of maps A -f-> C <-g- B is the set of points (a,b) in A x B with f(a) = g(b)
the set of all order 2 elements in an abelian group is a subgroup
Yeah
who says your map satisfies f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
Lol been thinking about smth for a while and found a paper that does what I need
W
Only thing was I was like happy to nearly have it and then this guy has beasted me but that's very ok
that's how i feel about my fiber product joke
It was gonna be a remark that I like only sketched the proof of cause I never use it
conversely, my friend had a paper he wanted to read
Great way of doing it
but it was in french and it was old so chatgpt couldnt really translate it
Cause like I don't feel bad cause I never use it idk
so i said "okay i'll translate it" so i spent like 2-3 days putting it through chatgpt and other stuff and fixing errors and stuff
Dawg just read the French
he's an international student 😭 that guy dont know french
so i sent the translation to him
and he was like "ahhh this paper actually doesn't have what i need"
heartbreaking
No I mean like a lot of non-french-speakers read French math including me
LOL rip
😭
One time I had to translate a bit of a German paper for a friend but I am glad I didn't have to like translate the whole thing
anyway in case anyone ever needs it attached is my translation (Denef-Sargos.pdf) and the original (asdf.pdf)
fair enough
forgot about asdfmovie
wow
But nah I mean depends like if u don't have time etc
Just for AG a lot of important stuff is in French
unfortunately that is the case indeed
but french mathematicians have such an elegant way of writing
like serre is a great writer
there's some undergrad math club meeting tonight and i went to the one last time bc my phd friend presented some stuff
if i go to this one it'll be kinda a waste of time because i have stuff to study
I liked reading some of BOURBAKI ALGÈBRE
but also free pizza 🤤
at some point in time i would really like to read EGA or SGA
i know there's some incomplete english translations online
Go for free pizza
but i wanna read the french one
ye
Sectional when the retractional appears
but it was fun anyway
Valid
This conf has stuff that is not my area at all

conferences always got awesome snacks
like the morning snacks with the coffee and the afternoon snacks and stuff
Hopefully
i went to some utah conference last year and it had the best brownies ive ever had
How many has bro been to
traveled for 2, one was hosted at my school, and one is this small conference between my school and nearby schools
and then some undergrad symposium to present a poster
those 2 i traveled for were more like "i want to go kiss some ass and try to get a phd offer"
and it gave me an excuse to visit some friends who were nearby
Nicee
LOL
Posters scare me ngl so gg
actually not even "more like" it was purely to do that
like i had just "finished" chapter 1 of hartshorne (ie read it and pretended like i knew it and then realized i didnt know shit)
and i wanted to go kiss some ass
yea someone asked me a question and i was like "ummm idk actually"
"i just wrote what my advisor told me to write"
lesson learned, think about everything you put on a poster
i also finished the poster like 12 hours before my flight
And say proof is secret
true
my friend said that mohan kumar's papers are really short because he has some huge statement that he handwaves in a few sentences
and he said that each of those handwaved statements can be made into a whole paper
Let | G | = p^3q, we have to show G has normal sylow subgroup.
it is clear that if p > q, then p-sylow subgroup is normal.
Now, say p < q, so if i write n_p as number of sylow p subgroup, similiarly n_q, then by assumption there is no sylow normal subgroup, n_p should be q.
Now n_q has two choices p^2 or p^3.
Case 1 : Say n_q is p^2, that means q divides p^2 -1 , but since p < q implies q divides p +1, it is possible when p = 2, q = 3.
so now explore the group G which has order 24. Since G has subgroup of order 8 which has index 3, by group action we get non-trivial normal subgroup contained in H.
i have to think how can i handle this case. any hint?
case 2: then n_q is p^3 so p^3(q-1) + (p^3-1) + 1 = p^3q, but since n_p = q, so total elements in G will be more than p^3q
i think it is not necessary that if G has order 24, then G has normal sylow subgroup
say S4
lol
potato, can you verify one argument?
this one

root vegetable
capitalisation necessary
wait, why can't n_q be p
then q must have to be divide p -1
what's wrong with that
If p < q that would be hard
I mean, S4 does not have any normal sylow subgroups
Yes
I tried this problem last 30 minutes, and what I get, the tutor made a typo 🙂
i am in post graduation
maybe i don't understand what do you mean? In our school they assign phd students or post doc students as our tutor
wow, nice school
isn't common in other university?
wait, do you mean advisor
not advisor, advisor for phd students, right?
in our uni weve got TA's which are just 2nd/3rd years
i guess they arent direct tutors but during study groups you can ask them stuff
in phd 2nd year/ 3rd year?
exactly
so you are in bachelor?
probably in higher years youll get master students
first year, yes
are you kidding?
no? why
is it true that every group of order p^m q^n, m>=1, n>=1 is not simple?
you know lots of advance stuffs
and my knowledge and skills are severely lacking in other places lol
so it balances out
may i ask, in which school you are in?
okay
english people wouldnt be able to easily lol
it has a soft g
N-I-m wagen
the combination "me"
your mouth naturally makes a "w" sound as it transitions from the m to e
at least, when you pronounce it the dutch way
close enough
good job
not nice to live in
Nijmegen is much better
Is this pronunciation from wikipedia not correct? https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/transcoded/5/52/Nl-Nijmegen.ogg/Nl-Nijmegen.ogg.mp3 Or are there different dialects?
that sounds like an m-sound more than w to me 
but it also sounds like an alien, non-human language, so what do I know 
ah yeah it does there
how i pronounce it is with a very clear w sound though
maybe cuz im from Brabant?
everyone here is so european
in de schipol. straat op "gejorking het"
Lmao
It is true by burnsides theorem
It is indeed
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burnside's_theorem
Burnside's lemma is also funnily enough not due to burnside in any way
my favourite finite group is
"
G"
burnside's lemma, also know as "the lemma that is not burnside's"
Looks good to me
Idk what's in df, but there are a few different ways to prove this yeah
d&f does tend to be a yap fest lmao
pick the right map and it's a one-liner
bro when i discovered this i literally transcended. first iso is the only thing that requires any work
any hint to show group of order p^nq^m, n>= 1, m>= 1, is not simple, burnside lemma?
first iso is the only reason I learned group theory 
if by 4th iso you are referring to the correspondence theorem then you are simply wrong. that is a goated thm
dawg that shit is so useful. get it in ur veins
correspondence theorem tends to hold even more generally than first iso so imo it's even more goated
trust me its worth
I just rolled my eyes
eat ur vegetables
silly boy
did your parents never tell you that to grow strong and healthy you need to eat ur veggies
the 4th is just as easy to prove as the first I don't get it
I'm gonna stick with subgroups for this one but like. By quotienting out by some H you're collapsing everything under H to a point without touching anything above H
so there's an obvious correspondence there
like think about the posets given by inclusion of subgroups, then what I'm saying is literally what happens in that poset when you quotient
this tbh
like its not even anything fancy its just a lattice correspondence
not even the amount, but youve got maps between the subgroups of G containing N and the subgroups of G/N:
H ↦H/N
K ↦π^-1(K)
where π : G → G/N is the canonical projection, and the theorem says that these maps are inverses and preserver arbitrary intersections and joins
It's even a lattice isomorphism, right?
or, equivalently, they are isotone (bijective and X < Y implies f(X) < f(Y) )
thats what I meant haha
well the bijection respects inclusions
thats the real important part
and K < K' => π^-1(K) < π^-1(K')
?? π for projection
its really common
read
The map that sends g to its coset in G/H
Canonical just means it's the most "obvious map"
Hey sorry to interrupt, but i was curious if anyone knows any good tutors for group theory?
its canonical because its obvious and uniquely defined by the properties youd expect a quotient to have
You could have many more maps G -> G/N that aren't nice. For example the map sending everything to the identity always exists.
i.e. its the morphism satisfying the universal property of the quotient
just couldn't help urself could u
abstract nonsense is a formalisation of what we handwaved and called "obvious"
uh
familiarity with general algebra like groups, rings, vector spaces n stuff
and id recommend a good grasp on at least the basics of order theory
although there is a chapter on the necessary lattice theory in the book i used
so youll probably learn enough from there
hint - ||recall that the product of a normal subgroup and a subgroup is a subgroup||
@hushed granite
so
You can get C from R by adding 1 number
which number would that be
right
a square root of -1
If we want to be more agnostic about it, we can say that we are taking a root of x^2+1
The way to do this formally is to take a ring quotient of R[x] by the ideal generated by (x^2+1)
don't worry if you don't know what that is
basically it means we are introducing a variable and forcing the relation x^2=-1 on it
oki
Ok so now we can ask what kind of "symmetries" does C have as a field extension of R
in other words, we're looking for isomorphisms C->C which fix R in place
so this would be determined by where we send i
right?
to some degree yeah
this is an isomorphism as fields so it preserves addition, multiplication etc.
mhm
but for every x\in R, f(x)=x
so for a general element we have
f(a+bi) = f(a) + f(bi) = a+f(b)f(i)=a+bf(i)
so to understand this automorphism we only need to understand f(i)
mhm
f(i)=-i
yep
so the group of automorphisms, which is just the set of isomorphisms C->C fixing R pointwise is just two elements
so the group with 2 elements
call it {Id,f} where f o f = Id
this is the Galois Group of C/R
the / here isn't a quotient
what was f?
ok so now, the reason why polynomials in R factor as quadratics and roots
and then i'll say something about galois correspondence and then i'll go back to grading
If you have a polynomial p(x)=a_n x^n + ... + a_1x + a_0 with coefficients in R
suppose that z \in C is a root of this polynomial
so p(z)=0
but I can apply f to this number
what is f actually
you know it by a different name
meaning you can apply f(0)? or wdym
or f(z)
f(p(z))
yea
which is f(0)=0
what is f as a function
what does it do to a general complex number
.
with f(i) = -i
so it is the conjugation?
yea
exactly
so we get that f(p(z))=p(f(z))
because p has real coefficients
i.e. if z is a root of p, then so is its conjugate
yeah
and those give a quadratic polynomial in R
ok so now in general
you wanna study galois extensions
which are when you take a polynomial with distinct roots, then you take the smallest extension containing all of its roots
so for example, Q(sqrt(2)) is Galois
because it contains all of the roots of x^2-2
over Q
but Q(cbrt(2)) is not Galois
where cbrt is the cube root
because it does not contain all of the roots of x^3-2
there is one complex root
you still with me?
yeah
so essentially you try to make C "smaller" in a way to fit for your problem?
by wanting to achieve this
It's less of that and more of, when the polynomial has real coefficients, I can "descend" my splitting from C to R
oh
I misunderstood
It's just that you want just all the roots you need
and nothing more
well
it's just.. well.. big
because then something magical happens
o.O
So, if you havea galois extension K/F, i.e. you add all the roots of a separable (all distinct roots) polynomial f(x) with coefficients in F
then you can form the Galois group, which is the group of automorphisms of K/F. That is, isomorphisms K->K fixing F pointwise
like we did before
Galois theory ❤️
like we sent i to either itself or -i
we can move the roots around
and the ways we can do that in determine the structure of the galois group
So essentially we can wiggle around the roots, but the space doesn't budge too much?
Idk wjat you mean by space exactly
there's constraints on which roots can go where
when you get to higher degrees
Well the galois extensions gives me possible functions f:K->K, right?
but the thing is, the structure of this group tells you the structure of the field and vice versa
yea that preserve F
where i can wiggle around where my roots are being "placed"
and are homomorphisms
Subgroups of the Galois group are in one-to-one correspondence with subfields of K containing F
that's the magic
You can understand the lattice of subfields by studying the group, and udnerstand the group by studying the lattice of subfields
So essentially there exists a bijection?
like the degree of the field extension being equal to the index of the group
(and its even true in the infinite galois extension case using Krull Topology!)
right
and this can be used to even do explicit things
like there's constructability which is a nice example
and solvability of quintics
right, i'm getting to that
LET HIM COOK
do you know what a constructible number is?
no
so it's basically a number that can be constructed as a length via straightedge and compass constructions
so there's 2 constructions you can do
a line between 2 points
and a circle determined by 2 points
this is either a linear polynomial, or a quadratic one
so every step either adds a square root, or doesn't add anything
if we do a lot of these in a row, we get a tower of field extensions $F\subseteq F(\sqrt{a_1})\subseteq \sqrt F(\sqrt{a_1},\sqrt{a_2})\subseteq \cdots \subseteq F(\sqrt{a_1},\ldots,\sqrt{a_n})$
ShiN
and any number in one of these types of field extensions is constructible
hm
because (and this is a non-trivial fact) constructible numbers form a field
so the sum and product and quotient of constructible numbers is constructible
so, the degree of this extension (dimension as a vector space over F) is 2^n
assuming I threw out all the square roots that were already in the field
You can actually prove using this that if cos(2pi/p) is constructible, where p is a prime, then p is a fermat prime
i.e. of the form 2^k+1
the proof is a bit technical but it uses the the structure of the galois group to prove something about the degree
also think of cos(2pi/p) as the length of the side of an equilateral p-gon
The other cool thing is the abel-ruffini theorem, which states that you can't solve a degree 5 polynomial
using radicals
yea using radicals and regular operations
so the way the proof goes is you prove a polynomial is solvable by radicals iff its splitting field (adding all the roots) is a radical extension, i.e. you can make it using a tower of taking n-th roots
now you use a fact about the structure of such extensions, and the kinds of subfields it can have
together with a fact about the galois group of the splitting field of a specific degree 5 polynomial
the fact is that there's a polynomial with galois group S_5 which is not solvable
ok back to grading, hope you enjoyed this
sorry for being vague, I just didn't wanna dump a tonne of definitions on you
grading what
analsis
have you no dignity...
By the hypothesis, there must exist a subgroup H < G of order p^n-1. By Sylow and induction, H must contain groups of all orders p^k for k < n-1, so in fact by the hypothesis must contain all proper subgroups of G. Therefore, considering any a in G that is not in H, it must generate G, as else it would generate a subgroup of order p^k for some k < n, and therefore be in H.
bro has one joke
its not an element?
G \ H means the difference of sets G and H
not G/H
zero reading comprehension smh
right
whatever you say, bud
Lol
Unital joke ring
im confused about this exercise
Isn't it true that every R-module is an abelian group and every R-module homomorphim is a group homomorphism
and thus every R-module homomorphism is an abelian group homomorphism?
“Show that Z module homomorphisms are the same thing as abelian group homomorphisms” is probably a better way of phrasing it
Ie it also wants the reverse direction
could i check if I am correct here?
that the forward direction would actually hold for any R
Yes
okay thank you
I'm struggling with 5. Showing Gauss' Lemma wasn't much issue (question 4). So far, I've seen that we can pick g(x) in Z[x] of minimal degree such that g(a) = 0. Then we also know that g(x) is primitive (as it's monic by definition), and irreducible in Z[x]. But, by definition of f, we know that f(x) | g(x). So g(x) has a nontrivial factorisation in Q[x], say g(x) = f(x)h(x). I don't really know how to proceed from here. I know I need to use that g is primitive and Gauss' lemma but the way forward isn't so clear. Can anyone help?
Okay wait. we have our factorisation g(x)=f(x)h(x). We can clear denominators then divide by the gcd of the new coeffs to get that g(x) = a/bf'(x)h'(x), where f' and h' are in Z[x] and are primitive. Then bg(x) = af'(x)h'(x).
I want to conclude that a/b is an integer and then we get a nontrivial factorisation but I'm unsure how. I also haven't used gauss' lemma yet
So f and h are monic polynomials so there is an integer c such that
cf is a primitive polynomial, and similarly for h
Then g times an integer being primitive means that integer is ±1
We can clear denominators of f, then divide by the gcd of the new coeffs to get something primitive, and I understand that this has to be an integer because if it is a rational then our leading coefficient won't be an integer. Is that the reasoning?
Yup, if you multiply a monic polynomial by a rational number q, then the leading coefficient is q
a, b are integers such that af and bh are primitive. so then we have abg = afbh, with af, bh primitive. So then (ab)g is primitive, but the gcd of the coeffs of (ab)g is ab, so ab = +-1, which shows we have a nontrivial factorisation of g in Z[x], contradicting our hypothesis.
Thank you!
Let R be an integral domain with infinitely many elements, of which only finitely many are irreducible.
Suppose every non-unit has an irreducible factor. Show that R has infinitely many units.
This feels like Euclid's proof that there are infinitely many primes
Like, let $p_1, \ldots, p_n$ be all the irreducible elements of $R$. Then $(p_1 \ldots p_n)^k + 1$ for $k = 1, 2, 3, \ldots$ are all distinct elements without an irreducible factor, so they must be units.
Adayah
I don't think this works.
becuase if $N_k = (p_1 p_2 p_3 ... p_n)^k + 1 $ then all we know is that $N_k \notin (p_i)$ for all $1 \leq i \leq n$, this generally doesn't mean that $N_k$ is unit or equivalently it is not in any maximal ideal. I think your proof will work when R is a PID
ExpertSqueeSQUEE
.
Doesn’t it work because we’re assuming we’re working in a ring where “not divisible by any irreducible” => “is a unit”?
what are the minimal prime ideals of an ideal? Ideal contained in p for p prime and no other prime contained in between?
is this related to primary decomposition in some way? I forget
So for I = cap qi a primary decomposition, rad(qi) is a prime ideal containing I
Ohhh
Wait im thinking about it again this is making sense
if I is a subset of cap ai then I is a subset of ai for each i right
just for sets
alternatively, looking at Spec R as a topological space, they correspond to the maximal irreducible components iirc
definitely lol
I wonder if ill find the time to learn it once i start working
I will definitely miss it tbh
but at the same time learning it while being in academia was more stressful than fun
for me
It also doesn't allow me to grow other aspects of my life as effectively
I'm almost 25 yk, I don't want to be stressed about money, want to settle roots down somewhere ....
everyone is different though i guess
Guys please do this one I M badl y stuck
Lol I have an exam in 6 hours
Slept 3 hours barely
I know what you saying
are you in undergrad
Msc @tardy hedge
cool same im almost done
Bro please do it if you can this might come in exam
im taking differential geometry this term and just finishing my thesis
Closer to freedom eh
yeah lol
damn, wouldnt imagine you taking that
Finally
You can rejoice
thought you were way more algebrapilled
Me? Yeah man, it wouldnt be my first choice. However my school isnt very good
Guys.
Please do this one
Like
This may come in the exam
right i see
they have category theory ppl and sometimes they offer that sort of thing
Prof made this question himself in the sheet of practice problems for midsem
i looked at the master options for radboud and there are like three options for math 
maybe 4
Cat theory :D
ya like why would i take diff geo idc abt that
i remember there being not many other options tho
do what?
one of them is category theory + homological algebra, might take that next year
thats nice
if im allowed though idk how that would work with study credits n all
its funny how damn long it takes me to learn / digest some new math these days but when i do its still super cool
Problem i posted
someone already gave you a solution
Lol
Where
Bro as a 16-18 year old I learnt math so fast
But these things
These days
I feel tired
Exhausted
By the subject I once held so dear and sacred
I wanted to be a commutative algebraist /Algebraic geometer
I dont know what I want now
me too my favourite is algebra
what i want is money and stability
@tardy hedge btw bro
Can you help me in one more problem
For the exam
tough job market i can imagine for that
just post questions here and ppl answer
yea theyre pretty sexy fields arent they
everyone wants to be category theorist algebraic geometer
if i did combinatorial algebra it would be easier to get opportunities
Same. I want a job I can work 6-7hours, Pays good, come home to study math myself
but i dont like combintorial stuff its just not interesting
yup so do it man thats what im doing atm
Such a shame I fell in love with the 2 branches of algebra with most competition
its ok man be confident in yourself if ur dedicated u can do it
but i mean, for me its not worth the effort anymore
in universal algebra youve got no competition but unfortunately no grants either 💔
@tardy hedge give me 1 minute I am posting it
Lol
first year undergrad now right?
but once i finish my master's the world's gonna be burning anyways so its alrr
ye
oh God 😭
fr what a state we live in these days
im a positivist i swear
(iv) smells like krull's theorem
lots of competition but at the same time they're very general and broad fields
@karmic moat @thorn jay
I proved this
This basically kills the problem
I just need help from you guys in the very last bit of executing this problem on my problem
NOOOO JUST THE END OF MY PROBLEM
shouldve gone 2 hours ago 
Sorry man im prob not gonna look at these problems rn but if u post them people are willing to help eventually
Lots of ppl here they are just inactive atm
I could look at these later for fun though
I have reduced the problem
ALL I NEED TO SHOW IS
that any element of the ring k[x,y,z] is congruent modulo a finite sum of elements from the basis { $X^a$, $X^a Y$, $X^aZ$} modulo the ideal P as a is nonnegative integer
Leno
@tardy hedge just hell me this one
Help me show this much and my question is done
So any element of k is obviously congruent to X^0 aka 1
Are you using this to solve 9 (i)?
I think a good way to start is to stop pinging people begging them for help lol
Yes
That seems really cumbersome, I'm sure it's easier to just prove (i) directly
plus \phi in (9) isn't surjective, so I don't think 1.35 applies
I
ALL I NEED TO SHOW IS
that any monomial $X^a Y^b Z^c$ of the ring $k[X,Y,Z]$ is congruent modulo a finite sum of elements from the basis ${$ $X^n$, $X^n Y$, $X^n Z$ | $n \in \mathbb{Z}$ , $n \geq 0$ $}$ modulo the ideal P
I just consider the range of phi and its same thing
But like
I am towards the end of it
Just need to solve this word problem aka a problem of transforming a word in X Y Z to what I want
Leno
ALL I NEED TO SHOW IS
that any monomial $X^a Y^b Z^c$ of the ring $k[X,Y,Z]$ is congruent modulo a finite sum of elements from the basis ${$ $X^n$, $X^n Y$, $X^n Z$ | $n \in \mathbb{Z}$ , $n \geq 0$ $}$ modulo the ideal $P = (X^3 - YZ, X^2 Y - Z^2 , XZ -Y^2)$
Leno
This is a word problem. My approach is to just keep swapping in $X^a Y^b Z^c$ using relations inherited from $P$
Leno
Any idea anyone
whats the problem which one?
I did it
alright
Prove that the ideal $P = (X^3 - YZ, X^2 Y - Z^2 , XZ -Y^2)$ in $k[X,Y,Z]$ cannot be generated by two elements
Leno
This is the last problem
Once this is is solved I am free from this torment
well obviously the minimum element needed is 3
Using monomial ideal right
Of the leading monomial using an ordering
yes
Should also be possible to use dimension theory and the principal ideal theorem
Does it? Because the PIT only gives an upper bound on the height of a prime ideal, and here we want a lower bound on the number of generators
I remember this exact question from ch1.1 in hartshrone, tried working at it for a bit and then giving up and looking up the solution online and all of them were pretty convoluted
The upper bound on the height is the number of generators, so if we can show the height of the ideal is greater than or equal to 3, we are done
Well yeah, my point still stands
PIT is an upper bound, we want a lower bound
It’s not applicable
Ig i meant like if it had two generators then the height would be too small
If you want, you can find two generators for an ideal with the radical of that being your curve https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/5073496/is-the-affine-curve-t3-t4-t5-t-in-k-subset-mathbba3-a-set-th
So I know the problem 1A.10 gives us that p divides |G : N_G(P) |.
But how do I show N_G/P is non-trivial group?
Let S be the Sylow subgroup of G that contains P. N_G(P) contains N_S(P), [G:P] divisible by p implies P is not equal to S, hence P < S is a proper subgroup. Normalisers grow in p-groups hence N_S(P) is strictly larger than P, and thus N_G(P) is strictly larger than P
therefore the quotient is non-trivial
fuck I just read the rest of the problem
if we can assume that such a sylow subgroup containing P exists, doesn't that
yeah lol
that's dumb
i actually don't think it matters if N_G(P)/P is trivial or not
We have only the first Sylow theorem, so we can't say the existence of S, here
So any hint? Because if N_G(P)/P is non trivial then there exists subgroup of order p in N_G(P)/P, then I think we can make Q
wait, why does there exist a subgroup of order p in N_G(P)/P
Cauchy's theorem
I don't see why p divides [N_G(P):P] though; we have that p divides [G:N_G(P)]
