#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 340 of 1
idk how to give a hint that would not just give the answer up immediately
but when considering quotient rings (esp. in polynomials) you usually try to express P € F2[X] as a sum of two things, one in the ideal you're taking the quotient with, one outside of it
Do you know about polynomial division (long division)
given that the thing that is in the ideal is going to be sent to 0 by the quotient map
The remainder is a valuation-minimal representative of a congruence class mod the ideal (namely the principal ideal) homie
How can you wiggle an n-deg polynomial in this ring
But do you know what the result from doing it is?
Like what would you get if you divided a polynomial by x^2 + x + 1
In a pid P we can write out an element x in respect to y as
x = ay + r, where r is the remainder, essentially the smallest valuation element of the congruence class of x mod y
Yep, all the congruence classes
The impossible -> trivial pipeline
Average Grothendieck proof
a problem is either unsolved or trivial
or both
Anyway hey chat so is the fact that $T \left( \bigoplus_I A_i \right) \cong \bigotimes_I T(A_i)$ due to the fact that the tensor product is like the coproduct in the category of $R$-algebras and the free/forgetful adjunction ?
mizalign
Mobile Tex help
what is T? I assume the As are R-alegbras?
does the same work for $\bigwedge \left( \bigoplus_I A_i \right) \cong \bigotimes_I \bigwedge (A_i)$
Tensor algebra functor, free from R-mod to R-alg
mizalign
Where it’s the graded comm tensor product
The tensor product is only the coproduct in the category of commutative algebras.
So this shouldn't be true (unless you're just using the tensor symbol as the symbol for the coproduct)
Or the symmetric algebras with the abs-comm tensor product
Well the big o plus is going in, i.e coproduct in R-mod, and the tensor product is the coproduct coming out in R-alg
OH WAIT YEAH
You’re right
That would work for the symmetric algebra
Do you maybe want a tensor product over R
Tensor product
I was trying to see if there is a functorial way of showing the Tensor algebra over a free module is free (or graded free)
Yeah, it should work for the symmetric algebra, and also for the exterior assuming you're doing a tensor product of graded algebras (so you get the right signs)
Graded-comm right
Are the R Algs c9mmurative
Yeah
huh interesting. Would've thought the coproruct in R-algebras was the relative tensor product. Neat
Yes it is the relative one
Ah good
That should follow just from the adjunction
Indeed we have little choice consideeing the initial object
Free as in admitting basis for the grading modules
Compose the adjunctions bro
Oh, you mean free as an R-module
Then just note free R algs have free underlying R module innit
real!
At least in finite case
I should return to my algebra roots
Yeah, I guess it's not really an abstract nonsense thing. You just have to look at what the free algebra is
Is there a category for which the universal enveloping algebra is free of
free of what?
Like the adjoint to the forgetful from to R-alg
Like u cam use the fact Sym^k takes free to free
I mean which UEA do you mean
Whatever you mean this should be a tautology lol
I'm not sure I understand the question
Since free usually basixally means being im the image of a left adjoint of forgetful
oh hey there is a mod here rn so i can ask. a guy who has no special roles wants a thread here is it chill if i create one?
Like is the function from an R-algebra to it’s universal enveloping algebra a functor
The other people with threads don't have any special roles at least...
dont you need at least VA to make threads here? something like that
Idk, but you have very active
Should be yeah
It's just A |-> A(x)A^op
Don't think it has an adjoint though
I wanted to do that through the grading on the algebra lolz
Not exact I don’t think
Another very obvious question probably
Is a group representation literally just a group action on a vector space (I say “group action” generally to be a map to some automorphism group for some object )
I'd say it's a linear group action on a vector space
a pirate learning algebra
How so?
Would a map G -> Aut(V) on a vector space allow a map from R[G] {group algebra} to End_R(V)?
Yeatte's Secret Thread
wait until the pirate start learning ag... then you could use the Sailing the Rising Sea thread in #algebraic-geometry ...
Well if it didn't satisfy
g(v + w) = gv + gw
I wouldn't call it a representation, but I guess people disagree on the difference between representation and module
Yes
Well that’s because G is mapped into Aut_R(G) I’d think, no?
Not just Aut(G)
Right, but when you say "group action" I think
G -> Aut_Set(V)
not
G -> Aut_Rmod(V)
Ah sorry
The latter being an R-linear group action
I am terrible with my terminology
If X is a C-object then I usually say a group action is a map G -> Aut_C(X)
Anyway, not terribly important what you call things. Just as long as we agree what they are
Which is where I would reach for the word representation instead
Smart, is that general usage for general categories
Pretty much yeah
someone out here ghost pinging my shit
another question, is this a proper isomorphism
Embed failure br
That would be an isomorphism yeah. Not sure if "proper" is supposed to mean something specific here
Like of R-algebras
thank you!
That’s what I ended up with trying to understand mixed tensors
Before like, considering sections for the case of bundles :p
One more question. So lets say we have a monoid representation on a C-object A, i.e a monoid morphism f: M -> End_C(A).
If we have a subobject B of A such that f(M)B is a subset of B, then that B object is f-invariant
Would it be convention to call the representation irreducible iff A has no f-invariant subobjects?
I mean you could go to the other channels
Also calling this a hellhole but not discussy 
I wouldn't crash out if you said ts
from you that says a lot. thanks wew :3 :3 :3 bbg
Is there a way to prove the nilradical is the intersection of all primes without Zorn?
As 1 is not nilpotent, the nilradical is never R when R is not the zero ring, so it implies the existence of a prime ideal and hence Zorn's lemma
Existence of a prime ideal is strictly weaker than existence of a maximal ideal
Really? Darn
Yeah
This is equivalently like the Boolean prime ideal theorem or the ultrafilter lemma (which is used for existence of non-principal ultrafilters)
I think you can get away with assuming that every ring has a prime ideal
Yes you can i think
Let me think
Suppose f is not nilpotent and A non-zero. Then A[f^-1] is non-zero and by assumption has a prime ideal p. The preimage in A is a prime not containing f, which is all we need
Sure but the statement i gave is non-trivial logically
I mean it is not obvious that choice does not follow from ZF lol
Yus I was thinking of doing something like that
Yee i guessed hehe
I love these kinds of arguments
this works
is this the same x for every a?
We don't want ax = a, we want ax = 1
the ring here is not assumed to have a unit
this should follow from ||injectivity of right multiplication by a||
yea i see, if ax=a and assume bx =/= b then by injectivity abx =/= ab = axb = abx which is a contradiction
yea, i think that works too. i was thinking that if we know a = xa, then ba = bxa => b = bx
oh thats a cleaner way to phrase it : D
only if c > 1
maybe i'm crazy bu like
isn't ||the product of all the non-zero elements the identity||
uhh
Prove it bbg
i guess this must be correct but need to prove it lol
Nah what Abt elements with x^2 = 1
oh yh
They won't vanish
Yo, my name is silly billy and I- AAARGRGGGHHH
Oh nice
I have pondered this a bit tbh
To my knowledge the proof of Hilbert Basis theorem, that A[x] is noetherian iff A is, requires choice
But I think you can provde it using UFL with the lemma that every ideal is within a prime ideal
by considering the prime ideals of A[x] and the going up/down properties
It's dependent choice though :p
Afaik it does not but some proofs given do need dependent choice
I should try and remember the proof I know lol
Weird how R is noetherian <=> R[X] is noetherian <=> R[[X]] is noetherian
is Noetherian-ness preserved under J-adic completion?
Seems to do with the leading/trailing coeff map
It is.
Thanks Atiya-Macdonald
A long while ago I wanted to see when the monoid ring functor preserves noetherian-ness but I basically ended up with the Hilbert basis theorem case
Because like for instance, if that property held for monoid M, then F_2[M] would have to be noetherian.
Let $A$ be a noetherian ring, $I \subset A[x]$ an ideal, let $J = { \text{leading terms of polynomials in } I} $, which is an ideal of $A$. By assumption, $J = (c_1,\dots,c_n)$ for some ${c_i} \subset A$; pick $f_i = c_i x^{n_i} + \text{lower order terms} \in I$. Let $N = \mathrm{max}(n_i)$. Nowgiven nonzero $g \in I$, we can write it as $g = a_n x^n + \text{lower order terms}$, $a_1 \ne 0$. If $n \ge N$ then write $a_1 = \sum_i \lambda_i c_i$ for some $\lambda_i \in A$ and note $f - \sum_i x^{n-n_i} \lambda_i c_i \in I$ has strictly smaller degree. Moreover, $I \cap A[x]{< N}$ finitely generated as an $A$-module since $A[x]{< N} \simeq A^n$ as an $A$-module and is hence noetherian. If we pick generators $\omega_1,\dots, \omega_m$ for $I \cap A[x]_{< N}$ as an $A$-module, then we have $I = (f_1,\dots, f_n, \omega_1,\dots, \omega_m)$
Prismatic Potato
No choice
True
Very nicee
Is this the standard proof? I was rusty with the last bit
I think choice is used for the equivalence of terminating ideal chains, finite generators, and every ideal set having a maximum
in particular these hypotheses hold if R is f.g.
Yeah. Here I am using "every ideal is finitely generated" which I suppose is the "strongest" in the absence of choice (?)
Well it definitely quickly implies any ascending chain stabilises
Don't think it implies every non-empty ideal set has a maximum in the absence of dependent choice (but with dependent choice, you can keep saying something isn't maximal and build a countable chain which must terminate by above)
hmm
Another funny thing I remember never being mentioned in some texts is how Noetherian wrt countable chains is equivalent to being Noetherian wrt arbitrary chains given choice
i guess it's just cause "noetehrian wrt arbitrary chains" is of intermediate strength between countable chains and just arbitrary non-empty sets having maximal elements
This is real interesting.
Assume F_2[M] is noetherian. We can pull back the divisibility relation through the principal ideal map by saying x | y iff (x) includes (y), consider the family of ideals (x) for x in M\{e}, then this family by Noetherian-ness has a maximal element, i.e some maximal (x).
oh sorry i misread
I’m trying to see what happens when R[M] is noetherian iff R is for each comm ring
I wonder if it somehow reduces to M being isomorphic (order isomorphic with the imposed divisibility monoid structure) to N^n
M must be commutative so F_2[M] also comm lmfao
I’ll ponder this in a bit
I don't think so; the difference there is restriction to Boolean rings.
If you really want to go down this rabbit hole, look into Noetherian-ness conditions in constructive mathematics.
I'm looking at the group on this page with id #52
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_small_groups#List_of_small_non-abelian_groups
it says Z_5 ⋊ Z_4, but we have to choose a homomorphism phi: Z_4 -> Aut(Z_5) right? I think if ker(phi) = {0} we get group #52, and if the kernel is {0,2} we get group #50 which is Q_20.
but i just assumed it would make a group when the kernel was {0,2} and i checked the orders of the elements with python, which led me to think it was Q_20, so idk if i'm right or not
\begin{exercise}
Let $G$ be a finite group and $n > 1$ an integer such that $(ab)^n = a^n b^n$ for all $a,b \in G$. Let
\begin{equation*}
\begin{split}
G_n = \{c \in G \mid c^n = e\}, \h9 G^n = \{c^n \mid c \in G\}.
\end{split}
\end{equation*}
You may take for granted that these are subgroups. Prove that $G_n$ and $G^n$ are normal in $G$, and $|G^n| = [G : G_n]$.
\end{exercise}
clubsoda14
I was able to show that G_n and G^n are normal subgroups, but I don't know how to show the second part
the map $\varphi: G \to G$ given by $\varphi(g) = g^n$ is a homomorphism
Khush
then what does first isomorphism say?
yes, that's correct!
thanks 🙏
I think this depends on how you define Noetherian without choice, as the usual equivalent definitions fail to be equivalent
Guys is my stgi proven correctly? I got myself a bit confused since I was too addicted to those Lego proposition building so I tried to clear up my mind
Let R be a comm. ring with unity, I = (a, b) then can I write (a, b) = {ra + sb | r, s \in R}?
yes, you can quickly prove that they're the same
What do you use as the definition of (a, b)? intersection of all ideals containing {a, b}?
that definition works
What do you use as the definition?
RA?

Oh right this is notation from D&F
I told you I'm on section 7.1 
Yes I've learnt later material in my lectures
bro is talking about localization now
I gotta finish chapter 7 quick
which one?
H->HN/N being the map youre after that makes sense to me.
I personaly cant make sense of 1.4.9 as stated:
If N is a subgroup of H, then HN=H, so statement is H/N is a normal subgroup of H.
E.g. picking H=Z and N=3Z then youre saying Z/3Z is a subgroup of Z and to me this doesnt make sense as Z/3Z is not even a subset of Z.
Another thing is Im not sure how exactly you use proposition 1.4.6 to get the map H->HN/N from H->G, if you want you can clarify that a little.
almost correct, why can the division algorithm be applied for I?
I know what it is, I was just asking which is usually taken as the "definition"
I have that page open rn
the division algorithm only works when you fix an element that you divide by
but I consists of infinitely many elements
yep
that's what I was looking for
That doesn’t matter
You can just pick any f in I and then divide by f and get a representative for any g with norm less than the norm of f
I guess it wasn't clear what I was saying yep to lol
I am somewhat at a loss here. I'm currently trying to show the forward direction, that if a is a pm mod p, p = 1 mod 4, then so is -a.
I'm trying to show that the order of -a mod p is p-1. This would be enough to show that it is primitive. So suppose not, that (-a)^k = 1 mod p (k < p-1). Then k | p-1, so in particular k is even, so k = 2c, and (-a)^k = (-a)^2c = a^2c = 1 mod p. This would contradict a being a primitive root.
What's irking me though is that the very next question is to show that a is a primitive root mod p, where p = 3 mod 4, iff -a has order p-1/2.
I am not using the fact that p = 1 mod 4 in the 'proof' of the forward direction I gave. Can anyone advise on what could be going wrong?
Im not sure how you're getting "k | p-1, so in particular k is even"
k=1 is not even for example
What you should notice is that
if -a has order k, then (-a)^2k = a^2k. So k must be a multiple of (p-1)/2
Then think about (-1)^((p-1)/2)
Yeah this was a mistep oops
yeah it's a pretty simple question
don't assume a norm exists, though
this works in UFDs
I really don't see how you're getting 'if -a has order k, then (-a)^2k = a^k'?
yeah, basically
This course is kicking me in the butt bro i have zero intuition for any of the material
Exam in one week I'm cooked
Sorry it's supposed to say (-a)^2k = a^2k
So 2k must be a multiple of p-1 -> k is a multiple of (p-1)/2
by the correspondence theorem, ideals in the quotient biject to ideals in the PID containing the prime ideal
but all ideals containing the prime ideal are principal
it's a good theorem
Also just prime ideal = maximal ideal in a PID
genuinely the best isomorphism theorem
Y'all lattice haters
It's just a partially ordered set with meets and joins
Ragebaiting..
(a) / I = (a + I)
just use the prime implies maximal
that's even faster than the correspondence theorem
a field implies PID
what ideals does a field have?
Dont overcomplicate it lol
If p is congruent to 3 mod 4, then p-1/2 is odd, so (-1)^((p-1)/2) = -1 (p). If p is congruent to 1 mod 4, then p-1/2 is even, so (-1)^((p-1)/2) = 1 (p)
So we need to extend this observation somehow, I'm thinking of using (-a)^k = -1^k a^k to calculate the order of -a.
So if we assume p = 1 mod 4, a is a pm, (-a)^k = 1 mod p, then
(-a)^k = -1^k a^k = a^k, (the last equality comes from (-1)^((p-1)/2) = 1 mod p, and that k is a multiple of p-1/2). This implies that k = p-1 by the fact that a is a primitive root.
For the case p = 3 mod 4, consider first the equation x^2 = 1 (p). The only inequivalent solutions are \pm 1. This implies that a^((p-1)/2) = -1 mod p, as it is a square root of 1 not equal to 1. So, (-a)^((p-1)/2) = -1^((p-1)/2) * a^((p-1)/2) = -1 * -1 = 1 (p), so -a has order p-1/2. (Again we use that k is a multiple of p-1/2)
Difficult enough controlling traffic on the ground
Istg
Would be hell doing so in 3D
if you disagree that correspondonce thm is the best then you need to do more algebra
Imagine a car crash at an altitude of >20 meters
They're called helicopters with wheels 
damn sniped
Tech bro ahh idea
Have you seen what’s happening in california?
The self driving cars are getting stuck in gridlock and honking at each other
Classic
San Francisco resident Randol White says he heard the noises for the first time about two weeks ago -- he was woken up around 4 a.m. to the Waymos honking at each other. https://abc7ne.ws/3Ai47Ci
#waymo #auto #sanfrancisco #noise #abc7news
what if we had self driven cars and also they had pre-established routes and schedules and were also really big and had dedicated infrastructure
"almost" any car crash at that altitude is fatal
Wait that’s genius… and the self driven cars were really big and could hold a lot of passengers at once
i call it the trAIn
AND WHAT IF THEY RAN ALONG PREDETERMINED PATHS
Holy shit… go to silicon valley bro stop doing math
OMG I THINK WE MIGHT BE ONTO SOMETHING
anyways i bet the trAIns would never have any crashes and would be reliable and run on time
unless they are german for some reason
Ach nee, de trein is stukkie wukkie
Uppsie wuppsi
Okay garmin video speichern
Oepsie woepsie, de trein is stukkie wukkie. We zijn heul hard aan t werk om dit te make mss kan je beter fwietsen owo
Nice
yall thats dutch not deutsch 💀
Ze train haz gone kaput :(
Dutch is cool
She is a Belgian infiltrator
250cm
This is from reids undergraduate commutative algebra chapter 1, which im mentioning because he tries to motivate the algebra by saying some things about how it ties to the geometric context.
For example talking about establishing K[X,Y]/(F) as "functions" on the set cut out by {F=0}.
Is that exercise some instance of something that can be rephrased in the geometric context?
He also had a short paragraph about the geometric picture of nilpotents e.g. Y in K[X,Y]/(Y^2), but I didnt quite understand the paragraph other than that the "functions" in K[X,Y]/(Y^2) carry more information than the ones in K[X,Y]/(Y).
She is relearning it but I cannot. Dropped it as fast as possible I hate that shitass language
based
je parle francais aussi
Ye Canadian ass
For nilpotents, see eg Vakil’s “Foundations of Algebraic Geometry” section 4.2 “Visualizing schemes: Nilpotents”. Nice pictures there
(said with love)
Thanks, will check this out now
Here’s the pdf
Btw Spec A is the set of prime ideals of A
It has some topology on it called the Zariski topology which is why he gets to say like “closed points” and “irreducible closed subsets” and stuff but you can ignore that for now
To do b take the idea of a and generalize it
^ and maybe the name “Euclid” will ring a bell
Euclid's parallel postulate?? Will we have to prove the independence of some proposition from some set of constructed propositions satisfied by Q^x?????
True…
Or probably any permutation of the set of primes
Don't see any reason why that should fail
Then I'm guessing it won't be an isomorphism
Won't be a homomorphism
f(8) * f(2) = 14 * 2 ≠ 49 = f(16)
oooooo
Also like you can check that 2 = 0 here and i = 1 so there are only two elements
what's the basis?
Yur
Thanks that was a helpful read
np
I guess in a PID so that irreducible elements are prime, and prime ideals are maximal ..
it is true that F[x] is a euclidean domain, but I don't see how that's useful here
so?
PIDs can have finitely many primes
just pick a field
sure, but then you need to prove that there are infinitely many maximal ideals
and that does not sound easy
go back to primes
hint - ||proof by contradiction||
||Can this be done with field extensions stuff?||
ahh, that's a pretty cool proof, I think it works
||if there are finitely many primes, adjoin all the roots of those primes to get a finite extension K of F that is algebraically complete. But then K is finite which is not possible||
||yes that's the proof I had in mind I wanted to ask "can this be done without field extensions lolololol||
wait, I don't think this proof is watertight
in particular it's true that ||every polynomial in F[x] splits in K, but I'm not sure that every polynomial in K[x] also has to split||
Or ||use Euclid's proof lol. I believe it goes through verbatim||
||alternatively, there must be an irreducible and hence polynomial for every degree as there are finite fields for all orders p^n, thus there are infinite primes in F[x]||
or is this what hchan meant
You can even explicitly count how many irreducible polynomials of degree n there are I believe lol
and then just show that sum is oo
which is funny
can someone show this? I think that's a gap in the proof
it'll be that algebraic over K means algebraic over F, hence in K
Istg
The proof of this is much harder in the infinite field case
Get better at transitivity
Proof of what
that there are infinitely many irreducible polys in F[x]
oh i didn't realise that was already mentioned. but ye i was making a joke lol
Infinitely many primes :D
With degree > 1 D:
I wasn't talking to you lol
lol addition is easier than multiplication so let's only show addition works
So me
easier just to note it is self-inverse tbh
ye
though like ig there is not much to this
what does "prove directly" even mean here lol
It seems hard to find a way to prove it indirectly
There really isn't, it's like basically reproduction of definitions 
I think it was an exercise in Jacobson to show that the number of irreducible polys of a given degree can be shown to be the Dirichlet-convolution-inverse of some nice sequence
Yeah n*Irr(n,p) is the inverse of p^n lmfao
yes this is equivalent to there being such an injective group homomorphism
well dont do that, you should trust your own argument!
why do you dismiss a group of order 21 being in A_10? its been a while since ive had to think about alternating groups haha
i see, so youre just checking that you can reduce the question to checking this
That’s a wrong proposition I deleted it already. I didn’t check subjection (🫣🫣) i have been quite addicted to games but i am fixing them now 🥰
There is a group of order 21 in A_10 though...
yes
I bought a book though it looks elementary enough for foundation, coming up random proposition to prove usually lead to deep confusion afterwards. I thought it had been a good idea saving money 😭
There are ways to get books for free though. Like the library, using free resources or methods of more disputed legality.
I have too much discipline issues with e book 🫣🫣
How so?
I got my book with a discount so I guess it’s worth kinda.. and algebra is fun 🥰
I don’t know if it’s e book I just feel like why would I even read it
Yeah, if you like books by all means. I meant if you need to save money in the future.
Indeed, i usually like instant-food style study
Like I watch a bit of YouTube video and I felt so confident and then I messed up, and ebook made it even worse for my poor discipline 🫠🫠
Lol wdym
Like 10 min YouTube vid and inspired feel so great and then do puzzles and reveal later that there’s a lot of gaps in knowledge
I'm still a little confused. Does the simple fact that it's an ebook dismotivate you or is it something about the format?
It’s just that… I am not disciplined enough 😭😭
Ye
Or is it just so you arent tempted to use the computer for other things
I understand that lol
A useful trick could be that a homomorphism G -> S5 is the same as an action of G on a 5-object set.
So one can think a little about what such possible actions could be
Q8 is a country not a group
If you know what the 2-sylow subgroup is then that would solve it yeah
Yeah this one was awesome
unironically want to do this for HA.pdf
W
Kuwait
Lmao
Pronounced the same
I'm not sure where 3 enters into the picture.
The idea is Q8 has order 8, so if there is such an injection then Q8 would be the 2-sylow subgroup.
But this path presumes you know (or can determine) the 2-sylow subgroup
Wdym
Yes the 2-sylow subgroup is the same
Oh lol
Yes the 2-sylow subgroup has order 8
S4 has a subgroup of order 8
Lol im so confused
I think I'm confused as well
Wwhat do you mean by this other than that that the 2-sylow group has order 8
because it's a 2-group
8 is not a prime
They are indexed by primes
Q_8 also has a Sylow 7-subgroup. It is of order 7^0.
But now yhis makes sense
It would be kinda inconvenient if you need to change the name of the p-sylow subgroup depending on it's size
lets stop bickering about semantics and show that the sylow is D_8 already
I much prefer the thinking about group actions of Q8 argument, but if this is the path we're going...
my favourite group is the Sylow 71-subgroup of the monster
we bringing out the Burnside ring for ts one?
actually no wait I like this better too
I won't, you may if you like
Found the problem interesting and an approaching it like this dw 💖
I have examined the table of marks in my third eye
dunno what this means cause there definitely isn't an isomorphism between a group of order 8 and of order 120. You need to show that Q_8 isn't the 2-Sylow of S_4
A while ago I found the smallest n such that Q_8 embeds in S_n. I cannot remember what it was or how the proof went. I think it may have been n=8... but I don't recall.
here's my hint: all subgroups of Q_8 are cyclic
it definitely isn't 6
and therefore isn't 7, I believe 8 tbh. Once you have C_2 \wr C_2 \wr C_2 you should be able to embed loads of stuff
It is indeed 8, I guess that raises an interesting question:
Which groups of order n don't embed into Sm for m<n?
I think this is very hard to answer
I remember looking this up, there is a name for this invariant
and it's quite hard to compute at least
cyclics of prime order take it or leave it
I think I deleted my notes on this :(
ok yes that's an injective map, why is it a group homomorphism
for p-groups we might be able to think about Q-representations and lift back to the burnside ring in a controlled manner
well they aren't because the 2-sylow is D_8 and not Q_8
hence why I said show that the 2-sylow isn't Q_8
or try to show that it is ig if you want no external info
I gave you a hint
I'd have to remember what the degrees of the idempotents to say anything meaningful from here but the gist is that the linearisation map B(P) -> R_Q(P) sending a P-set X to Q[X] is split surjective
and there's a section that preserves the obvious grading on both corresponding to the idempotent associated to the trivial subgroup. So this question is probably related to groups where none of the rational representations are faithful
@coral spindle am I close lol
ur staring at an element of order 21
it absolutely does
interesting to think about all of the possible cyclic groups you can get in S_n
nice little combinatorial problem for you
and me too tbh
I haven't been following sorry
that's ok 💔 I know you hate me anyway 💔 it's fine 💔 I won't cry that much 💔
It's easier to calculate the smallest S_n containing some C_m rather than the largest C_m contained in some S_n
there's an element of order k in S_n if and only if k is the lcm of the parts of some partition of n. So for 10 we have "the boring ones", then ones like 7+3, 7+2+1, 5+4+1 - giving elements of order 21, 14, 20 to give an example
yur
and then you just need to make sure it’s even since you care about A_n
are you sure lol
yes 👁️
the first definitely sounds easier than the second
they both seem like they'd be in the same complexity class unless I'm stupid
for the latter, you just factorise and add
for the FORMER
rather lmao
I suppose given that factorisation is hard...
but the other way around is kinda tricky for human beans
you just factorise
Jarvis google "NP-complete"
wait is it complete or just NP
now I'm actually going to have to google
I have trolled myself
Figuring that out might be good progress on that million dollars
Is the second answer no? For instance, $7 \mathbb{Z}$ is a maximal ideal of $\mathbb{Z}$, but the ideal generated by $(4)$ in $(\mathbb{Z}/7 \mathbb{Z})[x] \cong \mathbb{Z}[x]/7\mathbb{Z}[x]$ is proper, hence not a field and so $7 \mathbb{Z}[x]$ is not maximal
okeyokay
Wait nvm (4) might not be right lol
(Z/7Z)[x] is isomorphic to Z[x]/7Z[x]... can you justify that?
Yeah I proved it earlier for the first part of the problem
Oh wait it's 7(Z[x]) you mean, not (7Z)[x]
Am I losing it folks
this is what sweet potato claimed
I am full of it
Yes
So 4x9 = 5x7 + 1
so I infer that 4x9 = 1 in (Z/7Z)[x]
So I can see that (4) = (1)
Not so sure about that being proper
great pfp
Lol I forgot elementary facts about the units of Z/nZ
anyways I'm sure there's a proper ideal...
So it's true that the polynomial ring isn't a field.
But (4) isn't a proper ideal, not sure where you got that.
My profile banner is red because of how red this mf guy is 😭
(x) would be a proper ideal though
I think (x) would be a good thing to look at
bro is always crying
Sniped wtf
4*2 = 8 = 1
🗿
Wait is this true for any field lol
Listen it's very late
wait nvm
no proper ideals in a field
Oh wait every nonzero element of Z/pZ for p prime is a unit huh....
That is correct
That tends to happen in fields
lol
Idk
I think this pfp is just better in general 😔
Might be what makes it better
jp is the best canadian
Artist called The Caracal Project, I saw him live B2B with IMANU and Buunshin which was insane, and took that picture
#2 is drake
Nathan fielder is my top contender
Kian is the best Canadian
:0
Jordan Peterson?
Yas
I just saw the #2 is drake and so I’m assuming/praying you’re taking the piss 
#1 justin bieber
Holy 2012
My #2 favorite Canadian is Jonald
John Petrucci is American, though.
Goat
\begin{exercise}
Suppose $G$ is a nontrivial finite group and $H,K \unlhd G$ are normal subgroups with $\gcd \left( |H|,|K| \right) = 1$.
\begin{enumerate}[label = (\arabic*),itemsep=1pt,topsep=3pt]
\item Define a nontrivial group homomorphism $\phi:G \rightarrow G/H \times G/K$.
\item Prove $G$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $G/H \times G/K$
\end{enumerate}
\end{exercise}
clubsoda14
What does it mean to prove that G is isomorphic to a subgroup of G/H x G/K?
Exactly what it states
That there's a subgroup of G/H x G/K which is isomorphic to G
Indeed
I did this exact question a few days ago
A fun problem is figuring out exactly when G is isomorphic to G/H x G/K
H = 1, K = G 👍
The canonical map should be an isomorphism iff G = HxK, but they can be isomorphic in different ways I guess
Quick question, I know that the kernel of any surjective homomorphism from a commutative ring to a field is always a maximal ideal, but is the converse also true? For any maximal ideal I of a commutative ring R, does there exist some surjective homomorphism φ:R->F s.t. kerφ=I?
If it's just an arbitrary isomorphism we can even have G=H×H and let H and K both be H×1. Seems to be tricky to imagine a nice general condition that example satisfies.
If I is maximal, then R/I is automatically a field, yes.
oh god I'm stupid nevermind 😭
thank you
Good occasion to internalize that "surjective homomorphism" is the same thing as "quotient by the kernel".
R -> R/I by quotient map
oh someone answered mb
Yeah I was being an idiot lol
wait hangon
hello
lol hi mati
I meant the canonical map
how fundamental is group theory in modern math?:
yes
any good intro resource? i'm in the middle of bachelors degree in math
you need the postgrad role to access some areas of the server
its all good lol i dont care it was just kinda funny to see someone with the postgrad role asking how important group theory is
Dummit and foote ig
thnks
Yea there are a lot of intro algebra books
huh interesting I think of the roles as your position academically lol
well ill say that i am nowhere near the level of my role lmao
I dont have postgrad role
i am the sussus amogus
Im pre sure i have access to channels
idk how to remove
a very poor kiddo
damn congrats on the child, after all a joke that horrible can only be made by a dad
Thank you 🥹
also postgrad always confuses me since I see it and think I'm talking to postdocs 💀
I say this having the role and not being a postdoc
||Physicists could do this||
I have no idea how I got the pending postgrad role
||Also some applied or CS-y math people lol||
But i think basically when you join and if u say ur interests then it signs you up automatically
Maybe though dont most maths courses have group theory in curriculum lol
Hm
idk an embarrassing amount of math majors from my undergrad never learned group theory 
Oh lol this is a mandatory course for us
i think knowing basic abstract algebra is important
Actually our physics LA course ostensibly makes you learn what a group is
Or did anyway
just as is knowing analysis
if the things are like applied or cs stuff then id partially agree but like,,, idk the point of an undergrad math degree is to give you exposure and basics in multiple areas of math
i disagree with this
What alternative do you propose
based
I assumed it would be everywhere ngl
how do they know without trying group theory
How do you really know what you are interested in at the start of a degree
Like you probably know basically nothing about maths if you begin
everyone should get a taste of all sorts of math so they can make an actual informed decision
At least i did lol
Sets are "modules" over the """field of one element""" so if you care about anything that's a set you should care about modules and therefore about groups
And now i am a phd student i know nothing again
mant such casss
My undergrad math major no algebra required either
Me when I need to do literally any computation
Honours math program had all tht stuff
chat should i wipe my memory so i know as much as everyone else when i start uni in a couple months
Real
Yes
Bro wtf classes r u taking in uni
Dont tell me intro to abstract algebra
You should learn some SERIOUS computations
"someone probably has a spectral sequence somewhere that computes this" - me, 5 times a day
There is only one computation relevant to me and you can prpbably guess what it is @ hatfuel
havent decided yet, wanna talk to the student advisor and see what higher year classes i can take
wait ur in hs?
crazy
Is it the fibanocci stuff lol
But i am impressed
lmaoo
You can probably guess tho
i already talked to her and she said its okay i just have to sit down and talk to her abt it which is awesome
I am confusion about smth now
truly the easiest branch of math
But every time i wonder about smth which is possibly not hard i am scared it is well-known and Ill embarrass myself
Roughly derived algebraic geometry
Is contemporary abstract algebra a good book?
REAL
Uhh integrated masters, tho i did learn it in ug
i think it is like,, almost everyone lol
True lol
I have smth rn where it is like seemingly claimed without proof in a paper if you squint and unravel difficult notation
So idk if it counts as proved or not
Im not american
To be fair Britain shouldve been annexed by America
everyone should have been annexed by the Netherlands
maybe that'll fix y'alls infrastructure
it's so cruel there's a whole country of people who have to use that accent every day
Lmaoo yeah

yeah but thats fucking Amsterdam 💀
one of the most expensive cities i think
and a shithole anyways
never in my life would I want to live there
is it the best or just the most elite because its in amsterdam
Nijmegen is great
great culture and underground scene
Real
It gets really tiring
Bro is an expert
Ah ok
Rip
Still surprised so many voted for it bruh
i spent one week in Cambridge UK earlier this summer and decided I was glad they rejected me for grad school LOLOL
I am v surprised they rejected you but then there are also no homotopy theorists there
Presumably ORW
I'm not surprised, Oscar has very high standards. Also I think they want a masters degree
But yeah i imagine itd be the masters
Idk
I enjoy the slander
Well I also had to submit some like research question and idt it's one Oscar cared about 💀
i applied to Cambridge UK just in case some other dude (you know who) stayed there but mans wasn't even involved in the admissions process
It is funny tho cause in the UK like often they would ask u for likw a thesis topic and plan or smth
But then math dept specifically will say dw
Nah
E.g. Warwick had this iirc
And for my uni i had to give a thesis topic but i just said "Homotopy theory / AG" and apparently that is now my working thesis title
the two genders
is imperial a real school or just a business school
hUH
Idk about finance sorry lol. But for economics stuff sure i think it is v much up there
Yeah it is v good lol
Arguably best in uk for engineering for example
Ah chem eng
💀
Oh LOL
bruh
Nah what i was gonma day is chem eng imperial iirc was like the highest requirements of any degree im the UK
this is why math good. Hagoromo chalk is shelf stable
Because they would basically keep upping the requirements if you did more than 3 a levels
I mean A level requirements
cries in Python code calculating the universal formal group law
Oh yeah i guess Oxbridge medicine has high GCSE (or equivalent) requirements
But not the highest A level
Yeah probably
I think the vibe is like at Cambridge you are much more likely to get an offer but then STEP more than cancels that out
I should add that i applied to (and did) Physics for a year lol
Before swapping to maths
Nah
Same as ug
Though it is common to move begweem the two unis
And just stayed
I meant cause u went bruh
But i mean a lot of phd students here did ug at cam
And vice versa
wow imagine getting accepted to grad school at your undergrad 
I was the year that did not do exams
Tbf i think in the US there is more of a bias against staying on than here
That is my impression anyway?
PAT lol
Is that not common?
This feels like pushing it but yh ig we do compared to Europe
yeah depends on the school and major but yeah
This convo is just reminding me of high school stress and people obsessing over uni admissions tho
😭
I did not like the competitiveneess
Can i share something embarrassing
I just made some stock using vegetable scraps etc
And wanted to drain it
Me when I go to a grad application panel and they're like our undergraduates are the best students out there!!! And then the next sentence is and that's why it's a dual edged sword applying here for grad school since we'll have higher expectations since we already know u 💀
But instead of draining into a bowl i just drained it down the sink without thonking
Yikes
Yeah
Main annoying thing is i had simmered it for like 20 mins
Lol
oof free dinner for the sewer rats
Me when I pull the wrapper of my ice cream then throw the ice cream in the trash
It's chewsday innit bruv gonna eat some stuff in the sewers
Have you done this
I have yes
Condolences
(but I fished it out)
It was chewsday yestaday guvna ah ya nuts
Nobody noticed
Hatfuel do u know about the E_oo cotangent complex
I am curious about smth
Actually it may be ok
oh dear I was reading this section in HA today while half asleep
so I know Of it but I don't know it
Ah it is just how like
If you have a map of ordinary commutative rings u get the topological / E_oo cotangent complex as well as the algebraic / normal cotangent complex
And there are results on comparing them
But if u are not familiar dw lol
huh yeah I am not familiar
Maybe i should talk to a SMA about this
Ah well the cool / weird thing is that there is a comparison map which is like 3-connective or smth lol
But not an equivalence usually
It is very related to the difference between S and Z
I think I saw something in HA near the cotangent section that claimed E_oo rings are morally like boring rings but wiggled a bit
In the sense that also if you are over Q then it is an equivalence
Yeah lol
What category do these complexes live in
A-modules
yeah this is wild to me
In what sense?
Uhh tbf this is of course not literally true in general lol but with examples like the sphere it is true
But like i think this can be a good heuristic
And then you have things like a map of E_oo rings is an equivalence iff cotangent complex vanishes and iso on pi_0
Actually a better thing is like
The postnikov filtration is made up of square-zero extensions
At least for connective stuff to make myself safe lol
ya sure
And ig that is the idea behind this
cries in chromatic
Tbf connective should not matter here but ye
Here is a fun question
Uhh wait can i remember this
So the cotangent complex of an Einf ring R is an R-module you said?
Oh it was like
What ring is it where Tyler Lawson showed it is not an E_13 ring or smth lol
BP?
Yes
well, we should be careful, Tyler showed itnfor p=2
Yeah and Andy also did it for almost all BP<n>'s
There's a few that are still wide opens
And some that were already known to be E inf
I actually forget how Tyler did it, I know Andy's thing was some power operation nonsense
As most of these things go
yeah the E infty operad is a horrible horrible object
compute the space of structures and show it is empty lol
Ngl operads in the formalism of HA still scare me lol
Well just p technical and it is written so generally
this is why I have never read that part of HA.pdf and just learn how to form sentences with the vocab words surrounding this lolol
Lol
whats HA?
Its food enough for me since I usually only need "admits a frobenius"
Higher algebra, book by Jacob lurie
1500 pages D:
I kinda wanna run an indexing program on it first, Ctrl F'ing it is a pain
abt 3 years ago i think
nah
i know a bit of integration, basics of analysis
i do know linear algebra cuz i just picked it up along the way, and now I know basic point set
but besides that mostly focused on algebra
its cool
Chad
Ah ok lol
Frobenius... beautiful
Hmm
they have more classes in other topics?
no module theory 😔
Chad absolute frobenius vs. chud relative frobenius
ok
rip
ragebait
lol
Chungus $\delta$-ring structure
Prismatic Potato
She frobenious on my structure till she make quantum computing interesting
U need to put enough distortion and bass EQ on the master so the entire thing becomes a 40hz square wave
actual phonk producers
honestly have done that a couple times its funny as hell
esp when you put a limiter after
ok uh
i have little experience with commutative algebra
I'm trying to formalize the same thing as "Y divides F means that there exists H such that F = YH" but with ideals
so something like "(F) is a subset of (Y) means that there exists I such that (F) = (Y) inter I"
but how could I express such an ideal I? using the generators it's simple to take I=(H) but this implies using noetherianness
I = (F)
yeah also that
You should frankly not be thinking of it this way.
idk how to not lose information
To contain is to divide in ideal land -- this isn't because there is some parallel in divisibility, but because if a principal ideal contains another principal ideal, this is precisely to say that the generator of one divides the other
So you should take ideal inclusion as a "multi-element" divisibility
(rather than some kind of direct translation)
well I mean, ideals were at first discovered to study divisibility right
They were defined to encapsulate precisely this "multi-element" divisibility idea.
I could elaborate on this but it's not terribly interesting.
Anyway
Besides, when you see actual prime decomposition of ideals down the road, the thing you need to look at is the product of ideals rather than intersection really
primary decomposition is in terms of intersection :P
thank goodness I'm thinking of prime, rather than primary, decomposition
The reason I was thinking about that is that Fulton's Algebraic Curves proves the unicity of intersection numbers (in a very simplified setting, i.e. over k[X,Y]) having defined them as something that depends on a pair of polynomials (those who generate the curves that are intersecting). Since curves really only depend on polynomial ideals and not on single polynomials, I was trying to figure out a proof for a definition of intersection numbers that'd make them depend on ideals and not single polynomials
However there's an induction step down the road where the polynomial is split into two (the F=YH business). I was trying to figure out the analogous for ideals
but is it unique
🤨
I'd really prefer fewer peanut gallery comments
Well this seems very serendipitous, because you seem to be looking precisely for a factorisation of ideals
In algebraic geometry this is really saying that every variety decomposes into a finite union of irreducible varieties, which I think is what you are needing for your proof
Indeed this is the Lasker–Noether theorem about the primary decomposition of ideals
So this would work only thanks to k[X,Y] being Noetherian?
Yes... but you should think of Noetherianity as an extremely reasonable requirement. Unless you are trying to say that Noetherianity is the key here, in which case yes
Yes, I guess I'm also still trying to make up a motivation for (thinking about) ideals in non-Noetherian rings
but that solves it, thanks
Well while this particular geometric interpretation no longer applies, like I said you still have a perfectly reasonable interpretation of ideals as things that describe generalised 'multi-element' divisibility
nothing changes on that end
I don't know if people do algebraic geometry with non-noetherian rings 
what do people even do with those?
Idk, cry?
We do care about some non-noetherian rings, I'm exaggerating. They're just trickier to deal with.
Non-noetherian rings appear a lot in mixed/positive characteristic geometry and surrounding math
Because of things like https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fontaine's_period_rings?wprov=sfla1
More generally like these perfectoid rings are important
Also in this vein like fortunately this statement only requires the space X being Noetherian, and Spec A being a Noetherian space is much weaker than A being Noetherian. So there are more examples (Silly ones include k[X1, X2,...]/(X1^p, X2^p, ...))
(Remark: annoying thing here is that a scheme being Noetherian means a different thing to its space being Noetherian lol)
That's crazy I didn't know that Spec A being Noetherian didn't mean A was
That's really cool
(Note again should be Spec(A)'s space being Noetherian aha)
I guess I now wonder though how this relates to Lasker--Noether
like because the link between Lasker--Noether and decomposition into irreducible subvarieties works for (classical) algebraic varieties and kinda uses the Nullstellensatz etc
ig the general thing is that irreducible components of Spec(A) correspond to minimal primes, and then Lasker--Noether tells you about those in quite a strong way
Let $G$ be a group, $a \in G$, and $|a| = n$. I'm trying to show that $|a^k| = \frac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$. I was able to show that $\left( a^k \right)^{\frac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}} = e$. I'm having trouble on the rest of the proof: \nl
\noindent Let $0 < m < \frac{n}{\gcd(k,n)}$. Then $m\cdot \gcd(k,n) < n$. Since $|a| = n$, it must be that $\left( a^{\gcd(k,n)} \right)^m \neq 0$. \nl
\noindent This is where I'm stuck. We showed in a previous problem that $\langle a^k \rangle = \langle a^{\gcd (k,n)} \rangle$, so it follows that:
\begin{equation*}
\begin{split}
|a^k| = |\langle a^k \rangle| = |\langle a^{\gcd(k,n)} \rangle| = |a^{\gcd(k,n)}|.
\end{split}
\end{equation*}
But is this enough to deduce that $\left( a^{\gcd(k,n)} \right)^m \neq 0$ implies $\left( a^{k} \right)^m \neq 0$?
clubsoda14
Nvm I'm dumb
well, see it this way: Noetherianness asks for finitely generated ideals, but the space Spec(A) being Noetherian means that every radical ideal is finitely generated as a radical ideal, which is to say that it is the radical of a finitely generated ideal. So if you have a non-Noetherian ring with a sparse amount of prime ideals then this should not be too hard to imagine
though i guess you could hope on the niceness of commutative rings to get the equivalence of the two, alas..
Peanut gallery? Lol
does anyone have a hint for => ? I dont really see what I could use. Of course g is conjugate to g^{a'/gcd(a',#G)} but is there some sort of result about conjugacy that I should be aware of that allows you to go further?
|g| divides |G| so an exponent that is relatively prime to |G| is also relatively prime to |g|.
Wait, sorrry, I'm stupiding. That's the wrong direction.
Instead, how about using Bezout's identity to add a multiple of |g| to a' until you reach something coprime to |G|?
ill try it
Correction, not Bezout.
But just CRT should let you find a multiple of |g| which added to a' will eliminate every prime factor of |G|that was not in |g|.
so the goal is to find an x such that gcd(a'+ x |g|, |G|) = 1 ?
I see how that would solve the problem hmm
Yes.
Do you have a hint on how to rewrite that into a system of congruences ?
You could look for a number that
- is 0 modulo |g|, so so you can write your number as x|g|
- is 1 modulo every prime that divides both |G| and a', so this prime will not divide a'+x|g|
- is 0 modulo every prime that divides |G| but divides neither a' nor |g|, so this prime still won't divide a'+x|g|
How does one prove that
Z + Z*i / (2-i) is isomorphic with Z_5 using the first morphism theorem for rings? I've tried to find a ring morphism that projects 2-i onto but I'm stuck. ( Z is the set of whole numbers)
Is this a problem from Jacobson
Is that Z[i]/(2-i) ? Usually one would read the slash as binding tighter than the +, but that won't make sense here.
It's to denote the quotient group
Also note that "the first morphism theorem" means different things for different authors. See the helpful table at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isomorphism_theorems#Note_on_numbers_and_names
Yes, but usually one would parse your phrasing as Z + (Z*i/(2-i)), which doesn't make sense.
The one I'm referring to is theorem A
Ah yes, I didn't use brackets because they aren't used in my course book but it would be
(Z + Z*i) / (2-i)
try finding a map Z[i]-->Z/5Z
And Z[i] is Z[x]/(x²+1)
ok that works that is pretty clever
i need to learn more elementary number theory haha
what made you think of that ?
no dummit & foote (ch. 18. section 3)
Fuzzy intuition there must be a way to write g^a' as g^a for some qualifying a, plus (as shows in my posts) a few rounds of trial-and-error to find an actual rigorous reason that would be true.
[this should have been a reply to "what made you think of that"]
Hello guys, I'm studying introductory abstract algebra on my own and encountered this example of a binary operation. I was wondering what a good example could be to supplement this? The example I'm thinking of is the following:
Let $X$ be the set containing all real polynomials. Then, we define $* : X \times X \rightarrow X$ as a binary operation that composes two elements of X into another polynomial $p(x)$ in X.
whyhello
sure, that's a working example
Alright thanks
although it's pretty specific
because Map(X) includes any possible map X -> X
and you're only considering polyomials
Oh I see
which is a very specific subset of the functions from R to R
So the general case would just be $f : X \times X \rightarrow X$
whyhello
But it's definitely useful to be aware that polynomials are closed under composition!
I see.
one way to interpret what you are doing, when you quotient out by an ideal, is that you are imposing the relations given by your ideal on the base ring
so, for instance, quotienting out by (2-i) in Z[i] is exactly the same as declaring that i = 2 in Z[i]
and think about that for a moment
i love algebra guys it might just be better than analysis
have some guts and say this in an analysis channel
It only makes it somewhat confusing that i is a particular complex number which we know is different from 2 ... which I why I suggested writing Z[i] as Z[x]/(x²+1) instead, so there are fewer preconceived notions to ignore.
heh...
Would the function given by
Z[i] → Z/5Z: a+b*i ↦(a^2 + b^2) mod 5 be the one to use?
