#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 338 of 1
What other definition of a free module is there?
i guess you could just write out the basis of the tensor product?
That invokes the fact wanted to be avoided
aw balls
I'm not really sure what you're looking for frankly
I don't think there could be any easier proof than what you're referring to and anamono was suggesting
I was trying to stitch together the UP diagrams somehow
and it doesn't look possible lol
OK
I think there might be a proof that says something like adjoints commute with colimits
but I couldn't put the pieces together for you
there's some acronym
right adjoints preserve limits
The diagram stitching isn't gonna work out I don't think, no
That follows from some basic facts about the universal mapping property?
Like it's a basic fact in any variety that F_V(X) is the coproduct of F_V({*}) indexed by X
F_V(X) being the V-free algebra generated by X
any variety
AAAAAHHHH I cant escape
As Tariq said, you didn't quite prove what the proposition said. I assume the (aN)(bN) is defined as abN, ie. multiplication of the representatives? But in the proof you define it as pairwise multiplication of the elements of the two sets, so you only proved those two definitions are equal, assuming they're well defined
lets try and not use terminology more advanced than is required
:3c
what I would do is just prove that the simple tensors form a basis
I know you don't want that it's iso to A^I
but proving linear independence of the simple tensors can be done independently of that assumption
oh
obviously this would follow as an immediate corollary
You’re right 🥰🥰 I shall fix it now
Tariq, the Loneliest Poet
Chungus
real shit
Ye
This is the most hilariously abstract way of saying that we can find a basis, come to think of it lol
Like dang
even the meow theory proof is just "we have a basis"
Probably worth pointing out most people will not know about varieties of algebras lol
“Basic fact”
Ah ok nice
With that proposition, cycling 0 -> 1 -> infty -> 0 yields the transformation g(t)=t/(t-1) with the matrix ( 1, -1 \ 1 0) which fits the requirements for 4).
And for 5) it turned out that for any order 3 element i construct a element in PGL(2) such that g was conjugate to it, so I was basically done.
So I think I got the job done, but I dont have a good reason for myself as to why g(t)=t/(t-1) is such a "special" transformation and why I should expect the result in 5 to be true.
Maybe im missing facts from linear algebra, group actions or just intuition, so could someone help here if im missing a "deeper" reason?
I should say like i did not intend any condescension, as I am unfamiliar with the definition of a variety of algebras myself lmao
It has nothing to do with inclusion take aN=cN and bN=dN and try to prove that abN = cdN
well Im not familiar with them as well I just kind of understood the reply lol
That's what I'm all about baby
I cannot think in anything but tbh
studying was not the right word 
No no I’m quite sure it’s a basic fact of whatever the theory is lol, I was only joking because while I’m sure it’s basic to show I’d be surprised if many people know it
What’s the context here because how else would you define a free module
...using the UP?
It's a basic fact that the fundamental class of the radical of a coherent condition is the prevariety generated by the fundamental class of that coherent condition
What UP are you using without referencing the indexing set of the basis
yeah, the UP with an indexing set
it just doesn't state the isomorphism explicitly, it's just some module F(I)
and I didnt wanna type the proof of isomorphism out
The humble adjoint
Oh well then you can say that Hom(F(I) (x) F(J), M) = Hom(F(I), Hom(F(J), M) = Hom(I, Hom(F(J), M) = Hom(I, Hom(J, M)) = Hom(I x J, M) = Hom(F(I x J), M)
yes that's what I literally just typed out
Lmao
😔
That's okay I'm used to no one caring about what I do /j
Or observe there is a natural map F(I) (x) F(J) -> F(I x J) and each preserves colimits in each variable so you reduce to singletons
Oh nice
So you just need to know F preserves the unit basically
Says you
"wait, but isn't F1 x F2 also freely generated by S1 x S2" - me 1 minute ago
Sorry dawg
its a tragedy
little question guys, in a UFD the decomposition of an element must always be finite, right?
right
Yeah. Any increasing chain of principal ideals must terminate. Apply that to the principal ideal of the element and consider elements dividing it generating larger ideals
Yeah, infinite decompositions don't really make sense unless you have some notion of convergence
also i thought the definition of UFD says it should have a finite decomposition?
but I guess it depends on the source
GCD and having noetherian condition on principal ideals
I was asking because I didn't understand the first part of the proof of this statement in Algebraic Geometry of Gathmann,
because you can only like, divide an element so many times before the ideals generated stabilize, I.e they’re associates
Oh that’s literally the same proof lmfao
that's basically what mizalign said
jup hahaha, I think that's exactly what they are showing, it confused me because I didn't see what they were trying to show, but now it makes sense haha
What part? That in a Noetherian ring, every element has a decomposition into irreducibles?
Yeah a divides b iff (b) is a subset of (a)
like I didn't see the need of showing finiteness
this @rocky cloak
In a way the inclusion ordering on principal ideals being pulled back through the principal ideal map is how you define divisibility
Alternatively :p
yeah it makes sense
Like most intro domain types depend on ideal structure
- A domain is GCD (Greatest Common Denominator Domain) iff K(R) is closed under binary intersections.
- A ring satisfies ACCP iff the inclusion relation restricted to K(R) is Noetherian, i.e there is no infinite strictly ascending chain of principal ideals
- If a ring satisfies GCD and ACCP, then it is a UFD (Unique Factorization Domain)
- A domain is Bezout iff K(R) is closed under addition of ideals
- A ring is a PID (Principal Ideal Domain) if the principal ideal map is surjective, i.e every ideal is principal
Where K(x) is the principal ideal
So it kinda has to do with the structure of the sublattice of principal ideals
I miss algebra but the functional/numerical analysis mines call to me
algebra has my heart, why did you change sides? ahha
I liked functional analysis a lot because it mindmelds analytic structure and algebra but then got too lost in the suace
*sauce
I have an excuse to learn manifolds and lie theory for engineering mechanics tho
Sheaves seem like a powerful structure even in analytic settings so I'll likely take a stab at that somewhere
oh my science....
^Ya bro was cooking with that one
that is kind of cool
I hope so
fraction field 
I was more thinking like
K_1 or K_0
but that literally wouldn't make sense it has to be the set of prinicpal ideals
or the poset of them, rather
Grothendieck group type shit
What is that
fg modules modulo some relation
Type shit
Type shi
relation is like some short exact sequence relation type shit
Relations 🔥
okay iirc it's like
Congruences my beloved
K_0(R) is the group of isomorphism classes of fg R-modules
modulo the relation that if you have three fg R modules that fit into an SES 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0, then you set [B] - [A] - [C] = 0
bro </3 this is the one i learned in class
this is the better definition anyway
can you put a ring structure on the grothendieck group?
oh nice
Idk just a guess but probs
Though I'm not sure it works well cuz tensor products don't preserve SES
If you have some exact monoidal product, like for example over the group ring or a hopf algebra, it induces a product on the Grothendieck group
Okh yeah of course
Ext and Tor ❤️
Over semisimple algebras that does form a ring
i wonder if there's anything cool that happens if you replace "fg R-module" with "flat R-module" in the definition of K_0
they form a category and the tensor product is exact so you get a grothendieck ring
Is there always a set-valued amount of flat modules?
wdym set-valued?
Do the collection of their isomorphism classes form a set or a proper class
hmm
tbh when defining K_0 i didn't even think about that for fg modules
the only definition i have is K_0(R) = \oplus Z[M]/~ where M are fg modules and ~ is that relation
worrying about size issues is for nerds icl
but yeah i guess i didn't think about it being set-valued
K_0 is a functor so like w/e
so it still works for the category of flat modules then?
if they're closed under extension, sure
that shit should be an abelian category
only thing that worries me is kernels and cokernels
bad news gang - it isn't always abelian
however I have stopped caring about short exact sequences. Just quotient out by [M_1]+[M_2]-[M_1 (+) M_2]
should be, you can just look at the long exact sequence of tors right?
fawk 💔
fg projective modules might be better
hmmm i see
sometimes by K_0 people mean fg projective modules right?
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
I've seen this yeah
There are many different definitions of the word ALGEBRA
true
Isnt this the normal thing lol
my prof just used fg modules
No
Just consider free modules
Oh yeah ofc
E.g. Lagrange applied to G/H
If [G:H] = n, then for every x € G, we have x^n = 0 in G/H, but 0 = H, so (in G) x^n € H
This is rather simple
I know I'm very sorry
Noooo sorry
It slipped my mind
I didn't mean it like that
I misunderstood the question
I thought it was finite order**
Let M_i be a family of A-modules, and suppose that each M_i is flat. Can I have a hint for showing that the direct sum M of the M_i is also flat?
Show that tensor product distributes over direct sums
Do you mean that $A \otimes \bigoplus_{i \in I} B_i \cong \bigoplus_{i \in I} A \otimes B_i$?
okeyokay
yeah
I see, thanks
Can somebody please explain to me why $\mathfrak{p}^{ec} = \mathfrak{p}$ for a prime ideal $\mathfrak{p}$ which doesn't meet $S$ as in iv?
okeyokay
by (ii), p^ec = bigcup_{s in S} (p : s). But p is a prime ideal, and p does not meet S, so if x is in (p:s) such that xs is in p then x has to be in p. Hence p^ec is inside p, the other containment is easy
Well, the elements in p^e look like x/s for x in p. Then elements of p^ec will look like when x/s is in A. I.e. y with x = sy in p.
Then apply p being prime to sy
In the semi direct product on the last line is the operation just multiplication?
(A, a)(B, b) = (aAB, ab)
Or what is it?
So by first isomorphism GL(n,F)/SL(n,F) = Fx
(Internal) semidirect product is of the form
AaBb = AaBa^-1 ab = (A aBa^-1) (ab)
I fixed some mistakes for proving that multiplication between cosets are well defined.. is this proof now better or still need to be fixed? And the proof showing the quotient group is a group are both methods valid? Proposition 1.35 is a proof showing a ~ b iff a^{-1} b in H which is how the left cosets are defined. Then I argue that multiplication for the normal group is well-defined, and then manipulate the system of representative directly
Hello everyone if anyone wants to study group theory and practice its question from herstein in the month of August can fill out this form
The problem is the way you replace a single element of N with N. What you are basically assuming is that $a^{-1} a' $ commutes with every element of G which is a stronger condition than normality. Normality basically comes down to $ [
ah_1 = h_2a \quad \text{for } h_1, h_2 \in N
]
$
Taaha_Tariq
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
So use this for the proof
Plus, You haven't shown that the quotient group is closed and I don't get your inversion proof. You can't claim that if aN = bN then a(-1) = b(-1).
I shall be fixing it.. I found the concept a bit abstract 🫣🫣
How’s now
I felt my idea of showing it that way might be correct? But was unclear? Maybe? So this time I made it more explicit.. or my idea was wrong completely 🫣 then I shall revise the concept completely
The commutative like operation is granted by normality
They haven't specified the monomorphism but supposing it is t ↦ diag(t, 1, ..., 1), we have (A, a) ↦ A diag(a, 1, ..., 1) as the bijection, so (A, a) (B, b) ⇒ A diag(a, 1, ..., 1) B diag(b, 1, ..., 1) = A diag(a, 1, ..., 1) B diag(a, 1, ..., 1)^{-1} diag(ab, 1, ..., 1) ⇐ (AB', ab), where B' = diag(a, 1, ..., 1) B diag(a, 1, ..., 1)^{-1} is the matrix obtained from B by multiplying it first row by a and dividing its first column by a.
I'm struggling to see why being a solution to congruence (1) implies you solve congruence (2). Help pls
Raise both sides to the power of q_i
yeah
basically you can have multiple maximal elements
key word is maximal vs maximum
Consider a poset where no elements are related
the word "maximum" implies unique
m is a maximum means m >= x for all x, which implies uniaueness
m maximal means that it is impossible to have m < x
They say maximal, not "maximum"
Different things
Yeah i mean it is true
You can only have one maximum, but can have multiple maximal elements
Maximal + every element is comparable is enough
Easy exercise
take a subset of N
Or i can do if need be but i suggsst u should try
for example
Wdym lol
sorry i should say upper bounded subset of N
Sure ye
finite subset
wouldnt the maximal element just be the largest element in your finite subset of N lol
it satisfies the definition of maximal
Ons thing that woyld work is "subsets of N of cardinality <= n"
Oh lol
Sure but then that is a maximum
I wasnt sure what the point of your comment was
yeah i mean as an example that maximal + every element comparable implies maximum
How (yx-1)a = 0?
You can visualise his nicely by drawing like a tree
And ordering by height
There need not be a tallest leaf
I am thinking for commutative ring with unity
This is a good question
Jagr's example works there.
Sorry I don't know which one
k[x,y]/(y(x^2 -1)) and y, xy
There's also Z[x,y,z]/(zyx-x) with a=x, b=yx, which I abstracted further from Jagr's one.
Yes someone gave me this hint but I didn't make any contradiction here
Yes Ra = Rb
You just need to show that there's no unit u with ux=yx.
How?
Uhh
I mean I tried
No nvm i think thdy differ by a unit
No, I found a unit that turns x into x² there.
Is that tricky ?
It's Z x Z[x]/(x^2 - 1) at least
Why not Jagr ?
Ah my bad
That's just my name
Cause (x+1, x-1) is not (1) lol
Not Jagr 😅
Hmm, I didn't completely finish all the details, but I think it's just term chasing.
.
Okay I will try again
The ideal generated by a set is a particular ideal yeah
There is only one ideal being generated by a particular set yeah
I think you can probably prove that the only units in that ring are 1 and -1.
Is there like an actual commutative example
Oh
There are lots of ideals that contain something, but only one of them is the smallest ideal containing something
(which is what generated means)
Definitions are hard
Are the given examples not commutative enough?
Or what does that mean "actual commutative"?
k[x, y]/(y(x^2 - 1)) and Z[x, y, z]/(xyz - x) are both pretty commutative to me
Lol i mean jagr gave commutative examples
That's what the task is.
Oh shit yeah
It's not
In general
It's isomorphic to the poset of ideals of R/I though
I wish I didn’t suck at algebra lo
I mean many posets in nature will have maximals which arent a maximum
I don't who this jagr guy is, but they sound cool
They're probably just a fake
The set of all ideals containing a set is well-founded
That means you quotient it again with y
A cheap clone of you, after all, not not jagr2808 is equal to jagr2808, so they're just copying you and putting a "not" in front of it
new group chat beef damn
Why must the x-terms of unit be zero? I am not sure about the x-terms of the unit, you mean x will be vanish
Not vanish, you mean all x-terms will be zero
Like a polynomial will look like
a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + ... + b0y + b1yx + ...
so if you quotient out by (y) you get
a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + ... in k[x].
This is only a unit of a1=a2=...=0
Fun exercise
Ring theory moment
I got upper part but what does it mean this is the only a unit of a1=a2=...=0
-# nonzero ofc
Instead of "quotient out y" it may be easier to think of: if you have any ring homomorphism out of R, then units must map to units.
In particular, for R=k[x,y]/(yx²-y), this is true for the evaluation homomorphism R > k[x] that sends x to x, y to 0.
This kills all tems in a polynomial that contain at least one y, and we know if we start with a unit that should still produce a unit -- that is, just a constant term.
So if u is a unit in k[x,y]/(yx²-y) it must be of the form c + (terms all involving y)
Doesn't contain, is that typo?
Whoops, fixed.
Okay
I see
I got jagr's example
I mean is that natural for you to think about all these? I mean I tried but I didn't think in that way to take the quotient again and find the forms of units
I'd say, not super natural for me -- I have to learn as I go each time I involve myself with one of these exercises ...
Okay can I take K[x,y]/<x-xy> in replace of K[x,y]/< y(x^2-1) >, I don't think it change anything
I think that preserves the property that the only units are constants, but what are your a and b then?
No, now I am not thinking about a and b, I am thinking about the form of unit change or not
So it doesn't change, right?
I think that's correct. But (to be honest) I haven't been fully grasped the last part of Jagr's argument yet.
You mean the only unit element is of the form a + f(y)y + g(y)yx
Well here, you get unit elements have the form a + f(x)x, since you interchanged x and y when you went from y(x²-1) to x(1-y). And then you don't need a separate g(x)xy term because x=xy.
Sorry, from y(x^2-1) to x(1-y), I don't get it
I got it f(y)yx^2 = f(y)y
Jagr said K[x,y]/(y(x²-1)), you said K[x,y]/(x(1-y)) -- it's a different variable that factors out of the generator.
Oh
Oh I quotient it by y, i think it doesn't matter, right?
Then it will be a + f(y)y
Oh no
I don't think you can straightforward "quotient it by y", because the ideal <y> does not contain <x(1-y)>.
So if you try that, you collapse the entire ring to K -- which is valid but doesn't tell you anything useful.
Can I map homomorphism such that K[x,y]/<x-xy> to K[x] ?
Such that x goes to x and y goes to 0
No, because then f(0) = f(x-xy) = f(x)-f(x)f(y) = x-x·0 = x.
My bad
In order to make an evaluation morphism from a quotient of a polynomial ring, you need to make sure that your chosen images of the variables satisfy the relations in the ideal you quotient by.
That's why you could map x to x and y to 0 in K[x,y]/<yx²-y>.
Because mapping y=0 makes sure that everything in <yx²-y> will map to 0 when you make the same assignments in a map from the raw K[x,y].
Got it
So which part?
The one where he got from "every unit has the form a + f(y)y + g(y)yx" to "every unit has the form a".
(And I was sorta depending on that when I claimed the only units in Z[x,y,z]/<xyz-x> are ±1).
(But now I'm not sure his argument for k[xy]/<yx²-y> actually does generalize to Z[x,y,z]/<xyz-x>).
Why not just define it to be the product rather than the semi direct product?
When he said this?
Here.
So you mean you are doing again map K[x,y]/< y(x^2-1) > to K[y] such that y -> y and x-1 maps to 0
Because the setwise product of two subgroups need not be a subgroup. It is when one is normal.
When they have trivial intersection you get a semidirect product
It’s just standard terminology and highlights how one is normal :p
Oh and ig in this case SL(n, F) is normal and these have trivial intersection so its just the "same" notation
Yeah, I think I get that now. More elementarily "x maps to 1" and then "x maps to -1" tells us that
a + (f+g)y and a + (f-y)y are both units in k[y] means that f+g=f-g=0 in k[y], which is easily solved to get f=0 and g=0.
and the isomorphism $SL(n, F) \rtimes F^\times \to GL(, F)$ is just given by $(A, a) \mapsto aA$?
(And that doesn't generalize neatly to Z[x,y,z]/<xyz-x> so my universal example wasn't as good as I thought).
Khush
a + (f+g)y and a + (f-y)y how it is unit in K[y]
I got it
We know the only units in K[y] are the nonzero constants.
Yeah great
How this long idea comes to mind man
But I have a doubt, how I can show that x ≠ kxy for any unit k in K
If x = kxy holds in K[x,y]/<y(x²-1)>, then it still hold after we map to K by f(x)=1, f(y)=1 (this is an allowed mapping because it satisfies y(x²-1)=0) -- so 1 = k.
But it also still holds after we map to K by f(x)=1, f(y)=2, so 1 = 2k too.
Oh, wait, Jagr's example has a = y, b = xy, so it's not x ≠ kxy you need to show but y ≠ kxy.
After all this is commutative
Yes, but x and y have quite different roles in the ideal we quotient out, and that influences which mappings we can use to argue with.
x=kxy can be refuted in one go just by mapping f(x)=1, f(y)=0, which gives 1=0 no matter what k is.
To refute y=kxy, I think we need two mappings, first f(x)=1, f(y)=1 to get 1=k -- and then f(x)=-1, f(y)=1 to get 1=-k.
But how can I say y ≠ xy in K[x,y]/<y(x^2-1) >, I think map, x -> -1 and y to 1 then it will give 1 = -1, which is not possible, right?
Yeah, that would be a way.
A more intuitive, but also more technically roundabout way would be to show that every coset in K[X,Y]/<yx²-y> contains exactly one representative polynomial where every term has the form k·x^n or k·x^n·y^m where n<=1 and m>=1. (But the "at most one representative" could be fiddly to prove rigorously instead of just vibing it).
Since x and xy both have that canonical form, they cannot be in the same coset.
I don't get n ≤ 1 part
If you have a term with more than one power of x (and at least one power of y), you can reduce it down using yx² = y.
No, only yx² = y.
Powers of x that haven't been multiplied by y yet are all different.
Yeah
And what does it mean by x and xy have canonical form?
By "canonical form" I meant the form I described as "polynomial where every term has the form k·x^n or k·x^n·y^m where n<=1 and m>=1."
Yeah.
and we have to show y ≠ xy, how are they related ?
Sorry, I got confused between x and y again. For y != xy it's the same: they are in different cosets because both y and xy have the canonical form I described earlier.
Can you not just say y ≠ xy since xy-y is not a multiple of yx^2-y?
Like do u need to argue deeper WHY its not a multiple of that
Because polynomials can only be equal if they have same degree?
Yeah
How do we usually think about degree of multivariable poly
Well, either degree in a single variable (k[x, y] = k[y][x], so yx^2 - y has degree 2)
or total degree, i.e. yx^2 is a degree 3 monomial
The former being most relevant here I guess
I think total degree is more common
Yeah, the more intricate arguing I'm talking about is for when doesn't have enough intuition (or doesn't trust what one has) about what is a multiple of what.
I think another way is you can define the degree of x to be (1,0) and the degree of y to be (0,1) ie a Z^2 grading
Then you can define the degree of x^n*y^m as (n, m). I remember using something like this in the context of log canonical thresholds but maybe I remember wrong
The quotienting makes that more tricky.
Yeah I’m just rambling diff gradings u can put on multivar polys
(I tried writing down an argument based on keeping track of degrees modulo the generator, but in the end that turned out to simplify to just evaluation :-)
You can grade the n-var polynomial ring using the free monoid on n variables 
Boi.
not exactly, the problem is if det(M) = -1 for example and F = R (the real numbers) then there is no proper number a for this to work (you'd need a^2 = -1). Instead you use the subgroup diag(a,1,...1), matricies that are diagonal with a in the top left corner and 1 elsewhere on the diagonal. This also has trivial intersection with SL(n,F)
genuinely hate the semidirect product
:c
c:
:(
:c
:<
:p
:c
Genuinely love the semidirect product
it took me a while to understand it
but once I got the universal property i was golden
Genuinely neutral about the semidirect product
Universal property?
Oh yeah
The shit is the arrow category lmao
Ah okay
Love that you understood the universal property but not the intuition that the group action is the conjugation and that's how the multiplication is defined
That’s how I understood the intuition
Through the universal property
who?
Someone called Ity/alumite, she was on this server briefly a while ago
hm, never met her :(
lucky
Rahhhh why is no one answering my question in advanced-algebra I am shitting myself
I just dont think it is something many will have touchsd lol
If K_1 is a commutative ring and f is an epimorphism from K_1 to a ring K_2, given 2 elements a, b from K_2, since f is an epimorphism, there exist c,d in K_1 such that f(c) = a and f(d) = b
So we got that:
ab = f(c)f(d) = f(cd) = f(dc) = f(d)f(c) = ba
Hence, K_2 is commutative
Epimorphisms of rings are not necessarily surjective
Unless you are using epimorphism to mean surjection, in which case it is probably worth me pointing out that it is ambiguous
I got a different definition then
Okay
Now I am curious about this
What would be an epimorphism of rings?
There is a general notion of epimorphism in category theory. f: A -> B is an epimorphism if for any two maps g, h: B -> C such that gf = hf, we have g = h
If we work with sets or groups instead of rings, then this is equivalent to f being surjective
For rings it is different (e.g. the inclusion of Z in Q is an epimorphism)
But don't worry if this is very irrelevant to what you are doing lol
It's relevant
Just i think this is a reason to prefer just saying "surjective map" rather than epimorphism if that is whst you mean
Right now I never had any experience with category theory
But in the future I will study it
So with this you would be saying that g(B) = h(B) but we can't suppose that g(B) = C or that h(B) = C
It appears, which is fair, and I kinda expected it
Oh well
Well, in the book I'm using to learn abstract algebra, it says that we should understand the word "epimorphism" in the context of rings as we do in the context of groups, so I understood that it means the same as it would with groups.
However, since morphisms of rings deal with 2 operations instead of 1, I always thought it's a bit weird that the vocabulary of the types of morphisms is the same
what are the prerequisites for studying group, ring and field theory?
set theory, some introduction to proofs like properties of functions and stuff
There technically arent really that many prereqs, like probably something like multivariable calculus require more “prereqs”
Linear algebra is good to know because it provides examples and intuitions
Also provides the best examples for groups: the general linear group!
Yeah, I have a very solid background in multivariable calculus and linear algebra, I might be ready I guess.
Yea should be fine to look into it then
Im trying to prove that if we have a short exact sequence $1 \to A \to B \to C \to 1$ then the map $A \to B$ is injective
Khush
I'm just completely stuck
can someone give me a hint
I tried starting with calling $f: A \to B$ and $g: B \to C$ then suppose $f(x) = f(y)$ but I can't seem to use the property that $\ker g = \text{im} f$
Khush
im (1 -> A) = ker(A -> B) by exactness. What’s im(1 -> A)?
Yeah so trivial kernel means what
I really thought the maps 1 -> A and C -> 1 were for shits and giggles
so in my mind I just ignored them 
Nah
I mean they are basically just to make the first nontrivial map mono and the last nontrivial epi
Like “caps”
Anyway while you’re at it maybe prove B -> C is surjective
$0\to A\xrightarrow{f} B$ is exact iff f is injective and $A\xrightarrow{f}B\to 0$ is exact iff g is surjective
very important things (0's on end of the sequence)
Short exact sequences moment
lol
What are some common techniques, one should be familiar with for an algebra qual in general? I.e. using sylow theorems to prove G is not simple. Any other common problem solving ideas on these exams?
I suppose you could look through these questions and see what ideas are used https://www.math.harvard.edu/media/groups.pdf
The three (or four? idr) isomorphism theorems are always good to know
You could also look at the notes on this page about group theory
Hello guys
Can anyone tell me where can I read about inversion in permutation group I have gallian book but he doesn't have any kind of thing
Inversions are mainly a tool for proving that the parity of a permutation is well defined. If you have proved that in different ways, you may not really need them.
But if you're just curious, you could read https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inversion_(discrete_mathematics)
To follow up on what Tropo said, here’s a graphical approach to seeing why the parity of a permutation is well-defined: if P is a permutation in S_n, you can look at the induced directed graph on 2n points (see image).
Then the parity of a permutation can be defined to be the parity of the crossing number of the graph
And one can observe that this is essentially another way of counting the inversions of a permutation
It appears to be true that an epimorphism from a commutative ring would imply the codomain is commutative
(See Prop 1.3 https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF02566112 )
But I hope that's not what you're actually asking, because the proof looks difficult
Well, I'm still not at that level, as I'm sort of learning ring theory for the first time and I have 0 knowledge about category theory.
I'm still pretty far away from a point in which I could understand that, but in finite time I'll reach that
Let me access that Springer article btw
Unfortunately I can't get access to it
Alright, just for my own benefit let me unpack this proof.
R -> S is an epimorphism of rings, and M is an S-S-bimodule. Then the first lemma is that for any m in M if rm = mr for all r in R, then also sm = ms for all s in S.
Proof: consider the trivial extension SxM where multiplication is
(s, a)(t, b) = (st, sb + at). Then there is a canonical ring homomorphism s |-> (s, 0) and for every m in M
s |-> (s, sm - ms)
is also a homomorphism.
If rm = mr for all r then these agree when composing with R->S, hence must be equal (since it's an epimorphism), so sm=ms for all s.
PROOF OF COMMUTATIVITY: consider now S as an S-S-bimodule. Then any element of R commutes with every element of R, so R is in the center as per the lemma. But then every element of S commutes with all of R, so S is in its center, i.e. S is commutative
This same lemma can be used to show that R -> S is an epimorphism if and only if the multiplication map
$S \otimes_R S \to S$
is an isomorphism of bimodules
Not jagr2808
does anyone know of somewhere i can look up the generators for Z/pZ* for say, the first 100 primes?
The smallest primitive elements are either 2. 3, or 5 (based on modularity conditions I’ll leave for you to Google) unless p = 41 (it’s 6) or p =71 (it’s 7)
I dont know why you’d use any other generators
Examples section
I guess sure
I think they just don’t want to be talking about this in the situations R isn’t commutative
So they just assert it from the start @sacred wharf
I mean like
The word “Euclidean domain”
Might have only been an adjective applicable to commutative rings
Just ignore it
It doesn’t matter
Lol if u do that send it to me
Id watch it
We need more math content like that
I fw textbook review kinda shit heavy
"Principal Ideal Domain" was funny to me for some reason lol
Math sorcerer scammer
L math sorcerer
"The secret to becoming a great mathematician" with zero reason i should trust him
And thsn loads of book reviews to become experts but they are all somewhat basic textbooks iirc
Lol yeah
Often authors state redundant information so that your mind doesn't have to manually switch to "okay, commutative ring" mode, for example
Maths is fake anyway
Fo real
Real
Except UA of course
So True bro
It solves ACTUAL problems, REAL WORLD problems
terence tao has a blog, if you ask an honest question it seems you have some chance of getting a reply
Discord exists to keep geometric algebra and UA alive
UA is redundant, all the isomorphism theorems are already in Dummit & Foote
Ah of course

The only thing UA is good for
I think most UAers are not on discord
Cuz they're old
Idk I've never done calculus
not even calc2/3
I know somewhat how to integrate, and I can do basic analysis reasoning if
Ig
Fair
Analysis is just topology but worse anyways 
yea as much as i liked calc 2, it only goes so far as balckpenredpen in yt or the mit integration bee vids
fun for learning technique though
like actually working out problems
You should totally learn algebra and eventually learn universal algebra
You kinda just investigate the concept of an algebraic structure, and prove theorems about them in full generality, i.e. only assuming properties which are not formulated for a specific type of algebraic structure like groups or rings or fields

ahh so algebra for different structures
seems cool, someone was telling me about this earlier, like what function spaces are and their axioms, and that there are different spaces with different closures and algebreic properties
In a sense? For example, linear algebra studies vector spaces, while in universal algebra you might ask "what general properties make vector spaces so nice, and how can I extract them to tell exactly when some type of algebraic structures has the same properties as vector spaces"
sounds pretty abstract
Onggg analysis is so ahh
For example, the fact that addition of vectors commutes can be generalised to the fact something called the commutator is always trivial, and (almost) everytime the commutator is trivial, you get a module, which is like a generalised vector space
what does trivial mean here? sorry, new to math phrasing
Talking abt my music taste or my music lol
Do you know subspaces in linear algebra?
no i have yet to take any la or odd classes
Thank you :3 music is so fun to make, I think everyone should try it sometime
I would love to. How do u recommend starting?
Do u make edm enpeace?
Okay, basically think of the trivial space as a single point
Like fl studio stuff?
Im going to a rave tmr actually woohoo
Theres a big hardcore scene in toronto
Happy hardcore shit
Oh shit that's super cool!
The Netherlands has a pretty big dnb darkstep scene I'm pretty sure
At least, the pioneers were from the netherlands
Niice
NOISIA and VISION RECORDS my love
Oh damn okay
Hm
Nah i gotta choose music
Math has kept me sane but music has given me a way to express and feel emotions
Real
Good distraction for your brain
🤝
FL is great, and the trial is not too limiting
Isnt there some correlation between math and music ppl
Only can't save your projects but just leave them open and ur good
Esp if you're just starting out it's fine
There was some correlation between mathematicians and creative hobbies
Thats interesting
Cuz in math you gotta have some notion of creative thinking
Yeah
Ur ass is not gonna get these abstract ass things if you're not creative
Its interesting how the general
Public dont know that about math
Academia had a stigma of being the opposite of creativity
Cuz the math in school is engineering math
Just computation problem after computation problem
My ass took advanced math, music, and geography as electives 
Most random combination
Yeah, luckily that period for me was shortlived cuz I saw group theory and was like "fuck it why not sounds funny" and taught myself group theory using Wikipedia and a long ass problem sheet
Though I had motivation for a project so ig that's the reason I could even continue
I'm starting uni next year
Mostly focused on algebra though that's why I'm a UA nutjob 
18
Crazy? I was crazy once
I think I do more math than the average person
I have no life 😔
I met someone my age who is currently alr doing a masters though that mf is insane 
Well met online at least
Crazy
Unfortunately, rather than being cracked at number theory, or measure theory, my dumbass had to get interested in that one branch of math many people don't care about 😭
Easy papers I guess
It is, but it's also pretty cool to see
Algebraic geometry and category theory are even worse
Yea
Damn maybe i should stay in combinatorial algebra then
Self study...
Everyone loves the abstract shit including me
It's just a shift in thinking, sheaves
Yea examples can be boring but theyre kinda necessary to see
They help more than u expect
When u internalize different examples
Ya thats true
Im actually bad with examples i should spend more time on examples than i do tbh
Anytime i put some energy into understanding some examples im like wow that was helpful actually
But at first it can feel tedious to look at
I was doing a project on Latin squares and wanted to prove something but couldn't do it. Then I worked out a single fairly trivial example disproving the theorem

Failed proofs can yield very interesting new insights though
gulp
im very far from knowing what id wanna do from a phd but the stuff i like seems to be pretty competitive
Spoiler alert: in pure maths, it’s all very competitive (although definitely some areas more than others)
this kinda thing depends heavily on the courses offered/who's teaching the algebra classes
like if one were to teach rings and modules using something like Atiyah-Macdonald, it would give students at least a slight sample of some alg geo if they choose to do the related exercises
some schools offer dedicated "intro to alg geo" courses meant for undergrads, which go over like basic examples of varieties and whatnot
so like mit offers this course to undergrads
you can see what kinda stuff they do here
that being said this is also mit
i don't think this kind of course is offered to undergraduate students at most schools (other than maybe the top of the top schools)
i guess this is a big roundabout answer for "not often, with a big asterisk"
(also you should not see the cracked young people like Arti or enpeace and generalize to conclude that a large proportion of students are this way/you are behind; these make up a very small proportion of students if you look at the larger dataset of every math student in the world. just places like a math discord server tend to attract these kind of ppl)
rip
I need a place to neurodivergently talk about math 💔
scram
go back to crashing cars or whatever you high schoolers do
idk about your uni so i can't comment on that
i should also say that i'm saying this all in the context of US schooling
idk what it looks like in other countries
i guess since your name has "sweden" maybe you should disregard that last message. idk what it's like in sweden
Hey I graduated >:( I am at the doing drugs part
Uh, I think
though I do believe that the amount that math undergrads know is steadily increasing every year
because "undergrad research" has been and continues to be a really really huge big point of focus for undergrads
i mean if you think they're cracked then i believe you, since "advanced" means diff things for diff schools
You studying in söta bror?
The land of tiny meatballs and furniture
Cool cool. I know a few people at Uppsala
Yeah, they're all a bunch of swedes
Someone's from the Netherlands :D
They're from urk D:
I hate going to IKEA, but the meatballs makes it worth it
Almost as good as Norwegian meatballs
Lingonberry sauce of course
Can't have meatballs without
Wtf
You people are mental
I once took a girl on a first date to Ikea
It was awesome
Because it’s awesome
It's horrible. It's a constant struggle trying to convince my wife we don't need a new couch/bed/whatever
Thank god I dont have a wife yet amen 🙏
Lol
Lol
Probably my favourite message ive opened the app too
On mathcord
Thats one for the books
BRO HAS A WIFE ‼️
LORE DROP
Just saw this one
Of course, who could result the charm of the not jagr
Ong I love learning about Jagr lore
Let k be a commutative ring. Let k[t]^c denote the set of polynomials with non-zero constant term. There is a map ^symm: k[t]^c → k[t^{-1}]^c: p(t) ↦ p^symm(t) := t^{-deg(p)} p(t) (AKA "reverse the list of coefficients and substitute t^{-1} for t"). Let S be a finite subset of k[t]^c generating an ideal I. Is it true that (I : t) = I iff S^symm is a Gröbner basis for the ideal it generates in k[t^{-1}]?
Uhh, maybe let k be a field so Gröbner basis theory works.
In alternate way, I think they are construct a mapping D[Y,Z] -> D[Z], Y = 1( any non zero constant in D) and Z = Z
Right?
To show deg Y1 in D[Z] ≥ 1 when H ≠ 0
Bro im already confused on why xy = x there
isn't it explained in the first line of the proof?
xy ≠ x, xy ≈ x, means xy and x are associate i.e, Rxy = Rx, where R is D[X,Y,Z]/< X-XYZ>
is the proof of this theorem correct? it doesn't seem that hard though I kinda built up all the propositions that can be used for this proof... Still, is there anything missing?
the inverse map part I made a typo which should be $a\ker(f)$
Emmaaaaa
I really don't see the isomorphism Z_5/5Z_5 \cong F_5. How the hell do we get that?
I understand that it should be a field because we're quotienting out by a maximal ideal, but why F_5?
I also see why 5Z_5 is a maximal ideal, because it is all nonunits of Z_5, and an ideal
Well, do you see why the quotient should only have 5 elements?
0, 1, 2, 3, 4 gives a full set of representatives for the cosets. Maybe you can try to determine which coset 1/b should belong to
1/b is in k + 5Z_5 iff 1/b - k is in 5Z_5, i.e. 5 divides 1-kb
Yupp, so say b is 1 modulo 5 for example
so, then 1-kb \equiv 1-k \equiv 0 mod 5, so we need k to be 1 mod 5?
Well we always need bk to be 1 mod 5 then
so 1/3 is in 2 + 5Z_5, which matches what I calculated by hand earlier
Indeed. In fact similar reasoning shows that
R_m / mR_m = R/m for any maximal ideal m
Right, so there are 5 distinct cosets because given a/b in Z_(5), we are trying to solve the congruence bk = a (5) for k, and as we are working mod 5, k is either congruent to 0,1,2,3 or 4 mod 5, which gives all our cosets. And this then shows this is isomorphic to F_5 as there is a unique field with 5 elements
Are there any hypotheses on the ring R?
Well, commutative I guess. Otherwise I don't know what R_m means
Right, and zorn tells us we can always find a maximal ideal
hmm. interesting
I can't wait for this to actually have a geometric meaning because so far this is far too formal for me
Thanks jagr!
The proof for one is wrong (or maybe just unclear) . The way you're defining the inverse map doesn't make much sense to me, for example the equality you state can't be true as the left side is in G and the right side in G'. In general, it is probably easier to just show f\tilde is surjective onto im(f) and injective. Either way though you need to explicitly state why there is a unique preimage for every element of im(f)
I shall be fixing it now.. that’s my thought though.. it was a typo f^{-1}(f(a))=\tilde{f} (aker f) it should be a ker f right?
Then I only need to show surjection right? Since by how \tildef is constructed
Its domain is the quotient of G on Ker f so its injection and if I restrict the range of cosets to be the imf its surjection
No the map is surjective by construction as we restric to im(f) and every map is surjective onto its image. Injectivity is the thing you need to show.
Yes!!! 🥰🥰
I only need to show kernel of it is trivial then I shall be fine? Right?
Maybe some result you have somewhere does this but I don't see a reference in the proof to such a resylt
For example, yes
Thank you so much and algebra is so fun
Something like this is relatively simple, but even if it's clear to you it needs to be mentioned in the proof (if even just as "clearly the map is injective", but just writing down the reason is probably better)
Yes 🥰🥰🥰
I started to like formalization because of this group theory, it’s really Lego playing and it’s like building a house but using proposition
Will it suffices I argue the equivalence relations partition the space such that it’s pairwise disjoint hence the kernel must be trivial
This seems much more difficult than it needs to be. I'd just argue: if f(x) = f(x'), then f(x-x') = 0 so x-x' is in ker(f) so they are equal in the quotient, so the map is injective
Sorry I used additive notation
🥰🥰❤️
I don't understand what the point of the first paragraph is. What is it trying to show?
U(Z/12Z) is not cyclic, for instance see below
so we know that U(Z/pZ) is cyclic, but proving that U(Z/p^lZ) is cyclic for all l is a nontrivial fact
Can you explain why you mention U(Z/12Z)? It's not a prime power, why is it relevant?
oh, I misunderstood your original question; the first paragraph is just an intermediate lemma for showing that certain primitive roots mod p can give you primitive roots mod p^l
not all primitive roots mod p are guranteed to be p.m.'s mod p^l, because if g^p-1 turns out to be 1 in both mod p and mod p^l then that's not a generator
so you explicitly need to rule out the possibility that pm's mod p "stop generating" the rest of the numbers when you move to mod p^l
Say we want to show that U(Z/25) is cyclic.
Then we might guess that 7 is a cyclic generator, because it is a primitive root mod 5.
But alas 7^4 is 1 modulo 25, so 7 only has order 4. But 7+5=12 will then be a cyclic generator.
I see. we're showing the existence of a primitive root g mod p such that g^(p-1} is not 1 mod p^2. That's the point. And that such a g will also be a primitive root mod p^l.
Because then we can apply the corollary on the order of 1+ap
Okay I think I got it
Is this the standard way of showing U(Z/p^kZ) is cyclic?
Where are these notes from?
It's reid UCA
Pretty much I think.
At least lifting from a primitive root mod p to one mod p^2 is probably a key step in most proofs.
Then there might be a few ways to show you get a primitive root mod p^l from that
(I guess Idk what corollary 2 is xD)
Ah okay
I was wondering if there is some bigger theory that this result falls out of, because this all seems very unnatural tbh. Like Corollary 2 which states that if p \neq 2, and p doesnt divide a, then the order of 1+ap mod p^l is p^{l-1}
Perhaps i am asking for too much and I should shut up and calculate
Well it's a special case of Hensels lemma
So that would be the general theory
Ah cool. Thanks
Special case is maybe the wrong word, but related anyway
looks friendly
quadratic integer ring?
i dont remember exactly that one but its probably some ring Z adjoined with some element
Yeah I think that's its intention. Just need to spend more time with it lol
We need more friendly grad level math texts
y does everything have to turn so serious
ive been reading from this book called cohen macaulay rings by bruns and herzog and like 😢
that and pure algebra is hard and dry
Algebra
I'm trying to show that for $A$-modules $N$ and $M_i$, $N \otimes \bigoplus_{i \in I} M_i \cong \bigoplus_{i \in I} N \otimes M_i$. I've constructed a map $g: N \otimes \bigoplus_{i \in I} M_i \to \bigoplus_{i \in I} N \otimes M_i$ given by $n \otimes (m_i){i \in I} \mapsto (n \otimes m_i){i \in I}$. But I'm having a bit of trouble constructing an inverse for $g$. Any hints?
okeyokay
If your text doesn't know how to motivate it then yeah lmao
isn’t this LAPC?
Whats LAPC?
Left Adjoints Preserve Colimits
Cool, i havent studied that yet
had some introduction to adjunctions in category theory but didnt have any intuition for it
it follows fairly directly from the homset definitions of left adjoint and colimit
i have found that studying monads and comonads, along with some programming, gave me a little bit better intuition for adjoints
types!
Or just think about what linear maps out of each look likw in tsrma of multilinear maps
i’m still a learning all of this stuff, so somebody may have a better explanation, but type theory, category theory/categorical logic, and proof theory are really interconnected
thats neat
This book is good
ya why
I think this stuff is mostly a meme tbh
lol bruh
A burrito is a monoid in the [redacted]
Lol
my intuition for adjunctions is bi-representable "heteromorphisms"/profunctors
sounds nice but uh ...
like, you can consider "heteromorphisms" from a set X to a group G
defined to be functions from X to G, viewed as a set
they're called heteromorphisms cause they go between objects of two different categories, as opposed to "homomorphisms" which go between objects of a single category
luckily, though, you can "represent" these heteromorphisms as ordinary morphisms
In $\mathbf{Set}$, you can represent heteromorphisms from $X$ to $G$ as just ordinary set-functions from $X$ to $U(G)$, the underlying set of $G$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
(essentially by definition)
They got cishet in math before GTA vi 💔
In $\mathbf{Grp}$, you can represent heteromorphisms from $X$ to $G$ as just ordinary group homomorphisms $F(X) \to G$, where $F(X)$ is the free group on $X$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
adjunctions arise whenever you have "heteromorphisms" from objects of C to objects of D, which you can "represent" by both ordinary morphisms of C and ordinary morphisms of D
in this case C was Set, and D was Grp
you start off with a set of atomic types, say bool, int, void, string, etc. you may also have some type constructors, like —> which allow you to form function types. mostly, you want to be able to group data together, so there are data constructors as well. one common one is cons and this allows (i’m still not actually clear on what cons is) you to form a memory unit containing one object in the left cell and another object in the right cell.
algebraic data types are sums (coproducts) and products of data types. one example of this is the list data type. a list of elements of type ‘a is either empty or it’s a cons ‘a (List ‘a).
so it’s a recursive sum type. constructing new data types like this, taking recursive sums and products of things, that’s just algebra.
the book category theory for programmers has some good exposition on this, much better than i can give
I am aware of the basic idea of the tensor transformation law for dyadic tensors, is there a general functorial description of this idea
Purely algebraic here, the case for the structures over the tangent bundle seem to be just locally defined by this property using the Invertible Jacobian
Like for the case of dyadic tensors, it seems to just be conjugation passing through the isomorphism between Hom(R^n, R^m) and R^n (x) R^m due to biproduct distributivity and R (x) R ~= Hom(R,R) ~= R
for commutative rings ofc
The maximal ideal of this ring is generated by y, not x, right?
Sounds right
Guys I refurbished my proof for First theorem of isomorphism, is it better now? It’s quite lengthy so I might have many slips
I didn’t want it to look messy so I made another lemma independently to show that tilde f is injective, because if I write it too messy it might obscure the main logic also risk myself being lost in symbols and this proof is already lengthy..
Oops I made a typo for 1.8 it should be $g’\ne g$, I fixed it on my note but it’s a routine proof using uniqueness to force equality
Another small mistake, should be equivalence classes maps to f(g) 🫣
Emmaaaaa
Rewrote
This doesn't work. If it did, you would have shown that f is injective, which isn't true in general. Instead, you need to show that if f(g) = f(g'), then f(g * g'^{-1}) = e' (which you did show), but then use this to conclude that g*g'^{-1} is in ker(f) and thus gker(f) = g'ker(f)
The conceptual idea is that modding out the kernel contracts things that map to the same element
Got it I shall be fixing it🥰🥰
I have a question in mind
Why is it like that if T:G->G' and that T^-1(G')=Gker{T} and not simply G ?
Did you do no exercises at all? If yes, then you should probably change that habit. It's extremely easy to feel like you understood everything without having understood it without doing exercises to test your knowledge
This might come back to bite you. if you have the time you should probably do some more. But this obviously depends on the person
yeah ur cooked
If not atleast do the proof based problems or practice examples
Bro is not cooked he is fried
think about it this way, out of all the questions the author could've asked, they chose a dozen that they thought would help you understand the material and broaden your mathematical skills. the exercises are core to learning material
Preach it Brochacho 🙏
would u go to the gym and watch tutorials on how to do a bench press and say that's enough without touching the bench?
i can 95% guarantee this will come back and bite you in the ass
i did the same thing when i started doing math and it did come back to bite me
and sometimes it still nibbles
How many exercises did u go back to do?
Did u go through everything in atiyah macdonald?
so basically i skimmed atiyah-macdonald and then went straight to hartshorne
and then my shit understanding of ring/modules kicked me in the ass
so i went back through atiyah-macdonald and did most of it
Haha L
What did you think was gonna happen 
u are an L
at least my questions get answered B)
because people know what im talking about B)
anyhoo i was ambitious and young then
i.e. last year
Yurr
Oh noo commutative monoids so hard

I feel that
yeah now i am older and wiser
Until you do that stuff again 💔
who says i will ❤️🩹
I am a seer
go get a new crystal ball, your current one is broken
Dramaaaaa!!
crash sound
Oh no, my balls, they're broken
saddest shit ive read all day. very emotional and moving
hoping someone somewhere ever gets that reference
I am a poet
I am endpiece mewsick
Agreed
I'm struggling to understand how the domain of f can be defined in terms of f itself
it feels circular, or is it well defined?
lmao
I’m rewriting it tomorrow all at once
i think they meant ~f
Indeed tilde f
I see 
It was a bit rushed
recursively defined data types tho
What’s this 🫣
like how a list is either empty, or its an element (the head of the list) along with another list (the tail)
this was more of a meme
since the typo you made was kind of funny and had a vague resemblance to this
That’s kinda how equivalence relations and how’s it partitioning everything right? Like you partitioned stuff inside a block one next to another
True I was so happy with that I almost manage to get the result
It took me a while to get used to the portioning using equivalence classes, I used to do direct set manipulation🫣
I agree! And there was a more funny type, Becasue I wasn’t used to lambda notation and here
I mapped it to f(gkerf) and felt it’s kinda coool😭😭😭
Though the partition using equivalence class is really powerful
Automatic disjointness
Gives you the whole space
Isomorphism
You will go far if you keep up that enthusiasm
Hopefully so🥰 and thanks.. 🎊🐈 with all the helps i received from people here ❤️
@languid trellis that text is so friendly dude lmao
first section: "Hello!"
The author is just a bundle of joy 😍
If your goal is to do well on an exam, that's even more reason to do the exercises. They are fre material to practise for the exam.
some might say that
the feeling I get is that algebra rarely develops 'on its own' as a subject. Rather other subjects, like number theory or geometry or topology lead the charge and we use algebra to formalise afterwards, which is why I feel like its unmotivated. Been doing lots of number theory recently though so this problem is sorta solving itself
Like we defined what a group was way after galois' death, for instance
I think noether was the first to define a module too, and LA was only formalised in the early 1900s from what I understand
but of course we had been solving systems of equations for eons
I might do some bedtime reading on the history of algebra actually
@limber tapir I finished the refurnishing of my proof 🥰🥰🥰
And I am trying to do the second theorem (this lemma 1.9 is wrong but I’m fixing it)
It’s pretty addicting in a way it’s muscle building and you see you have more and more propositions and how you can use them to solve difficult problems with relative ease by citing what one has built. Though rather than second theorem of isomorphism it’s more a corollary I would say
And it’s also a quite journey to be able to shrink the length of each individual claims and only get detailed and focused when big one comes
don't worry you will start hating this god forsaken subject soon enough
Please no I don’t want to hate it 😭😭😭
But it’s fair I mean I never really studied math formally so it might turn bad🫣
GET ME OUT 🫨 🫨 🫨 🫨 🫨 🫨 🫨 🫨 🫨 🫨 🫨
don't worry. unemployment will come soon enough
how do you guys take notes like this?
I mean what kind of programs are you using in order to get something like this
going to advocate for typst as a cool modern alternative
let go of your old fashioned ways
the future is here
lol
I kinda finished the second though
A bit detour and m is really a typo there
I barely use pen for math despite I write heavily for my literature studies
precisely, a subgroup N of G is normal in G if and only if there is a group H and a homomorphism G —> H having N as its kernel
i think there are similar theorems in abelian categories and lattices
@thorn jay may have something insightful to say about this
yea, universal algebra
i’ve never actually scrolled down that far on that wiki page
Dp labor has statistics for salary of those with background in mathematics, median is 120k though
Ai boom make it flourish
Yes, an equivalence relation on a set A equipped with an algebraic structure is a congruence relation (analogue of normal subgroup) if and only if it is the kernel of a homomorphism
Oh right the isomorphism theorems yeah
Even H/(N ∩ H) ≈ HN/N has an analogue
yea, that’s pretty neat
You can consider an algebraic structure A[θ] for any congruence θ such that the subuniverses of it are precisely the congruences contained in θ
If you consider a general version of exact sequences, then, when the congruences in A 3-permute you have the generalised short exact sequence
A[θ ∩ ψ] → A[ψ] → A/θ[(ψ ∨ θ)/θ]
you must be new here
mathematics being unemployable is just a meme people say lol, i didn't mean it seriosuly
Then, if we have some element 0 we can take the language of all operations f with f(0, ..., 0) = 0, and get the actual exact sequence
0/θ ∩ ψ → 0/ψ → 0/[(ψ ∨ θ)/θ]
Or, in the case that A is 0-regular and joins of algebras are the same as joins of congruences, we get the more familiar
I ∩ J → J → (I ∨ J)/I
So real, I’m fighting off recruiters looking for people who are mediocre at ring theory
The result you gave me islovely
I proved the second theorem again but much neater (if I didn’t make a ton of mistakes which is likely)
Though it requires more proposition to implement proposition 1.46
Evil and I like it 
Is it like this?
Even it’s wrong I’m not gonna fix it more for today I will do a bit of la and hanging out with friends.. please criticize my work as detailed as possible, so I can fix them and improve 🥰🥰
I was initially offered to be at medical school
What I said has little to nothing directly to do with what youre
Very different contexts
Since i attended gymnasium and good at Latin but a while later, realized that doctor doesn’t do that much and are overpaid for what they should got. I mean doctors never develop any novel therapeutic agent they do by memorizing more.. and you deal with tons of people too. And personally I don’t think people at medical school more moral as well
My bad thought it got related 😭
Like, it's a high level analogue of what you're doing but not much mor3
Math is too hard this little proof I did consumed me for a day.. can’t imagine higher level 😭
Wait until you learn how learning works
Hopefully, I don’t have much confidence in myself but thanks. . I kinda feel it’s more interesting than analysis in many sense.
Welcome to the club
I would rather be jobless than becoming Dr
I want it! 🥰🥰 though don’t think I have that brain power but yes.. not medical Dr
Medical Dr are pretty nobodies they never invented anything
Literally some very moral pretending people without having a lot of actual contribution to earth and be fair their jobs are likely replaced by AI and I’m gonna contribute to replacement of human medical doctors
damn u popped off emma
I hate medical doctors I feel they are quite often some of my old classmates went to med school.. hopefully they never become my doctor
ya i mean i think it probably attracts a lot of ppl just for the status/prestige sort of thing
Besides medical doctors barely do a lot though I visit medical school often since the med lib is closer.. they seem to read mainly Wikipedia styled textbooks for characteristics of diseases
I mean ai does that much better
Lol yea
Yea i dunno i mean every once in a while you see a real smart doctor but yea a lot of them idkkk
Yes they only do memorization and have tons of time to read certainly seem clever.. but whether you want them to do an operation on you that’s pretty crucial
