#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 344 of 1
I'm trying to use this to show that if G has a comp series then K, G/K have a comp series
hmmm, the other way around I see
yea
Ok. What does he mean by "not claimed to be logically independent"?
Is he saying that some of the axioms imply other axioms?
Take your composition series for G and intersect it with K.
And take the images in G/K.
Then this will give composition series except the same group may be repeated several times (so a trivial composition factor if you like)
Actually, this doesn't work for non-abelian groups. I was thinking modules, but I'm guessing you're on groups
yea 😔
Yes. Technically he's saying that they might ("not claimed to be"), but in fact they do
Wait, no it works fine. You just need to use that K is normal
KnGi / KnGi-1 is a normal subgroup of Gi/Gi-1
So which axioms imply other axioms (and how)?
Isn't the point of axioms that they are essentially the minimum number of things you need to assume for a theory to be useful
What is meant by KnGi? Notation is a little vague.
They're a small number, but no one claims they have to be minimal
$K \cap G_i$
Spamakin🎷
Even the usual presentation of the axioms of set theory isn't minimal
where the G_i are the composition series for G
So in this context which axioms are "surplus to requirements"?
Thank you. So it is an intersection of group?
yes
I know 1 follows from some of the others
if you do (1+1)(x+y) then depending on which distributivity you apply first when expanding you get different expressions
and then axioms 2, 3, 4 on their own are enough to show (-x) + x = 0 and 0 + x =x for all x in V without needing 1 (with 1 these are obvious)
1 under which letter?
and then this is enough to cancel anything extra from the two expressions you get here
I'm not sure I follow your reasoning
(1+1)(x+y) can be expanded as
- (1+1)(x+y)=(1+1)x+(1+1)y by distributing over vector addition
- (1+1)(x+y) = 1(x+y)+1(x+y) by distributing over scalar addition
How would these imply commutativity of vector addition?
keep expanding
x + x + y + y = x + y + x + y
subtracting gives
x + y = y + x
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invariant_basis_number why would this proof that commutative ring have a well defined rank of their modules not hold in a non commutative setting? one would need to take I a maximal two sided ideal but since the rank over a division ring is well defined as far as i am aware, i dont see where commutativity is required (i know that commutativity is required, i just fail to see how its used in this proof)
In the mathematical field of ring theory, a ring R has the invariant basis number (IBN) property if all finitely generated free modules over R have a well-defined rank. In the case of fields, the IBN property is the fact that finite-dimensional vector spaces have a unique dimension.
It does not hold in a noncommutative setting, yes. Here is the standard counterexample.
I'm imagining the proof passes through a field quotient. A noncommutative ring may not have a field as a quotient, because noncommutative simple rings need not be fields (or even domains).
See e.g. M_n(k) the ring of nxn matrices over a field k
if we take a maximal two sided ideal, wouldnt the quotient still be a division ring
Exercise: M_n(k) has no nontrivial two-sided ideals
No, maximal left, right, or two-sided ideals still exist in noncommutative rings
that's not the problem
The problem is that simple rings aren't necessarily division rings
oh i see my mistake
note that you need to subtract 'from the left' to do this, which is why I mentioned needing 2, 3, 4 to prove that you can actually do that
i had assumed that the quotient by a maximal ideal ought to be a division ring since no non zero element generates a real ideal but of course in a non commutative ring having one in the ideal generated by an element does not imply that element to be a unit
thanks!
Well yes I also gave you an example of M_n(k) so
yep, thanks
is it normal for undergraduate students to study this much algebra?
my university doesn't even offer finite field -> lie algebras
i've only taken abstract group theory, sylow theorems, some ring theory & field theory from Abstract Algebra and that's it
funny that there's a whole module just dedicated to the Nullstellensatz
I did not lie lie algebras in my undergrad or even my grad algebra courses
lie theory stuff I've only seen in separate courses
same with rep theory
and nullstellensatz only appeared in algebraic geometry which not every UG takes
This is pretty much everything I did in my undergrad in algebra, besides a few specialist things
T.T
are you classifying undergrad as 3 or 4 yrs?
I think at my university (not a good representation of average undergrad) Lie algebras are fourth year (integrated masters), but the rest should be undergrad (I did not take much algebra in this direction)
abstract field theory, finite field extensions, and galois theory are basically just "field theory", lol
finished my second year right now and did what i imagine is covered under abstract group theory, sylow theorems, abstract ring and field theory, galois theory and in an elective representation theory if finite groups so make of that what you will
what can you even say abouy fields thats not field extensions
you can classify finite fields
that uses finite field extensions though
oh i see what ur saying
how would you classify finite fields w/o galois theory lol
it wouldnt be a clean proof
absolute pain
I like how classical Galois theory is just like 3 lemmas lmfao
you can show all fields are char p or char 0 lol
showing that finite fields have order p^n is doable without galois theory and cant you appeal to the uniqueness of splitting field and the fact that the field with pn elements is the splitting field of the polynomial p^n? what would remain to be shown
The humble initial object Z
yeah, and I consider that to be galois theory already
what a course
oh okay, fair
you can look at the field of fractions of an integral domain if u want
and that would fall under finite field extensions anyhow
I'm being obtuse though. I love k[x]/ something
oh yeah i know i was just surprised by the statement that classifying finite fields would require galois theory. depends how you define the bounds of galois theory i guess lol
i agree with the sentiment that field extensions are Galois theory but i get it if you want Galois theory to just be about the study of automorphism groups of fields
Galois theory is basic field theory imo
Huh I always thought of that as a Galois theory thing
Interesting to hear that perspective
might just be because of the first exposition i got but for me galois theory starts when you look at the galois group which my prof didnt do until somewhat later
I mean it is pretty intricately related to Galois theory naturally
Finite field -> every function is a polynomial by interpolation -> Frobenius Endo/Automorphism
R/I is a division ring iff I is a two sided ideal that is maximal as a left ideal (so not just maximal as a twosided ideal)
bro the frobenius map kinda goated like holy shit
its actually used so much
its insane
mfw x -> x^p
Division rings are left-simple :3
And right simple but :p
That’s how I interpreted them originally
Division rings are simple modules over themself :3
Since R is called semisimple if it's semisimple as a module, we should call R simple if it is simple as a module.
Then simple ring = division ring.
Not sure what to rename simple ring, we'll think of something
Queersimple
Sesquisexual
I need to revisit algebra at some point
oh god more discourse between ring theory and UA
first two different notions of "algebra", now two different notions of "simple"
Does UA have a different meaning of simple?
I guess you just meant if we change the definition of simple ring, cuz right now they're the same
Does this work for one direction? Suppose that $S^{-1}M = 0$, and let ${m_i}_{i = 1}^n$ be a set of generators for $M$. Since $S^{-1}M = 0$, there are $s_i \in S$ with $s_i m_i = 0$ for $1 \leq i \leq n$. Set $s \coloneqq s_1 \cdots s_n$. If $m = a_1m_1 + \dots + a_n m_n \in M$, then
[sm = (s_1 \cdots s_n)(a_1m_1 + \dots + a_n m_n) = 0] whence $sM = 0$.
okeyokay
I wonder if all this stuff works for ore localization
I still don't get it
Ore localization is a generalization of localization for noncomm rings
But the multiplicative set S needs to be well behaved and have some “normal” esque properties
No one does, just don’t worry about it, noncom localisation is silly and scary
I mean technically you can localise any noncommutative ring, but you just won't be able to use it at all basically
for every element s in S, add a noncommuting variable u_s, and quotient by the set of su_s - 1 and u_s s - 1
I always need to revisit algebra at all points. There's just far too much of it. I've decided to do other more interesting things and do algebra only when it helps with some number theory or geometry question, otherwise i feel its too dry and i forget it
"more interesting things" 😢
Maybe what I meant is 'less dry'
because by the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, a number divides p^n iff it itself is a power of a prime, and hence is nilpotent in Z/(p^n)
Did you mean p^n divides a number?
I mean Euclid's lemma just says "(p) is a prime ideal in Z"
no
hmm this argument doesnt work, nvm
If xy is a multiple of p^n, then one of x and y is a multiple of p, by FTA
Ah that makes sense, thanks
Is this because p | p^n | xy, so either p | x or p | y?
rather, if xy is a multiple of p^n and neither x or y are a multiple of p^n, then both x and y are a multiple of p
What are you working on rn
ireland and rosen. just finished chap 5 today
Good book
I recognised the (p) notation from that aha
Prime ideal remote detonation
Yeah I've been enjoying it a lot. I love the way its paced and presented. super logical and each thing builds from the last. very satisfying. Hoping to write my second year essay on eisenstein reciprocity (chap 14 or something i think).
I just started on ch 2 with this book, how many exercises did u complete from each chapter roughly
stupid question: if a ring element f is in every maximal ideal containing a prime P, then must f be in P?
Not true in general
ℤ localised at the prime ideal 2ℤ is a good counterexample, take p=0, f any nonzero nonunit. (Any local ring of dimension ≥1 works the same)
Commutative rings which do have this property for all primes are known as Jacobson rings, sometimes Hilbert rings. Many properties of f.g. algebras over a field are also true of Jacobson rings, including a generalisation of the Nullstellensatz
Thanks!
just say you hate algebra 😂
lowkey i do
probably 10-12? Should probably do more though, and the early chapters have been on material i already know
Is there some rings, where the ideal (1) is prime?
this is a matter of definition
I’m pretty sure every definition I’ve seen requires a prime ideal to be proper, and thus cannot ever contain 1 as an element
yes, but maybe some contexts want to use (1) as if it were a prime
I don't think anyone would ever use (1) as a prime ideal as it breaks like everything
Do such contexts exist? I’ve never come across it and I don’t see how it wouldn’t ruin every theorem about prime ideals
Or at the very least require youd have to add proper everywhere (in which case you just make it the definition anyway)
It’s the same reason we don’t allow 1 to be prime, it is supposed to be a generalisation of that after all
yes i want my zero ring to be embeddable into a field
what field you might ask?
well, i shant say...
Can you give an example of such a context?
no 🙂
Kudos for being direct
reminds me of this reply a prof sent me last year
Smh, why can’t you people see the joy in pissing about with rings
Especially when they see the joy in pissing about with shapes and curves
i don't drink enough water to be pissing about that much :(
Why do you have to imagine a 5 dimensional hypersurface to feel the joy inherent in an ideal
is m supposed to be the least such natural number or something like that? because otherwise there would be multiple exponents, or is that fine?
you take the lcm of all orders of the elements
or periods, i guess, as stated here
yes, but if m is not required to be the minimum natural number which satisfies the property in the picture then any mutliple of the lcm would satisfy the def
thats why i am asking if the def of exponent must satisfy an additional condition (minimality)
then I guess that's fine, it says that the group is "of exponent m" rather than that "the exponent of the group is m"
it's essentially saying that the group satisfies the equational identity x^m = 1
it doesn't have to satisfy minimality
a fun thing to prove is that every group G is of exponent |G|
sure, but my question essentially was: is the exponent not unique
it's not the exponent of a group, a group is of some exponent
I thought usually it is the minimal such m but maybe I am cooked
there's a subtle difference of wording there
Ah are there two notions
i am not sure what the difference is 
Lol
the first means that it is a value assigned to the group, the second means that it is a property that the group has
i.e. a class that it belongs to
(the class of groups satisfying x^m = 1)
if they do mean the former, imo that is poor wording, as they have written it
This feels inelegant given how english works aha
I would use group of exponent m, to mean the group has exponent m, in the same way as "order".
In which case there is a "smallest" missing in the definition.
But you could do it differently...
Saying "period" for order an element is crazy
thats the full context
But probably better terminology lol
periodddd
i mean you have to talk to lang in that regard 
file a formal complaint
I mean Lang and some Bourbaki have various things odd from current POV
I also disagree with a p-group necessarily being finite
thats what i thought of when i read it tbh, this is why i was confused as to why there is no minimum in the definition
K[[X]]
what is a quasi isomorphism?
Do you know about chain complexes
heard of it before but not sure you're referring to the thing im thinking about
but then how would you define a p-group if it is infinite?
yes
Basically it is a weaker notion of equivalence than isomorphism for tjem
Every element has order a power of p
oh okay so it was that
Ah well then i can say like
isnt the "order is a power of p" the essence of the definition of p-groups?
It is a map inducing an iso on all (co)homology groups
ohhh i see
pair of morphisms homotopic to the identity right
Weaker than chain htpy equivalence
Which is what this should mean
ah
Analogous to situation in algebraic topology
that seems very weak
Fairly weak but good for many things
.enpeace_music's homological algebra arc when
I only work up to quasiisos personally lol
I get recommended papers on all forms of quandle/rack (co)homology lmao
I can imagine cases where it's useful to talk about all groups with x^m = 1, so it's not that unnatural to not have minimum in the definition.
But I don't think it's standard.
like?
Well derived functors stuff for example
A module is quasi-isomorphic to its projective resolution. So convenient for dealing with derived functors
so to make sure i understand the difference between the 2 uses, one is for the minimum such natural number m and the other is the equivalence class of all natural multiples of m? so the second one is {km: k in N}?
how does that work? a single module being isomorphic to a complex
because it's an exact sequence?
A module is a complex concentrated in a single degree (degree 0)
The difference is just that for example Z/2 would be a "group of exponent 4" with one definition and not the other
So you might make statements like "this holds for all groups of exponent 4"
ohhh i see, tysm. I think what lang means will be clearer when exponents are used in the statements that he will make in this section.
Every time I see anything about projective resolutions I get a slight cold sweat remembering that I forgot to fill in the proof that Mod-R has enough projective in my UG thesis 
Just submitted it with an empty proof environment, still did well, but oof
Tbf fair I feel like "obvious" would have been a sufficient proof.
I mean that’s why I never bothered filling it in when I first wrote the section, I had plans to do a day of just filling in all of the easy and standard proofs and that one just slipped through the cracks
I’m sure if I had just stated it or said it’s known or clear I’d have gotten away with that too
Alas
Could have just deleted the proof environment yeah
There was so many errors like that that slipped through, I left myself no where near enough time for editing
Apparently where I defined projective in it I drew one of the arrows backwards 
Oh my chungus just like my heckin Kan lifts 🛗
why is n=p^k t
k could be 0.
Are you asking why a number can be factored into a product of primes?
no, i am asking why this particular p has to be in the factorization of n
I think they assumed k must be positive and are asking why n is necessarily a multiple of p
It doesn't. k could be equal to 0
ohhh i see. mb i am stupid for not considering that
Happens to the best of us
ta_1 is a generator of A_1=<a_1> since (t,p)=1 and p^{r_1}ta_1=0 so that |ta_1|=p^{r_1}=|a_1|, but the author seemed to deduce this fact from something else (since he deduced that ta_1 has period r_1 after deducing that ta_1 generates A_1), so how does he deduce that?
Does this prove the first part of the problem? 2. Let $\frac{a}{s} \in S^{-1} A$, $\frac{a'}{s'} \in S^{-1} \mathfrak{a}$. Then $s = 1 + b$, $s' = 1 + b'$ for some $b$, $b' \in \mathfrak{a}$. Hence
\begin{align*}
1 - \frac{a' a}{s' s} &= 1 - \frac{a' a}{(1 + b')(1 + b)} \
&= \frac{(1 + b')(1 + b) - a' a}{(1 + b')(1 + b)} \
&= \frac{1 + 2b' + b' b' - a' a}{(1 + b')(1 + b)}
\end{align*}
Since $\mathfrak{a}$ is an ideal, $1 + 2b' + b'b' - a' a \in 1 + \mathfrak{a}$, so that $1 - \frac{a'a}{s' s}$ is a unit in $S^{-1}A$. By Proposition 1.9, $\frac{a'}{s'}$ is contained in the Jacobson radical of $S^{-1} A$.
okeyokay
When we say an ideal q is p-primary, is p prime?
yes; the radical of a primary ideal is prime
If $R$ is a ring and $I$ is an ideal of $R$, how do we know that every ideal of $R/I$ is of the form $A/I$ where $A$ is an ideal of $R$?
Tropical Greens
if we denote [I, R] to be the set of ideals of R containing I, then we have maps A -> A/I and J -> \pi^{-1}(J) which can be shown to be inverses (where \pi : R -> R/I is the usual projection)
this is not very hard; \pi^{-1}(J) / I is J, essentially by definition:
\pi^{-1}(J) = { x in R where x + I in J }
so
\pi^{-1}(J) / I = { x + I in R where x + I in J } = J
"Correspondence theorem" heh
Provided by spectra you mean spectra of rings gotem
actually talking about a secret fourth option that will probably be put on arXiv sometime in the next 50 years
Lol fourth bruh
Not to be confused with ring spectra
Yeah lol
Is rhere a spectrum of a ring spectrum
I know there are things that morally behave like this in some cases
Spectral schemes
Grok is this real
Hmmm yes indschemes that don't do anything
Before I try proving this because I’m lazy, is it true that if we have a ring R, that the multiplicatively-generated set of an additive subgroup is a subring (without unity)?
Why does it suffice to show that M is the direct sum of the kernel and the submodule generated by the u_i (I've shown this)
the set $\left{\begin{pmatrix} 0 & k \ k & 0 \end{pmatrix} \ : \ k \in \mathbb{Z}\right}$ is an additive subgroup of the ring of $2 \times 2$ matrices with coefficients in $\mathbb R$. if you close this under matrix multiplication, you get $\left{\begin{pmatrix} 0 & k \ k & 0 \end{pmatrix} \ : \ k \in \mathbb{Z}\right} \cup \left{\begin{pmatrix} k & 0 \ 0 & k \end{pmatrix} \ : \ k \in \mathbb{Z}\right}$, which is no longer closed under addition
GoslingGang
because if M = A+B such that M and B is finitely generated then A must also be finitely generated?
Yeah, I guess I'm trying to see why that's true
actually you can even drop the B fg assumption
direct summands of finitely generated modules are finitely generated
(just consider the projection map)
For each generator of M, subtract the appropriate combination of u_i's to make it map to 0 under phi.
Now if you have something that is already in the kernel and express it as a combination of the original generators, the total of the subtracted corrections must have a coefficient of 0 for each ui, since the value under phi doesn't change.
I see, thanks
What's the point of the second sentence of the proof?
Doesn't the definition just require us to show that r(q) = p?
you need to show it is primary in addition to that it has radical p
the first line only shows that it has radical p
I see, thanks
just because an ideal has radical p does not guarantee that it is p-primary.
in fact you will see in exercise 13 that even p^n is not guaranteed to be p-primary
Wdym lol
Does the following map defined for simple tensors, $\bigotimes_{n = 1}^{N} F_n \left( \bigotimes_{m = 1}^{M} x_m \right) = \bigotimes_{n = 1, m = 1}^{N,M} F_n (x_m)$ give a map from $T( \mathrm{Hom}(A,B)) \rightarrow \mathrm{Hom}(T(A), T(B))$
miz
Tensor algebra free functor
What homs are those on the right
The latter Hom is R-alg
Nice
Is this just an explicit description of the map induced by the "obvious" map Hom(A,B) -> Hom(TA, TB)
I am trying to rectify a lot of this tensor bs for this engineering class
The great question
why even call it a tensor if you treat it like a matrix with shit that basically only works for the isomorphism between V (x) V* and Hom(V,V) for V finite dim
well even in infinite dimensions, V tesnor W is still "basically" the dual of the bilinear space
I've come around to realise that that definition is technically incorrect, but correct morally
Genie, for my first wish, I wish $\mathrm{Hom}_R(R,R) \not{\cong} R \otimes_R R$
miz
It's an injection for inf dim iirc
The humble biproduct
it just so happens that in inf dim these rules are no longer necessarily expressable as a finite linear combination
but they're still essentially just ""linear maps""
all of that isomorphism stuff seems to boil down to the fact that direct sum and direct product are a binary biproduct for R-modules
and this
So both sides of Hom and - (x) - distribute over finite direct sums on both sides
which gives that "matrix" isomorphism
My condolences
This is funny to me, like if they had said a 2nd order tensor is a matrix or smth it would be better aha
I think the tensor transformation laws for isomorphisms is just for iso F: A -> B we have
ISO H : T(A) (x) T(Hom(A,C)) -> T(B) (x) T(Hom(B,C)) by
T(F) (x) T(Hom(F^-1,C))
I think it is related to how in applications to physics etc one often has an inner product (or at least a substitute like a nondegenerate bilinear form) which provides an identification between V and V*
So it is much more innocuous to conflate them
Characterizes the adjoint :p
Which you can then just sacrifice to the functor monster in the background
Idk what you mean lol
functor for the functor god
Well like for matricies we have change of basis is "PMP^-1" but change of basis is kinda like the inverse of an automorphism so
PMP^-1 which you can identify with (Pv) (x) (P^-t u*)
which is basically what's here
that whole change of basis thing being the "inverse of an automorphism" really fucked with my head for a while
Since the basis you're changing into is the image of the bases of the automorphism describing it :p
I am doing engineering shit but how I learned about matricies and all that LA shit was via Jacobson before properly doing any LA in HS (BIG MISTAKE)
so now I am cursed to perpetually have to translate this shit into AA terms
Curse of $15 jacobson I textbook
No matter how many times i take intro algebra at various levels i cant escape this problem that is asked on the first day
ive done it three times (self-study, undergrad, grad)
hell yeah
i mean im not complaining it took 30 seconds to type it up
just give funny solutions
its just funny how popular this D&F problem is lol
"It's a vector space over Z/2Z, hence a module over Z, hence an abelian group"
and then prove it is a vector space over Z/2Z by doing the usual proof ig lol
Prove it by introducing the opposite multiplication on a set and say taking inverses gives an isomorphism between G and G with opposite multiplication
then taking inverses is the identity here, so gg
Or: aba^-1b^-1 ... (bla bla) ... so the commutator subgroup is trivial, so G is isomorphic to its own abelianization, and therefore abelian itself.
oh neat.
if x is an involution and has a (left or right) inverse, then x = that inverse, which also means that x is its own unique inverse.
if x, y are involutions then xy and yx are inverses.
and these hold in rings too
I'm not sure "idempotent" is the right word here. Usually that means x²=x, but that would be absurd in a group (except for the identity).
you are correct, i flubbed the meaning
Grab involution by its... nvm
(2-i)(2+i)=5 not 3
working with divisors is kind of annoying
in this specific question, it's sufficent to show that 5=0
5 is prime, so if the actual characteristic were to be any lower then by CRT you get that 1=0, but the ring is not trivial
Can also just show it is isomorphic to like Z/5 directly
I'm not sure that's actually more "direct" when the problem just asks for the characteristic.
I guess given this sure
I just mean you can just prove in a line or two that it is Z/5
I'm not sure I'm able to prove that it's Z/5 without first showing that 5 is in the ideal.
Pretty straight forward either way though I guess
Ig that works yeah
I suppose it depends on which prerequisites you have available. Once you have enough facility with ideals and helper theorems to carry out Potato's proof (and I'll grant that is not a particularly advanced set of tools), then sure.
But the original exercise also looks like something that could be given right after the definition of quotient rings, and considering Z[i] just to be a certain subset of C, so HChan's super low-tech solution seems relevant still.
Yee fair
These are ones where x^2 = x right
I think i did this a 2 or 3 years ago and have forgotten lol will try again
Isn't it like "consider this one element" and it'll be ok
The solution is fairly close to how you do it for groups
Yeah ||just consider (x+y)^2||
Oh wait yeah
Ig you also need char 2 but that is easy cause 2^2 = 2 lol
Curious fact!
Like this shows ||xy + yx = 0|| right
But then also ||xy = -xy anyway||
||(x+x)^2 = 4x = x+x = 2x
-> 2x = 0||
Iirc there's some horribly complicated proof that any ring such that for all x, x^n = x for some n (depending on x), then the ring is commutative
Oh wait yes
Jacobson's theorem or smth
@thorn jay probably digs this
But also like often you may study smth years ago but then use it fairly often lol
Yeahh
Attempting anyway
Should be isomorphic processes
No I mean to the best of my knowledge it does not make a difference but idk
And I can only speak for one thing lol
One comment though is applying for each for phd was basically the same
And all the other unis took much longer to reply lol
Idk what you mean here like do you mean for postdocs or smth
I only applied within UK
To like these two and Warwick and Southampton
Ah ok
Thank
Yeah it is funny
MMath is pretty common across the UK, people typically don’t do MScs because they’re far more expensive
Not me though, I enjoy spending 13k

Mmath is usually like just part of a 4 year undergrad degree
And you pay as much as for ugrad
But if you do a masters separately it usually costs more
What potato said, but you also typically get less time for your thesis during an MMath, as it’s a 9 month rather than 12 month course, so you need to write your entire thesis along side your classes and exams
But yeah as part of the undergrad it’s charged at the same rate and you can still get funding from the usual people for UG, but there’s very little funding for masters in the UK
I could only get a loan for half of my masters, the other half I had to pay out of pocket
Further discourages doing a masters / phd in humanities vs sciences/math too oof
Yeah even for the UG stuff it was rough, all my humanities friends had like 3 the entire year because of their thesis
I had 10 
Oh, I thought you were talking about doing your thesis alongside your courses
I’m not sure I follow, are there not typically integrated masters in the humanities?
Not rly in my experience
Ah fair, I can’t say I’d ever really thought about it
Fair ye
Was p noticeable here as all my humanities friends kinda disappeared whilst the science peeps stayed
I've done that too
I think I had that as a problem on my intro ring theory/LA exam
Lol I just did a lot of algebra this summer
its even known to be true for all x^n
though i believe its an open problem to find a general formal deduction as a sequence of equational identities
It feels French but I don’t think even they say that
anneau commutatif
It is odd that everything other than groups are commutative
Like fair play to Abel but he really fucks up the whole system
Is Isaacs' Algebra a good book to deepen group theory?
It’s the group that it describes right next to it
It's defining that notation immediately
Like what does it mean if we operate a group over itself
?
Like is it a set of all elements
Operated n times ?
Group*
It's the set {x^n : x in G}
Ok let me try
is {0,-1,1} a group??
this question is not well-founded unless you tell us the group multiplication
addition
addition how?
group under addition?
1 + 1 = 2 is not in the set, so what type of addition do you mean?
it's not a group under multiplication since 0 doesn't have inverse
yeah so the issue is that you don’t have closure
yeah that was my doubt if in closure we consider a+a too
mhm, you do
thanks
it is a group under a certain type of addition
which is what i was getting at
addition is just too vague
imo
-# yes but I would recommend not confusing them at this stage
At this level I disagree
Mhm
i wasn't understanding how nq belongs to H
To make a more general point here, when you’re specifying an object like a group or a ring or a topology it isn’t enough to just give a set, a group is a set equipped with a binary operation, you need both
set with operation?
Yes so the key takeaway is that closure has to apply for a + a as well
thankss
The closure axiom is stated as $\forall a, b \in G, a + b \in G$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Of course, in the axiom, you use different letters for a and b
But that doesn’t mean a and b have to be different!
Just like how I can say “let x = 2 and let y = 2”
that makes sense
Ok so you’ve seen that it’s not a group under regular addition because 1+1=2 and that’s not in your set. But it is a group under addition modulo 3, it’s not enough to just look at the set, you need a set and a binary operation on that set
(It’s a group under addition modulo 3, you mean)
Yep lol was editing as you typed it thank you
thanks, i forgot to add it, I'll take care from now
Ngl lol closure is not really an axiom of a group
It’s still useful to keep in mind imo
Because of how groups often arise in practice
Sure I just would like amplify it to saying this is part of what it means to give an operation on a set
It’s less about adding it, because generally as mathematicians we’re lazy and don’t mention it, but that’s when there’s an assumption that the operation is clear. When you’re first learning it though you need to be more careful, and you should keep in mind that a group isn’t just a set, but it’s a set and an operation
Sure but that’s a more sophisticated viewpoint on it
It’s very common for groups to arise in practice in the following way:
Yeah I mean I don’t count it as a group axiom, but it is in a sense, you’re just hiding it in the definition of a binary operation
You start with a monoid X
I’m not sure starting with monoids is a less sophisticated approach though lol
You take some subset S of X, and restrict the operation to that, in order to turn X into a group
These are not the words I’d use when explaining to students obviously
I am just doing this for your benefit
But in order to make this work, you need to check that the restricted operation S x S -> X really does land in S
That’s what closure is for
In practice lots of group operations arise from restricting binary operations to chosen subsets
This is why I think including closure explicitly is useful
It’s less common in practice to just start with a set G and build a binary operation G x G -> G from scratch
I don’t really take issue with having it as axiom in fairness, it does help make it more clear. We insist that a ring is a an abelian group under addition when there’s no need to specify abelian so 
I'm not sure if you got a satisfying answer for this, but nq is in H because n is in H, and nq = n + n + ... + n (q times). So it belongs to H by closure of addition. The confusing thing here is that we think of nq as repeated addition, not as ring multiplication, though they happen to be the same for Z
I don’t tend to mention it as an axiom, but I also don’t really think too much about the group axioms that often anymore
why it's not a group under adn mod 2 btw??
Essentially cause your set has size 3
If you identify 1 and -1 then it’d work
thanks
Abelian groups are Z-modules~
under addn mod 2 it will be reduced to size 2?
(0,1,2) where 2 will work as -1 in + mod 3
oh
Yep
Yep
Z is the only ring where multiplication and repeated addition is the same AFAIK, and I think this is related to how Z is initial in the category of rings (?)
Yeah
rings with unit. otherwise, the zero ring is initial
So rings
non-unital rings aren't rings 😡
We have rng for a reason!!1!1!!
just clarifying since the definition of a ring is not universal
I think where confusion creeps is that closure under the group operation is a defining property of subgroups.
Rings are unital but not necessarily commutative, the other definitions are just wrong.
yeah, D&F uses non-unital rings I think, so many people can be confused by that
(Half joking)
Yeah this is what I was talking about
actually, I'm not sure if this makes much sense
what does it mean for multiplication and repeated addition to be the same in a general ring?
it's kinda true for Z by definition
I guess it is just a bit funny saying we have a function f: X -> Y such that for all x, f(x) is in Y lol. Because that is what a closure axiom would be
random number generator
am = m + m + m + ... + m a times
abelian and commutative are basically same thing right
As I laid out, closure is more about how groups arise in practice
I agree lol
they are synonyms
[1 0; 0 1] + ... + [1 0; 0 1] repeated [0 1; 1 0] times 
complex numbers be like
Yeah, it means the same thing but we call groups abelian rather than commutative for one reason or another
Abelian categories are different to commutative categories
That’s true but I’m going to guess diving into homological algebra is a bad call right now lol
so group are abelian wrt * if they're
and ring are commutative wrt +,. if they're
Rings are actually always commutative under +
Rings are called commutative if the multiplication is commutative
Fun exercise, define a Band to be a ring without the axiom of commutativity under +. Show that Bands and Rings coincide.
Is the name Band your making
whats a commutative category?
My advisors, he taught the LA/intro ring theory course and that was the first question lol, I may have stolen it
Yeah I mean you absolutely don’t need to define a new object or anything, I just think it’s a fun way to frame the problem

Are Bands related to Gangs?
I’ve proven eckmann Hilton and know nothing about it at all, something something higher homotopy groups
god i knew a proof of this
ah
i remember
IIRC it's something like distribute (a+b)(c+d) from either the left or the right first, and cancel the identical end terms.
It was a workshop problem in my quantum computing course to prove eckman Hilton but with no context beyond “this is a helpful argument something about monoids and higher homotopy groups”
Nah not rly
(x + x) + (y + y) = 2x + 2y = 2(x + y) = (x + y) + (x + y)
as the + operation has a unit we have by Proposition 2.2 (https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/commutative+algebraic+theory) that x + y = y + x, as desired
wait that doesn'tfolloe
One form of it is basically the statement that like if you take the category Mon of monoids then a monoid internal to Mon is just a commutative monoid lol like the two operations you get coincide and are commutative
oh well idc
But it is really cool how there are strengthenings
Yeah this is exactly what we did as the exercise, but just by throwing around some string diagrams
Well like in higher category theory there are different notions E1, E2,..., Eoo of commutativity, where E1 is just associative and E_oo is the most commutative
And the souped up version is essentially that if you have En and Em then you have E_(n+m) lol
For Sets, E_2 = E_oo
I’m still so upset I started uni a year to late to take the higher category theory course at my UG
If you put these together you see Eckmann-Hilton is a special case
Hm I have forgotten where Nope is
Was this Martin Gallauer or smth
Barwick
It would’ve been, I audited the first few classes but then didn’t know enough category theory or have enough time to keep going lol
Actually wanna catch up on what he has been doing recently lol
But yeah I’m not at Edinburgh anymore in any case
Quite a lot as far as I know, I think he’s currently got a pretty nice research grant, he isn’t teaching anymore
UG at least, I think he’s doing some AGQ stuff
It’s the new CDT at Edinburgh sorry lol, algebra geometry and quantum
One of these is not like the other
I mean it makes sense w what Barwick has been doing and uh is Safronov at Edinburgh?
Meh, Edinburgh has such a non com and mathphys slant that it’s not too insane, but yeah it is a little broad lol
Safronov is yeah
O interesting
I had him for Galois theory last year and promptly dropped Galois theory 
He’s very intelligent and a lovely guy, but a very dry lecturer
Fair ye
And he’s also quite terse, his AG notes are uh, something
Just I have a uh vague interest in deformation quantisation
I hope I have a more clear idea of what my interests are soon, kinda need to find an advisor in the next 3 months 
I’m starting my masters next month, then after that I’m unsure
Yee sure
I was very set on PhD for a while but I’ve been applying to jobs recently, I’m sorta tired of being poor and I’m not sure I’m cracked enough to make it in academia
thats so valid 😭
Thank you haha, I’m sure it will, I’ll end up doing something I enjoy in any case. Be that making money or doing cool maths
yesss and tbh life is so nonlinear things can change so much later on
It’s why I’m still certain on the masters, it maximises my options
And why I’m still doing just algebra in the masters, companies don’t give a shit what you know provided you have a good degree from a good uni
But if I end up going into academia they’ll care
Yeah but have you done stats? It’s so boring
I was in a funny situation where I swapped from a degree that does stats in 2nd year to a degree that does stats in 1st year
And bypassed all requirements lol

:0 im surprised they didnt make you just do it anyway
I asked if I could avoid catching up on it cause I wasn't planning on doing anyway
Though tbh I did interact w a tiny bit of stats in physics labs lol
(45 +- 1.3). (1 +- 3%)
Yeah I mean I technically did a bit of days analysis for my physics labs but we both know that doesn’t count
why
The more advanced stuff does seem a bit nicer, my best friend is doing a PhD in stats right now and the things he talks about seems nice
Some people like stats probability and some don't. It is binomially distributed
do u mean bimodal ;-;
Like a sum of coin flips
ohh
I guess for each person it is Bernoulli
However people are not independent
So it is a bad model
i like probability bc its very puzzly i guess
and i think stats is fun because linear algebra is so intrinsic to it
data science is kind of boring to me but i think its most tangential to things i do like
and some models are cool tbh
i really liked my monte carlo class
I think the hardest computations I’ve done thusfar were in statistical theory class
Had like sequences of integrals and n-fold integrals
Omg it was so dizzying
this has also been a conspiracy theory of mine but i havent given it any thought
One where every diagram commutes
The fact that normal subgroups / ideals and homomorpisms have a one-to-one correspondance is probably my favourite fact from abstract algebra so far, although I'm not that good at those types of questions
I'm curious to see how this will get expanded on afterwards
what is your favorite fact?
yeah this is the content of the first isomorphism theorem
it's a very very cool result imo
it tells you that studying homomorphisms is equivalent to studying subgroups and quotient groups
so that you can use one to study the other
Well the first isomorphism theorem says that every homomorphism can be mapped to a normal subgroub (i.e. take its kernel)
the way i prefer to think of it is as follows:
Then there is a different theorem a little later saying that every normal subgroub can be mapped to an a homomorphism (i.e. N -> gN)
every homomorphism can be decomposed into a quotient map (q), an isomorphism (alpha), and a subgroup inclusion (iota)
so $f = \iota \circ \alpha \circ q$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
thus, studying homomorphisms gives you information about subgroups and quotients, and vice-versa
Yeah, so anytime you have a homomorphism question you can transform it into a normal subgroup question and vice versa
mhm
you can do this in Set too
Mhm
so studying set functions gives you information about quotients and subsets and vice versa
Mhm
how far does this carry into other concrete categories
not sure what a concrete category is
but like
Interesting. I remember seeing that topoi accept epi-mono factorizations, but it seems that regular categories are more general?
isn’t an epi-mono factorization more general than an epi-iso-mono factorization?
They’re equivalent categorically
Yes so every topos is a regular category
As is every abelian category
isn't this basically just model category nonsense
well, weak factorization system nonsense, but related
i guess this paper came out on friday so i can mention it lol, there are 6 WFS on Set:
prop 3.4 in https://arxiv.org/pdf/2508.15731
Pullbacks in ring homomorphisms preserve prime and maximal ideals
Huh, that's pretty neat
I feel like that will be important later
oh god you've summoned them
Not maximals
kinda cool - are there any similar results for Grp or Ring?
Provided by pullbacks you mean like preimage of maximal
Nice
Homomorphism needs to be onto, I forgot to mention that
if the homomorphism is onto then this is just the correspondence theorem
the interesting questions arise when you ask this about general homomorphisms
turns out there is a very large class of non onto homomorphisms where this is still true, and they are very interesting
the kernel of any homomorphism is an ideal
Is there anything I should know about an ideal in a field?
What would happen if the ideal contained an element that wasn't 0?
Is it that if an ideal contains the unity, then it must contain the entire ring?
Or any unit for that matter
But any non-zero element in a field is a unit
So that means:
- If ker(phi) is trivial then F/ker(phi) is isomorphic to F
- If ker(phi) is non-trivial then F/ker(phi)=F/F which is trivial
I'm starting to get the hang of it now, thank you
You don't really need to go to first isomorphism theorem or anything, like it seems kinda backwards as written
You have a surjective map with trivial kernel, and those are isomorphisms
Also like to be pedantic rather than saying "is isomorphic" it is important to keep track of what maps you mean
Like the point is you already have maps F -> F/ker(phi) etc but they are isomorphisms
Just something unrelated I just realised:
The fact that the only ideals of a field are the trivial sub-ring and itself is a lot like how the only normal subgroups of a simple group is the trivial group and itself
Does that mean that fields are essentially the simple groups of the ring world?
the converse is true, by the way, a (commutative unital) ring is a field iff it only has 2 ideals
Fields are exactly the commutative simple rings
Noncommutative simple rings can be a little more complicated (just like non-abelian simple groups I suppose)
Oh that's cool
I tried redoing the proof so that it looks better
Just pretend that none of the text is cut off, ok?
I'm also stumped on this one
A hint could be that a real number is positive if and only if it has a square root, which is a ring theoretic property
I think I get what you mean
If x is zero then Φ(x) is zero
If x is positive then Φ(x) is positive
If x is negative then Φ(x) is negative
Using the properties of ring isomorphisms
It is an iff property
How would I continue?
This is not true in general - you need order preserving
If you have order preserving, try to show rational numbers must be preserved
I remember doing a similar question for group automorphisms, but I forgot how to approach it
Then use a property about arbitrary reals and relating them to rationals to complete the proof
Hi
do you need order preserving? I don't think so
I think you can prove order preserving using square roots
My bad
if that's what you meant then sure lol
Ye nice
I am also wondering this but am too lazy to try to compute this lmao
Is there any R-module such that all proper submodules is finitely generated but that module is not finitely generated, give hint
How about something like the additive group of dyadic fractions? (Vibe suggestion, may or may not work).
(Hmm, no, that doesn't quite seem to work. Perhaps if we quotient out Z, though?)
Z[1/p]/Z is an abelian group that works at leats
So submodules are subgroups of Z[1/p]/Z
k((x))/k[[x]] should work as a k[[x]]-module
Yeah.
Why do you take quotient Z?
I guess morally you want to think about it as the union of Z/p^n Z
but you think about it as <1/p^n> / Z, so the union makes sense
Otherwise, say, the set of all elements whose numerator is a multiple of 7 would be a proper subgroup that's not finitely generated.
(Any odd prime instead of 7 works too :-)
I think the injective envelope of a simple module might work for any integral domain....
So here p = 7, so in lowest form the numerator is multiple of 7, yes then it is proper submodules and infinitely generated
If p =/= 7, then 7Z[1/p] is a proper subgroup of Z[1/p]
No, my initial example was M = Z[1/p] with p=2. Then 7M is a proper submodule that is not finitely generated.
So here I have to show every proper submodule is finitely generated, what is the exact form here of proper subspace?
Hint: if some k/p^n with k not a multiple of p is in your submodule of Z[1/p]/Z, then 1/p^n is there too.
Yes p = 7, then 7Z[1/p] = Z[1/p]
Hmmm, no probably doesn't work for all integral domains, but works for PIDs
Yes because k and p^n relative prime so 1/p^n will be in my submodule
This severely constrains which shapes submodules can have.
Okay say there exists polynomial f of degree n in Z[x] such that f(1/p) is not in submodule N
So there exists k ≤n such that 1/p^k is not in N.
It implies that 1/p^m is not in N for all m≥k.
But I have to show more, can you help me?
So what you figured out is that if
a/p^n is in the submodule then 1/p^n is.
So the only question for which n it is that 1/p^n is in the submodule.
(where a is coprime to p, of course)
If k is the largest number with 1/p^k in the submodule, what are all the elements in the submodule?
When showing that a map is a homomorphism, when is it necessary to shoe that the map is well defined?
All 1/p^m, m≤k will lie there
If the map is not well defined how does it makes the definition of map?
(and multiples of them), so how many elements is that in total?
The map is not even there until you're sure that its definition actually defines a map ...
this often happens if you're defining the map on a quotient set
(p-1)k
or if you're defining the map and need it to lie in some subset of the "natural" codomain
Typically the cases where it's relevant to check well definedness is when you want to define a homomorphism on
R/I, but you define it on R instead.
mhm
How do I show there are no other elements?
Well, that's not quite the right number. But the key take away is that it's finite.
Suppose there are. What could their denominators possibly be?
What are all the elements of Z[1/p]/Z?
hint: ||it is sufficient to show that conjugation respects addition and multiplication||
We have p-1 choices for numerator right? And there are 1/p,..,1/p^k possibility
f(1/p) + Z
Prufer group is a good example
p^n, where n>k
So basically showing that C is its own homomorphic image through conjugation?
I see
So then the numerator is the relative prime to p
Then it implies 1/p^n will be in submodule
Which is contradiction
Right?
Yes. Which means the subgroup we're looking at has a very simple description.
(Or, following Jagr, we can just note that it is finite and therefore surely finitely generated too).
So by showing that C is its own homomorphic image, I should maybe do something involving it's kernel I guess??
Now I am thinking about the converse, the module M is finitely generated but there is one submodule which is not finitely generated
Polynomial ring in infinitely many variables
Okay, if R = R[X1,....], and M is R, so it is finitely generated but its submodule N = R[X2,x4,....] is not, right?
Isn’t N still a fg R-module?
Do you mean R = Z[X1,...] or smth
Indeed it is a quotient of R
Yeah
Just take N to be the submodule of polynomials with no constant term, ie, the ideal generated by the variables
Yes
Actually I have ring R, and i am taking R[X1,...]
And then S = R[X1..,] ig
Generally you'd just say: If f(a+bi) = 0, then expand the definition of f and conjugate all the numbers in that equation. Push the identity up to the top, and you get f(a-bi) = conjugate of 0. (Nothing happens to the coefficients of the polynomial because they are assumed real!)
Oh generator X2🙂
Yes, S is S-module
No
What is the generator here?
Oh it is not submodule because x•x^2 = x^3 is not there
Oh wait yeah that too lol
Hmm, for pedantry the way that works is the other direction: $$f(a+bi) = 0 \implies \overline{f(a+bi)} = \overline{0} = 0 \implies f(\overline{a+bi})=0$$
Troposphere
I'd imagine there would be a more elegant solution using stuff from ring theory
This (applying a ring isomorphism) is stuff from ring theory.
Nevermind the manual solution is just expanding it all out 😪
well, you are essentially proving that conjugation is a ring isomorphism
yes, if f is a homomorphism S -> S of R-algebras then you get an induced map f: S[x] -> S[x] and p(f(x)) = f(p(x)) for any p in R[x]
As written you need to assume that f fixes the coefficients of p...
Why not generator just x, because I am taking the module over that ring itself
Uhh yeah sorry yes
Any hint?
The polynomial y is not in the submodule generated by x.
Just did it like this
Indeed. On the way to Galois theory you're going to repeat that argument with other self-isomorphisms than complex conjugation, but it will be the same basic structure (and it's generally considered so simple to do that I don't think it has a fancy name).
Sorry I was confused with the powers of x, my bad
@south patrol this doesn't make sense, my terrible mistake
But again, if submodule is N = R[X2,..] then x2•x3 has to be there
So I have to take the submodule generated by {x_2, x_4,...}
So basically like finding other zeroes of polynomials over rings and fields with non trivial isomorphisms?
Oh ideal generated by variables
So it makes sense ?
Sorry was driving. Yes the ideal generated by variables
So really any ideal generated by infinitely many variables is not a fg submodule of your poly ring over infinitely many variables
Can you see why it’s not fg?
Yes
Ideals generated by finitely many elements whose constants are zero generates only finitely many variables x_i, right?
In a sense. Typically we have a field K (for example the rational numbers) and a field extension F. Then if there's a polynomial with coefficients in K that has roots in F\K, every automorphism of F that fixes K will take roots to roots, so it restricts to a permutation of those roots. If F happens to be generated by the roots, the permutation completely determines the original automorphism, and we can investigate the structure of F by studying the group of permutations of the roots.
(Galois theory ultra-condensed to 2½ sentences 😆)
Not really sure what you mean here. The reasoning is just that the elements of the basis are independent from each other
Why is it that n^2 - n =0 in Z_2n only if n is odd?
Like if I'm looking at the ideal (x_1, x_2, ...), you can't get any x_i from any other x_j
what are your basis here?
then x1 is not indepedent to x2, i am taking it is over R[x1,...] module
if this submodule were finitely generated, then i should have some relations among the x_i and x_j that would let me reduce (x_1, x_2, ...) to an ideal generated by finitely many variables
how do you get x_2 from x_1?
i mean i am taking S = R[x1,...] as S -module
x1x2 -x2x1 = 0
sure
so how they are independent?
this doesn't tell you how to get x_2 from x_1
this is essentially like a linear algebra observation now
yes this doesn't
suppose in R^2 i have my two standard basis vectors (1, 0) and (0, 1)
i'm essentially asking how you can get (0, 1) from (1,0)
we can't
right
i see your point
mhm
The pesky thing about modules relative to linear algebra is that "there's a linear relation between these generators" doesn't imply "we can do without one of them".
yes
here i mean say generators contains finitely number of variables so they will not generate infinitely many single variable x_i
Right.
yeah i'm just creating a loose analogy
I edited my message so please read it again, I assumed there are finitely many generators
Still agree with the edited post.
Okay thank you
hmm yeah maybe that's a better argument than mine tbh
Could I get more hints for this question please?
Hint 1: ||An automorphism of a field maps squares to squares||
Hint 2: ||An automorphism of R maps positive numbers to positive numbers||
Hint 3: ||If f : R -> R is an automorphism of R, then x < y implies f(x) < f(y)||
1,2 were done already in the initial replies lol
I just shamelessly stole these hints from Fraleigh 🙈 I think hint 3 is enough to get him all the way tho
I messed around but still couldn't do it, sorry
The hints are essentially the entire problem, just combine those, and each hint implies the next
Okay so the first hint comes from the fact that if $a \in \mathbb{R}$ then $\phi(a^2) = \left( \phi(a) \right)^2$, just a basic property of ring homomorphisms
Tropical Greens
The second hint comes from the fact that if $a > 0$ then $\phi(a) = \phi \left( \left( \sqrt{a} \right)^2 \right) = \left( \phi \left( \sqrt{a} \right) \right)^2 > 0$ since $\sqrt{a} \ne 0$ means $\phi \left( \sqrt{a} \right) \right) \ne 0$
a is positive iff there exists a b such that b^2 = a
but then apply phi on both sides to get that phi(a) = phi(b^2) = [phi(b)]^2
Tropical Greens
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Isn't it not an if and only if relationship since zero is not positive?
0 is an edge case that can be dealt with easily
just replace "positive" by "non-negative"
Cool, cool
Now let me have a think about where the third hint comes from..
In order to show Hint #3, it would be sufficient to show that $x-y>0 \implies \phi(x-y)>0$ for an automorphism $\phi$
Tropical Greens
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
But that's just the positive numbers map to positive numbers property from Hint 2
I think I've got it now
Suppose that $\phi$ is a ring automorphism on $\mathbb{R}$ that isn't the identity map. Then there exists $x \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $\phi(x) = y$ for some $y \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $x \ne y$.
Tropical Greens
We can suppose without loss of generality that $x > y$, so $x - y > 0$, meaning that $\phi(x) - \phi(y) > 0$, meaning that $y - \phi(y) > 0$ or $\phi(y) < y$ for this certain $y \in \mathbb{R}$.
Tropical Greens
Oh wait
Nevermind haha
I feel like I'm making it more difficult than it actually is 😅
So I guess that means $x > \phi(x) > \phi( \phi( x))$ and that gives an infinite sequence of decreasing terms
Tropical Greens
Like you repeat it infinitely
It might be a good idea to identify which elements definitely map to themselves, then compare them to other elements with the x>y condition.
For example you know that 0 and 1 map to themselves
So you can distinguish between things <0, things > 1 and things between 0 and 1
Well I think every integer maps to themselves but the properties of ring isomorphisms
Right, so that means that for example pi would have to map to some real between 3 and 4
I think you’re over thinking this
Any other numbers that definitely map to themselves?
Oh okay because $3 < \pi < 4 \implies \phi(3) < \phi(\pi) < \phi(4) \implies 3 < \phi(\pi) < 4$
Tropical Greens
How do you know phi(3) = 3?
I feel like the next logical thing to say is the rationals although I can't explain how
Integers map to themselves under the ring automorphism on the reals right?
Well let's think about it.
Could it be that for example 1/2 maps to 1/4 or something?
What would that entail if so?
Yes, but it's best if you spell out exactly why
Maybe just figure out the idea first before spelling out all the details
It's because for any integer $n$ we have $\phi(n) = \phi(n \cdot 1) = n \cdot \phi(1) = n \cdot 1 = n$ since $\phi(1) = 1$
Tropical Greens
Nice 👍 didn't mean to be pedantic, just wasn't sure if you understood why
Im not entirely sure what is meant with data in the second part of the question.
My answer would be something like: A R-algebra hom C -> A is the same as a R-Algebra Hom R[X] -> A such that (x^2+1) is the kernel, which corresponds to elements r in A s.t. r^2=-1.
So the data I need to have is the existence of elements r in A such that r^2=-1 in A?
Yeah I understand
thanks jagr
No? Because only squares can map to squares
Actually 1/2 is a square number in the reals
So maybe
Well 1/2 is the square of 1/sqrt(2)
But a different thing you can think about. How would you think about 1/2 ring theoretically? (So not using division, only addition multiplication and integers)
1/2 = 1/4 + 1/4 or 1/2 = 2 * 1/4
Yeah, so multiplication by 2 might be relevant here
What is special about 1/2 when it comes to multiplication by 2?
It's the multiplicative inverse of 2
I think I'm starting to see what you're getting at
Right, 2 * 1/2 = 1
So that's a ring theoretic property of 1/2
You're using the fact that 1/2 and 2 are multiplicative inverses to make it so that phi(1) is not 1
Yeah, if phi(1/2) = 1/4, then
phi(1) = phi(2 * 1/2) = 2*phi(1/2) = 1/2 =/= 1
So it's not possible for phi(1/2) to be 1/4 for example
So the next step would be to do the same thing but for arbitrary rational numbers
i.e. any rational number must be fixed under the automorphism
Yes, then after that you can move onto numbers like pi
Hmm okay
Here's what I did for the rational numbers
Right, so phi(m1/n1) doesn't even need to be rational apriori.
But you know that m1/n1 is the unique x such that
n1 x = m1
Now I know that the rational numbers are fixed, I can do the same thing with the real numbers right?
Well, think about what we did with pi before.
You know phi(pi) is between 3 and 4.
What other bounds can you give for phi(pi)?
phi(pi) is contained in every open interval with rational endpoints that also contains pi