#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 336 of 1
But that's neither a famous conjecture nor a nasty counterexample 😔
there's polya's conjecture too
like it was proven there was a counterexample of size ~ 10^361
lmao
Later it was shown that 906,150,257 is also a counterexample, though.
there's also Skewes' number, but it's kind of the same principle
the splitting field of x^{q} - x is F_q right? since all roots of this polynomial are just the elements in F_q?
yes since |F_q^x| = p^n - 1 all elements of F^x satisfy x^(q - 1) - 1 = 0
I thought so. I am really trying to show that x^4 + 1 is irreducible modulo every prime p, but the reviewer giving me feedback on it keeps insisting that x^{p^2}- x does not split completely over F_{p^2}. The counter example they gave was p = 3 and x = 2, but they are working modulo 3^2 which I think is the mistake they are making. Like maybe the are thinking every extension of F_p has characteristic p^n and not characteristic p?
Splitting fields should really be called splitting extensions - you can't just talk about a splitting field, you need to specify the base field. For example, the splitting field of x^2 - x over GF(4) is GF(4), not GF(2)
Yeah, sounds like the reviewer is just wrong, x^(p^2) - x definitely splits over GF(p^2)
What kind of reviewer are you getting feedback from?
But yeah your argument is correct
here was his first comment on the matter lol
I think he’s just working modulo p^2 instead but I just wanted a sanity check for this, so thank you all.
Yeah, it's not equivalent to being zero modulo p^2 as they say.
But who is this person to you is what I'm curious about
Like are they grading your homework?
if that's from a journal / conference reviewer saying "that was surely known to Euclid..." is insanely unprofessional
unless you mean like reviewer of homework (i.e. grader)
but even then that's just rude phrasing
I guess this does read like a grader
I'm also curious what was known "a thousand years before Euclid"
this was what he was responding to there.
I havnt met them yet. I am starting my PhD in august so I havnt been to the school yet. I am submitting practice problems for qualifying exams to the and they happened to pick this one up and give feedback on it
So they have some sort of forum to help other students?
yes
That's cool I guess. Though can lead to these issues
I don’t understand how it was known a thousand years earlier but he tells me it’s wrong?
That situation does entail a certain risk that they're just smack-talking for the sake of their own ego.
Eventually you'll have to decide for yourself whether you find the feedback helpful or not.
And I don't think we have any historical sources on the state of number theory 1000 years before Euclid, so that reflects rather badly on the feedback giver.
not this persons lol. as long as my argument works I guess it’s fine. I was just super frustrated with this bc we’ve went back and forth for two days now
There is some evidence that the Babylonians new about Pythagorean triples around a 1000 years before Euclid.
But I don't think Diophantine equations and modular arithmetic can be claimed.
Btw, a related question: what's the splitting field of x^p - x over GF(q) if p is not a power of q? Like, x^5 - x over GF(3) for example?
Okay, fair.
Anyway, I think it's just a classic case of Dunning Kruger, them thinking they're helping you
Piazza?
My undergrad school used that all the time
Was great
Not sure why it seemed to only be used at UBC
this is my first experience with it
i’ve had good conversations with the other reviewers but this one was claimed by him. i would hate to go out of my way to someone else and it get back to him, or to like show some supervisor, since I havnt even been to the school yet or met anyone lol.
Yeah probably best to just move on
Is it an option for you just to thank the guy for his feedback and move on, or do you need his formal approval?
x^n - x would split when there is a primitive (n-1)th root of unity, which happens iff n-1 divides the order - 1.
So it should be the multiplicative order of q mod n-1. At least assuming q is relatively prime to n-1
I think I might, because it keeps coming back saying needs fixing. The other two have been fine and said completed. I don’t know if there is a punishment or consequence for just leaving it sitting there. If they say something I can just dive into the weeds of the issue with him I guess.
That makes sense, thanks 
So for x^5 - x it should be F9.
x^5 - x = x(x^2 + 1)(x^2 - 1)
But these were just practice problems right? This is not like a formal submission of something is it?
Why is he so rude
“We need a full rigorous argument for this claim” … lol.
By the way, to say it explicitly: the reviewer is clearly in the weeds when they talk about "mod 9" for F_9; if you can at all, you should ignore what else they have to say.
Damn that wasnt even all of it.. bro said “we need a full rigorous FORMAL argument for this claim”
Who is that guy?
He ask why x^{p^2}-x splits over F_{p^2}, I say that it is a basic Galois theory result and that it follows quickly from finiteness of the multiplicative group in this case. He says that it is not a Galois theory and that it was know 1000 years before Euclid, and, and then tells me it’s wrong? I wish I could send bigger screenshots with the complete conversation but I can’t crop out his name doing
Just scribble the name out
We believe you. Kiand was just expressing amazement over how full of themself they seem to be.
Yeah lol
It may be true that it would have improved your solution to give an explicit argument for x^p^2-x being the product of all the monomials, but the rest of the conversation looks like it's off the rails and best ignored.
Hungerford's Introduction to Abstract Algebra vs Fraleigh's A First Course in Abstract Algebra as an exposition self study for AA?
Most professor's at my school usually use one of these two books for the course. If I go with the latter, i can supplement with an instructor's manual I found.
okay, thank you all for the advice and reassurance
You should tell them to get good
Fraleigh is great for self-studying. I haven't read Hungerford, but I think I have heard it's a bit difficult for beginners. It's probably a decent choice too tho
Thx I'll probably study from the 7th ed for fraleigh then since I found a solution's manual for it
mactutor has a good article on the topic https://mathshistory.st-andrews.ac.uk/HistTopics/Babylonian_Pythagoras/
if they were isomorphic they would have the same elements number of elements of order 2
oooh that's interesting, is that in any way linked to lagrange's theorem?
Not really, view that as a consequence of order being preserved by isomorphisms
ah i see, thanks, so having the same number of elements of a certain order is a sufficient condition for an isomorphism to be had?
I meant it as a necessary condition, I am pretty sure it’s not sufficient though, let me think of a counterexample
ah yeah in the context of tropical greens' question it makes sense
Heisenberg group mod 3 and (C3)^3
Both have all non-identity elements of order 3
what is a heisenberg group?
This group of matrices
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heisenberg_group
In mathematics, the Heisenberg group
H
{\displaystyle H}
, named after Werner Heisenberg, is the group of 3×3 upper triangular matrices of the form
(
…
a, b, c being integers mod 3 in this case
ill come back to this later, my shift just started
Very interesting, is there any meaningful thing that can be said about two groups if they have the same amount of elements of every order?
I'd say that's already a meaningful statement
Other than they share a quotient by a free group
And I guess they’re different up to some set of relations that don’t collapse any elements?
I'm not entirely sure what you mean.
Like you want to look at the map from the free group on all the elements and then compare relations?
I’m not even sure if my idea is correct
But if you take a group G, forget its structure, then G is going to be F(G) quotient out by the relations of G
Sure
So if G, G’ share the same # of elements for every order, F(G) and F(G’) are going to be the same, and will still remain the same even when you just quotient out by the order of every element
So my idea was that you would just need to investigate the remaining relations you would need to quotient out by, to get back to G and G’
Why is the third line crossed out with a green line? It looks correct to me, and is not contradicted by the (also correct) line in green text.
The solutions did not include the crossed out part, give me a minute to find it
Did you write both the black and green parts?
Did you write the black part and the green part is someone else purporting to correct you?
Did someone else write the bkack part and the green additions are your proposal for what it should rather say?
Page #1 is the question
Page #2 is the solution from the textbook
Pages #3-#5 are my working, green is what I wrote after checking the textbook solution
Black and green are both me
So why do you think that line should be crossed out?
It's not wrong but since the answer didn't include it, I got rid of it
I know that it's pretty cut-throat and simple minded but I mainly want to follow the more elegant solutions that the textbook provides
The printed solution is just cutting a corner. "We know the first group has 7 elements of order 2, but now we've already found more than seven order-2 elements in the second group, so there's no need to keep counting -- the final numbers cannot possibly be the same".
Since you've actually found the full count of 27, there's no need to go backwards from there and look at the subgroup instead.
I think this is a somewhat wrong mindset. There are usually several valid ways to get through such a problem, and just because the book picked one of them to present doesn't mean that other valid solutions should be avoided.
When the book presents a different solution than the one you came up with, its definitely worth it to try to understand that solution too and see if you can learn some new tricks from it. But it seems harmful to think of it as "oh, it was wrong of me to do it another way", as your use of crossing-out suggests.
Ohh okay now that makes sense, if a subgroup of the second group has more elements of order 2 than the first group then the two groups obviously won't have the same number of element of order 2 when compared with one another
Yeah, an element of a subgroup has the same order in the subgroup as it does in the outer group.
I guess crossing it out isn't that bad because I've already done those type of methods many times that it's unlikly for me to correcct
Eh, your method looks completely correct to me.
Well besides counting the number of elements in D12 x Z2 incorrectly
... But I digress
Oops, yes, 2+2+2=8 looks a bit fishy.
Just finished the chapter on external direct group products
Now I'm beginning normal subgroups and factor groups
I mean, there isn't a proof needed here though
it's just computation
this is true, but not relevant for the question
the question statement itself already assumes that this theorem is true
well S_G is isomorphic to S_|G|
that's a corollary of my statement, sure
what I'm trying to say is, if I permute a set of things then it shouldn't matter what I call the things
i.e. if I have a bijection from A to B then S_A is isomorphic to S_B
do you know what the left regular representation is
forget all about H, it's a confusing way to understand Cayley's theorem
when you have a collection of functions, that permute a collection of things
then that collection of functions embeds into the symmetric group of that collection of things
that's it
sure
when H is 1, you are just looking at the original group
it's just the group action of S3 x S3 to S3
anyways, putting that aside, can you tell me what the left regular representation is?
because now I'm starting to think that you don't know
yes
what is the homomorphism?
permutation representation of what?
what's the group action?
so what is it?
you're giving me different names but I don't think you've told me what it is
so it's a group action, okay, how is the group acting on itself?
but what is the arrow?
I agree that there is one
but there are more than one
I'm trying to ask you to describe how the function is defined
not what the function is
the left regular representation of a group, is the representation induced by left multiplication
left multiplication
so there you go, that's the function
me too
curry curry curry
so now that you have defined the function, you just compute it for every element in S3
I sjould say tha tthe joke is that one takes S3 x S3 -> S3 and "curries" it to get a map S3 -> Hom(S3, S3)
there's nothing more to it
I think you're overthinking this. It's not a "come up with a proof" exercise, it's just a "verify that you've understood the definition" exercise.
Holy Hom(A x B, C) ≈ Hom(A, Hom(B, C))
Careful with just saying "the image" because there are several different functions in play that could take (1 2) as an input. Ah, you're right, one of the S_3 has been relabeled to {1,2,3,4,5,6}.
so we have f(x) = g*x, and that gives a map from S_3 to Sym(S_3)
but Sym(S_3) is not S_6
look at the question again
it is
but isomorphic does not mean the same (in terms of set elements)
that's a good question
look at what the original question tells you
no, because there are more than one (and there is only one correct answer)
why did the question tell you to label the elements with the integers 1 through 6
right
so how do we jump from S_s3 to S_6
can you tell me, for example, what (12) does to (1, (12), (23), (13), (123), (132)) in order
no, I want you to list it out fully
this is going to be part of the answer anyways
and simplify all products into basic cycle notation
now is there a way to convert this into a permutation in S6?
there you go, that's what the left regular representation of (12) is
Uh, the representation of (12) shouldn't be a 6-cycle -- the order of (12) is 2, so the order of its representation should be 2 too.
oh, right, that's not cycle notation lmao
I think that's 1 line notation
"1 line notation"
although even then that's not a 2 cycle
Ah, that makes better sense.
wait yes it is I'm dumb
Tropo meant 6-cycle as in an order of element 6
so your understanding here is still correct
just notational differences in writing out permutations
I misunderstood that notation (215634) -- since that kind of notation would usually indicate cycle notation.
your answer is still correct, this is just not the correct notation.
So what we have here is that the representation of (12) is some element x of S_6, such that x ⤵ (123456) = (215634).
what is the cycle notation for x
This is why computing examples is important lol
Let's have mercy and just say it's (12)(35)(46), since that's not supposed to be the point of the exercise, and there are 5 more elements to compute anyway.
so that's how you compute the representation for (12).
this might seem like a lot of work, but I actually claim that you only need to do it twice, and everything else can be done inside S6.
can you see why?
Oh I'm guilty of not doing exercises when I self study
Always bites me in the ass because I just forget the stuff i learn after not doing it for a bit 
Still best to do the exercises and get a good grasp I think
Just gotta pick out just the right amount of exercises
the left regular representation is a homomorphism from S3 to S6
S3 is generated by 2 elements
for the purposes of your question I'm calling it S6
I think it's a little poor wording that they used "left regular representation" when referring to an action on the set { 1, ..., 6 } lol
$(12)(35)(46)$ is cycle notation for the permutation in $S_6$ that would be notated $$\begin{pmatrix}1&2&3&4&5&6\2&1&5&6&3&4\end{pmatrix}$$ in two-line notation and that permutation is the representation of $(12)\in S_3$ you just computed.
Troposphere
Yes -- probably just to allow you to notate your results more compactly. This is not supposed to be particularly deep.
When you wrote $(2 1 5 6 3 4)$ I thought you meant that to be cycle notation, that is, you had computed the representation of $(1 2)$ as
the 6-cycle $$\begin{pmatrix}1&2&3&4&5&6\5&1&4&2&6&3\end{pmatrix}$$
Troposphere
Hmm, that can't be it. When you say 2 goes to 4, that would mean that (23)(12) = (13) -- since (12) and (13) are what the numbers 2 and 4 have been defined to represent, but actually (23)(12) = (132).
So your permutation in S6 should send 2 to 6.
The first line there has no formal meaning -- it just says "here's another variation of a vibe you've already seen an example of".
"itself" meaning the group
Have you never seen the notation for the powerset before?
Did you start with group theory without learning about sets at all?
For any set X, the "power set" P(X) means { A | A is a subset of X }.
Unrestricted comprehension..
Do you know families of sets? Union/intersection over a family of sets?
That's very required for group theory
Yes -- there's a dedicated axiom in ZFC promising that this particular instance of comprehension does produce a set.
Not if I have any say in it
You don't.
I will invent a new math
I'll call it.. new calculus...
It's a collection of sets, where every set is indexed using another set, called an index set
The practical usage of the word is not quite consistent about whether a "family" is supposed to be indexed or not. Sometimes we just say "family" as a synonym for set because we're going to treat its elements openly as sets (rather than numbers or pairs or whatever).
Can you provide more context? What role is C_a playing here
Is a class in module theory worth taking? I’ve taken algebraic structures, andy next year they’re offering Group Theory (like symmetry groups, Sylow subgroups, orbit-stabilizer typa stuff from the syllabus) and also module theory (torsion modules, module structures over Noetherian rings, Schur’s lemma from the syllabus). Honestly idk what I should take, can’t take both of them unfortunately.
it is worth it if you are looking towards doing algebraic geometry
but if you haven't done any group theory yet then it is most definitely the more important one
Ah I see okay.
I'm not really looking forward to algebraic geometry right now, so ig group theory is the better choice then
Thanks!
A have a question is there some nuances between a subgroup H of group G with operations closed under multiplication and a subgroup H of group G with operators closed under multiplication plus closed under arbitrary power
And it is also said that the subgroup is defined if it satisfies containing inverse, identity elements and closed under multiplication is not necessarily a stable subgroup
In which case a subgroup is not stable subgroup?
So I guess you're talking about groups with operators?
It's true that not every subgroup is stable yes. Being stable is an extra property a subgroup can have
I am a bit confused though I read 2 lectures note from different school with different definitions of what subgroup is
One without the set Omega one with Omega
What even is an action 🤕
So a "group with operators" is as the name implies a group with some extra structure.
And then a stable subgroup is a subgroup that also respects this extra structure
So the definition of "stable subgroup" is the definition of subgroup + an extra condition
Now I got it the words are so abstract 🤕
I would recommend trying to learn about groups and subgroups first
Yes I will definitely do that
Before moving onto something more abstract with extra structure
Shouldn’t have searched those lecture notes, it really causes headaches when there’s a difference 🤕
I ordered a book so probably gonna be easier
Some terminologies are layered with different definitions 😵💫😵💫
Groups with operators were a first step to universal algebra 
Like historically?
I think they preceed modules historically too
Like the Krull--Remack--Schmidt--Azumaya theorem was proven for groups with operators by one of the names (I'm thinking Krull, don't remember)
I yeah, I'm pretty sure
Ah, nevermind
Universal algebra, apparently already existed in 1898
Man, this shit's old
For some reason the factor group of cosets I'm getting isn't cyclic
Can someone explain to me what I'm doing wrong?
So I'm not familiar with this notation, but if U8(40) is supposed to be those elements congruent to 1 modulo 8, then
U(40)/U8(40) should be isomorphic to U(8) which is not cyclic.
So then either the problem have which would be cyclic and noncyclic swapped, or you have misunderstood what the notation means...
Okay thank you
In either case your computations are correct
Currently it looks like $U_8(40) \sim \mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$
Tropical Greens
So I was getting concerned when all the element of the coset group had orders 1 and 2
You mean
U(40)/U8(40) = Z/2 x Z/2 ?
U_8 ?
🐈are the proofs done correctly though I found it very abstract in the sense that the theory uses language twist to make a proposition to contain more information.
well for 1.10 really you want to verify that the * in (H, *) is a well-defined operation from H^2 to H. The other axioms you'd need to verify yourself too. It is skipping steps but the actual work is not bad.
For the second paragraph they should really say for any x,y since y^{-1} is in H, by condition (ii) on x, y^{-1} we see that xy=x(y^{-1})^{-1}\in H.
But those are just minor nitpick it is otherwise fine.
I shall be working on to fix it 🥰🥰🥰
I haven’t heard of groups with operators before. Where are they used?
I've looked online a bit and, it looks like it's just a unification of results? But if Noether extensively studied them I think they're more important than that
I revised my proof yesterday is it better?
🫣🫣
Still not right
Is this better ill refine it till it’s perfect
So any suggestions are welcomed like as nitpick as possible
So supposing H has an identity element eH seems a bit circular / unnecessary.
Would be better to just prove that e is an identity for H.
Similarly you seem to be doing a lot of calculations to establish something about inverses, but
x * x^-1 = x^-1 * x = e
is the definition of inverse, so you don't need to establish more than that.
Thanks I am quite confused by all the abstraction which is kinda playing with my logic like it’s a gremlin🫣🫣😭
in the second proposition, you're proving the stronger statement that the axioms given in proposition 1.11 are equivalent to those given in definition 1.16. But the statement of the proposition is only that these "other" axioms imply the original axioms
Imo it would be better style to either change the statement of the proposition appropriately or remove the part of the proof where you prove the other implication
I’ll be fixing it
Should i actually just add some parts then would it be good? 😵💫😵💫
I’ll rephrase it like that 😵💫😵💫
The statement you proved is something like "H is a subgroup if and only if it satisfies (i) and (ii)"
Omg this is actually hard 🫣🫣
If the revised version of P1.1 correct… I actually feel this like word game so I kinda don’t know what to prove
This is basically the first paragraph of your proof, just in other words. You proved "the proposition is equivalent to the definition of a subgroup"
But the original statement of the proposition is "the proposition is a sufficient condition for H being a subgroup", so what you proved is stronger
😵💫😵💫😵💫now I realize it? Is it true? Or I did completely wrong🫣
It's true
Then I’ll rephrase it 😭😭
And is this part still wrong? Becasue it’s hard for me to understand the logic of group language
It has too many definitions and I felt like I don’t have a clear target to prove 😭
Both proofs look correct
Also I think getting used to the language is just a matter of time, so don't worry too much about it
Another proof, is this like rigorous already? I kinda got the idea of how this is done now in basic sense
Hi, I've got I have a normal sub group N of some group say G and another sub group of G say K then and say that G is of order g, N is of order n and K is of order k and I know that g = n*k I also know that the intersection between N and K is an empty set does this gurantee that the semi direct product of N cross K will give me G? If not what else should I consider?
Well by the second isomorphism theorem
|NK|/|N| = |K| / |N ∩ K|
|NK|/n = k/1
|NK| = n * k = g
So by size considerations, NK = G, meaning that indeed G is the semidirect product of N and K
I made a slip I shouldn’t have said multiply on the left
Since even on the right I can justify it with associative law
So it's correct according to the second isomorphism theorem.
I don't know if it's stupid but just thinking about it it's hard for me to imagine how every element in G will specifically be represented by elements of K and N I mean what if some elements will be repeated?
Associativity doesn't allow you to swap elements
That's what the intersection being trivial (not empty!!) guarantees
Also there's some implicit steps here where it's not clear if they are intentionally missing
But it shows some interesting stuff those f(x)^{-1}= f(x)f(x^{-1})f(x)^{-1}
The intersection of N and K being trivial means that the group NK is a semidirect product of N and K
Please tell me 🥰🥰
Then by size considerations it follows that G = NK, meaning that G is a semidirect product of N and K
Isn’t this that matrix stuff?
I don't see how matrices appear here
Like the matrix manipulation we have these
You're thinking of diagonalization / similar matrices , which is just an instance of conjugation in groups
A^{-1}=B^{-1}A^{-1}B or something I usually find those commutative stuff very weird 🫣
Yeah totally. I might check out the “Groups with Operators” section of Lectures in Abstract Algebra I. It seems like they extend certain results in group theory to modules, rings, and such.
At the start, if you multiply f(ee) = f(e)f(e) by the inverse of f(e)^{-1} you get f(ee)f(e)^{-1} = f(e), only after noting that f(ee) = f(e) does it follow that the left side becomes e'
I time it with f(e)^(-1) and since G’ is a group so its identity element
Since both f(e) f(e)^{-1} are in G’
Just so there's no misunderstanding: after multiplying the right side of the equation (f(e)f(e)) by f(e)^{-1} the result is f(e)
And after multiplying the left side the result is f(ee)f(e)^{-1} which is of course equal to e' after plugging in ee = e
Yes
I did it correctly did I?
I am kinda scared of hidden paradox 🫣 I have those too often
Then my only point was not mentioned in your proof (which is fine) but by concluding that f(e) = e' it seems like you identified the right side with e' and the left side with f(e) instead of the other way around
But it doesn't matter much
I will emphasize on that
Yes this is actually quite important, proof writing is very hard I generally felt
What maybe matters slightly more is to add e' = f(e) to the start of the second chain of equalities so that the left hand side becomes f(x)^{-1} after multiplying
I've looked and they don't mention applications
Just the basic theory
How’s now the charity🫣
Multiplicative group
This is personal preference, but i always try to have the two things I want to equate on the opposing sides of such a chain, for example i would write something like e' = f(e)f(e)^{-1} = f(ee)f(e)^{-1} = f(e)f(e)f(e)^{-1} = f(e)
I will change it, I felt it’s better that way too because it’s not visually clear still the algebra there of mine 😭
How’s now I feel much clearer
G’
The set of all invertible square matrices over a field form their own group when equipped with matrix multiplication…good catch.
I don’t think you have to reference (H,*) as a magma.
Also what you’re proving in the second picture is called the One-Step Subgroup Test sometimes.
Ah rip. Well I guess Ill keep it in mind as I study. Thanks for checking it out
Yes I was originally confused by the logic I felt the abstract concepts density many thing so i was directed into completely wrong direction 🫣
That handwriting !!!
Sadly. Would like to know how they're used in topology but nowhere I can find it lol
Eh they're generalised by algebraic structures where the congruences can be faithfully represented as the equivalence class of a fixed element anyways
Much cooler
WTF.
probably not
Yeah, they don't come up that often, and if they do, they're not different from left group actions really
it's only a notational difference
I just realized my prior definition of submonoid was wrong (I didn’t specify e_T=e_S)
And I found such a crazy counter example
No issue here, I really like these questions where you find isomorphisms of factor groups
I just think they're neat
Any polynomial ring over k viewed as a k-module would be infinite dimensional vector space right?
Yes, because all of them contain the polynomial ring in one variable, which is infinite dimensional, as a linear combination of x^n is simply a polynomial, and therefore cannot be the zero polynomial without all the coefficients being zero
I’m learning about monomial ideals (just general facts about them) but for some odd reason they havent really been sticking in my head
What're monomial ideals?
Just ideals that are generated by monomials
This section in a book im reading thru just talks about their facts, their primary decompositions etc sort of thing
Ah nice
Ngl its pretty boring but i need to understand them well for the combinatorics side
Often in math lol
Lol yeah
what book are you using?
Monomial ideals by herzog and hibi
ah yea I should look at that
although my impression of that book is that it's more useful as reference
keep it around to look up facts as needed
Yea it does feel like a reference book
rather than actually work through a large chunk of it
this is a thing I'm realizing with more and more books I want to learn material from: they're more references than learning texts
Bruns and herzog feels like that. Like damn something about that text is a pain to read
Sorry to respond so late, but doesn't this also require that both tensor products are over the same ring?
Well, no. But you have to be a little careful what exactly the property of multilinear maps is
Like the specific property should involve all the rings
Sorry I'm a little confused by what you mean
Would you mind clarifying?
I just don't really know where to start
Actually nvm I'll save you the burden and probably just read a proof of this lol
oh my god this absolute nerd 0-indexed his rules
everyone says this but it's still dumb because saying "n rules" refers to the total number not the largest index
Silly question, ,but is the reason that this is well-defined is because it's bilinear?
Wait never mind the map isn't out of the tensor product
How can I see that this is well-defined
Oh wait I see
If (t_1, c_1) = (t_2, c_2), then c_1 = c_2 and t_1 - t_2 is in the submodule X of the free module on A x B generated by all bilinear elements. But this map kills X, hence it's well-defined I think
The highlighted part?
Why do you need to check well definedness there?
N sorry
Oh mb
I meant two sentences after that
The general rule is that a bilinear R-balanced map
i.e. a map f: MxN -> A such that
f(mr, n) = f(m, rn)
f(m+m', n) = f(m,n) + f(m', n)
f(m, n+n') = f(m, n) + f(m, n')
corresponds to a linear map
M(x)N -> A
for any abelian group A.
This generalizes to arbitrary products over arbitrary rings in the obvious way
Can anyone help me
This is indeed a picture of the Riemann zeta function for Re(s)>1
Np yw
Thanks
Aut(H) means the set of automorphisms of H. An automorphism is an isomorphism H->H
Can you explain 3 again? I’m confused about that.
I’m trying to clear up a proof that this is true but one particular step is not making sense to me
Are you asking for an explanation of why that's the answer? If so: Apply the first isomorphism theorem to the map $\det: GL(n,\bR) \to \bR^\times$ to show that $G$ is isomorphic to $\bR^\times$. So, it suffices to count torsion elements of $\bR^\times$, but the only ones are $\pm 1$
harmacist
Np!
Could you elaborate more on how it works?
@tidal schooner
I meant how can we sure that all the kernel will be special linear
The identity element of $\bR^\times$ is $1$, so $\ker(\det)$ is the subgroup of $GL(n,\bR)$ whose elements have determinant $1$, i.e., $SL(n,\bR)$
harmacist
@untold torrent
So identity element would be 1
How did you say -1?
@tidal schooner
Actually I have not read it properly
What are the minimum elements of cyclic group?
Cyclic groups are rarely ordered, so there is (usually) no such thing.
Let $x$ be some element, and let $A$ and $B$ be sets such that ${x}\triangle A=B$ and (therefore) ${x}\triangle B=A$. Without loss of generality, let's say that $x\notin A$, so $B={x}\cup A$.
Now let $M = {x}A$. Since ${x}{x}$ is the identity, we have ${x}M = {x}({x}*A) = A$, which requires that $A \subseteq {x}\cup M$. Since $x\notin A$, this means $A \subseteq M$. On the other hand, $M={x}*A$ is a subset of ${x}\cup A=B$, so in total
$$A \subseteq M \subseteq B$$
Since $A$ and $B$ differ only in a single element, there's no set that is strictly between them, so $M$ must be either $A$ or $B$. But it cannot be $A$ because then ${x}A = M = A = \varnothingA$, and we'd be able to cancel the $A$ and get ${x}=\varnothing$. So $M=B$.
Thus ${x}*A = M = B = {x}\triangle A$, and ${x}*B = {x}*M = A$ (which was already noted above).
(This should then be repeated from the right instead, since we don't yet know that the group is abelian).
I was actually able to figure that part out, but thanks a lot. This next part of this proof kind of has me stuck.
Troposphere
Oh, wasn't that (3)?
Right that was (3), I was just saying that I understood your original argument now.
Assume that $*:\mathscr{P}(X)\rightarrow\mathscr{P}(X)$ and $\cdot:\mathscr{P}(X)\rightarrow\mathscr{P}(X)$ are group operations on $\mathscr{P}(X)$ such that
[
(\forall A,B \in \mathscr{P}(X)),, A*B\subseteq A \cup B
]
and
[
(\forall A,B \in \mathscr{P}(X)),, A \cap B \subseteq A\cdot B
]
calebuic魏凯布
I'm trying to finish the proof for Lemma 3.9, but I'm trying to figure out how to draw a contradiction from assuming A \cdot A \neq X.
If you've already done the parts for *, I would just say:
Let Y = X and define f:P(X)->P(Y) by f(A) = X△A. This is a bijection. Now if we define
#: P(Y)×P(Y)->P(Y) by S#T = f( f^-1(S) · f^-1(T) )
then # is automatically a group operation on P(Y) and f is an isomorphism.
It also satisfies (as one can see by a bit of set algebra)
S#T subseteq S\cup T
so we can use what we already know to conclude that S#T = S△T.
Then A·B = f^-1(f(A·B)) = f^-1(f(A)#f(B)) = X△((X△A)△(X△B)) = X△X△X△A△B = X△(A△B), and you can prove lemmas 3.7, 3.8, 3.9 just by computing from that.
I did do the parts for *:
Sure you could also take the entire argument for * and demorganize it step for step, but it's just as instructive to transfer that already known results in this way.
This other operation \cdot corresponds to the "co-symmetric difference"
Which is just the complement of the symmetric difference in X.
(I don't think you need your lemma 3.6, by the way, if you end up showing A*B = A△B element for element, as in my steps 4,5,6).
I would like to try a more elementary proof
It's hard to think of any more elementary way to prove two sets are equal than to show they contain the same elements.
Right, and your proof makes sense. I thought that I should be able to just flat out prove 3.9 using only the hypothesis and Lemmas 3.7 and 3.8
As in supposing I knew nothing about the * operation
I think it's because you're missing an analogue of your lemma 3.5.
Every Sub group of quotient group order 8 is normal?
Not necessarily no, unless you mean proper quotient.
For example the symmetry group of a square has order 8 is a quotient of itself and has subgroups that are not normal
... where "for example" means "this is the only counterexample, up to isomorphism".
What is your exercice ?
Let f € Aut(G), then f(H) is a subgroup of G of order |H|
=> f(H) = H
UGOBEL
What are the identity and inverses in the free group on n letters?
I assume an empty word is identity
But what about inverses?
Reverse the word, and then swap generators for their inverses.
So each generator has to have some inverse?
Could I get a hint for 10.1.3
Also, I why is $<A_{m,n}>$ where $A_{m,n} = { g^m | g \in F_n}$ a subgroup.
donut123
<X> is by definition the smallest subgroup containing X
try working this out for some (small) examples. when you transpose a and b, which pairs do you gain/lose in the set? can you generalize to n?
mqinsweden (ping on reply)
with alpha = v_p(|G|)
Oh yeah…
mqinsweden (ping on reply)
Idk what I was thinking
A p-Sylow is a p-group
no, not just a p subgroup
a p subgroup is called a p subgroup, that's it
a sylow p subgroup is a maximal p subgroup
What ?
Let |G| = mp^s with lcd(m,p) = 1
Then S is a p-Sylow subgroup of G iff S is a subgroup of G with |S| = p^s
No, Z/2 x Z/3 has a 3-sylow subgroup but its order is not a power of three
gcd of course mb 😅
Largest common divisor ¯_(ツ)_/¯
Okay, never heard that abbreviation though
In Z, the primary ideals are (0) and (p^n) for prime p. Are the primary ideals in any pid of this form?
yee
this easily follows from chinese remainder theorem
an ideal I in a ring A is primary if and only if A/I is a coprimary A-module
and coprimary means it is "sitting on a single prime" i.e. has a single associated prime
CRT+pid says A/I = ⊕ A/(p_i^e_i), so it is coprimary if and only if there is a single i
I know I is primary if all zero divisors in A/I are nilpotent, is that related to that?
Not sure what a coprimary module is
oh, you said it there lol
yee in some sense coprimary is the more fundamental notion
and more conceptual
and primary-ness is the notion of the inclusion I ⊆ A than just I :p. more precisely it doesn't make sense to say when a module is primary, but it does make sense to say when a submodule N⊆M is primary. (it is when the quotient M/N is coprimary)
strictly speaking that's not the definition, but is equivalent to it in the nice noetherian+f.g. situation
shoot this sounds good but it will take me some time to parse through it
(btw tbf it's easier to see it directly by this)
the equivalence of the two definitions is pretty routine but not very obvious
mqinsweden (ping on reply)
I think it's funniest to say 1 thougy and heckle the problem setter
You kinda need to solve (a) the intended way to solve (b) anyway, so might as well
I am trying to learn Galois Theory (only at a high level) and I am struggling to understand this (almost) final part. In the screenshot you can see the statement of Lemma 23.29 (which I understand) and the IMPORTANT theorem 23.30. My problem is in the very first step, where it says "By Lemma 23.29 we can assume the E is the splitting field [of] f(x)" (I am assuming it was supposed to say "of").
I don't understand how the Lemma guarantees that the splitting field of a solvable polynomial is itself a radical extension of the base field. By definition there is a radical extension which contains the splitting field, but how do we know that there is a radical extension which is the splitting field?
TLDR; How do we know that the splitting field of a solvable polynomial is a radical extension of the base field of coefficients (if this is even true)?
(I was told to ask this in here)
Another source saying the same thing: this page from Cambridge University says "If the polynomial p(x) is soluble by radicals, then the splitting field F of p(x) is a radical field extension of Q (can you see why?)."
My problem is that I cannot see why.
seems to be a mistake here as those aren't cyclotomic extensions
You can get to Q{√{1+√2}} by adjoining √2 and then √(1+√2) so it is not cyclotomic but it is radical (which is what it says)
it says "which you can get to only using cyclotomic field extensions"
which seems a typo
why
but i think this is a good question you've asked
well like nowhere else are cyclotomic extensions mentioned
Anyway uh i think it is false that polynomials solvable by radicals have radical splitting fields
Well this is wrong
and i am surprised that error has been made in a book or smth
what is the correct definition
I have only ever seen cyclotomic extension to mean an extension of the form Q(a)/Q where a is a root of unity
or more generally just adding roots of unity
ok thanks,
can you shed any light on this part.
I’m just confused where it says “by the lemma we can assume that E [some arbitrary radical extension] is the splitting field”
that is, why can we assume that there is a radical extension which is the splitting field (not just which contains it)
this part sorry
I think like you can have polynomials solvable by radicals whose splitting fields aren't radical
However it shouldn't really matter here because uhhh
That was what I thought but ai found 2 places saying it
Sure but AI hallucinates references ig
i found proofs of counterexamples ig
I think you can basically embed your splitting field into a normal radical extension and then use the fundamental theorem of Galois theory to deduce that Gal(K/F) is solvable from Gal(L/F) being solvable
Like since K/F is Galois itself, Gal(K/F) is a quotient of Gal(L/F)
So if Gal(L/F) is solvable then so is Gal(K/F)
And then their proof works
But yes this is a good question!
Oh okay. I think I can see why Gal(L/F) would be solvable, I just need to work out that last detail
thanks for your help!
Nppp :)
Sorry for being negative about these resources aha, i think it's important to poont out mistakes tho
Wait, what does solvable by radicals mean then?
Splitting field is contained in a radical extension (not necessarily that it is a radical extension)
Okay, I'm just not seeing how that's possible I guess
Like something where the roots are of the form
root(x) + root(y), but the splitting field doesn't contain root(x) or root(y), is that the point?
Yeah, though not all choices of x and y will work of course. The usual example of this phenomenon is $\bQ(\zeta_7+\zeta_7^{-1})/\bQ$, where $\zeta_7=\exp(2\pi i/7)$
harmacist
We have the word minor for determinant of a submatrix
is there an analogous term for the Pfaffian of a submatrix of a skew-symmetric matrix?
I guess just apply the sylow theorems to the group PN
Hey guys, I was solving this exercise, but I do not understand the last point, why can we write f that way?
If there were any cross-terms, they would be zero in J since J contains every monomial with at least two distinct multiplicands.
Sorry I mean zero in R*
not in J
okay that's good I also understood it that way, what are thos fi's then in the polynomial down
Some polynomial
these should be just some powers, right?
No
They could be, for example f_1(x_1) = 1 + x_1 + x_1^5
and similar things for f_2 and f_3
okay yes exactly
They can be any polynomials
I mean they are always still in K[x_i], because otherwise they would be 0 right?
I mean they are not mixed
ever
That is the point, yes
okay that's is good, thank you for clarifying!! 
No problemo
You mean xHx^-1? That's just the set of elements of the form xhx^-1 where h is in H
It is quite common notation to, given some function f : X -> Y, write the image of some subset A of X as f(A). This is the same principle.
It must be used with a bit of caution if there are multiple such subsets around in the same expression -- otherwise you may end up with things such as Z+Z != 2Z which can be confusing to the reader who isn't in on it.
Yes.
Yes, with the standard group self-action by left or right multiplication.
If the group acts on itself by conjugation, though, stabilizers of single elements can be more interesting.
For R and S rings, if S is an R-module, does there necessarily exist a ring map R->S?
This is true if S is an R-algebra, but not necessarily if it's just an R-module.
The map
R -> S
r |-> r*1
becomes a ring homomorphism assuming the multiplication of S is bilinear
"is an R-module" is a bit oddly phrased cause (1) that structure isn't used in the ring map and (2) it only concerns the underlying abelian group of S. i guess you can phrase it as compatibility between some existence things but feels like a slightly funny question
idk what a counterexample would be though
Yeah, there doesn't seem to be a reason why it would be true, but it's tricky to find a counterexample either.
S = Z^2, R = Z[sqrt(2)] I guess
yea was a bit weird but I was thinking about it cause for S an R-algebra you have the map R->S that makes S an R-module, so I guess I was trying to think of if the "other way" was true too or something
You can map (a,b) in Z^2 to a in Z[sqrt(2)] and have a ring morphism, can't you?
Goes the wrong way
Whoops.
Okay, I accept that.
It says pk divides p!
I'm not really sure on what you said here tbh
That k divides (p-1)! is not just arithmetic
The point is that you need to explicitly assume some connection between the S×S->S multiplication and the R×S->S multiplication.
Such as r·(s1·s2) = (r·s1)·s2 and probably also r·(s1·s2) = s1·(r·s2) which would make S into an R-algebra.
oh, and the assumption jagr said was that if the ring multiplication in S, SxS->S was R-bilinear, then the map R->S r -> r*1 is a ring hom?
Yeah.
You just need the first condition to make the ring map, but might as well throw in the second one to get an algebra (or have S be commutative to get it for free)
Yeah, I didn't bother to worry about whether it was a minimal requirement.
the second one so that it maps f(R) into the center of S?
Guys if I have an irreducible affine variety of dimension 0, why does it have to be only a point?
What definition of dimension are you working with?
Well actually in any case I'll point out an argument
OK yeah that's perfect
Well note firstly that a point is a closed set (i.e. a variety!) and it has no nonempty subvarieties, so it's hopefully clear that points are zero-dimensional irreducible varieties.
Just thinking about the converse, one moment
For showing other way round, observe that every variety has an irreducible subvariety in each of its points. Indeed it's a union of these (possibly infinitely many!) irreducible dim-0 subvarieties
If there were an irreducible dim-0 variety other than the point one, it would have a dim-0 subvariety given by any one of its points
So that's contradictory -- it would be dim 1
(at least)
Does that make sense?
det doesn't understand this sentence
Also hi det, it's been a while
haiii 
If V is a variety and v in V, then {v} is an irreducible, dimension-0 subvariety of V
ah okie
not a subvariety right
unless you take closures
(idk i'm assuming varieties here have non-closed poitns)
The closure of a point is an irreducible closed set, so since you can't have a chain of two irreducible closed sets, the closure of any point must be everything.
That means your space has the indiscrete topology.
Then something something, affine varieties can't have indistinguishable points
Nice proof very slick
subvarieties need to be a locally closed subsets right
Point sets are indeed closed in the Zariski topology
And therefore also locally closed I think?
Oh yes I am assuming classical lol
Also, are these Gathmann's notes? Awesome if so, they're great
that what me was confused here ><
Lol perennial problem with ag convos here
meaing that it would strictly contain the point, right?
what do you mean with: "since you can't have a chain of two irreducible closed sets"? (sorry this question might be silly)
yes, they are, I really like them, but I just began studying algebraic geometry and am a little bit struggling ngl
Exactly yes
And then by definition of dimension above, it wouldn't (after all) be dim 0
It's definitely hard!
if you had a chain of two irreducible closed sets then your dimension wouldnt be zero
(it's essentially the same argument but in slicker language)
That's the definition of 0-dimensional
pff hahah, yes of course, thank you!
thanks guys, it's much clearer now!
I asked because I was tryin to show that if I have a non-empty open subset U in X for X irreducible affine variety, then dimU = dim X and in the exercises given by my professor it's done by induction. Honestly, I don't really like the proof, do you think there is some other nice way of proving this statement?
I think that's frankly the way I would do it
What is the dimension of the empty set
is it even defined? haha
Does that mean that R^n with the good old metric topology has dimension 0?
I would take it to be -oo
Yes
that proof is really ugly though
Statements dreamed up by the utterly deranged.
But it does give you e.g. that k^n with the Zariski topology is n-dimensional for an alg closed field k, which is nice
people have come up with crazy definitions of dimension that work good in many contexts
there's this BMU-dimension that works well with both varieties and manifolds
I think inductive proofs are quite nice and pretty usually but fair enough, it's up to your taste really
oh more is true
oh okie no i lied
what i was gonna say was the elementary statement that there is a bijection between irreducible closed subsets of X intersecting U and irreducible closeds of U
the maps are simply Z --> Z∩U for the forward direction, and Z --> cl(Z) in the backwards.
but yea we need some version of "going down" for the thing you want to prove
and that kinda depends on stuff being finite type over the field k
an example to say why shit can go wrong is this:
look at A^1(k) and localize at the point with coordinate 0.
this will have coordinate ring given by k[x]_(x) and the Spec has two points {(0), (x)}. so it is one-dimensional and the (only non-trivial) open subset {(0)} sadly is 0-dimensional.
if your argument didn't use something specific about being finite type over k, then it would have worked for this nice ring k[x]_(x) where shit is not true.
in any case, a nice statement one should prove is that for (irreducible) affine varieties X over a field k, we can give simpler definition of dimension. You look at the coordinate ring Γ(X) which is an integral domain. take the fraction field Frac(Γ(X)) and look at the transcendence degree of this over k. this agrees with dim X.
(if you do a careful induction, you can avoid using going down.)
since this function field Frac(Γ(X)) knows the dimension, we can show the easier statement that Frac(Γ(X)) = Frac(Γ(U)).
Shouldn't all this be in #algebraic-geometry, by the way?
true 🙈
Boooo
Saying S is an R-algebra doesn't necessarily mean we are considering S as an R-module by rs = f(r)s , but its just that we can do such a thing?
it's saying that there are two things happening at the same time
S has a ring structure, and we can also do scalar-multiplication where scalars come from R
to say "S is an R-algebra" means you have a ring S with a ring hom f : R \to S
so yea, it's not asking you to forget the ring structure on S.
is the tensor algebra of M an R-algebra from the ring map R->T(M) just being inclusion?
ye
if you want lol R = T(0)
ok thx. im trying to learn about the exterior algebra
noice
How do I think of how elements of T(M) look like? Its an infinite direct sum so can I think of an element as tuple (r, m, m1 (x) m2, m1 (x) m2 (x) m3 , ...) etc but finitely many entries nonzero?
what does the ring multiplication in T(M) look like?
Or should I think of it as "sums" instead
Your picture is incomplete because the entries need not be simple tensors
yeah
But yes, T(M) as an R-module is indeed just R (+) M (+) M(x)M (+) ...
Either way works
After all, it is literally a sum of embeddings of things from each of the components.
People usually just write them as sums of the things, so e.g. 1 + v_1 (x) v_2
I just think of an element as a linear combination of stuff in each degree
Indeed this is how i would think of most grsdrd rings ig
It is the "tautological" thing
Like to multiply simple tensors, put a (x) symbol between them
Yeah I was thinking something wrong by thinking some ring multiplication is like componentwise along a tuple (..)
In other words the multiplication V^m (x) V^n -> V^(n+m) is the usual isomorphism
Where i am using powers for tensor products
Yeah like key thing is this is a graded ring
So like there are pieces R(m) and the multuplicayion comes from maps R(m) x R(n) -> R(m+n)
Oh I immediately forgot to tell you about the multiplication AGH
Also like there is a way to make this precise: if you have an R-algebra S and a map M -> S of R-modules then you get a unique extension along M -> TM which gives a ring map TM -> S
I saw that 👁️👄👁️
Chungus
precise in the sense that that is the correct ring multiplication on TM required to make that universal property true?
Polynomial rings seem to be the one exception to this -- which makes it a bit weird that they're also the prototypical example of graded rings.
So obviously potato has explained it but you can think of it as being 'polynomials in M'. We introduce a completely formal multiplication on elements of M and let the multiplication be as free as possible. The universal property formalises this
Are they necessarily? I mean they are literally T(R)
Idk cause you usually write polynimuals as sums a_n x^n
Which is explicitly writing it as a sum of things in each degree
But still it feels a lot more natural to think of a polynomial as a single thing, than it does for, say, a mixed element of a tensor algebra.
Ig yee
mqinsweden (ping on reply)
I am mostly being silly there dw
It is Lagrange applied to G/K as a subgroup of S_p
Lagrange states that |K| x |G/K| = |G|, so by definition |G/K| divides |G|.
Oh wait Potato is right
Of course that gets blurred a bit when things like Clifford algebras are defined as grade-mixing quotients of tensor algebras, because that requires viewing the mixed elements of the tensor algebra as single things after all.
p!
p! is not p
This is Sylow isn't it
I would say in general that people do not think of the proofs of the Sylow theorems very often lol
Boytjie this thing about poly rings being symmetric algebras has been quite interesting to me recently, like it has been subtle
Very nice fact
Basically thing is that theres a construction which takes in a ring and you are interested in its valhes on poly rings. But if you write the poly rings as Sym(V) and use "canonical" equivalences then you only get smth natural in maps coming from vector space maps
Probably just from computing examples
This is one of the main ways to easily know a subgroup is normal
There is also an easier proof for p = 2
Or alternatively they're condensed down from proofs of more immediately meaningful properties that are themselves the result of wild desperate trying-everything.
It's well-known that subgroups of index 2 are normal. So this is a natural way of generalizing that fact
But yeah this is very interestung for smtu
You shouldn't expect to be able to come up with every fact about groups. It took us all a long time to work it out lol
Hm that's interesting
Is it hard to figure out why they coincide or are you saying that you haven't yet demonstrated it?
Well the point here is that like you have a construction on commutative rings (actually simplicial commutative rings) which is left Kan extended from polynomial rings, and on polynomial rings you can compute its values quite easily given the identification of Z[x_1,...,x_n] with the symmetric algebra on Z^n
extended to sums by distributive law in the sense of , the multiplication given there is how to multiply simple tensors in T^k(M) by ones in T^j(M), so to define multiplication on the whole T(M) we can just extend that formula by a distributive law?
But then one can't use this to control the values in a functorial way because i used the fact that it came from sym on an abelian group
Yeah like you just define it so that (a+b)(c+d) = ac + etc
like it's enough to define it on simple tensors and then everything works out by writing stuff as sums of simple tensors and "expanding everything out"
yea so theres like two distributive laws here right, over simple tensors and then over sums in T(M)?
Is anyone in here familiar with wreath products? I'm writing up some notes about twisty puzzles for fun, and I'm a little concerned that I might not be formalizing something quite right. I would love to have someone to bounce some stuff off of
Brand new to this server. Hope this is the right place to ask
I did indeed see your question and I am indeed familiar with wreath products, but I confess I was completely unclear on what your problem actually was
You seem to be saying that your construction is a wreath product, and... ok?
Oh yeah, I'm deleting it from the other page. I think that is the wrong one for it
Well, I'm unsure if I'm actually understanding wreath products correctly. I only found them after coming up with my construction
Trying to redo my construction in the way wreath products seem to be normally notated does not feel natural
But I did not completely explain what it was in the first comment I made
OK would you like to talk through what you think wreath products look like?
idk what your sentence means
As a quick preliminary question, do you know what a semidirect product is?
The proof given there seems clear enough so please lmk what confuses
Yeah. I'm a little rusty as I haven't taken an algebra class in several years
OK
Let's start then. Maybe let's make a thread
it says that since pk divides p!
k must divide (p-1)!
Do you see why this is true, firstly?
OK
Great ok
So let's say q is some prime dividing |G| and p < q
Here's a fact
to show that q does not divide k, it suffices to show q does not divide (p-1)! by transitivity of divisibility
So why would q not divide (p-1)!?
(p-1)! is a product of 1, 2, ..., p-1
And by the definition of primality, if q divided (p-1)! it must divide one of 1, 2, ..., p-1
Now can you tell me why this means that q <= p-1? You can probably see this now
A little imprecise as proofs go, but your reasoning is correct
Indeed you're done
So q does not divide (p-1)!, so q cannot divide k.
then k must cannot contain a prime smaller than p
That is what you needed to prove
mqinsweden (ping on reply)
if A and B are R-algebras then the tensor product A(x)B is also an R-algebra. A(x)B would already be an R-module by r(a(x)b) = ra(x)b = a(x)rb, but this action is different from how R acts on A(x)B when considered as an R-algebra?
in the first case I guess it would be r(a(x)b) = f(r)a(x)b but the second action would be r(a(x)b) = (f(r)(x)g(r)) * (a(x)b) = (f(r)a(x) g(r)b))?
No, the two should agree. If the maps are f: R -> A, g: R-> B then h: R -> A (x) B sends r to f(r) (x) 1 = 1 (x) g(r), so you can check it works out
Remember that the tensor product is over R, and that elements of R commute with all other elements in an R-algebra
So in particular, ra (x) b = ar (x) b = a (x) rb = a (x) br
in a/m they have the map h be r -> f(r) (x) g(r)
maybe i'm cooked...
Mind posting the definition?
This is surely wrong, right Potato?
I mean we would want there to be maps B -> B (X) C and likewise for C
and this should preserve the algebra structure
so it must be a |-> f(a) (x) 1 = 1 (x) g(a) via that
Hm thing is if you do like the tensor product R (x)_R R[x] then this gives you r -> r (x) r and that doesn't seem to be the correct thing
Oh ofc
WAit yeah that commutative diagram below literally says this
I'm betting on typo.
Yupp
Phew I'm not insane!
thanks
world's best PS ever
That would be at least two of us
and haven't been misunderstanding tensor products of algebras for the last few years
lol
Dear Tim,
np
but this means u asked a good question
/ thought well about it
what CLOWNS
how DARE they
I could give you the definition right now, it's very easy to write down
I don't know the page but it's very simple
Would you like that?
@sacred wharf
forgot to ping
I have never opened Dummit and Foote, so I don't know that either
Are you familiar with the Cartesian product of sets? So if I had sets A and B and I wrote A x B, would you know what I mean?
In TeX: $A \times B$
Boytjie
Yes, it's the set of ordered pairs.
That is the group structure of the direct product of groups.
That's all there is to it.
It's likely to be an exercise in D&F, but you should work out the identity and inverses in this group
Does this proof for c) show that $B$ is free abelian? Let ${\mathbf{x_1}, \dots, \mathbf{x_n}}$ be the set of nonzero generators for $B_n = B$. Then ${\mathbf{x_1}, \dots, \mathbf{x_n}}$ is a basis for $B$. Moreover, the subgroup generated by each $\mathbf{x_i]$ is infinite cyclic, for otherwise the subgroup $\pi_i (\mathbf{x_i})$ of $\mathbb{Z}$ is not infinite cyclic.
okeyokay
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
What do you mean?
OK so... yes you get a new set
so...?
What's the question?
I wish you had started with the thing you actually wanted to ask
Anyway this follows immediately by orbit-stabiliser
N_G(S) is the stabiliser of the element S of the G-set P(S) under the conjugation action
The bijection between the cosets of N_G(S) and the conjugates of S will be given by gN_G(S) ↦ gSg^-1
OK, this is too small a snippet for me to understand
Can you try explaining what you're trying to ask
OK it's a bit simpler
Simply apply the action of h^-1
Then $g \cdot a = h \cdot a$ implies $h^{-1} \cdot (g\cdot a) = h^{-1} \cdot (h \cdot a)$. Can you see how to continue?
Boytjie
Same thing. Apply the action of h instead of h^-1
$h^{-1}g \cdot a = a$ implies $h \cdot (h^{-1}g \cdot a) = h \cdot a$. Can you see how to continue?
Boytjie
Is it? That surprises me, my old mac worked fine with it
but each to their own I guess
British English. I suppose the issue is language then
Anyway please go on
mqinsweden (ping on reply)
(i use a macbook air and i dont notice a diff between it and windows)
How can it be possible that the f_j's make a basis for Rm? They are elements of Rn
Presumably it means to say that they generate a ring / module isomorphic to R^m
R^m is the free left R-module of rank m
This book uses row-vector convention, which I find very confusing
Is the point that we need a R-module homomorphism \eta: R^n -> R^m whose matrix is B so that the \eta(f_j) form a basis for R^m?
A here is the base change matrix from R^m back to R^n
Which corresponds to a R module homomorphism
So if it has a two sided inverse then it defines an isomorphism
m here may or may not be distinct from n (it should be the same as n, but I don’t think the proof here requires that fact)
Ok, but if I use the definitions, then I have to find linearly independent elements of Rm spanning Rm. Where do I get these?
Sp you’re shown that G has trivial center , but that’s not enough to conclude that G has a unique class equation
Well you get it from the f_m’s
These are linear combinations of e_i's, which are in Rn
I would be careful about using the word linearly independent when working with modules
I’m not saying that the f_m’s themselves are the basis
But you do something with them
Is there something different about linear independence in a module rather than a vector space? $\sum_i c_ix_i=0\implies c_i=0$ does not use the assumption that any $c_i$ is a unit
person2709505
Actually you’re right I don’t think there is explicitly anything wrong with it it’s just a personal preference of mine
I see
Actually I might have figured it out. I just don't like thinking about what matrix multiplication does to rows
Can you figure out what the conjugacy classes are?
this question is incredibly weird. The only group of order 15 is cyclic.
It only says at most one
you've assumed G is non-abelian...
Sure, and if one can show that there’s still at most 1 under this assumption then it’s fine, no?
Doesn’t mean that such an nonabelian G must exist
why are we calculating the centre of a group that doesn't exist
all of mqinsweden's proofs are fine but it's for an object which isn't real
just start with the class equation straight away and show that there's only one possible
Well if the centre is trivial then ||at most one class equation can exist as 14 must be a nontrivial combination of 3 and 5||
See that’s the thing though, I’m not sure if that’s possible without splitting into the abelian and nonabelian case first
Without sylow theorems, which is the assumption I’ve been working under
Oh, at most 1
now we use the hint about <g> being a subgroup of its centraliser to show that this class equation cannot arise from an actual group
what a STRANGE question I'm fascinated by it
I mean, as long as you can check that there’s no other way to combine them to form 14 then we’re done
Does this work for the backwards implication?
what book is this from? every group of order 15 is cyclic lol
atp just prove it's abelian: Pick an element of order 5 x and consider the conjugation action of G on <x> (which must be normal as it is index 3, the smallest prime dividing |G|), then because 3 doesn't divide |Aut(<x>)| = 4 this conjugation action must be trivial, hence <x> is central in G, but by your proof earlier this implies that G is abelian.
If we absolutely must find a contradiction from the class equation. Then again we have that the subgroup <x> is normal in G and G cannot have multiple subgroups of order 5 by third Sylow theorem (idc atp 💔). Hence G has 4 elements of order 5 which must fall into conjugacy classes of shape 1+1+1+1 2+2, 4. None of which appear in your class equation.
Honestly I don’t fully understand the point of this question, a homomorphism f is an isomorphism iff there exists a homomorphism g that acts as both a left and right inverse for f.
So your question is merely observing the fact that R-module homomorphism between R^n and R^m can be naturally represented as a matrix transformation
Yes, it's the first question (so probably just meant to test basic understanding of definitions) following the chapter on the correspondence between R-module homomorphisms and matrices
I wasnt sure why f(r) (x) 1 = 1 (x) g(r), but its because the r scalar can move across like r(1(x)1) = (r.1(x)1) = (1(x)r.1) right
Go to advanced algebra -> threads, and also maybe change your settings for when threads get automatically hidden
Ye
Given the Hasse diagram of a lattice of subgroups for a group G, I need to show that it is indeed the correct lattice for G.
I'm not well versed in lattice theory though. After proving that the underlying set of the lattice contains exactly the subgroups of G, is it sufficient to show that the line segments in the diagram are right? (i.e. that those inclusions do hold between respective subgroups)
Dummit-Foote suggests checking that "their pairwise joins and intersections are correctly drawn" but that sounds like a lot of work and I'm not sure it's necessary.
Prove that a nonabelian group of order 15 decomposes into groups of order 16
Yes
Yes, if two lattices have the same underlying poset then they are the same lattice
Hey, sorry quick question, would anybody know what the capital K with a double line (like with real or complex number symbol) generally means?
This
Depends on the context
I see that often used for a field but like
There's nothing stopping someone from using that for whatever
I feel like I've mostly seen it to mean a field that is either R or C.
I'm gonna use it to denote a nonabelian group of order 6
And ridicule everyone using it otherwise
Good plan. Why not order 15 instead, though?
Ah sorry didn't know these are called fields in English.
Ok, so it's just some default field, not something specific.
I see, thanks!
Are you kidding? That's incredibly redundant
Well, either R or C is pretty specific.
But it could be it's being used more broadly. Hard to say
How can I show that 2(x)1 is nonzero in 2Z (x) Z/2Z? can I show it by making a bilinear map and showing (2,1) does not get mapped to 0?
what are you tensoring over
Z
Probably easiest psychologically just to note 2Z is iso to Z as a Z-module lol
so this becomes 1 (x) 1 in Z (x)_Z Z/2Z
Ok, and then at this point would you just use that this is iso to Z/2Z and 1(x)1 goes to 1?
Yup, or you can even just be lazy and just say there's a non-zero bilinear map Z x Z/2Z -> Z/2Z
Sending (a,b) to ab
To show 1(x)1 not zero we need there is a nonzero bilinear map that also has (1,1) not mapping to 0 right
if its nonzero then (1,1) can't go to 0
Because Z and Z/2Z are generated by 1?
ye
not just generated, it is straight up 1
though here also just like you can again write down the example kinda simply
so you can multiply with any element you want and biliearity does the rest
I mean like if you just write down the kinda obvious Z x Z/2 -> Z/2 multpilication that does the job (sends 1 (x) 1 |-> 1)
and indeed this is the map inducing the isomorphism Z (x) Z/2 -> Z/2 anyway
this is kind of a good question lol like a bit of a troll
f(a,b) = abf(1,1) right
Is this proof actually correct it felt pretty simple? Or I have to use homomorphism?
It is a simple thing to prove.
Then it’s fine I thought it has to be delt with homomorphism
You are actually using a homomorphism, you're just not saying it
m ↦ x^m is a homomorphism Z → G
(in fact every homomorphism Z → G is of that form)
Yes, you’re right.. I didn’t know 🫣🫣🫣
Something new every day
I thought I could’ve crafted (and indeed crafted a contradiction easily) yes something new everyday🥰🥰🥰
Well I mean, you use proof by contradiction redundantly here
"Let me prove x. For contradiction, assume not x. But in fact unrelatedly we can prove x. Which is a contradiction."
Your proof directly shows that every element of x is torsion.
A proof that would actually use the contradictory hypothesis would (for example) argue that x, x^2, x^3 are all distinct elements, so that G contains infinitely many distinct elements.
I should have spotted this before, that was my mistake.
I don’t have to assume like the order of it is infinite and then argue existence of m and n such that x^m = x^n it’s still fine?
Why would you have to assume that?
Where did you use the hypothesis that x was of infinite order?
If you didn't use an assumption, it's not necessary
Because if x is not infinite I can’t apply pigeonhole principle
No of course you can
What's the pigeonhole principle to you? What's the precise statement?
Like if you have more pigeons than boxes there is one box at least it has more than one pigeon
OK that's not a precise statement
Let me tell you the mathematical pigeonhole principle
🥰
If $f : X \to Y$ is a function and $|X| > |Y|$ then $f$ is not injective.
Boytjie
Note that you constructed a function f : N → G sending m ↦ x^m
This function is not injective, since N is infinite and G is finite.
This gives you precisely what you need
(N.b. I said function here, not homomorphism)
Yes indeed, I just realize this part 🫣🫣 that’s such a brilliant brain twist
So essential Becasue G is finite should be good enough right?
Yes, you do not need to assume that x is of infinite order
🥰🥰🥰🥰 that is such a nuance 🍀🍀
Ain't math great
Yes🥰🥰🥰
I like the enthusiasm
I used to feel quite worried about delayed graduation though enthusiasm led me to think less over that (which is in fact trivial). So I like my own enthusiasm too
your point? G is not assumed finite
G being finite is different from it being finitely generated
Silly question, but does meet usually mean nonempty intersection or that they're equal?
Here it means having nonempty intersection at least
Thank God that's weaker
I would say that's what it "usually" means aswell, but idk, context changes words yk
Also thanks for the hint on the other channel, I'm going to try to find out the iso on my own then read the rest of your message
Yeah ikwym
atiyah ig
Atiyah Macdonald
lol