#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 346 of 1
Yeah, I think that's a better way to phrase it, use the term scalar multiplication in both C1 and C2
Currying? Yep 👍
why do they call it currying when you curry in the scalar curry out multiply scalar vector the multiply
exactly
Curry on my wayward son
Why is this highlighted line true
It is exactly point (iv)
I have to prove that an element has order 2 in Sn iff its decomposition is the product of commuting 2-cycles
the forward direction seems to be handled by noting that if a cycle has order 2 then given its disjoint cycle presentation, the lengths of the cycles in that presentation has to be 2 since 2 is prime
but how can i know that the backwards direction consists only of disjoint 2-cycles
maybe thats just the definition of decomposition of cycles
I mean, you can determine the order of an element from its disjoint cycle decomposition
So you may want to think about what that relationship is
is it right that the cycle decomposition of an element in Sn consists of only disjoint cycles?
because in that case this problem becomes much easier
but the thing thats tripping me up is that commuting cycles are not necessarily disjoint
The decomposition into disjoint cycles consists of disjoint cycles. So unless you mean something else by cycle decomposition yes.
It is correct that cycles can commute without being disjoint, but maybe you can determine when two 2-cycles commute
im pretty sure in that case it is only when theyre disjoint
because i think the case two cycles commute iff either theyre disjoint or if they can both be given by some power of another element of Sn
but of course that second case isnt an issue because the only nonidentity power of an element x of order 2 is x
I think for the reverse direction you can just say that if x is the product of commuting 2 cycles x1 x2… xn, then (x1 x2… xn)^2 = (x1^2) (x2^2)…(xn^2) = e since they’re all 2-cycles
Then you don’t really have to think about disjointness at all
unfortunately the identity is an empty product of commuting 2-cycles 🤓
I am having trouble with this exercise for the second part on finding basis for the second set of homomorphisms.
$U_3=\operatorname{span} {v_1,w_2}$
omg wait @twilit wraith hi haven’t we vaguely talked before in other servers
somethingwrong
i have this proof which is what w used to find basis of first set (claim is the $\phi_i$ will form a basis). I don't see why defining $\phi_i$ similarly won't give the basis of the second set of homomorphisms
somethingwrong
I dont think so we only share physics and mathematics
Oh ofc
Yeah i am in chaos lol
Oh I see that ur newish to this server
Yeah I study philosophy secondarily
Math is my main thing tho
yaa makes sense
Actually tho for this how do we know then that the product of x1 ... xn isnt the identity
we dont but it anyway isnt true if we consider the identity right
or "empty products"
Oh well I suppose if we assume x1 ... xn is the decomposition then we assume it isnt order 1
that works too ya
Alright cool
it hasnt been that long since i took undergrad algebra but i still gotta remember the kind of thinking it takes
alright so i just finished a question determining all the decompositions of elements of order 4 in S4
i could do it, but im curious about something now
to determine the number of such elements, could i just look at the size of the kernel of a surjective homomorphism from S4 to S3
wait not quite
they are only the four cycles, so you want the number of circular permutations on 4 symbols
this is just (4 - 1)! = 3! = 6
the reason you want circular permutations is because the cycles represented by (1 2 3 4), (2 3 4 1), (3 4 1 2), (4 1 2 3) all represent the same 4-cycle
fortunately i was able to deduce this
i suppose what im going for is recalling how we can use the first isomorphism theorem to find how many elements of order k are in some arbitrary group
i don't think there is way to do this for an arbitrary group...
i wouldn't be surprised if there is some NP hard or NP complete problem involving automorphisms of graphs or something like that, which would prove P = NP if you could determine the number of group elements of order k for arbitrary k and arbitrary group
or maybe there is a simpler explanation...
but the intuition should be that there just isn't enough information in general
the thing that you are leveraging here is that S_4 has a "free" cycle decomposition
Automorphism group of graph will be finite(unless you are talking about infinite graphs), and in finite groups cant you just go generating cyclic groups generated by single elements by picking elements one by one and you should be done with this in polynomial time . And then calculate all divisors of the cardinalities of the cyclic groups etc. and it looks like you will be finished in finding all elements of order k in polynomial time in |G| (assuming multiplication is atmost polynomial time in |G| or whatever). maybe for some infinite groups with elements of finite orders this will be harder? I don't know much cs or complexity stuff so I might be completely off track here
oh, so true
i don't think you can do anything leveraging the first iso theorem tho
my first idea is like, look at n |-> x^n, but that is only useful if the groups are abelian
anyways, thanks for catching that
but I guess even non constant polynomial time won't be good if you are finding order k elements by hand
yea, seems like it
there is another idea i have, where you can use the first isomorphism theorem for sets in this particular case:
there is a function f : S_4 -> S_4 that takes a permutation s and maps it to the 4-cycle (s(1) s(2) s(3) s(4)).
call two permutations equivalent if they are the same under f.
the image is the 4-cycles, and 4! / #(of eq. classes) should be the number of 4-cycles
but counting the number of eq classes seems hard
without already knowing the 4-cycles
I feel like that’ll be no easier than the usual combinatorial approach
yea
Im a bit confused about vector spaces as modules
So $\mathbb{R} \to End(\mathbb{R} )$ are vector fields of the reals over the reals. But there are some strange group morphisms of the reals, like the Hamel functions.
So what promises us that we get the "normal" vector field?
tomer_k
For starters, I know that 1r = r, but it's not clear to me that r1 = r, with r in the LHS being the endomorphism corresponding to r.
can adapt this monotonicity argument
So if I'm understanding your question:
You've understood that a vector space is exactly an abelian group A together with a ring homomorphism
R -> End(A).
Then you pick your abelian group to be R and want to prove that the only vector space structure is the 1 dimensional one? This is simply not true.
R is for example isomorphic to R^2, so it would be very strange for the vector space structure to be unique.
The one dimensional vector space
R -> End(R)
is however defined to be
r |-> (x |-> rx)
I'm curious if anyone has references to a setup where we have multiple groups acting on possibly non-disjoint sets.
Like groups G, H acting on S, T respectively with a nontrivial intersection between S and T. Like it's possible for an s \in n S to be carried to a u \in S \intersect T by some g \in G and then u to be carried to some other t \in T by an h \in H.
There is a possibly interesting notion of joint orbit here... Curious what I might search for.
what if S=T? It's not strange that the action of G has some property, and if H is related to G in some manner, then H also has that property, or a similar one. For example, if G is a Fuchsian group of the first kind and H is a finite index subgroup of G then H is also a Fuchsian group of the first kind
it sounds like you're trying to define a (G, H^op)-biset structure on S \cup T with some specifics on which elements are fixed by the left/right actions
It could be... Although, while I did describe the situation for two groups, I think the situation I'm particularly interested in would be for a finite number of groups acting on just as many sets and having a more complex intersections story. I don't know that I am thinking about left and right actions so much as just many left actions that have the possibility of conditionally composing...
I do know of a situation where this situation appears in the wild but it's quite niche
I'm considering symmetries of many functions simultaneously and where the inputs come from some common "pool" of inputs if that helps
and it's not in this level of generality
is it possible to just extend your functions to the entire pool of inputs? So f(x_1, x_2) extends to f(x_1, x_2, x_3) but f(x_1, x_2, x_3) = f(x_1, x_2, y_3) for all x_3, y_3 outside of the inital "pool", for example
then your "mixed" action is just a group action
if not, you might want to look into partial group actions
I believe you can just extend it to an action of their free product right
like an action on X with X \sub Y extends to an action on Y by just fixing all elements not in X
and then use the universal property of free products
that's what I'm saying here
but you worded it better lol
ts
I suppose so, yes. However, I think here is value for computing these groups on fewer variables -- you can see structure in the symmetries emerge and you can say some. F and some G are "the same", but I guess in the expanded pool of inputs you could just say their symmetry groups are isomorphic.
Thanks!
yeah, probably for computing, using the groups themselves is better
but for proving stuff it's probably nice that you can see it as one big group action
(though maybe not if you want to infer something about sizes and generalise like orbit stabilizer like theorems)
so close to partial group actions being relevant 💔
is that studied often?
no lol
figured
Our lecture notes define the symmetric power $Sym^n V$ as the vector space of coinvariants of $S_n$ acting on $V^{\otimes n}$. Does this mean that $v \otimes w = w \otimes v$ in $Sym^2 V$ for all v, w? Or would that be the vector space of invariants of $S_n$ rather?
sheddow
the invariant space would be spanned by things that look like v(x)w + w(x)v etc.
you're correct, v (x) w = w (x) v in Sym^2 V
think of it as "forcing the tensors to commute"
I see, thanks 
hmm, so we want Sym^n V to be this quotient space of V^{\otimes n} because we want any symmetric bilinear map from V^n to factor uniquely through Sym^n V
So Sym^n V plays the kinda the same role as the tensor product, except for symmetric bilinear maps
exactly, you can definite it using an analogous unviersal property, replacing bilinear maps with symmetric ones
I'll let you think about what the corresponding algebra is for alternating bilinear maps
(although I think you mean multilinear)
yeah, multilinear 👍
for alternating maps, I want to say just replace S_n by A_n, but that seems too simple
at the risk of going off on a tangent, what's the definition of an alternating multilinear map
f(v1, ..., vn) = sgn(sigma) f(v_sigma(1), ..., v_sigma(n)) for any sigma in S_n
so I guess we act by S_n still, but multiply by sgn additionally?
exactly!
Any what?
sigma balllssss
I want to understand the structure theorem of modules over PID, Jordan canonical stuff, any good resource and what I need before reading it?
Is there a way to recover to recover the structure from a quotient. I.e. If we have a ring $R$ and an ideal $I$, there's a map $R \twoheadrightarrow R/I$. Is there a map in the other direction, like by tensoring with $I$ or something? Thanks
Funky_Funktor
I don't think this would work without more requirements.
Since you can quotient two distinct rings in such a way that you have the same quotient ring up to iso.
So, if I just give you a mystery ring R and I tell you it's a quotient without telling you the ring or the ideal I used to construct it there could be several choices of rings and ideals you can quotient by to produce R.
for a commutitive ring R, I think if I is principal this is possible
not big requirements, only basic knowledge of rings and modules (iso theorems and PIDs) shoud be enough
If R = F2[x]/(x^2) and I = (x) or if
R = Z/4 and I = (2) you can't really tell the two rings appart from just looking at R/I and I.
That being said I'm not actually sure what Funky Functor is asking
I interpreted this as R/I being projective
Alright, well R/I is projective iff I is generated by an idempotent
is R commutative?
Maybe I should add more info. In particular the ring $R$ is commutative and we know the ideal $I$, I just want to know if there's a way to recover $R$ from $R/I$
Funky_Funktor
If more info is needed. $R$ is $R_n \otimes_k R_n$ the $n$-variable polynomial ring tensored with itself and $I$ is the ideal generated by elementary symmetric polynomials
Funky_Funktor
how do we know I?
What does it mean to recover R from R/I to you exactly?
Like you're given just the ring R/I and want to know it's coming from R? That's obviously not possible, and I'm not sure what else you would mean.
as an R-module?
Like how to extend $R/I$ to get $R$
Funky_Funktor
many ways
Would tensoring with $I$ be a way?
Funky_Funktor
what is I here
what ring are you tensoring over
is I given as a module? abelian group?
rng?
I don't see any interpretation that would make it true anyway
So I guess, no. Tensoring with I wouldn't be a way
^ this is an interesting problem
the fundamental problem with this is that quotienting destroys information
$I$ is the ideal generated by elementary symmetric polynomials, i.e. for n=2 $I = <x_1+x_2, x_1x_2>$
Funky_Funktor
we'd need assumptions on R, I, and/or the splitting of the surjection R -> R/I to do anything
so we know the ring already
Anyway, in this example R/I and I are equal in any meaningful way to compare them, but the two Rs are not
pf, to get all the extensions just calculate the cohomology group
If the ring R is fixed, what does it mean to recover it?
I want the functor for example $-\otimes I$ (I don't know if this works) so that $(R/I) \otimes I \cong R$.
Funky_Funktor
So presumably a functor between their module categories.
Such a functor would give a ring homomorphism
End(R/I) -> End(R)
So a ring map
R/I -> R
This you wouldn't expect to exist in general
But if there is a ring map R/I -> R, then you can do extension of scalars
and there is a map when R/I is projective right?
No, that's not related
The map R -> R/I splits as a homomorphism of R-modules iff it's projective
I see, I have an embedding of $C_n \otimes_k C_n$ into $R_n \otimes_{R^{S_n}_n} R_n$ where $C_n$ is the coinvariant algebra under $S_n$
Funky_Funktor
It is the usual one but yeah
according to this definition, 4 is irreducible in Z/6
2 = -4 being associate to 4
but 2 is not a unit…
It is a bit of a funny definition for rings that aren't UFDs or anything yeah
is it really?
here is wikipedia’s definition of irreducible elements
In algebra, an irreducible element of an integral domain is a non-zero element that is not invertible (that is, is not a unit), and is not the product of two non-invertible elements.
"integral domain"
ah true
Tbh I have never used the notion of associates much in my life other than very carefully checking some element wasn't irreducible in a non-domain for counterexamples
what do you mean “very often” 
Yes exactly
UFD
other rings arent nice to work with
Like where you have unique factorisations into irreducibles
Now non-UFDs do come up all the time lol, as do non-domains more generally, just I feel like usually irreducibility is thought about over some nice ring
E.g. irreducibility of polynomials over a field
This is all in my experience though like I am sure there are people interested in irreducibility in rings that aren't domains or something
no i mean two elements being associate is by definition being the same up to a unit
guh, yeah ik those two conditions are not equivalent, but in my head associate is defined on the level of elements
idk I just guessed
No im wrong
I believed the "same up to a unit"
Sorry lol
no worries there are a lot of inequivalent definitions floating around
that happens
especially when you go more general, a lot of things fall apart
so you've gotta be careful with keeping track of everythin
g
this just feels horrible to me

lmao
well, as 2 and 4 are associates, it makes 2 an idempotent-ish element
I think it also makes sense if you think of Z/6 as Z/2 x Z/3
and 4 is literally just idempotent
Like I guess 4 is (0,1) which "should" be irreducible as we just have a product of fields
and that
this is a good point thanks

But it is a lil funny agreed
Tbf irreducibility doesn't have much value outside integral domains.
But yeah, I would instead say that something is irreducible if it can't be written as a product of two non-units
So just 4 = 4*4 should make it reducible
that's the definition that seems more useful too
It's funny though, because it makes 4 prime, but not irreducible
i was reading a couple of solutions to D&F exercise 1.2.17 and i don't understand how n = 3k implies there are no further relations satisfied by powers of x in the first solution or how n = 3k implies x, x^2 are distinct nonidentity elements of X_{2n} in the second solution. would anyone mind explaining?
well by the group presentation if x^2 = e then X2n must be trivial
but its order is divisable by 3
The fact that D6 satisfies those relations, means that any forced relations would also need to be satisfied by D6
D3?
Sure, with more reasonable notation you would call it D3
D&F moment
it's supposedly more common in group theory literature for the subscript for dihedral groups to be its order rather than the number of sides of the n-gon to which it refers
I do rep theory of finite dimensional algebra stuff
but you seem to understand a lot of things in algebra at a very high level
like I feel you outdo me on every answer
which makes me respect you tbh
I know some stuff and know less about other stuff
are you a phd student?
They better also write S_n! then
Not anymore 😢
wdym 😱
Got kicked out for spending too much time on discord
PhDs don't last forever
so you finished yours?
Yeah, now I'm out in the world
representation theory
The good kind I hope
The kind that spends most of their time on discord
Nice
Wew boytjie and ragharum I think
Ah good point
tbh after I took a rep theory course this year I really can't appriciate the field
I didn't rly know what ragharum does
Something neiche I guess, he seems to just come out with some crazy specific questions then dip again lol
Ive no idea what he studies because I did see you changed it from alg to rep theory so 
@rocky cloak would you mind to enlighten me?
Ah lol
Sorry
Yeah I mean I just feel like "algebra" is a very vague thing to say you research
My basic understanding is, group rings are hard, direct sums of vector spaces are not so much, work out what those are and study those instead
My university has an algebra department but it seems they could rename it to "rep theory" without any problems
I mean, what do you care about?
Rep theory has connections with physics, algebraic geometry, algebraic topology, combinatorics.
But to me it's more like rep theory is a reason to care about algebra / algebraic structures.
Lol
Isn't representation theory totally ubiquitous in NT lol
That is motivation already
To be honest the majority of the rep theory ive formally studied has also been for L functions in my analytic NT class lol
you can even research algebra while technically being a logician 
based
I don't know that much number theory, but I thinklike group cohomology and representation theory of Galois groups of number fields is kind of a big thing there
My noncom class made us work out the representations of some group rings but never realy told us anything about it
Totally lol jagr
this was kind of my experience
Basically just a you know Maschke and Artin Wederburn and so go crazy
Kinda funny to me how Wedderburn is like a Scottish name
the class was about the theory itself and it didn't even mention once why?
I always thought it should be Dutch or smth for whatever reason
giving us too much credit
It feels very quinisentially Scottish to me lol
also wedderburn is not a dutch name 😭
I think we are in the wrong channel xD
burn seems fairly British, wedder is a bit harder to place for me
Yeah
It does now
Yeah I mean definitely not lol
Idek how I got this impression lmao
You know one thing that grinds my gears
You can tell its not dutch because you can spell it
Why is Noetherian often/usually "mispronounced" smh
But then again, so is Artinian
But at least with Artinian it is consistent with Artin
in my language its translated
Whereas I think the default is to pronoune Noether and Noetherian differently
Wdym lol
Me too, I feel like such a prentious dick for insiting on prononcuing it correctly but idk it just feels respectful
like there is a term for these in my languege
hey my name is very spellable
I always have to correct people because the spelling is weird though
For me it is cause I like heard of Noether whilst studying German in high school so I never like pronounced it otherwise idk
Ah a more specific one
i’m joining this rep theory class a bit late i have to catch up somehow, guh
I was just confused what you mean by translating a name
Martijn Garritsen
You would be the first dutch person ive met with a spellable name
How is "Daan" not spellable
Dan
Everytime I want to see the name of the prof from my quantum computing course I need to look up his book
Wait, how are people pronouncing it?
No-thee-reian
Ne te rian
Nøter 
Cute
Ah, yeah. I do that to when speaking English
I also don't expect a serious answer cause I know why it is pronounced this way
I just find it funny Noether as a name seems usually pronounced correctly but then ruined by noetherian
It is interesting that Noether always spelled her name as Noether rather than Nöther
Think this is fairly common w names
huh 
I mean it makes sense, when you make it into Noetherian it ceases to be a name, so then you just pronounce it according to English rules
names tend not to follow standard orthography
but you still capitalise it like a name
Especially since German has had many relatively recent orthography reforms
That's English for you
Ive noticed people tend to capitalise Noetherian and Artinian but not abelian which I find odd
I usually capitalise them all, but I think im the weird one
I imagine this is one kf things where there were interchangeable spellings and then a reform depreciated one of them but names are preserved
abelian doens't sound like a name
My surname is a "mispelled" version of an actual word aha
Yeah honestly through learning german im becoming convinced that nouns should just have an all or nothing capitalisation, I appriciate the consitency
I mean, Abel both sounds like and is a name
my last name is literally just "from [village]"
Please help in q 16
in norwegian we just use the lower-case version for all of these
I lived pretty close to that village even
Lore accurate
Classic
abelian doesn't feel like it to me even though I know it comes from a name
Average Dutch name tbh
it's like the most dutch thing about me
Hertog-Jan Schoenmaker
How would you pronounce Artinian correctly? 🤔 Art-æ-ian?
They probably makes some great shoes
That looks wrong to me
maybe someone used to
I mean how it is the nasal French -in, at least for the older Artin aha
Idk if the younger Artin pronounces it in a non-French way
generally we try to do everything in norwegian but if there’s anyone who dont speak norwegian in the class then we do english instead, more often than not (especially in the more advanced courses fsr) there is someone who dont speak norwegian
Using euler theorem
Tbf could have hard j
But cant move forward from it
In English
I dont know why my space bar wasnt working there that was odd
Indeed this is a women's name, Jan
dutch doesn't have hard j's :3c
also not all the profs speak norwegian particularily well in which case they just teach in english
No problem
Are you all german or something
Dschungel
Are any of us German
no
Saw this in a thesis intro today
no Im dutch
I'm british
guh “generelly” is such a norwegian misspelling im embarassed
same thing
Yeahh
As a first hint, what is the smallest m such that a^m \equiv 1 mod a^n -1? Understanding that might give you a hint as to how to apply another nice result from group theory
Immediately dates the thesis
you think the additional captions are ai generated to?
But nice-looking paper otherwise
I dont know enough math to know if theyre related to the names of the desserts
Getting a little point where are you going for
Let me see about it
Idk
Honestly dont most like younger Dutch and Norwegian people speak better English than half the people in the UK though?
Im conviced the average Norwegian would have an easier time communicating with people in London than I do
no but what the fuck is this actually
Jes, ve du 💪
1 to 3-5 to 2 to section 2.3???
Not hard
AI is going to change the world bro, dont get left behind
I like dead fields anyways I'm not gonna miss much money
If the area of maths ur in is dead then you'll probably make more money anyway
(By leaving math)
Im being fully serious though, I have on multiple ocassions found it legitmatley hard to communicate with english people in the UK
What do you mean by this?
reflect-rotate-reflect is rotation in the other direction
coxeter group moment
If you rotate in front of a mirror it looks like you're rotating the opposite way. So
yxy^-1 = x^-1
In what way oop
Exercise to the reader
They just cannot understand me
well all elements can be shown to be xy^a or y^a
No but I mean like you are basically specifying what xy is in terms of other stuff so you can do this yeah
do you want me to stay? (I will got to sleep otherwise)
dialect momento
i get this is probably a joke but uhm no
Up to you lol
Aight cuz
gn
cyaaaa
sure many young norwegians are very good at english, but very few, certainly less than half of all young norwegians have english as their mother tongue, whereas more than half of people in the uk do have english as their mother tongue

Its somewhat of a joke, potentially not true for norwegians, but iirc like 96% of dutch people are proficent in english
many people here find the english cambridge easier than regular english because it's less learning
lol
I may be biased though
I'm pretty sure it's different at different school levels
Yeah no of course, my joke here was honestly mostly about dialects, like English is my native and only langauge and it can be very hard to talk to people for whom that is also the case
right
I mean UK has a pretty wide family of dialects.
I don't know how exposed brits are to other dialects, but it's kind of a big thing in Norwegian media I feel
And also Danish and Swedish language (and English) is very present
It's interesting how varied the english proficiency is among norwegians, I feel like it's almost bimodal. There are some who grew up on internet speaking english and have an almost native understanding, and then there are some who struggle just reading a sentence
Yeah I think I remeber hearing that like a significant portion of Norwegian media is in English which some think really helped with peoples understanding
But I think some people, especially in the south of England, quite easily grow up without much exposure to any of the stronger dialects from elsewhere in the country
fairly exposed to others, just if someone has a v strong accent it can be harder to understand
actually yeah i am speaking as a londoner

Yeah this is true I dont even think the dialect argument applies because I very intentionally speak clearly and ""properly"" for you fuckers and still get blank stares
this is true, there are many norwegians, even young ones, who are incredibly bad at english
i learnt english quite late and my pronunciation for the longest time was nothing short of a comedy sketch
it’s mostly fine now, which i have come to find unfortunate
accents are charming 
I think ive lost a lot of my accent since moving away from home, but people keep telling me its still very strong. I do feel kinda bad about losing some of it though, it feels like part of my identity, but it is rather impractical
I don't think you're speaking as clearly as you think, I found a clip of you trying to talk to some police officers: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Cun-LZvOTdw
yes, Nope is armed to the teeth
(FYI im from litterally the opposite side of the UK, hot fuz is set about as far south as you can go lol)
You're more of the billy Elliot type then?
Just because I like bellet don't mean I'm a puffah
I'm pretty confident that r^a h is equivalent to reflection across the line going through the origin with angle a2pi/n from the origin, I also found a description of this line via labeled vertices on P_n, but I don't know how to prove that this reflection is equivalent to r^ah
further still, more of the trainspotting direction
I guess the reasonable thing would be to see how this reflection acts on the vertecies and compare with his r^a h acts
Shiet! You couldn't even find a decent civilization to be colonized by
i love billy elliot
I love trainspotting
right, I just don't know how to do this rigorously. I'm not sure how to compute where this new reflection sends a vertex algebraically
Well you just see where h sends it, then where r^a sends that
Have you tried explictly working it out for some small cases?
yeah I got that part, but now I should show that the reflection across the line I'm claiming is equivalent by showing where that reflection sends a vertex, but I'm struggling to compute that
Lol
what 😭
of course
Maybe I should learn more commutative algebra
for this problem, it seems like you can just define the map as sending a/2 + k to a/2 - k (mod n) when a is even, since this line of reflection passes through a/2
Lol
but I'm not sure what to do when a is odd and n is even, since the line doesn't pass through any vertices
It passes in the middle between two though
yeah it does, I see that. in particular it passes through the midpoint of (a+1)/2 and (a-1)/2. is it correct to say that it maps (a+1)/2 + k to (a-1)/2 - k?
yes I think that does it!
huh
I was trying to ask whether more bizzare structures like R as a vector field over Q are ruled out by this definition (maybe there is some isomorphism), but I didn't know that as well
How are you building that isomorphism?
As an abelian group R is isomorphic to Q^(|R|) which can be seen using the axiom of choice.
So then the isomorphism would just come from a bijection between 2|R| and |R|.
If you want to think of R as a vector space over Q then you would be thinking of a map
Q -> End(R).
R -> End(R) would be realizing it as a real vector space
But they can get as bizarre as you like
So in year 1 linear algebra we said two things:
-
a vector field is .... (all the axioms)
-
R is a vector field over R with the standard multiplication
And I implicitly assumed that this is the only way to take R as a vector field over R.
and you're saying that the implicit assumption is plain false.
Yes
Nothing special about the reals here either
Just that is the "standard" A-module structure on a ring A but there may be others, but this is what one kinda should suspect given you only are taking into account the underlying group of A (on one side)
this makes a lot of my professor's comments from year 1 less cryptic and their emphasis on parts of the theory i dismissed...
thank you, im much obliged.
Hi, does anyone have a PDF or online link about the automorphisms of Z/2Z×Z/4Z, and more generally the automorphisms of a non-elementary abelian p-group ?
I wouldn't say "homomorphic to" is a standard term. What do you mean by it
There is a homomorphism between any two groups given by sending everything to 1
$A \cong B$
A is isomorphic to B
Not jagr2808
mq in his algebra/stats arc
mq in his algebra/stats arc
mq in his algebra/stats arc
If there is a homomorphism
A -> B, then you can compose this with an isomorphism B -> C to get a homomorphism
A -> C
Sure
You can still compose them. But then the kernel might change
Well the kernel is what you're computing in the proof above
If you just write down the definition of kernel it should be appearant.
If g(f(a)) = 1, it doesn't mean f(a)=1 unless you have some assumptions on g
The kernel of an isomorphism is trivial
The kernel of
A -> B
might be different from the kernel of the composition
A -> B -> C
That's right
Theyre just functions at the end of the day, it probably has been just maybe implicitly. It can get confusing though, I do usually need to sit down and work out where stuff ends up on a peice of paper
Kinda funny cause aren't like G and H kinda irrelevant here
Yeah this is sorta just a more general and fairly obvious fact that I think they kinda obfuscate by mentioning G and H
And then you can like quotient out by kernel and do first iso
First iso is kinda funny to me like
Ye
What is p
Have you learned Cayley's theorem yet? Or haven't they introduced that at this point?
Probably not since this is a special case aha
Which one lol
Presumably you mean G is acting on G/H and inducing this
lol, I feel like the general case is easier than this special case
Yeah that's what I mean by this
Yeah isnt the proof like 2 lines lol
Like you are letting G acting on G/H but that action already factors through H (by normality) to give you the thing in Cayley's theorem anyway
yeah, this corollary is just Cayley's theorem applied to G/H
Yeah
Take the obvious group action, trivial kernel, first iso
@ moderators, obvious troll
Yes, every group is isomorphic to a subgroup of the symmetric group
You should make sure you understand the intution behind that, because what I was saying above about G and H just kinda confusing stuff is true, the reasoning behind Cayleys theorem should be pretty clear
G/H is a group, Cayleys theorem
what is the map p here?
I think so yeah, but also youre kinda just overcomplicating it, you know that its isomorphic to a subgroup by Cayley, and you know it has index n (so that |G|/|N| = n because everything is finite) and so it must be a subgroup of S_n
Thats sorta how I would argue it anyway, maybe just in slightly more precise words
perish
Pretty much yeah
cayley's theorem is an easy corollary of the fact that the permutation representation of a reduced Latin square forms a group isomorphic to its stabilizer under the action of permutating rows and columns, when said Latin square is the multiplication table of that group
Exactly what I had in mind
They’re not mutually exclusive, I have spent hours on problems before only to realise they’re trivial
That’s because I am not a smart man
Towards the end of a lecture a student interrupts
"Why does that follow from the lemma, I don't see it"
"That's trivial", the professor says
"It doesn't seem trivial to me"
"you see... hmm..."
The professor stops and stares at the problem for a bit.
The whole class waits in silence, before the professor breaks out of thought.
"Look at the time, I will have to get back to you next week"
At the beginning of next class the professor says
"I have carefully considered your question over the weekend and have concluded that I was right. The problem is in fact trivial"
"Now, onto our next subject"
its trivial once you see the trick™
unfortunately, the trick™ is nontrivial and requires a fundamental shift in perspective
I had a topology lecture in a vain similar to this, the lecturer wasn’t actually supposed to be teaching the class, and he generally doesn’t believe in lectures, but someone asked him a question about some theorem which he remarked “ah that ones easy let’s prove” and proceeded to spend the hour working out how on earth to prove it
He did succeed and it was honestly really cool to see how such a talented mathematician (the man is cracked) works through a problem but it was amusing none the less
I mean historically they come from people teaching to people who can't read / can't afford books.
Typically consisting of one person just reading aloud to a large hall
I think lectures can be useful, but if they’re literally just reading out the notes they’re certainly not
If the lecturer provides a different perspective or goes really in depth on some technical details of part of the reading I think that’s good
Or as that lecturer believed in, just treating it as a Q&A session (and if no one asked anything he’d just kinda rant about whatever was on his mind, we did a lot of scheme theory in that topology class)
I will say though I was very bad about actually ever attending lectures in my UG and even if I went I was pretty bad at paying attention rather than just doing other work (or doing puzzles on my phone)
Not directly related, but funny. I was in a lecture where the professor wrote things like
x in X
Someone asked if he could do more to distinguish capital from lower case x in his handwriting.
He just answered "No" then continued the lecture
because hearing it explained and seeing them write the stuff on a chalkboard is much more parseable than a book usually
That’s brilliant I love that, gave me a good chuckle
no but i can imagine it
and the couple lectures ive had so far were still kinda interesting
except calculus, that made me want to smash my head into the table at how boring it was
My analysis lecturer sounded like gru with made those lectures far more interesting
i guess in general calculus is not my cup of tea
Very glad to have just done that in highschool
I've generally gotten a lot out of lectures. More engaging than books
yes same we also did integration and derivatives and optimization n stuff
but we also have it in uni
i guess as an intro to analysis
Not really, the Germans and Italians have it worse than we do lol, their unis are notoriously hard for maths, there’s like a 50% drop out rate in first year (granted it’s free and there’s no consequences but still)
Yeah my UG just made you do a test when you started and if you do poorly you have to take a like foundations of maths course
ugh lucky
im probably just gonna skip most lectures unless smt interesting is being explained. Ive found a cool book in the library im gonna work through so ill just do that
good, teach em young
This was my general approach, I’m going to try to be better in my masters though both because I’m paying silly money for it but also because I think the work is just going to be hard and I’ll take everything I can get
this uni allows higher year courses but unfortunately the interesting ones start in the later semesters
so ive gotta sit it out for a bit 
wdym letdown
i also went to Nijmegen cuz the city is cool
all 3 years
there are interesting masters courses im just not at that level yet
and multivar analysis is for second year, which is cool, but i dont know enough analysis
Bros 3 days into his UG and can’t even take masters courses yet, smh
oh, mq is in their UG now?
good luck!
you've got a decent head start on algebra already
lol
okay, you do have a decent head start on algebra then
it would be cool to take noncomm geometry some time
cuz apparently they just have that
Algebraic or functional analysis?
hmm, id have to look
and they also have schemes but i think thats mainly manifold-pilled
I’d guess it’s functional analysis and C* stuff
sadge
I think all the algebraic stuff is pretty K theory pilled and just 
That being said I’m possibly going to see if I can write my thesis on that kinda stuff lol
K theory gets involved? cool!
ooo
Something something non commutative motives
It’s something to do with generalising cohomology theories I think, or at least relating them in some way
But yeah one of the, possibly the, biggest names in this kinda noncom AG specifically through noncom motives is at my uni so I may speak to him about supervision
But I also may just do some rep theory stuff because uhhh K theory hard
But more seriously I just don’t think I really have the background to approach anything like that, but of course he would potentially know an avenue I could explore, time will tell
Like I know some AG and AT but I don’t think even close to enough
i suppose its finding the middle ground between really hard and doable
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1108.3787 this is essentially where I know what I know (very little) of noncom AG and motives etc from
Yeah which I guess is part of the job of a supervisor, we shall see, I still don’t start for another like 3 weeks anyway
notation mess lmao
There is also other areas of noncom algebraic geometry, I know my non com lecturer did some stuff like that which wasn’t as topological but I don’t really know any of the details
plenty of time to mentally prepare yourself
Let f : V -> Z be a module homomorphism. Is it true that f factors uniquely through V/H iff ker(f) <= H?
H <= ker(f)
Ah, that makes sense, thanks 
universal property!
And this is true for groups and rings too, right?
And factors through V/H should mean through the canonical projection V -> V/H
any algebra
algebraic structure
using the right notion of "normal" "object"
And the right notion of "true"
it will be an object of the category but often not in the obvious way
something something categorical congruence relation
Schemes.
jumpscare
I think about it in terms of the other direction, namely that ideals and submodules are defined as whatever the fuck they need to be for the "quotient thing" to work
just in case you don't already know, these "whatever the fuck"s are called congruences and you can get very general with them
I don't mean to mansplain ts to u just in case u wanted to learn more
found the universal algebraist
no no no no no for you see, quotient objects are exactly the coequalisers of congruences
so it was actually category theory
"corporate needs you to find the differences between this picture and this picture"
I FUCKING LOVE CONGRUENCES RAHHHHH
coping so hard
category theory is better because I can put "\infty-" in front of everything
Fuck my finitepilled bounded chud life
Yeah
An absolute all timer of a statement
What is bounded
STOP SAYING YEAH
I'm tired bro
This guy so damn contrarian he hates agreements
Yeah
Real shit
Sup anamono
S is bounded if there exists a positive M such that |x| < M for all x in S
U is one yeah
Nice I hope that is funnn
It’s good yeah
I have just been writing some stuff... tiring
Stayed up late thinking about maths rip
M is bounded if H_k(M) = 0 for |k| >> 0
Real shit
Sybau
in what sense
Like Koszul duality uses these a lot and wondering how stuff generalises tbh
One thing I found amusing was I've always seen "Hom(V, W) = V* (x) W" stated only for finite dim V and W
But it (fairly trivially) holds as long as W is fd
Some generalisation of this fact came in handy for me
holy based
Similarly for (V (x) W)* = V* (x) W*
In both you check they work when W = k and then both commute with finite biproducts in the W slot so all is good
Lol
let me guess. Knowing u. We have a closed sym. monoidal (infty, 1)-cat and ur using the analogous statement with the internal hom
I mean this is actually the case
LMAOOOO
just work with a ring spectra u coward (or I guess a field spectra since these are vector spaces)
In this case I think stuff should go through ye
But also like duals behave v differently not over a field so eh
Eepington.
so what exactly are you doing in this so called "derived" category
if that even IS it's name
doing this?
but without the infinity, 1 part
look foward to reading it in the next issue of the annals then ig
Holy adjective soup
it's like 50-50 noun-adjective
Get a load of grammar boy over here
it has an internal hom, so it's kind of implicit by the following clause
I just don’t know the (infty,1) part, I know wew has explained (m,n) categories to be before though
Or at least pasted multiple nlab links at me
I know of no other definition of the word "explaination"
does (infty, 1) just mean a category but with some notion of isomorphisms between morphisms?
All my symmetric monoidal things are closed
if I've parsed the definition correctly
And isos between isos etc etc
Wew I am just thinking about some Koszul duals and computing basically but ye
I don't think I have anything new rly tbh
Or like
Ideas of things to do which would be new
why is that the case?
By this
oh neat
yeah that tracks
Hom(V, W) cong Hom(V, k) tensor W is the idea you mean
hm and what if V is finite-dimensional
then it should also work right?
Hom(k, W) is iso to Hom(k, k) tensor W
Oh I just mean is W = k then you just have the statement Hom(V,W) = V* (x)_k k
yes yes i'm aware
i think this should work if V or W is finite-dim
Yeah same argument
ig what i meant was like, this wasn't hte idea i had
oh
biproducts innit
yeah it's basically because
given a basis, a vector space is a big direct sum of its subspaces
but it does work when W is infinite-dim and V is finite-dim

unless i'm mistaken about that
Oh lol
well like
You get the comparison map from sum of product to product of sum
i think
right ok
Maybe not quite that sorry i'm silly
i haven't thought about counterexamples aha
Well a nice thing to see is that in the case V = W is infinite dimensional, then like
Okay backing up, like there's the canonical map V* (x) W -> Hom(V,W) that induces the isos when stuff is good
which is just like sending (f, w) |-> (v |-> f(v)w) and linearly extension
if you take V = W infinite dimensional, then this doesn't hit the identity
Indeed this factors as an iso V* (x) W -> {V -> W with finite range} followed by inclusion ig
Yep
If V or W has finite dimension then any map V ->W has finite dim range so you're good
Ah yes this tracks

thanks!
But a different question is why they aren't like "abstractly" isomorphisc
like can you compute dimensions i mean
Maybe they are actually abstractly isomorphic, lol. like
wait really
Actually yeah I mean suppose $V = \bigoplus_I k$, then $V*^* \simeq \prod_{I} k$. which you can write as $\bigoplus_J k$ for some (potentially bigger) $J$, then you get like $V^* \otimes W \simeq \bigoplus_J W$, whilst $\mathrm{Hom}(V,W) \simeq \prod_I W$, and like
these are gonna be different if W is massive
Prismatic Potato
Like I mean J is bigger than I, but now just wack up the size of W until the product becomes bigger than the sum i think
hm
So it's true that for any infinite set I the dimension of W^I is equal to its cardinality |W|^I. And that |W| = |k|*dim W.
So comparing dimensions you have
|k|^I * dim W
and
|W|^I
If dim W <= |k| then both are just equal to |k|^I.
If dim W >= |k|^I, then both are equal to dim W.
If |k| < dim W <= I, then both are |k|^I.
If |k| <= I < dim W, then the bottom is just |W|.
So if the generalized continuum hypothesis is false you should be able to find dim W between I and |k|^I.
Otherwise it seems to me they will always be abstractly isomorphic.
Yeahh this is kinda what I noticed, like if you wack up this seems an issue
So do you mean it may be false given like not gch?
Maybe this is more interesting than I realised lol
Ah yeah I see what you mean now sorry
Yeah if there exists sets I and J with
I < J < 2^I
(and your field is small |k| <= I)
You can pick J as the dimension of W and I the dimension of V
Ah wait yeah I didn't realise the field size bound damn
I was gonna say just make |k| big but lol
So this statement is actually equivalent to GCH?
Peculiar
I think so yeah.
I didn't properly check all the cases, but seems like it
Not that surprising I guess. The statement is mostly about comparing sizes of power sets once you translate into cardinality
Yeah sure
I think I remember like
i think $(V \otimes W)^* \simeq V^* \otimes W^*$ abstractly always, but just like the canonical map is an iso iff one of the dims is finite
Prismatic Potato
I think this is much easier though lol
Yeah https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/573378/u-otimes-v-versus-lu-v-for-infinite-dimensional-spaces also shows that continuum hypothesis gives a counterexample, couldn't find much else tho
I believe in u
Wait actually lol this is a cointerexample given CH
and you have one given not CH lol
Odd
Which I guess shows it is independent of ZFC lol if both are corrrct
I think I see some mistake in my thinking.
I was assuming
|X|^I = |X| for I < |X|, but this I guess is not the case judging from that mse
Ah okay
This is in fact a silly mistake, since of course
|X|^I >= 2^I
Hm how does that give a problem unless 2^I > X > I
Lol keep having CH come up
I guess is this what you use later tho
Well, I assumed I had that, then tried to claim
|X|^I = |X| < 2^I
which is silly
Ah okay
is true that in a finite p group of order p^n, there exists a subgroup of size p^k for 0\leq k\leq n
This is either the (first) Sylow theorem or a corollary of it (depending on what you mean by the Sylow theorems aha)
i think the first sylow theorem was presented to me as the weaker statement that there just exists a sylow subgroup for each p
this result rings a bell but i don't quite see how i get it from the first sylow theorem
So one form of the first sylow theorem is that there exist groups of all p^k where p^k divides the group order aha but yeah I mean
In he p group case i suppose can be done directly
You can pick a non-trivial central element x of G, and a power of it has order p
Then <x> is normal so you can consider G/<x> and use induction + correspondence theorem to get everything you need
If D is Euclidean domain then D[x] would be Euclidean Domain?
Can anyone help me understand this cryptic comment?
This refers to module homomorphs
what "some morphism"?
Given some morphism f I can construct cokerf, and then compose a function to cokerf and it's kernel will be everything, but this is always true and doesn't depend on monomorphisms.
I don't think he refers to qoutients, as he talks about ker/coker in themselves.
No, Z is euclidean but Z[x] is not
Which property it fails
Z[x] is not even a PID here
Can It be UFD
I think yes
It is indeed
If R is a UFD then R[x] is a UFD by one of Gauss’ lemmas I think
Stole my message as I was writing it!
They are saying monomorphisms are exactly those morphisms that are kernels.
An explicit example could be that if f is a monomorphisms, then
f = ker(coker f)
So in the sequence
A -> B -> coker f
A is the kernel of B -> coker f if and only if f is a monomorphisms
How are you treating a morphism as the same thing as an object here?
Well I'm not actually.
A kernel consist of two things. An object and an inclusion map.
So the kernel is the incision of A into B by f
oh i see
Or if you want to think of it more set theoretically:
Since f is injective it identifies A with the image f(A).
And f(A) is exactly the things mapped to 0 by B -> cok f
oh that makes a lot of sense
i think the idea is that you want a galois connection
for a general function
f: A -> B, then f(A) is the kernel of B -> cokerf,
but f is not an incision from A to ker (B -> cokerf) ?
$S \leq \ker(Q) \iff Q \leq \text{coker}(S)$ i think?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Idk if this is really what you want other than a consequence
Is there a categorical description of a inclusion function as opposed to a general injective function?
i don't think so
because I know that two groups G,H can be isomorphic as a subset of a group T but the qoutient may not be isomorphic, so they must have something different categorically?
i think what you're looking for is the concept of subobjects
I know about generalized elements if that's what you mean
i see so that works out
I'm struggling on (a). So far, I've deduced that as a is odd and positive, we can apply quadratic reciprocity for the jacobi symbol: (a/p)(p/a) = (-1)^(p-1/2)(a-1/2). As p = 1 (4), we know (a/p)(p/a) = 1. As such, either (a/p) = 1, (p/a) = 1 or (a/p) = -1, (p/a) = -1. Either way, (a/p) = (p/a). As p = a^2 + b^2, it is clear that p is a quadratic residue modulo a. From this, I want to conclude that the jacobi symbol (a/p) = 1, however I'm struggling to (also I know that the converse of this is false, if (a/b) = 1 that does not imply that a is a quadratic residue mod b).
Is this approach correct? (If so, can i have a hint on how to proceed), and if the approach is wrong, can someone tell me pls and maybe where to look instead. Thanks
So assume q is a prime that divides a.
Is p a quadratic residue modulo q?
What is (p/q)? What is then (p/a)?
Can we just reduce p=a^2 + b^2 modulo q to get p = b^2 (q), then we know (p/q) = 1 for all primes q dividing a, then by definition of the legendre symbol, (p/a) = 1, and by my reasoning above (a/p) is thus 1
And we know q doesn't divide b because that would imply p = 0 (q), which implies p=q, which is a contradiction (after some details)
nice. I don't know why I found that so hard. Jagr you are a saviour
Does this follow from the fact that $M_{\pi^{-1}(\overline{\mathfrak{m}})} \cong (M/\mathfrak{a}M)_{\overline{\mathfrak{m}}}$
okeyokay
What is pi
The canonical projection A -> A/a
And is m bar = m(A/a)
Also does g o f flat mean that C is a flat A-algebra and g (faithfully) flat means C is a flat B-algebra
Then like pi^-1(m bar) = m
Yeah well just any maximal ideal of A/a srry
Yes
Like an A-algebra C "is" a map A -> C
Ye sure
You can simplify using correspondence theorem ig
Let $\overline{\mathfrak{m}}$ be any maximal ideal of $A/\mathfrak{a}$. We claim that $M_{\pi^{-1}(\overline{\mathfrak{m}})} \cong (M/\mathfrak{a}M){\overline{\mathfrak{m}}}$. Define $f: M{\pi^{-1}(\overline{\mathfrak{m}})} \to (M/\mathfrak{a}M){\overline{\mathfrak{m}}}$ by $\frac{m}{s} \mapsto \frac{\overline{m}}{\overline{s}}$, where $\overline{m}$ [resp. $\overline{s}$] denotes the residue class mod $\mathfrak{a}M$ [resp. mod $\mathfrak{a}$]. Then $f$ is an isomorphism, so that
[(M/\mathfrak{a}M){\overline{\mathfrak{m}}} \cong M_{\pi^{-1}(\overline{\mathfrak{m}})} = 0] by assumption. By localization, $M/\mathfrak{a}M = 0$, as desired.
okeyokay
I was too lazy to check that it was an isomorphism and well-defined lol
I mean it seems canonical so hopefully it is...
You should need to quotient on the left
If it probably easier if you start with m containing I
[So then pi^(-1)(m bar) = m]
But then this is a result that is AM I think anyway?
Like localisation behaves nicely with quotients
Oh yeah localization commutes with quotients
sorry wdym
grahhh I love correspondence theorem
some of questions in my assignments have things like "does it carry a magma structure" or "does it carry a group structure"
are they different things than magmas and groups or I am confusing myself?
As in the fact quotients commute w localisation in this way means the formula you wrote shouldn't be true
I can't say too much without knowing the question, but often you say "Does [say, a set] X carry a group structure" to mean "Can you turn X into a group?"
Without more context this is a bit contentless (any set can be given a group structure) but it probably means a "natural" group structure in some way
I am confused since there is a set T with 20 elements, a function f: T -> Z and it says does (T, f) carry a magma structure but f is not even a binary operation
no worries, instructor made a "beginner friendly" abstract algebra short course and questions are so weird haha
Lmao fair
Slightly odd as personally like I don't know anyone who works with magmas and I don't think most unis would have a course that mentions them aha
wtf
maybe you need a bijection with T and ZxZ?
but that's impossible
I mean f is a uninary operation what even is the point of the question
Lol
I have learnt fields and rings before in hs and they are teaching magmas in uni for beginners
kind of funny
Just say "any set admits a group structure so in particular..."
Yeah odd
I do always wonder what happens if you do this in an exam where you answer their question "too" literally
"No, consider the empty set"
axiom of choice spotted
Okay I mean in this case biject it to Z^20
once I got 30% marked off because I did not show a increasing monotonic function that gets a negative value at a point (given in question) can output value 0
30% 😦
but that's not true even for continuous functions. Or do you mean "can" as in "may or may not"?
it was a polynomial
to be fair I would understand his judgement in general but it was such a easy function and I was just thinking he was just trying to bully me or smth lol
whatever have good day everyone
as a evidence he showed me thomas calculus manual and said you did miss that step dont know, it was trivial in my eyes
I see 👍 30% seems like an overreaction, but early in university they are often extra stringent with stuff like that - you know it's trivial, but they don't know that you know that. A lot of other students might claim something is trivial without actually being able to prove it
I wrote that a bit ambiguously, but I meant that 30% is an overreaction IMO
there were also bonus points in his defence haha
Can I have a hint to show that if f: A -> B and g: B -> C and g o f is flat and g is faithfully flat then f is flat
Let
0 -> M -> N -> L -> 0
be a sequence of A-modules. Tensoring with B gives a sequence
0 -> K -> B(x)M -> B(x)N -> B(x)L -> 0
To show that f is flat you need to show that K is 0.
Is there a way to show that every element of U (x) V can be written as a finite sum of u (x) v with u in U and v in V, just using the universal property? It's easy to prove when constructing U (x) V as a quotient of the free vector space over UxV
i mean, isn’t that enough? the quotient map q : U x V -> (U x V) / (tensor relations) is such that by universality, you get a linear isomorphism between U (x) V and (U x V) / (tensor relations)
so whatever representation of U (x) V that you have, you can just go through the usual one first, and transport everything over
I don't 100% understand what you mean, but you're saying that since U (x) V is uniquely characterized by its universal property, we can just use any specific construction of U (x) V to prove stuff, and it'll be true for any construction?
yes. like, an element of (U x V) / (tensor relations) is a linear combination of things that look like (u,v) + R, right, where R is the kernel of quotient map?
the isomorphism to U (x) V takes (u,v) + R to u (x) v coordinate-wise, and since it is linear, then the linear combination transfers over
hmm yeah, I kinda get it, but I'm not sure if by U x V you mean the free vector space over U x V or just U x V as a set. If it's the latter, I don't see how we can talk about linear maps and linear combinations
sorry, the U x V in (U x V) / (tensor relations) should be the free vector space generated the product U x V. everything should still work
ah yeah, that's the proof I'm familiar with 👍 the way I think about it is, the free vector space over UxV are by definition finite sums of the form (u, v), and after quotienting you can still write the elements (or cosets I guess) as finite sums of this form
so yea, q is no longer a quotient, should be an embedding
Let's say the universal property is that bilinrar maps U x V -> W correspond to maps U (x) V -> W. Take W = U(x) V and we get that there is a bilinear map U x V -> U (x) V corresponding to the identity. Suppose the image of this bilinear map does not span. Then we can find a proper subspace X < U (x) V and every bilinear map U x V -> Z factors uniquely through this inclusion X -> U (x) V, which is bad.
I think something like this works
Sure.
The universal property is that any bilinear map factors through
UxV -> U(x)V
consider now the submodule generated by u(x)v. The map UxV to this submodule is clearly bilinear, so this must be a direct summand of U(x)V, and by the uniqueness property the complement must be 0
Nice
I like potato's proof the best, because of finishing a proof by contradiction by "which is bad" 
There's enough
to go around
Jagr's is more complete though
I guess more informally U (x) V is the "initial recipient of a bilinear map from U x V", and clearly the span of the image of that universal bilinear map must also be the initial recipient
Hello guys, i was having a chat with one of my proffessors and she came up with a question that made me wonder for a bit. Do all inverse functions generate an inverse element for a specific operation? This came up in the context of studying group theory.
i am a bit confused by the question, do you maybe have an example in mind?
Gimme a minute, i'll grab a piece of paper and try to recreate what we wrote down in class
Let X be the subspace of U (⨯) V generated by u (⨯) v for u in U and v in V. Let phi be the quotient map from U (⨯) V to (U (⨯) V) / X. Then phi corresponds to a bilinear map which vanishes on all pairs, i.e., the zero bilinear map, so phi = 0 (by uniqueness). This means that X = U (⨯) V.
where could i learn the basics of groups rings and fields i am very interested in the subject but have very little knowledge
well they are mostly different subjects but they interact with each other a lot
You can pick up a book that covers all three, you can ask on #book-recommendations
thank you very much
if p and q belongs to a ring
assume p divides q, hence p= q.r
my question is will this r belong to the ring?
if p divides q in the ring, r has to exist in the ring by definition
so divisibility is a concept that is dependent on what ring you are talking inside
because that is the definition of divisibility
if p divides q in a ring R, then there exists an r in R such that q = pr
if ab belongs to the ring does it imply a and b belongs in the same ring?
oh
you dont have the context of a larger ring
so the only way that ab makes sense is for a and b to already be in the ring
will it imply on group under multiplication as well?
any algebraic structure
because an algebraic structure only has itself as a context, its not guaranteed that you can place it into some larger structure
because operations on algebraic structures are functions only defined on the underlying set
a.b
multiplication
how many multiplication are there
normal multiplication
algebraic
yes
i forgot , when i say multiplication i mean the normal one only
yed
So is your question only about integers, or are you asking about rings in general.
If a*b is a product of integers, then a and b are integers (because otherwise it wouldn't be a product of integers...)
2*(1/2) is a product of rational numbers that equals an integer
2*(1/2)=
1
ab=a+b:a=1,b=2:1+2=3
<@&268886789983436800> spamming random stuff in lots of channels
Err: Undefined
If you wish to continue being able to post in advanced channels, knock it off please
toooo late
mf really started spamming for no reason
imagine having that little to do with your life 
bro seriously got caught in 4k ( yeah bro if you spam you're going to get cooked I would know from experience )
Soooo difficult to imagine. Could never be any of us.
ok im having trouble understanding the meaning of this question, surely i get different cyclic subgroups generated by $aba^{-1}b^{-1}$if i choose different $a,b \in G$ right
lifelong dumbass
cause looking at sources there doesnt seem to be any mention of the commutator subgroup being necessarily cyclic
It's generated by all such products
So it's generated by such relations for all a,b
uhh

