#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 343 of 1
Q^+ and R^+ is diabolical
i saw that and was literally like "oh yeah the additive group o- WHAT DO YOU MEAN"
yeah but that course was very idiosyncratic
that's one way of putting it
u got thiss
Someone needs to make a :dogking:
whats it about?
im only going to cover the first two (ring theory, polynomials)
thing is, i took the course last semester but taking the exam this semester cos i got sick last time. but last time when i took it we didn't do any of the applications stuff 💀
im just going to skip it and hope i can get 50% marks from the other two sections
should be doable, given the ratio of amount of topics
Why do we care about Frobenius groups?
It kinda seems like an unmotivated definition
Like sure we can make the definition and prove things about it
But I just don’t see how it’s useful, except to prove things about itself
any hint?
so if [G:H] = m, then for all g in N, we have g^ms = g, for some fixed s in Z
Have you learnt group actions yet
i know group action but author hasn't introduced it yet
Hmm
The fastest proof i know is by group actions
how i can do it with group action?
Sorry I have a mistake let me think about it
Consider the index of the subgroup NH
||[G:NH][NH:H] = [G:H], and [NH:H] = [N: N \cap H] divides |N|, so [NH : H] = 1, ie N \subset H||
Indeed I just drew the diagram lol
So N is normal implies NH is subgroup and [G: H] = [G:NH][NH : H] gives that index of NH is finite
Yup
Now what else can you say about [NH:H]?
now i saw an hint, i got it
thank you
for the first line, it's essentially just saying that the constant polynomials are units in R[x]
and if an ideal contains a unit then it is the entire ring
If we know that the ideal A contains c, how do we know that 1/c is in A? Is it because A is a subring?
How could the entire ring be generating from a unit?
recall that ideals need to be closed under external multiplication
if i is in I and a is in A, then ia has to be in I as well
Oh I think I understand now
If $A$ is an ideal and $a \in A$ is a unit of $\mathbb{R}[x]$, then it will have a multiplicative inverse $a^{-1} \in \mathbb{R}[x]$.
So, for any $x \in \mathbb{R}[x]$, $a \cdot \left( a^{-1} x \right) = \left( a a^{-1} \right) x \in A$ since $A$ is an ideal
Tropical Greens
if an ideal contains a unit then it contains 1
but if an ideal contains 1 then it contains everything
for the second line, it's enough to show that every element in R[x] mod I is a unit
and that's what the proof is doing essentially
on the second highlighted line, I think it should say ax + b = r(x), not ax + b + r(x)
the second line uses the fact that f(x) and q(x)(x² + 1) are both in A, and A is closed under subtraction
let $G=\langle a\rangle$ and fix $z\in Z$. Define a map $f:G\to Z$ by $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)\ \forall x,y\in G$ and $f(a)=z$. Then this map is well defined and is the $\bf{unique}$ homomorphism that satisfy $f(a)=z$. \Indeed, given $x,y\in G$ such that $x=y,\exists k\in{1,2,\dots,n}$ such that $x=y=a^k$ so $f(x)=f(a^k)=f(y)$ and $f$ is well defined (is this really sufficient to prove that $f$ is well defined?). Now $f$ is a homomorphism by construction.\\Finally, let $g:G\to Z$ be a map defined just as $f$, ie $\forall x,y\in G, g(xy)=g(x)g(y)$ and $g(a)=z$, then $g=f$. Indeed, given $x\in G,\exists k\in{1,2,\dots,n}$ such that $x=a^k$ so that $g(x)=g(a^k)=g(a)^k=z^k=f(a)^k=f(a^k)=f(x)$ which completes the proof of the hint
yassine
is this correct?
that's not how well-defined works
That doesn’t prove it’s well defined
The same argument would go through to give you a map from Z/nZ to Z, but no such map exists
what you want to show is if a^i = a^j, then f(a^i) = f(a^j)
yea i figured that i am missing something there
you don't know a priori if i = j or not and indeed it may not be
ohhh i see
let me think about that
but couldnt i argue that a^i=a^j implies i=j since G=<a> is cyclic first and then this implication will follow?
prove that the map from Z/2Z to Z/3Z by sending 1 to 1 is not well-defined
using that example, see why your argument doesn't work
otherwise i am not sure how to proceed, f(a^i)=(f(a))^i=z^i and f(a^j)=z^j but then what. There is nothing more that i can do from the constructed map f unless i am missing something
is it a homomorphism too ?
it's not well-defined
well thats what i should reach, but before knowing that you could say that it is a homomorphism or not because you still dont know that it is not even well defined right?
This is not true unless you have some bounds on i and j
well its not even well-defined
so it just can't be a homomorphism
when it's not even a set function
In a cyclic group of order 2
a^1 = a^3
yes i see what you are pointing at, i always assume that the i in {1,2,...,|G|}, but that is not necessarily needed initially
You could do it that way, but frankly it just makes the proof messier
ohhh
Because then verifying the homomorphism condition is a mess
because when the sum of the exponents is >|G| it should be reduced mod |G|?
Yeah, so then you would need to deal with that
yea i see
let f be this map, then 4f(1)=4=1 but 4f(1)=0f(1)=0 so that 1=0 and f is not well defined
is that a correct way to prove it ?
it's one way, I guess
alright now i see what you meant
ok so now WLOG assume that j>i and a^i=a^j, then j=i+kn (here n=|G|=|Z| and k in N). Now f(a^j)=f(a)^j=z^j=z^{i+kn}=z^iz^{kn}=z^i=f(a^i) so that f is well defined
does this now correctly prove that f is well defined?
looks good
what about the rest of the proof here, can you check it if you have the time
most of the work is in showing that it's well-defined
everything else is kind of obvious
yea i see
tysm both you and jagr
have a great day/night
i will probably be back very soon with more questions lol
Prime and maximal ideals are pretty interesting
I'm looking forward to doing the exercises in this chapter
yes they are
we also do geometries on prime ideals, so called algebraic geometry
Me who doesn't know what a geometry is:
The only group geometries I knoe are picturing the dihedral groups in my head
any graduate textbook lol
hell no i dont think youre ready for any of them
haha, you'll get there when you get there
basic abstract algebra by bhattacharya etal maybe
Not to say there isn't occasionally a paragraph here or there saying something, but theorems and definitions are marked so they would be easy to skip if the goal is to avoid exposition
There’s also books like jacobson Lang but you’ll be filling in half of the results yourself
Got my books confused
Bruns herzog but that’s not an intro to comm alg book
the dover book by allan clark
When I think of a book that just lists results I think of Bruns Herzog
I have an R-mod hom f: M->N. If k->R is a ring hom then f can be viewed as a map between vector spaces.. and the kernel, image etc remains the same right
You are that books biggest hater lmao
But yeah it is like 500 pages of just text, while still managing to say very little
The image depends only on the set structure, and the kernel depends only on the pointed set structure. They are of course preserved when you forget the additional info
It’s a good reference book but boring to read
I was under the impression that that is how the books kinda supposed to be used anyway
Probably, makes sense
It’s also possible I have that idea because my supervisor told me to look at it that way, presumably after he suffered through all of it himself
that is true it def is like that
I think it’s Herzogs style, Monomial Ideals is similar
let G/Z=<aZ> and let x in G, then there exists k in N such that xZ=a^kZ so that Z=x^{-1}a^kZ and x^{-1}a^k in Z. But then x^{-1}a^kx=xx^{-1}a^k=a^k which means that x^{-1} in Z and x in Z. Since x was any element of G, this shows that G=<Z but Z=<G so that G=Z and hence G is abelian (here =< means subgroup)
is this correct or is it missing something
You’re missing the most important parts: love and kindness
I'm not sure I quite see how you're concluding x^-1 being in Z...
Maybe it would make more sense to show that any pair of elements commute
ah wait, you are right. I didnt show that it commutes with all elements of G, i just showed that it does commute with a^k (?)
sure but i tried some roundabout way because i wasnt sure how to proceed if i start with something like "let x,y in G, then xy=.... to then finally reach =yx"
Well you know x = a^k z for some z in Z
You’re halfway there. From here you can conclude it commute with everything
ah wait, i honestly dont know why i didnt think about writing any element of G in that way 
so given x,y in G, there exist k,i in N and z,w in Z such that x=a^k z and y=a^i w. So xy=a^k za^i w=a^{k+i}zw=a^ia^k wz=a^i wa^k z=yx
i see, it was straightforward after writing the elements of G in this form
tysm
isnt this done by the exact same way ?
first H is in the center of G so it is normal in G. now (G:H)=p where p is a prime so G/H is cyclic
and then given x,y in G. there exist k,i in N and z,w in H (and thus in Z(G)) such that x=a^k z and y= a^i w, so xy=...=yx
then this can be generalized a bit more by replacing the (G:H)=p for p prime part by G/H is cyclic?
ohhh i see thats nice
Book?
lang's undergraduate algebra
Yes G is abelian iff G/Z(G) is cyclic
is p here meant to be prime? because otherwise the dihedral group of order 36 for example would be a counterexample
I see
im a bit confused by this - isn't abelian G = Z(G)? so G/Z(G) = 1? I guess one could call this cyclic of order 1, is G/Z(G) = Z/n just never possible otherwise?
I have to complete this, anyone wants to join?
Yeah, that's right.
The only way for G/Z(G) to be cyclic is if it's trivial
i remember reading this in aluffi! the proof is fun
I've also been confused by this result, but I think its usefulness is that it's sometimes easier to prove that G/Z(G) is cyclic than proving it's trivial
Yes, you can use this to show every group of order p^2 is abelian
may i ask what book this is? i need to study for my prelims and its been a while since i took a group theory class 🥲
oh wait you said the name
lol
yaa it's "algebra, chapter 0" by paolo aluffi
so now for this exercise, i have an idea. (Z:1)=p,p^2 or 1. Suppose that (Z:1)=p, then (G:Z)=p so that G/Z is cyclic and hence G is abelian which means (Z:1)=p^2, a contradiction. So now (Z:1)=p^2 or 1.
Now i am thinking about why (Z:1) neq 1
||Consider the possible conjugacy class sizes||
tysm for spoiling it like that so i can think about it instead of just checking the answer
(And that’s also more a nudge in the right direction than an answer)
(7) was tricky. ||Managed to do it using (6)||
Okay, after a few hours I will start this assignment
okay let's start
i tried not to look at this but i didnt reach anywhere
so i looked and then didnt reach anywhere too 
so the answer to this question that i came up with is that each conjugay class can either have size p^2-p+1 or size 1
the conjugacy class has size 1 only for e where e is the identity element in G since Z(G)={e}
otherwise, let a neq e and assume that G is not cyclic (otherwise G would be abelian and (Z:1)=p^2 neq 1). Then the subgroup H=<a> generated by a has order p since (H:1)|(G:1) and (H:1) neq 1
The size of the group is the sum of the sizes of the ccls
No
Hint: ||orbit-stabiliser||
i am not familiar with this
but let me look it up
actually the problem has a hint in the textbook but i didnt look at it yet for the same reason that i didnt look at your hint at first
is it fine if I ask a question as well or should I wait?
of course you can, the channel is for everyone
i am not 100% sure this belongs to group theory more than algebraic geometry but here it is
I just cant solve this exercise:
By considering the Cayley graph for the group G generated by the side pairing transformations of F, or otherwise, show that G is defined by the relations $(T_{i_k}^{\epsilonk} ... T{i_1}^{\epsilon_1})^p = 1.$
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For context:
\begin{theorem}\label{conditions}
If a compact, finite-sided polygon $F \subset \mathbb{H}$ is the fundamental region of a Fuchsian group $\Gamma$, then the following
statements hold:
\begin{itemize}
\item For each side $s$ of $F$ there is exactly one other side $s'$ of $F$ of the form $s' = T(s)$ with $T \in \Gamma$.
The elements $T$ are called \textbf{\emph{side pairing transformations}} of $F$.
\item If each side $s$ is identified with the corresponding side $s'$, then each set of vertices identified as a result
corresponds to a set of corners of $F$ with angle sum $2\pi/ p$ for some $p \in \Z$. These sets of vertices are called
\textbf{\emph{vertex cycles}}.
\end{itemize}
\end{theorem}
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Consider a vertex cycle $v_1, \dots, vk$ of a fundamental polygon $F$. This means we have a sequence of side-pairing transformations
$T{i1},..., T{i_k}$ which relate the vertices in our cycle in the fashion of Figure \ref{fig:4.3.a}. The second statement of theorem
\ref{conditions} tells us that the angle sum $\theta_1 + \dots + \thetak = 2\pi / p$ for some $p \in \N$.
Let $r{\theta_j}(v_j)$ denote the rotation about $v_j$ through $\thetaj$, i.e. $s{i{j-1}}'$ is mapped to $s{ij}$. We have
[ T{ik}r{\theta_k}(vk) \dots T{i2}r_{\theta_2}(v2)T{i1}r{\theta_1}(v1) = 1 ]
because the isometry on the left hand side is the identity on $s{i_k}'$ (He means the entire left hand side!) and is orientation-preserving
(since the $Ti$ are, by hypothesis).
Also
[ r{\theta_2}(v2)T{i1} = g{i1}r{\theta_2}(v1) ]
because $T{i_1}$ sends $v_1$ to $v2$ and therefore
[ r{\theta_2}(v2) = T{i1}r{\theta_2}(v1)T{i1}^{-1}. ]
Similarly
[ r{\theta_3}(v3)T{i2}T{i1} = T{i2}T{i1}r{\theta_3}(v1), ]
and so on, eventally giving
\begin{equation}\label{itsarotation}
T{ik}\dots T{i1}r{\theta_k}(v1)\dots r{\theta_1}(v1) = 1
\end{equation}
after all rotations have been brought to the right.
But $r{\theta_k}(v1) + ... + r{\theta_1}(v1) = r{\theta_k + ... + \theta_1}(v1)$. Therefore \ref{itsarotation} is a rotation through
$2\pi/p$.
Hence $(T{ik} \dots T{i1})^p$ is the least power of $T{ik} \dots T{i_1}$ which equals $1$.
Is question 21 (i) wrong? I am talking about a = bc?
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my exercise is kind of giving word-problem vibes
My idea was to assume a word T in my group is minimal in length with respect to the given relations and also assumed to be a cycle in the cayley graph, i.e. T = 1. I want to show T is the empty word.
But if anyone has other ideas Im happy for any help!
it looks right to me, what might you think is wrong?
If b = a^s and c = a^r then bc = a^(r+s) = a then a^(r+s-1) = 1 which is a contradiction to the order being rs unless it is 1
@velvet hull
well, why does b have to be equal to a^s?
all you've proved is that b=a^s and c=a^r cant be true
a^s is certainly an element in G with order r, but how are you sure there can't be any other element of order r?
for instance take n=6 = 2*3.
Then 2+3 = 5, which is not 1, but 4+3 = 1, and 4 also has order 3
Then isn't the uniqueness part of the problem wrong?
no, you haven't even proven existence yet
That's what makes the uniqueness true
don't worry about the uniqueness when you haven't done existence
from what i saw after searching about orbit stabilizer, the size of the ccls for this group G would be either p or p^2 if Z(G)={e}. is that right?
Yup (or, of course, the ccl {e})
If G has a normal subgroup of each order dividing |G|, then Sylow subgroup will be normal and then G will be nilpotent.
Now if G is nilpotent we have to show it has a normal subgroup of each order dividing |G|.
So it is enough to show every p-group has this property, because G is nilpotent implies G can be written as direct product of its Sylow p- subgroups.
And for p-group, it comes from induction, and because for group of order p, it is trivial and for the group of order p^m, take Z(G) which is non-trivial and if Z(G) = G, we are done, if Z(G) ≠ G, then take quotient G/Z(G), and apply induction hypothesis and then pull out that subgroup, right?
Sounds good
I am thinking if G is nilpotent then is that necessary it's quotient group has to be the same?,
do you mean to say that quotients of nilpotent groups are nilpotent?
Yes
I am thinking, is it true or not?
Finding counterexample
yeah, it's true because the derived central series of a nilpotent group terminates
Hint?
and so the derived central series of its quotient also has to terminate
Ig derived series should be replaved by a central series here
the same
Pretty sure they arent
Derived series is to do with solvability rather than nilpotence
Yes, Dummit used the central series for nilpotent
But the principle is the same
the lower central series is defined slightly differently from the derived series
huh, I thought they were the same
Z(G/N) is at least Z(G)N/N right
That's the core of the argument surely
You just show the central series gets bigger mod N
I have to show if G is nilpotent then maximal subgroup H of G has prime index.
So H is the maximal subgroup and G is nilpotent implies H is normal, G/H will be simple and nilpotent so G/H has prime order.
Here at least means?
Z(G/N) >= Z(G)N/N.
let a in G with a neq e, if the ccl(a) has size p^2, its centralizer has size 1, but a commutes with itself and with e. so the centralizer cant have size 1. thus the only possible size of ccl(a) is p, in this case the subgroup H=<a> of G would have order p
and there would be another element b in G such that G=<a,b> and such that <b> has order p too (?)
So G is nilpotent, and |a|, |b| are relative prime numbers.
G is nilpotent so we can write as a direct product of its Sylow p-subgroups.
Say f: P1×P2×..×P_n -> G be isomorphism given by (a_1,..,a_n ) -> a1a2..a_n.
Now take the inverse image of a and b, we can observe that if a = a_1..a_n and b = b1...b_n.
Then, if a_i ≠ 1 then b_i = 1 and if b_i ≠ then a_i = 1.
So its inverse image commute implies they will commute
Ok
So there’s one ccl of size 1, and some amount of size p
And every element is in exactly one ccl, so we can count the number of elements this way
the number of elements of G?
Yes
Is it correct?
so there are p^2 ccls, p^2-1 of them have p elements so that G has p(p^2-1)+1 elements?
We don’t know how many ccls there are
But we can count that G has ap + 1 elements, where a is the number of ccls minus 1
ah i see, but now ap+1 doesnt divide p^2 so it is definitely neq p^2
Yup
tysm for helping me all the way till the end even though i was stupid there. have a great day/night
What's exercise 30? I'm curious
So if n=2^k, then it will 2- group so it is nilpotent.
Can I say if n = 2k, then D_2n/Z(G) is isomorphic to D_2k? If yes then
And if n is odd then Z(D_2n) = {1}, therefore n can't be odd, but if n = 2×m, where m is odd then Z(D_2n/Z(D_2n) ) = 1, so D_2n can't nilpotent, same reasoning if n = 2^k m, if m is odd.
It’s not gonna be fun
I now have to trawl through a bunch of half translated sites to find PhD info
Helping here’s the only thing keeping me mildly sane
Is it true the group action that has been consistently torturing me has always been a functor mapping from a category C such that |ob(C)|= 1 and C(A,A) consists all isomorphism to set?
And the category is locally small
A group action is indeed a functor G -> Set where G is a group viewed as a groupoid with one object.
N.b. not all categories with one object are groups.
Now yes as you say, you can look at the subcategory of Set whose only morphisms are isomorphisms
yeah in general a category with one object carries the same data as a monoid
ohhh thats sad to hear, i hear that it is usually difficult when one wants to go for a PhD (eventually i will experience this too since i am planning to go for a PhD). I hope that you find great results as soon as possible
I love categorists always talking about "data"
"X consists of the data of so and so"
Well I’m a physicist technically
I label you under "category theory person"
you're really shooting yourself in the foot there with your name 💀
Well being a fan of something is different from being that thing right
I am a big fan of cat theory
But at the end of the day I am a physicist
What would you call it?
Things consists of data and axioms.
Or thingymagings and rules.
Or stuff and relations.
it's not bad, but i dont of it being used in a non-categorical / AG setting
You don't have a name for it in UA?
we just say "an algebra is a tuple (A; F) where F is an interpretation of the ..."
so rather than say "consists of the data of" we say "is a tuple"/"is defined as"
or in this case "a set equipped with operations"
I think it's mostly a matter of category theory having a lot of differently-shaped concepts to keep track of and has a tradition of not writing some of the data down explicitly in formulas and diagrams when it's "obvious" what they are (for example, it is common to name functors just by what they do to objects). So it relatively often becomes relevant to say "wait a moment, I might be confused, does a thingamajig remember such-and-such?" to the extent it's relevant to have a word for it.
that does make sense
in UA it's very easy to just alter your signature, still an algebra 
am i tripping or the proof only showed $p(x) = cf_1(x)g_1(x)$ while the lemma statement said we can find $p(x) = f_1(x)g_1(x)$?
ffflick
since c is in D and f_1, g_1 are in D[x], wlog we can replace f_1 with cf_1 (or equally g_1 with cg_1) and get an appropriate factorisation. This is what the proof is stating implicitly.
Lemma statement is a little dodgy lol
like I would state it as "p = f1 g1 for f1, g1 in D[x] with deg f = deg f1 [...]" but yeah
i dont really understand this example. does the part in yellow follow because $f(x) - r(x) = p(x)q(x) \implies f(x) + \langle p(x) \rangle = r(x) + \langle p(x) \rangle$? I think i kind of understand why r(x) must be one of the four possibilities, but then how can we conclude that E is the given factor ring?
ffflick
(that is, how do we know that the factor ring Z2[x]/<p> is the extension field E that we are looking for?)

It’s a polynomial over Z_2 of degree < 2
There’s only 4 polynomials
So you found a ring with 4 elements
It’s a field because it’s a quotient of a ring by a maximal ideal
And the class of x is a root of p(x) because when you plug it into p(x) you get x^2 + x + 1 + <x^2 + x + 1> which is 0
Any hint for converse? How can I show G is nilpotent
It is enough to show every Sylow subgroup of G is normal
Okay thank you
Dawg why is the section on extension fields so long 💔 ive veen studying it the whole day
Yes every q Sylow subgroup of G normalise P, where p≠q
And yes we can write G = P1...P_n
Where P_i is p_i- Sylow subgroup
And N_G(P) is a subgroup therefore N_G(P) will be G
how are these basis elements obtained? i know the first few are just the original basis elements, but what about the rest
if we have field extensions E/F/K
such that ei is a basis for E over F, and fj is a basis for F over K
then the set {eifj} is a basis for E over K
im so dum 😞
i got so addicted to this cat theory and how they are used to prove very basic group theory concepts like learning a language not because of that I can do more with it still need to build up fundamentals but the mental clarity is really profound to phrase such way
I must say what you have suggested really led me to a fever dream the arrows collection

That’s great!
You may be interested in this paper:
It shows how to do categorical arguments at an “element” level without needing to draw a bunch of commutative diagrams
❤️ ❤️ ❤️
I will finish reading this before the summer breaks 🥰🥰🥰
I’m gonna show this thing off to my first year undergrad peers🥰🥰🥰🥰🎊🎊🎊

-# what monster have i created...

Not yet maybe monster in training I’m still too vague hopefully in a year or two I can be one
monster is defo better than boring 🫠
Okay nvm I had a brain fart, it's obviously this i think
From Halmos.
For (f), is the following correct?
(-1)(-1)=1 iff (-1)(-1)-1=0 iff (-1)(-1)+(-1)=0 iff (-1)[(-1)+1]=0 and since the final statement is true, it follows that (-1)(-1)=1 is true
because we know that |HK| = |H||K|/ |H and K|, and we can extend this by induction
and intersection are trivial in case of sylow subgroups
How do I prove (iii) not using the fact that for p the smallest prime dividing the order of G, any subgroup of index p is normal
using that fact seems overkill
(although of course useful to keep in mind regardless)
So if H contains ZG, then it's normal by (ii).
If H doesn't contain ZG, then they intersect trivial which means G = ZG x H, contradiction
wait how does the proof of this first sentence not use the fact I don't want to use 💀
if H properly contains Z(G) then H is index p and so H normal
I think I’m just being dumb but what’s the contradiction we get if H doesn’t contain the centre?
H has order p^2 so it's abelian, Z(G) is abelian, direct product of abelian groups is abelian so G is abelian contradiction
although the fact that they form a direct product is not clear to me cause Z(G) and H form a direct product to G if and only if they intersect trivially, their orders multiply to the order of the whole group, and both Z(G) and H are normal in G
but apriori we just have Z(G) normal in G
wait i forgot the normality condition ugh
H is always indeed p... I don't understand what you mean.
I'm saying instead of using this fact you just use exercise (ii) from your picture.
Ahh yeah I knew it would’ve been something obvious
I was forgetting groups of order p^2 are always abelian
sorry how does (ii) show that if H contains Z(G) then H is normal
Every subgroup of Z/p x Z/p is normal
but you don't know G/H is a group in the first place
cause you don't know if it's normal or not
Many such cases
So many times I’ve been so stuck on a problem only to realise it’s second iso and correspondence spam
which one is second iso
The intersection one
gun to my head I only know the first one is the first one
and then the others are just others
I could not tell you which is second or third or fourth lol
There’s a fourth?
In mathematics, specifically abstract algebra, the isomorphism theorems (also known as Noether's isomorphism theorems) are theorems that describe the relationship among quotients, homomorphisms, and subobjects. Versions of the theorems exist for groups, rings, vector spaces, modules, Lie algebras, and other algebraic structures. In universal a...
supposedly
Oh 4th is just the correspondence theorem
it's because its an isomorphism of lattices
Isn’t the lattice theorem just another name for the correspondence theorem?
I’m the same in fairness, I’m aware that lattices are a thing, but not much more than that and it seems to have done me well enough
I think enpeace shills for them because they’re useful in UA, but im yet to see them in “normal” algebra
UA?
Universal algebra, enpeaces area of expertise
I hope you'll be contributing to this channel more in the future rather than just posting gifs!
I mean the lattice of ideals or the lattice of subgroups appears all the time.
i believe that you guys do use them, but still just in the language of the specific fields
Lattices are cool
I remember looking at the subgroup lattice of Sn in my rep theory class
For some n
Or maybe it was the Bruhat order on Sn
a good example is the Jordan Hölder theorem which has a nice analogue in modular lattices using, instead of isomorphic factor groups, so-called projective intervals
for example, yes
closure operators have close links to complete lattices, and closure operators pop up everywhere
Maybe I have secretly learned about them at some point without really knowing then 
It's just a poset with supremums and infimums
finite supremums and infimums
Yeah reading up on them I’ve definitely used them I’ve just never explicitly studied them
arbitrary ones make it a complete lattice
The best line on the Wikipedia page may be “a bounded lattice can be thought of as a commutative rig without distributivity”
I love an X can be realised as an adjective soup Y statement
that is a very useless statement 
I know, it’s literally just the definition lol
It brings exactly 0 additional information, but I find it amusing none the less
It would possibly be slightly more meaningful if people cared about rigs
i think what sucks is that, in the algebraic structures people actually care about, most if not all tools that UA gives you are either trivial or have been known
people just dont study new algebraic structures anymore 😔
I don’t think that’s strictly true, I know there’s a prof at my UG uni who studies a relatively new algebraic structure, like 2008 or something they were defined, which still has a lot of “low” hanging fruit and tough problems
oh whats it called?
And as much as I joke about people not caring about rigs, there is some interest in rig categories in quantum computing circles
probably something from alg logic, I know BCK algebras are of interest
Braces, they’re a weird object, I don’t know much about them but my good friend did his UG thesis on something to do with them and got a slightly novel result
oh yeah, theyre related to the Yang Baxter equation, somehow
Yeah the prof at my old uni was interested in set theoretic solutions to Y-B
id like to look into it but all the stuff with hopf algebras and coalgebras is scary
I still don’t really know what Yang Baxter is, we did some stuff with it in my quantum computing course, my friend mentioned them in his presentation/defence for his UG presentation
I know a little about Hopf algebras and it’s not too bad
At least what I know, the basics are approachable at least
maybe i just get scared easily 
ill put it off for later though already got enough to do
The book Categories for Quantum theory introduces them in a really love way
oo
going to read through an AG book with a couple friends
It’s a bit of a different perspective of course but they’re built up quite naturally, and after discussing those is where the book starts to get more into quantum rather than just monoidal categories, but it builds up to them nicely
thank you for the recommendation!
Your welcome! I’m always happy to shill for that book I really enjoyed it
🔥
A hopf algebra structure is exactly what you need to make Mod R monoidal abelian.
you mean if A is a hopf algebra then Mod A can be given a canonical abelian monoidal category structure and vice versa?
Does monoidal abelian = symmetric monoidal here
Me too 🥹
Nope, but a Hopf algebra is (quasi-)triangular if it's category of modules is (braided) symmetric monoidal.
Category theory is such silly adjective soup
And also really fun :D
That course I took on categorical QM spent a long time talking about symmetric monoidal braided dagger categories before we introduced compactness and got to chop that down
Just a lot of words
does monoidal abelian mean that the functors X ⊗ - and - ⊗ Y (where ⊗ is the monoid bifunctor) are additive?
I would say they need to be exact, but I guess definitions vary
right, so exactness guarantees that equivalence you mentioned
Hey chat, general question and yall have unbelievable intuition
Why are irreducible representations (i.e G mapping into Aut(K) for some object K with no invariant subobject) so important?
Are there decomposition theorems or the like that make them important besides just being the “simple” of their type
In some nice cases, yeah
If G is finite and K is a vector space over a field of characteristic not dividing the order of G, then this is the content of Maschke’s theorem
Interesting
That makes sense for vector spaces because you can “diagonalize” matricies into invariant blocks for finite dim vec spaces
Is this finite dim or arbitrary
I believe arbitrary
I know there is some epic C* algebra stuff about involutions but that remains to be my next rabbit hole
I am doing functional analysis rn but my algebra roots call to me
(When I say arbitrary, I mean “arbitrary non-topological”)
Epic, thank you
(with the assumptions mico said) every G-module is a (possibly infinite) direct sum of irreducibles in a unique way
Interesting
In general I believe they aren't much important, unless subobjects of K correspond to quotient objects. If you have a notion of "normal" subobjects, then they are of some importance because then you can have a thing similar to a Jordan-Hölder theorem, although the definition of decomposable would then be no invariant normal subobject
this is the case in universal algebra, at least
since Jordan-Hölder is just lattice theory I have trouble imagining it not holding in general categories with a notion of normal and quotient objects
been bashing my head at this one for a while
only thought that comes to my head with the non-normality of H is that the conjugation action by G on H is non-trivial
but then from there idk what other things I can deduce / idk any other paths of attack
Oh lol by monoidal abelian you mean like monoidal (abelian category)
sure
Instead of the conjugation action, think about the action of H on G/H.
(by left multiplication)
Then p>n is pretty straight forward.
Not sure if p=n needs to be a separate thing or you can do it in one woosh
I'm looking at the contrapositive, so that if H is simple and p divides |H| then p < n. I was able to show p <= n and now I gotta show p < n, hmmmm.
I feel a common trick for this stuff is to restrict the action slightly, so instead of looking at G/H look at G/H minus 1 element
so maybe that'll work
Yeah, H fixes H, so really you can consider the action on G/H - {H}
Can I have a little help with this. I know the theorem but I dont understant how to apply it
I also don't know what they expect you to do here
Oh wait, this is part (b) of a larger question. Post the full question.
The theorem tells you D5 can be embedded in S10. Do you want to construct such and embedding?
Yes
let $k$ be a field and choose $a, b$ from the algebraic closure of $k$, then if $a$ and $b$ have the same minimal polynomial, the fields $k[a]$ and $k[b]$ are isomorphic. does the converse also hold, that is, can we deduce that $a$ and $b$ have the same minimalpolynomial if those fields are isomorphic?
eggman
why does the author choose 5 distinct integers instead of 6? doesnt that exclude the latter case?
Wdym?
i mean why take the two 3-cycles to be in the form of σ=[ijk] and τ=[krs] instead of something like σ=[ijk] and τ=[trs] where all of these integers are distinct? is it because if this is done then στσ^{-1}τ^{-1} would be the identity?
It’s done because having one overlap gives us another 3-cycle
If you have 6 distinct yeah it will be trivial
i see, is there a general way to figure out the length of a cycle that is the result of a product of cycles (for example a product of cycles with the same length)
sounds kind of hard, especially since every permutation is a product of 2-cycles
and every alternating permutation is a product of 3-cycles
No, consider for example a=0, b=1
For a nontrivial example, take k[sqrt(2)] = k[sqrt(2)+1]
I guess it's also worth noting that if n=5, there are not 6 distinct integers 1 to n
true
oh of course, thanks
still an interesting question though, because it seems like it's a statement that should be true for "most" simple field extensions in any isomorphism class
Maybe it seems like it at first glance to someone.
But a polynomial has very few roots, while a field typically has quite a few elements, so it would be strange if almost all of those elements had the same minimal polynomial
ah yes, its the same minimal polynomial up to automorphism of the polynomial ring
actually Im not sure if that even covers everything
I'm not sure if that's true, but that does strike me as an interesting question
So cbrt(2) and cbrt(4) generate the same field extension over Q. And they have minimal polynomials
x^3 - 2 and x^3 - 4
An automorphism of the polynomial ring takes x to ax + b.
(ax + b)^3 - 2 = x^3 - 4
forces a=1 and b=0 right way, so not possible
it doesn't have to take it to x^3-4 exactly, because that doesn't work, but it does take to that up to a unit
It still doesn't do that though.
Like it can take
x^3 - 2 to (ax)^3 - 2 which you can rescale to
x^3 - 2/a^3
But there's no rational a that makes 2/a^3 = 4
hmm
It makes sense though.
Like an automorphism of the polynomial ring is just taking something to ax + b. So you would only really expect this to work if every element that generated the extension was of this form (a quadratic extension for example)
yes, and the issue is that you're allowed to multiply units and add units to the simple element itself, at the very least
and the automorphisms of the poly ring cant account for that
there's probably some more wacky things you can do to the simple element to get isomorphic extensions
now that i am solving an exercise where i have to find the sign of the given permutations, i am decomposing the permutations into products of transpositions (2-cycles). I noticed that the number of 2-cycles in the product is less than the length of the original cycle by 1. That seems to be true in general, is it?
I think an induction argument can be made to show this
it doesn't have to be
the 2-cycle product is not unique
but if you assume that no cancellations can happen then it sounds true
but you don't need that for your exercise though, once you've written out the permuation as a product of 2-cycles you are done
just count the number of swaps
by no cancellations you mean that by assuming that there is no even number of the same 2-cycle multiplies with each other in the decomposition?
there is no string of 2cycles in the middle of the product that cancels to 0
yea just count the number of 2-cycles, but i thought about that because i remembered my question earlier
or can be written out as a shorter product of 2 cycles
the only way for this to happen is to have 2 transpositions which are inverse to each other multiplied together right?
ohhh i see, tysm.
I wouldn't say it is entirely standard nptation but it sometimes means that
I would think no mostly because why would you ever need to talk about Z without 0
what if you hate monoids
It is a multiplicatively closed set
But 1 and -1 are the ones with multiplicative inverse
But yeah, if I just saw Z* I would probably think it meant {±1}
mq in his algebra/stats arc
For a field F, F* definitely means F without 0
For a ring R, R* is sometimes used to denote the group of units
but yeah as asteroid said, the real reason is to want to localize Z at {0}
is there any better proof of centre of Gl(n,R) is scalar matrix, R is real number here, i know we have to compute it with elementary matrices, but it goes computational?
yes
and it has to be invertible
i got it, mse
, it is helpful if i find AB = BA, where i assumed A is in centre and B is elementary matrix first row is multiple of some non-zero number
You can cut down on a lot of computation by also thinking about non-invertible matrices.
Like say E_ij is the matrix with 1 in position i,j and 0 elsewhere.
Then E_ii A kills everything but row i and A E_ii kills everything but column i. Then notice A commutes with E_ii iff A commutes with I+E_ii which is invertible.
This then gives you that A is diagonal. Commuting with E_ij says that element i and j on the diagonal are equal
actually yes you told me about this but here group is Gl(n,R) so how can i take non invertible matrices
I mean matrices dont stop existing just because your considering the invertible ones
oh A commutes with Eii iff A commutes I + Eii
I didn't understand the 4 symbols mean?
i know what are even permutation
Which is formed with odd cycle
And identity too
asking in you in S4
probably permuations of the symbols 1, 2, 3, 4
"begin with 1" is less clear. Meaning in cycle notation maybe...
So there even will be
I, cycles made of (12)(34)
And (123) types
(12)(34) is even?
But how can I sure it starts with 1?
I think you need to allow things like
(1)(234)
for one of the oprions to be correct
what about (12)(34)?
Yeah that is what i am confused
Whats the confusion?
i got it, thank you
well it has a 1 on the left
Depends on your convention for cycle notation I guess lol
I think it mostly depends what "begins with 1" is supposed to mean
It’s a vaguely worded question but yeah I would assume (12)(34) to be in
Then i will go with 12
Okay guys guys will you help me how do we make Cycles?
I meant i know the partition
S4
1-1-1-1 (identity)
(13)
(2)(2)
(4)
I guess it’s 12 if you allow the identity cycle on (1), that feels weird to be though but this is the issue with poorly worded questions
Okay so i want to make even permutation of length 3 cycle
(1)(3) where one element map to itself
How many of it?
choose which element to fix, then there are 3 3-cycles you can add
but this way you overcount the identity so you need to remove 3
total 9
How do we make it by hand?
Any pattern?
(123)(4)
(132)(4)
(234)(1)
(243)(1)
(134)(2)
(143)(2)
(124)(3)
(142)(3)
6
Maybe better to ask in linear algebra
I would like some clarification on the terminology in C.
Let a and b be scalars and x and y be vectors.
Associating the pair (a,x+y) to a(x+y) is a map (-,-): FxV -> V
Associating the pair [a+b,x] to (a+b)x is a map [-,-]: FxV-> V
So are we calling (-,-) "multiplication by scalars" and [-,-] "multiplication by vectors"?
The terminology doesn't seem great because in both cases an element of FxV is sent to an element of V, so it seems like you could plausibly call both of those multiplication by scalars and both of those multiplication by vectors
it's about what object is fixed
multiplication by a vector is a function from F to V, and multiplication by a scalr is a function from V to V
What am I missing here? If f: A -> B is injective (since the sequence is short exact), isn't the first condition satisfied since injective maps have left inverses?
they have left inverses that are set functions
Oh, is it because the inverse is not always a homomorphism
the lemma is saying that it's not just a left inverse, but a left inverse that is also a group homomorphism
Ah okay, thanks
Is the correct approach here to use the splitting lemma then? If I can construct a suitable linear left inverse for the first map
Wait nvm that doesn't seem like it'll be linear
Bc I know that M' \cong Im f and M/Im f \cong M''
And intuitively, M = Im f \oplus M/ Im f
Or idk
you don't have to use the splitting lemma, here, you just need the fact that M'' is isomorphic to M/M'
I will ponder this
i think I know of a way you can reduce this to an instance of the 9 lemma
if you've heard of that that
Nope I only know of the 5 lemma
You don't need a splitting homomorphism. But picking preimages of thing (set theoretically) can be useful.
Particularly you want to turn a generating set for M' and M'' into one for M
Since $M' \cong \text{Im } f$ and $M/\text{Im } f \cong M''$, $M/M' \cong M''$. Let ${x_i}_{i = 1}^n$ be elements of $M$ whose images generate $M/M'$, and let $N$ be the submodule of $M$ generated by the $x_i$.
This feels sus bc it doesn't use the fact that M' is fg
okeyokay
I mean you're not done yet
Right, so just use the fact that M' is fg now
Oh maybe we can append the generators of M' to this generating set
Ding ding ding
Good man for that
we know that
- if H char K and K normal in G then H will be normal in G.
- [G:G] is normal in G.
- if H char K and K char G then H char G.
so if i show G^{i+1} is char in G^i then we are done.
so we have to show for any group H, [H:H] char H.
if f:H ->H, any automorphism, so image of all commutator element is also commutator, so im([H:H)) contained in [H:H].
Now pick any commutator element xyx^-1y^-1, since f is automorphism we get xyx^-1y^-1 = f(aba^-1b^-1), where f(a) = x and f(b) = y, so [H:H] contained in im([H:H]). Hence [H:H] char H.
is that correct proof?
lmao I forgot about the H char K lemma, I need to write that down
How can you use fermat’s little theorem in groups?
I’m not sure how useful it is in group theory specifically, though i can definitely see it being used in some proofs about finite groups, I just can’t think of any off the top of my head. It’s really fundamental in number theory though and in cryptography, it’s how one of the early public key systems works
RSA iirc, but it’s been a while since I did anything with that so I could be misremembering
I do remember having to implement whatever one it was in sage for a class though
I just walked through the proof for it and I was wondering how the number a is interpreted with respect to finite groups.
I mean modular arithmetic is just working over the groups Z_n so I guess there’s an “application” to groups
I’ll try to rack my brain for a non trivial example where it comes up in some proof about finite groups because I’d bet there’s something
If I am interpreting it correctly, a is just some integer while we consider the multiplicative group Z_p.
Or is a in the group?
This I think
you can prove fermat's little theorem very easily with groups, if that's what you mean
Fermat's little theorem is essentially a special case of Lagrange's theorem which says that the order of a subgroup divides the order of the group.
This comes up quite frequently in group theory.
You think of a as an element of the multiplicative group of Z/p yeah
Oh yeah lol that’s a much better example
For some reason in my head the generalisation of the little theorem was just the totient theorem
just confirmign here:
L = ad(L) , given L is semisimple
(this is abuse of notation, this is an isomorphism under x -->ad(x))
every endmorphism of L (over an algebrically closed field) can be decomposed into a semisimple part and a nilpotent part
these parts are derivations and hence they are in Der(L)
and so every element in L corresponds to a semisimple part (semisimple part of its image in ad(L) and a nilpotent part
is this the "abstract jordan decomposition" of an element? just using that x can be thought of as ad(x) and then decomposing it as a matrix in End(L)?
if L is a linear lie algebra, then every element can be decomposed directly (jordan)
and it is a theorem that these parts coincide ? is that what this paragraph is trying to say?
what is meant by translation on cosets here, is it the homomorphism T_y:{xH}->{xH} defined by T_y(xH)=yxH?
I don't know what you mean when you say "homomorphism" here since they aren't algebraic structures (traditionally)
Translation on the cosets of H (a subgroup of G) is the action of G on the cosets of H where g sends some coset aH to gaH
We can call it translation because, if you like, if you consider a vector space V and a subspace W then the cosets of W are translations -- literally translations, geometrically -- of W
is that because H is not necessarily normal ?
actions arent yet inroduced in the textbook, but from the definition that i saw this action is a homomorphism G->Perm(xH), but in that case how would it apply to A_4 and S_3? I mean S_3 doesnt contain Perm(xH) does it?
A coset is not an algebraic structure (traditionally). The set of all cosets of a subgroup may be a group, indeed if the subgroup is normal
This action is a homomorphism G -> Perm({gH | g in G})
Traditionally?
maybe you call the set {gH | g in G} by the name G/H
well a coset of H isnt but the set of cosets of H is if H is normal no?
You can see cosets as heaps. I anticipated enpeace um acktually-ing me
...you read the full message right
I read it, but your first message seemed weird after you sent this
because i was referring to {xH} the set of cosets of H
and not one coset
Well that's not correct notation
But in any case, you still cannot guarantee that the set of all cosets is a group, so you cannot talk about a homomorphism between these things unless you mean a homomorphism of G-sets
Ah, I see, another random ass algebraic structure
Would be amusing to hit your professor with a heap homomorphism in intro group theory
i mean i probably should've written it as {xH: x in S_3} but i wouldnt call this notation incorrect tbh (i have actually seen it in a textbook before so i assumed that it might be understood like this)
Heaps are just unpointed groups. Pointed heaps are groups in a precise way
I wrote an imaginary exercise based on this once... someday...
i see yea i get your point (not the G-set part because idk what these are yet)
I actually have heard of heaps but I can’t think of how, some sort of alggeo context maybe?
perhaps you're thinking of stacks? I don't think heaps matter at all lmao, except perhaps as torsors
Exercise: we say that a subset X of a group G is 'good' if
(1) it is nonempty
(2) if a, b, c are elements of X, then so is ab^-1c.
Show that X is a coset of a subgroup of G.
No I’ve heard of torsors too so maybe I’ve just seen someone here ramble about them
Torsors are heaps in a nice way
This seems fun, Ill maybe do this tomorrow
so in the case of the exerise that i sent it would be A_4->Perm({gh| g in A_4})? but in that case how is this a map A_4->S_3 although Perm({gh| g in A_4}) isnt a subset of S_3?
I'm going to write G/H instead of {gH | g in G} since this is standard anyway
yes i am aware of this notation
but in that case how is this a map A_4->S_3
Perm() of any set with 3 elements is isomorphic to S_3.
i thought you were avoiding it because H may not be normal
I was avoiding it since it can confuse people who might think that we can only write G/H if H is normal
so maybe me 
I do try not to confuse people!
ah sure
i see tysm for your help
Best of luck with the book!
tysm, have a great day/night
pretty stuck in this one 😵💫
2010 = 2 * 3 * 5 * 67 and there's a unique Sylow-67 subgroup
A group of order 67 is supersolvable clearly as 67 is prime
And so I think it suffices to show that a group of order 2 * 3 * 5 = 30 is supersolvable
not sure how to do that
How many sylow 5s do we have?
||Either 1 or 6||
||If we have 1, then we’re done (prove it)||
||If we have 6, then we’ve accounted for 24 non-trivial elements||
||So we have one sylow 2 and one sylow 3, so we’re done||
ah
That’s a nice problem I like that, the usual Sylow procedure but not quite as obviously so
ye from a strong form of the correspondence theorem
in general, groups of size pqr, for primes p < q < r , have a normal subgroup of size qr, i think that makes this super speedy
yea that got me to the end
wdym strong form?
Oh I just mean like you need that normal subgroups correspond to one another
oh yea
r being a prime feels bad aha
But this is a nice fact!
any hints for how to prove it?
I think you just Sylow bash
yaa
you need distinctness also?
yeah i think so
the inequalities are important here, u force a massive number of sylows
yea
can't wait for this prelim exam to be over so that I can forget finite group theory again
was in my first year course i think for some reason
iirc
i think there is a weird elementary way w/o sylow or smth
I'd be curious how to show that without Sylow stuff
by counting carefully
sounds like Sylow with more steps
lmao
it is giving me weird flashbacks cause at my uni our first year (undergrad) exams are called prelims
Yeah the supersolvable part probably boils down here to the fact that the order is a product of distinct primes
Is there a way to finish this last part other than showing that the groups of order 12 that aren't A4 have exactly 1 subgroup of order 3?
I think you can instead constructively show that having 4 subgroups of order 3 implies A4
in that setting, we can define a conjugation action on the 3-sylow subgroups, and we can just think of these as permutations, so if the action is injective (Im pretty sure it is but I’m struggling to prove this lol) then our group is isomorphic to some subgroup of S4 of size 12.
We can just compare orders of elements after that, we know there’s 8 elements of order 3 from the 3-sylow groups and 3 unknown orders from the 2-sylow group.
there’s only 8 elements of order 3 in S4 (4 choose 3 * 2, there aren’t enough elements to permute on to get order 3 otherwise). After that, combinations of these get us the 3 order 2 permutations, which fills in the entire permutation group and this is just A4
this is… more involved than i thought 😭
I also still don’t actually know if that action is injective or how to prove that
Yea hm I guess the solution is to just check the cases for the other possible groups
Reason I asked is because I forgot about one of the groups of order 12 💀
Okay I just totally forgot about that last part of the theorem
But if 4 = G : N(P) where P is any of the 3-sylow subgroups then N(P) = P, but if the kernel is a subgroup of every N(P), then the kernel must be trivial
Therefore, the conjugation action of G on the 3-sylow subgroups, or the homomorphism from G to S4, is injective
And then the 8 order 3 elements specify the entire group structure
And it has to be A4
And now you don’t have to check any other order 12 groups 
@barren sierra does this check out I have very little confidence in this
I also don’t know what this motivates for other problems beyond “conjugation actions are randomly useful”
Hmmm I think it checks out
Yea 😵💫
So in p-group G, we can always find a normal subgroup of each divisor of |G|.
We can do by induction on order of G. If Z(G) is G then we are done, if not then apply induction hypothesis to G/Z(G) because it has less order than |G|. And the pull back the subgroup of that order.
I think here I have to be careful, if Z(G) has order p^k, then for any p^m, 1≤m≤k, we can get normal subgroup, for p^n, n>k, we need to do G/Z(G) stuff
Yeah last paragraph is great
I guess you could also pick any nontrivial element g in the centre with order p and consider G/<g>
yes that would also be great
upper central series looks good, why do we need lower central series?
if i have to prove G is nilpotent then every subgroup of G is nilpotent.
Say first, G is finite group so G can be written as direct product of its sylow subgroups because G is nilpotent.
say G = P1 \times \ldots......\times P_n, then any subgroup of G will be of the form H_1\times \ldots ...\times H_n, where H_i is a subgroup of P_i.
Since P_i is p group so H_i will be p group so H_i will be nilpotent, hence H will be nilpotent because product of nilpotent groups is nilpotent.
but i want to prove the same when G is infinite group, any hint?
The more the merrier
Maybe compare one of the central series of G with one for H
but what is the relation between Z(H) and Z(G) ?
Z(G) cap H is contained Z(H) ye
yes Z(G) intersection H contained in Z(H)
is there any good resource where i can get equivalent between upper central series and lower central series?
from lower central series it is easily comes that every subgroup of nilpotent is nilpotent
The argument is essentially the same for the upper central series, no?
Like
H^i < G^i
is one and
Zi(H) > Zi(G) \cap H
The other
yes
i proved first part already, now second part is if gcd( |a|, |b| ) = 1 then ab = ba. So it implies if P1 and P2 are two distinct p sylow subgroup and q sylow subgroup respectively then P1P2 is subgroup because P1 commute with P2. Similarly for P1P2 and P3 commute each other then P1P2P3 subgroup,..., so G = P1P2P3...P_n.
therefore N_G(P_i) will be G, right?
well this just follows from the fact that a finite group is nilpotent iff it is the direct product of its (unique) sylow subgroups
yes
if i have to show G^i is characteristic in G, so induction on i, works
So G/G" acts on G", how it helps me here?
How do I show any normal subgroup H of nilpotent group has non trivial intersection with centre ?
Any hint?
Is there a definition of length l(G) that doesn't assume that all composition series have the same length?
If a group admits more than one composition series, then all of the composition series are the same length by Jordan-Holder
right
And thus definition of length is well defined
There's no assumption that they're all the same length
That's given to you by Jordan-Holder
so I guess like something that doesn't use Jordan-Holder if that makes any sense
I only ask because this is from a past qual
and one of the instructions is "don't use theorems that trivialize the problem"
and that feels like it trivializes the problem 😵💫
Hmm I don't think Jordan-Holder trivializes this problem
Can you even do it without Jordan-Holder? Dont you need to know theyre the same length for it to be well defined anyway
I guess you could define the length of a group to be the min length of a composition series of it
Then Jordan-Holder gives you that actually every composition series has the same length
well that was my question, is there an equivalent definition that works that doesn't use length to be well defined
Hm I guess
Iirc that's how atiyah-macdonald defines length
Idk I think some ppl will define Jordan-Holder then define length as a consequence of it
Aityah Macdonald talks about groups?
And some define length first and then use Jordan-Holder
That might actually have been how my group theory course did it iirc
Atiyah-Macdonald talks about modules
Yeah
thats how they did in my class
It also applies to artinian modules
The infimum of lengths of all composition series is a natural one
Yea I wrote out a proof using that one just now
This is the definition used by my professor when I first learned about length
A little help would he good for Q2
if some $g \in G$ where of infinite order, then $<g> \cong \mathbb{Z}$. In that case the intersection in the question is contained in the intersection of all nontrivial subgroups of $<g>$ which is trivial.
ExpertSqueeSQUEE
oops I was thinking of R endomorphisms ignore what i said before, Im not sure if it also holds for any rings R and S, I wouldnt think so but Im not sure I could prove it
I found this though, maybe of use: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3706239/when-does-rm-hom-sr-s-cong-r
Is this Sisyphean study session for abs alg for quals lmfao
and then prove the more generally true statement that for all subgroups H of a nilpotent group G that N(H) is strictly larger than H
yes
Rip bozo
anyways I can't figure out a proof that doesn't use this fact
can't wait till I'm done with quals to forget group theory 
unless I fail qual and have to take the algebra I course
Seems in similar vain to the proof of Sylow in The first place
?
The whole gist of Sylow is a group acting on it’s subsets of a given prime power size
ah right
Yeah
I think I may have done this or a similar problem at some point in my group theory class, IIRC you assume that N(Q) = Q and you see that Z(G)<Q and then do some more waffeling
I think you then quotiented out by the centre and do some tedious argument with results in a contradiction somwhere down the line, but I only vaugley remeber this, its been a miniute haha
Why are elementary group theory proofs so fucking ass
I really hate them
lotta computation I assume
the real fun part imo starts with subgroup series and stuff
I'm a sucker for filtrations
Can you do do this in an orbit stabilizer way
Consider the action of Q on P/Q by left multiplication.
The fixed points of this action is N(Q)/Q.
Since Q is a p-group the number of fixed points is equal to |P/Q| mod p. So 0 mod p.
Since Q is a fixed point there is at least 1, so [N(Q):Q] is at least p.
This is also how I would prove the sylow theorems
SOULREAD
A lot of finite group theory is a group acting on its power set via multiplication or conjugation, huh
Well, no power set in sight here, but groups acting on stuff is a big deal yeah
Or it’s quotient by a subgroup
I interpret the normalizer as the stabilizer for conjugation on a group’s power set
Never thought of it like that, pretty peak
Here, is S^{-1}A/S^{-1}a a S^{-1}A module, and Ann(S^{-1}A/S^{-1}a) = Ann(S^{-1}M)?
This is my attempt at filling in the details, can somebody let me know if it looks alright so far? Let $a/s \in \text{Ann}(S^{-1}M)$, so that $am/st = 0$ for all $m/t \in S^{-1} M$. Now, $S^{-1}A/S^{-1} \mathfrak{a} \cong S^{-1}(A/\mathfrak{a}) \cong S^{-1}M$, via $\frac{a}{s} + S^{-1} \mathfrak{a} \mapsto \frac{a + \mathfrak{a}}{s} \mapsto \frac{am}{s}$ (where $m$ generates $M$). Therefore, if $\frac{b}{t} + S^{-1} \mathfrak{a} \in S^{-1} A/S^{-1} \mathfrak{a}$, $\frac{ab}{st} + S^{-1} \mathfrak{a} \mapsto \frac{ab + \mathfrak{a}}{st} \mapsto \frac{abm}{st} = 0$, since $\frac{a}{s} \in \text{Ann}(S^{-1}M)$. Since isomorphisms are injective, $\frac{a}{s} \in \text{Ann}(S^{-1}A/S^{-1} \mathfrak{a})$, so that $\text{Ann}(S^{-1}M) \subseteq \text{Ann}(S^{-1}A/S^{-1} \mathfrak{a})$. Conversely, let $\frac{a}{s} \in \text{Ann}(S^{-1} A /S^{-1} \mathfrak{a})$. If $\frac{m'}{t} \in S^{-1} M$, then $m' = b m$ for some $b \in A$. Then $\frac{am'}{st} = \frac{a bm}{st} \mapsto \frac{ab + \mathfrak{a}}{st} \mapsto \frac{ab}{st} + S^{-1} \mathfrak{a} = S^{-1} \mathfrak{a}$ since $\frac{a}{s} \in \text{Ann}(S^{-1} A/ S^{-1} \mathfrak{a})$. Since isomorphisms are injective, $\frac{am'}{st} = 0$, whence $\frac{a}{s} \in \text{Ann}(S^{-1}M)$. It follows that $\text{Ann}(S^{-1}M) = \text{Ann}(S^{-1}A/S^{-1} \mathfrak{a})$. It remains to show that $\text{Ann}(S^{-1}A/S^{-1} \mathfrak{a}) = S^{-1} \mathfrak{a}$.
okeyokay
But you know $S^{-1}M \cong S^{-1}A/S^{-1}\mathfrak{a}$ so of course they have the same annihilator
ExpertSqueeSQUEE
Well I mean set theoretically
Of course they're isomorphic but as sets they could be different a priori
If some $x \in A$ acts on $S^{-1}M$ by 0 then it also acts on $S^{-1}A/S^{-1}\mathfrak{a}$ by 0 and vice versa.
ExpertSqueeSQUEE
I see
Why is it the case that the annihilator of S^{-1}A/S^{-1}a is S^{-1}a? I can see the \supset inclusion but not the \subset
Never mind
We can just multiply it by 1/s
its the same as Ann(A/a) = a
Wait
btw I answered earlier your question on #elementary-number-theory
sl(3,F)/Z(sl(3,F)) , F char 3
why is this a non-semisimple lie algebra?
i can't think of any solvable ideal
id say any solvable ideal must stablizie some flag with x.V_i /subset V_(i-1) .. as in that elements of I can be put in upper triangular form ... the diagonals must sum to 0 tho
the diagonal can't be (1,1,1) and so i thought maybe the strictly upper triangular matrices.. but this isn't an ideal of sl(3,F)/Z(sl(3,F))
ORE LOCALIZATION
What
Sorry i didnt see a reply to ur stuff
And repeated stuff that has been said
An ideal q in a ring A is primary if q != A (...)
Sorry my brain is not working right now
I thought q is a primary ideal of B
I'm looking at the sentence "Also the contraction of a primary ideal is primary"
And the logic which follows it
I still don't understand why A/q^c is not zero since we don't have q^c primary immediately lol
oh yeah I don't think it's true actually
it's an omitted assumption, I think
it's not something you should worry about, most of the time you can be pretty confident your ideal is a proper ideal
So it's only true under the condition that q^c =/= A?
yes
contraction of primary ideal is primary, so if q is a primary ideal of B, then q^c is a primary ideal of A. you can verify this by just looking at the definition which uses elements
it's a general fact that there is an injective homomorphism from A/I^c to B/I. And as an ideal is primary iff it's quotient has no non-nilpotent zero divisors, a fact which then also holds for all subrings, I^c is primary if I is
in particular, I^c won't be A if I isnt B, because there is no homorphism from the zero ring to any other ring
I had to pull up Atiyah to confirm this, and the issue is that the author is seemingly implying that this is true for arbitrary ring homomorphisms
wdym?
there is no injective assumption
but to be fair for integral extensions and all that jazz this is not an issue
so whatever
you mean that there is an embedding of A/I^c in B/I?
that's a general fact, hell it's technically universal algebraic
no, the issue is that if you drop the injective assumption the contraction might be the whole ring
I'm not 100% convinced it goes away even if you assume injectiveness
how can there be an embedding of the zero ring into a nonzero ring
or a homomorphism at all
I'm getting confused, this is not a detail I really care that much about lmao have a nice day
I^c can't be A, because else there would be a homomorphism from 0 = A/I^c into B/I =/= 0
that's impossible, ergo, I^c is never A when I isn't B
using elements, I guess you can see that, if I^c = A, then f(1) = 1 in I, so I = B
if I is a proper ideal and f : A -> B a ring hom, then I^c = {a in A | f(a) \in I}. If I^c = A then, in particular, 1 in I^c, so f(1) = 1 in I, contradiction
sniped
man, rings are so nice
real shit
See above why this assumption isnt needed
oh, wait, lmao my prof insisted on dropping f(1) = 1 assumption when he taught us ring homos
yeah that makes sense
😭
they are teaching you LIES
and algebras
doesnt that just make it a rng homomorphism and not a ring homomorphism
it does but that's too based for some people
what a weird prof
My linear algebra/intro ring theory had course notes written by someone who said homomorphisms don’t need to map 1 to 1 and lectured by someone who did.
That did get confusing on many many occasions
if there's no 1, then you are able to have
short exact sequences of rings
the horror
what
we're talking about mapping the multiplicative identity to multiplicative identity
are you saying "if you require ring homomorphisms to map multiplicative identities to multiplicative identities, then the difference between a homomorphism and an isomorphism is only whether or not the map is surjective"? i just want to make sure i understand what you're saying
oh wait is 1 to 1 supposed to mean like an injective map
okay that explains the discrepancy then i think LOL
Found another error in Pinter 😔 "two errors in any codeword can always be detected". What if 000000 is changed into 001001?
You'd need a minimum distance of 3 not 2
So far, I've been able to figure out the p | a case by using the fact that Z/pZ is an integral domain, so either x+y or x-y=0. I'm somewhat lost with the other case however, I was thinking that I could treat the congruence uv = a (p) 'one unknown at a time', essentially by treating only v as unknown and applying previous theory but clearly this won't work. Does anyone have any advice on where to start?
So if uv = a mod p and p does not divide a, can you show that u is determined by v?
as in, do you want me to write an expression for u in terms of v?
Ye
right ic
Are we assuming that uv = a (p) too
well then u = a/v (p) i guess lol
This only shows that u is determined by v when p doesnt divide a because if p |a then u = 0 or v= 0, and they are thus not related
The other thought I had was to say that (u,p) = 1 so there exists x',y' with ux' + py' = 1, then multiply by a to get uax' + pay' = a, reducing mod p, we get that ax' = v, but this is too general, as we're not using that u=x+y and v=x-y
Wait I can assume that uv=a (p) because i'm just counting solutions for variable x,y
Yes but you already did the other case right
Ye
So how many choices of u, v are there
I guess also of course you should deal with the case p = 2 separately lol, but that is easy enough
well then there can be at most p-1 choices for u and v because there are at most p-1 choices for u.
You are essentially there lol
If i pick any nonzero u, what should you set v to be
(You have already written it down)
Well I should set v = a/u, but the point I'm making is that if we put the system of equations x+y = u, x-y = a/u, then by linear algebra we always have a unique solution (x,y). Like the determinant is -2.
So we have exactly p-1 solutions
Oh sorry sorry i didnt realise that was where you were stuck and not here
as we have p-1 choices for u
Why p not 2? what goes wrong
Or maybe i should figure that out myself
Well everything goes wrong for p=2 i guess
oh we have 2 solutions for each case .. whereas this theory tells us that there should be 1 for p not dividing a
hm
-2 is not invertible in Z/2
thank you broski
But then you can just try like all 4 possibilities for x and y
ya
Wait I am confused lol. Does this problem actually break when p = 2
Like x^2 = y^2 implies x = y in Z/2 so there should be 2 instead of 3 = 2p-1 solutions for 2nd bit
Im goated...
if only..
we could drop the "char ≠ 2" assumption in soooo many places
Well I have just tried solving x^2 - y^2 =0 (2) and x^2 - y^2 = 1 (2), and there are 2 solutions for each case. but this theory tells us the first equation should have 2p-1 = 3 solutions and p-1 =1 solutions in the second case
ya exactly
oh how hideous
I feel like that’s quite common, 2 and 3 are the weird freaky primes
They’re primes by default rather than by merit
2 is often the most interesting prime tho smh
2 is a quad residue mod p iff p is congruent to 1 or 7 mod 8. awesome
Yes very fun fact
Usually stated as 1 or -1 though aha
I forget like what is the nicest way to prove this fact
Ah yeah one is using Gauss' lemma and just explicitly computing lol
Yeah the way I know uses Gauss' lemma. Very down to earth. big fan
Maybe this:
Consider Z[i]/p.
Then
(1+i)^p = 1 + i^p
= 1 + i * (-1)^((p-1)/2)
so is 1+i or 1-i = (1+i)*i^3 depending on whether (p-1)/2 is even.
But also
(1 + i)^p = (1+i) * (1+i)^(p-1)
= (1+i) * (2i)^((p-1)/2)
So if s = (p-1)/2 is even
2^s i^s = 1
2^s = (-1)^(s/2)
So 2 is quadratic residue iff s/2 is even iff p-1 is divisible by 8.
If s is odd you have
2^s i^s = i^3
2^s = (-1)^((3-s)/2)
So quadratic residue iff 3/2 - (p-1)/4 = (7-p)/4 is even iff 7-p is divisible by 8.
Ah very nice. I guess this is basically a Gauss sums argument
this is very nice
I was wondering if you could study Z[sqrt(2)]/p directly to do this
It would be cool, but I don't quite see how.
Like you would have to show whether it's a field only using the value of p module 8...
Yeah lol
I will now change chat: If I have a ring R and an ideal P in R, what are the conditions that R and P need such that the localization of R at the ideal P, R_P, is an integral domain?
The first clear criterion is that is an integral domain, then the localisation at any multiplicative set is a domain (unless it contains 0 lol), and be identified with a subring of the field of fractions of R
Beyond that I think it is a little subtle. For example e.g. Z x Z has two prime ideals corresponding to each factor of Z, and after localising at one of those prime ideals you get back Z. So you go from a non-domain to a domain
Is it thus enough for the ideal to be prime? It is clear to me that it works in case P is maximal, but what if it's not? Of course the ring must be id
Yes, exactly
S = R \ I being a multiplicative set is equivalent to I being prime i guess
I guess writing it out completely explicitly:
If there is an s not in P such that
sxy = 0
then there should be a t not in P such that either
tx = 0 or ty = 0.
I'm not sure you can reformulate this into anything nicer, but maybe
I mean 1 must be in S and ab for each a,b in S
Which is exactly the definition of prime ideal
I feel like there should be some geometric argument, at least for reduced rings.
Like the product of two rings is just the union of their spectra, so doesn't change this local condition.
And then something like C[x, y]/(xy), the spectrum looks like a cross. So locally appears irreducible everywhere except the origin. And indeed localizing somewhere other than the origin gives some localization of C[x] or C[y].
Let $G$ have a composition series and let $K$ normal in $G$. I would like to show that there exists a composition series of $G$ which contains $K$ as a term. If we consider the normal series ${e} \trianglelefteq K \trianglelefteq G$, then by Schreier refinement we can take this normal series and the one for $G$ that we know exists and find a common refinement. Thus $G$ has a composition series that includes $K$. Is there a simple proof that doesn't use Schreier refinement?
Spamakin🎷
K has a composition series, and so does G/K


