#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 335 of 1
ok I guess it looked like i didnt need that result specifically but I did use that J^n is in I for some n which is pretty much the same sort of result as that
as in subgroup lattice ?
they’re useful for galois theory
yes probably
they’re just a visualization aid
The preimage of a subgroup under an isomorphism is a subgroup of the domain
Hijack that and you’re golden
What injectivity
That should work
What exactly are you trying to do
Isn’t that true for general maps assuming choice
Want another route:
Seems fine lol
Knowing the map pi: G -> G/H is an epimorphism, show that the preimage of any subgroup of G/H is a subgroup containing H of G, show that pi(pi^-1(K)) = K for any subgroup K of G/H.
A/N isn’t
It’s a “set of cosets”
No
They lack the identity
Surjective homomorphism in the case of groups
Let me elaborate when I get home
Yes, G/N is all the cosets of N, and A/N are those cosets of the form aN for a in A
a is an element of A which is a subgroup of G
I interpret it as
bijection from the set of (subgroups A of G)
So the symbol A denotes a subgroup
The point is
A |-> A/N
defines a bijection between subgroups of G containing N and subgroups of G/N
It's a difficult to parse sentence indeed. Could have been worded better
But harsh maybe, but deducting stars is fair
Let me phrase it as:
Each subgroup of G/H corresponds to a subgroup of G containing H, and vice versa
In fact, let f be a surjective map from group A to group B, then every subgroup of B, K, satisfies
K ~= f^-1(K)/ker(f)
I haven't actually read the specific book, but I think most books will have at least some wonky sentences.
Things can often be tricky to express
Respectfully I think this is actually quite clear mathematical language, but I understand that someone not familiar with it may be confused.
Since you've now understood the actual statement it's best to move along with this new knowledge
After all, we have to keep in mind that there is no such thing as a perfect book.
A set of sets can be a bit finicky to read at first so I prefer to use “family” of sets
You can also use lattice in this case given the structure of groups, where you can say a subgroup is smaller than another based off of if one is a subset of the other
And that you can add together subgroups and intersect them
Notation is fun (not)
Anything else you’re confused by :3
Peak
I would argue that the problem was a lack of notation!
Category theory jumpscare
For A being a subgroup of G?
Well multiplication of elements of A is closed within A, we are just basically “squeezing” the parts of N within A to being the identity, it doesn’t change the fact that it’s multiplicatively closed
Furthermore when the only part of A also in N is the identity, A/N is basically unchanged
The whole idea of quotienting a group is we’re essentially making a normal subgroup “redundant”, by squeezing all the elements of it to the identity
Hello! Small question is the lemma enough for me to delete the little remark next to the second last line of showing associative property of (AB)C=A(BC)? Is there a more self-contained method proving that lemma?
Well, i actually shuffled a bit with arguing with commutative property (confused by index) so i kinda gave up and went on for tonelli fubini
I know but still it feels nicer if its concretely justified
That was actually what I was doing but it turned out the index thing can be a bit tricky
But I will definitely be trying
It’s just index 😭
The solution is, in principle, an inductive application of associativity and commutativity. In practise this is tedious and not enlightening.
If you really want to do this, I suppose it is one of those "once, and then never again" proofs.
I actually thought about it after trying a couple times, the manipulation isn’t that trivial.. I will try induction on it
Remember you need to do double induction, on both sets.
If you haven't done this before, well, this is a great time to learn how to do it.
You may want to identify some lemmas to prove.
I will do a search about double induction and see how it’s performed.. this basic fact was a bit hard earlier and I was really irritated with the index… thanks so much for tips 🥰
What a beautiful color box, what is the name of the book or the notes?
It’s my own note
And this is my pointset topology note.. I used some templates on overleaf though
It’s not organized since just based on random YouTube videos and proofs are self produced so not necessarily rigorous
Hahahahahahahaha this demonstration is really monstrous, I literally hadn't thought about it.
I have these notes, I have this so far
Im having trouble showing the other direction. If the torsion functors are equal, then rad(I)=rad(J)
where l-torsion(M) = {x in M st I^nx=0 for some n}
whats the diff in thm 10 number 4 pg 176 in D&F it states that H is normal in G. But then in proposition 11. K is normal in H semi direct product with K in pg 177
The ring is noetherian
GRAM MATRIX JUMPSCARE
this is actually interesting because these both in the background care about the norm being positive, namely the norm of the orthogonal component being positive
Emma, could you share with me the code of the box you have please I find it very nice.

Sure I think it’s called elegant book on latex or something if it’s not the name I will find it for you tomorrow
looks like some mdframed thing
Through I actually made a typo there but it was proven correctly in the end.. i rarely use pens anymore these days so sometimes it can be inaccurate here and there. I was in a rush extending the concept to metric space 🫣 and want it to look at least self contained so I proved those results alongside.
The truth is that I saw this demonstration in some book of linear algebra or differential geometry, I did not take a screenshot to see what it said about the demonstration, it seems to me a monstrous way to do the demonstration hahaha
Can you send me the link or the code to private to not bother the channel, I appreciate it, have a great night.
Gram matrix is only making sense to me for being positive semi definite. Maybe it’s not that self-contained to show it that way I will switch approach..
Btw I sent you a friend request so I can send you the link
The difference is that in thm 10 you're only guaranteed H to be normal, and in prop 11 you're determining when K is normal
Consider M = R/rad(I)
Just a quick question, does the first isomorphism theorem still hold for infinite case?
Yes.
Thanks!
You're welcome.
Say you have a ring of integers O_K. Let p be a prime ideal. I want to understand why p^i/(p^(i+1) = O_K/p
one way is to wlog replace O_K with the localization A = O_{K, p}, so now A is a pid and p is principal, where it is quite easy to see.
but depending on your definitions, there might be a more direct way
U(1) (sphere S^1) with angle from (0,1) modulo 2π as an example.
That's a bit too pithy for me to really get a picture of which operations you're trying to axiomatize. Where's even the ordered group there?
Yeah I got it ty I would've been clearer though if I wrote the book. Idk maybe bc its the first time reading about it
It holds for any algebraic structure imaginable, given the right notion of "normal" substructure or "ideal"
Thank you!
Should we consider R/I? I think I showed it like this:
We have I-torsion(R/I) = J-torsion(R/I). Let r in rad(J), so r^n is in J. r^n is in I-torsion(R/I) (since I*r^n is in I) so r^n is in J-torsion(R/I) so J^m r^n = 0. So, r^mn r^n is in I, so r is in rad(I)
I was thinking of the additive group [-1,1] but I now realize that was stupid. I do have an example for you tho: Take (S^1) with (x*y=z) where z is the unique point obtained by rotating the sphere such that x becomes (0,1) and then by rotating such that y becomes (0,1). This is U(1). Or if you want (e^{it}e^{ik}=e^{i(t+k)}) is your operation. I can act on this group with a subgroup [S^1(\mathbb{Q}):={e^it: t\in \mathbb{Q}}] for example with the following action: [\phi:S^1(\mathbb{Q})\rightarrow Aut(S^1)] [t\rightarrow e^{(it)}(.)] which is just one of the more trivial actions here. This group is ordered for example. This is arguablely a fun example.
Bushy (Diff geo #1 Fan)
A norm here would be a function
I remember doing this as a homework problem and thinking it was much harder than it really was lol
I’m sure I spent like an hour looking at it before I realised I’m just dumb and it’s rather straightforward
or some such
Yea i guess u just need to observe how generators work under powers of ideals and then at a certain point all gens of rad(I)^n are in I
This is fairly tame example I think?
I thought you had a proof kiand lol
I’m pretty sure I did some correspondence theorem bullshit but there’s likely something to that as well
Yeah I mean I suspect there’s multiple ways to do it, I just think for that homework problem I used the correspondence theorem together with some nonsense about nilpotency
I doubt it was the cleanest approach ever
Lol
Yeah you can reduce to I = 0 quickly, nice trick often
Yeah I’m pretty sure it was something like that
I’m also thinking back to a homework like a year ago lol
"Locally nilpotent + fg => nilpotent"
Locally nilpotent 
An ideal is locally nilpotent if each element is nilpotent
I’ve not come across that but yeah I looked it up and it’s too do with localisation which I’ve never really done much with
But an ideal is nilpotent if a power of the ideal id 0
Because my comalg lecturer doesn’t like geometry and my alggeo course was just weird
Dont rly need localisation for it, p sure this formulation is equivalent
Lol bruh
I know more about noncom localisation than commutative localisation and it’s just a fucking disaster in the noncom case
Hopefully Miles Reid blesses me with his knowledge next year
Does this generalises ideal wise to noncom rings?
OH I SEE HOW IT IS
I’m sorry Boytjie 
I’ll guess it does, most things that occur element wise in com rings become ideal wise in the non com case
But yeah it’s hard to say if it’ll even be an interesting notion if you move away from commutative rings 
why would anyone be attracted to study noncommutative algebra
Shits cool
A lot of things are significantly harder than if you just have commutativity but you also have so many more rings to work with and just a slightly different flavour to it all
because you get interesting things
yea commutative algebra is like Z and polynomials Z and polynomials
why would anyone be attracted to studying noncommutative groups?????
Cmon you sound silly
bro got offended
fair enough
i mean like im not personally but i also wouldnt know atm why it would be interesting so
Physics is the easy answer for applications
Have you ever seen representation theory of, say, finite groups
I haven't learned it before
OK that does stymy me a bit
but needless to say
it is noncommutative algebra
and it is interesting
maybe i will learn it someday
I hope so! It's wonderful
But also ye i mean different flavour like
The stuff you learn in comm alg is geared towards AG stuff often ig
You will learn different things
Yea I guess my problem is that any time i have ever seen something noncommutative in algebra, it just feels like more of a pain and i have never seen it being useful in an interesting way yet
He who has never tasted grapes says "sour"
Intruded up a massive message about cool applications and then my phone died 
If you want to study Lie algebras or their enveloping algebras, these are noncommutative, and a massive area of research, you’ve also got D-modules which are an important part of PDEs and since calculus is non commutative (see the product rule) these are also generally non commutative. The product rule specifically is modelled by the Weyl algebra which also captures the behaviour of commutator relations in quantum mechanics, so it’s helpful to understand these things
Also there’s like ya know, matrices
Phone died and now my messages won’t send, I’m being oppressed for my views on commutativity
The Weyl algebra as gives you a definition of Holonomic modules through the Bernstein inequality and these are useful in diffgeo (apparently, I know nothing about diffgeo)
Hmm, okay, you have an abelian group and (Q,+) acts on it and (Q,+) is ordered.
Perhaps I was wrong in assuming you had a concrete problem that you wanted suggestions to help solving by appropriate abstraction.
But also as I mentioned, it just has a slightly different flavour to it, and one I think I prefer. It often is a bit more annoying but it just means you have different problems to solve
It only seems annoying because the problems you’re working on are the ones that are easy in the commutative case
I mean I don't have a concrete problem right now, I'm rather trying to come up with one
Theres also loads of interconnected stuff with like algebraic K theory and PDEs etc, there’s the Atiyah conjecture which implies stuff in noncom, Kaplanskys zero divisor conjecture
There’s a bunch of related conjectures in that area as well, with loads of dependencies and implications that says stuff about lots of different areas
Is there any reason why we sometimes introduce say, Rings, as an ordered triple? Like (R,+, x)? Some of my professors use that notation and I’m wondering if there is anything going on there besides semantics/pedagogy. Does this have anything to do with the categorical product?
Also one thing I was thinking of which might be totally wrong, but I’ve heard there is a niche study of co-algebras. Does this presentation of algebraic structures as an ordered tuple give you any advantages when doing co-algebra? If this question doesn’t make any sense feel free to ignore it I don’t really know what I’m talking about here; just wondering if the connection I had holds any significance.
Formally, a ring is an object (R; +, ×, -, 0, 1), and the ordered triple is just a shortened version of that. This comes from a formalisation of algebra known as universal algebra, where in general an algebraic structure is a tuple (A, F) where F is a collection of operations on the set A
I guess it's both for convenience (shows the operations you use) and habit
Okay; I shall cease my efforts to pry it out of you. :-)
I believe some non trivial examples exist here but again, I'll have to work on it some. I can give some proper results and mayhaps problems after?
Adding to what enpeace says:
- A ring (or any other algebraic object) is not merely defined by the set. We really need to involve the operations in the definition, as the same set can have infinitely many different ring structures.
- It is often convenient to write down precisely the information that defines some object. You may see different things defined in the future with lots of parts to them, and it can be helpful for someone to say precisely what data defines them. This is just a sort of first example of this.
- Coalgebras are not different to this.
If you are interested that is.
This seems like the wrong way around
I mean my initial question was can I extend what I care about with norms to ordered groups, I think Lawvere metrics even take this a step further.
As another example to the other great answers given, consider a topological space, we’re usually lazy and talk about a space X but formally it’s the pair (X,T) where T is the topology on X. It’s not enough to specific the set, you need to know what operations exist on that set
Now I simply wish to see if I have some nice non trivial examples
Are we thinking of R as an additive group? Multiplicative? A ring? A vector space?
Where this is useful in universal algebra, is that often you consider different operations on the same set (and often induced from the original algebraic structure in some way)
Granted you still need to say more because there’s infinitely many additions on R for example, but formally you see the picture I guess
"this course" being introduction to abstract algebra?
Depends a little bit on what you're course covers, but once you have the basics of groups, rings and modules then things like Galois theory, commutative algebra, varies flavors of representation theory, homological algebra open up.
Commutative algebra is the study of commutative rings, and deal with things like prime ideals which generalize the usual primes in Z, and completions generalizing the relationship between polynomials k[x] and the power series ring k[[x]].
It is the foundation of modern algebraic geometry, and is also very important for algebraic number theory. There is also interesting interplay with Galois theory in the study of group actions on commutative rings (see geometric invariant theory)
Homological algebra is the study of short exact sequences, and arose first in algebraic geometry, gained it's footing properly for algebraic topology and is useful more broadly in algebra for example in representation theory.
It's focused a lot on modules, so you may want to know more about those before diving into homological algebra
tbh intro abstract algebra is such a foundational course that it is likely to open up everything but almost nothing at the same time
the former because it is a prereq in just about anything, and the latter because it very likely won't be the only prereq
unless you want to progress into more advanced algebra, which is discussed above me
no that stuff is more than intro
for groups it's a bit more than what you'd see in an intro course, but especially for rings there seems to be quite a bit there
I'm no algebra expert thou
I'm not sure there is a topical path, it depends what you want / what is the main focus at your institution.
I'm guessing you'd be very well setup for commalg or rep theory after those topics
Once you have this picture course you'll have a pretty strong algebra background, and are free to jump into some more advanced algebra of your liking or perhaps some algebraic topology or geometry
probably need galois theory
Don't think Galois theory is super relevant for rep theory, but might be for commutative algebra. Not absolutely necessary I wouldn't think though
yeah when I said need it was pretty loose version of need lol
it's just something that I know pops up
Yeah, needs some basic point set topology at least, but not that much really. Depends I guess
I think the topology done in AT can be picked up as you go through but I can also see why’d it be a prereq
odes are not essential for a math degree
point-set topology
I didn't know you could attack it with localization. I'm not there yet though
the algebra you are doing, point set topology, complex analysis maybe measure theory
maybe depends on institution
maybe should be
and could be different for pure/applied streams ofc, if something like that exists
I think ODEs are good for a math degree tho
no
It’s good for breadth of knowledge
what? if you want to do probability then you really do need measure theory
They help motivate de Rham-y things for cohomology, but that’s perhaps the wrong way around
tbh where do you use complex analysis in grad courses
AG?
i'm not convinced
mmm, I'm not sure how wise it is to take a non-measure theory probability course over taking measure theory
it would help you obtain probabilistic intuition for sure, but there will be handwaving in that course
Sheaves come from it kinda
Also GAGA
so kinda motivates schemes
p sure complex analysis is all over some geometric topics
In evaluating number theoretic integrals, L functions, zeta functions, proving all those important theorems about analyticity
maybe i'd equate it with galois theory in that it's useful in super advanced stuff later on if you specialize there
yeah I stand by what I said even more, to teach that kinda stuff without measure theory requires a bunch of handwaving
I know because I was in such a course in UG and didn't enjoy it
Well, that’s not specializing in analysis, that’s AG and NT
Algebraic things even
maybe it's still the course to take if it opens up a bunch of stuff for you
maybe drop odes instead
no you cant drop topology it's the most important topic ever trust me
but the thing is, if you want to do more advanced probability, measure theory is totally mandatory
but it could be that there's a more advanced probability course in your uni that develops measure theory as well
probably not then
right, that's the one
I'd recommend taking this over the other course if you can, you probably won't see stochastic processes to the level of the other course but you will actually be doing math
the standard probability courses in universities are a bit fake like how intro calculus courses are, as in most stuff won't be rigorous at all
Cringe!
except discrete probability which you can develop rigorously without MT to an extent, but the course you posted was not that
I honestly think you can black box 90% of the topology you need in basic algtop anyway
but what if I'm allergic to black boxing
You could give me any theorem from the first half of Hatcher and I think I’d have about a 50% success rate on telling you which exact connectedness conditions it requires
I don’t think you should be tbh
You should do AT before/with hom alg
I can tolerate like 1 or 2 black boxes but not more than that, it genuinely fucks with me
Hom alg never clicked for me until I did AT
I mean obviously you should aim to understand things but black boxing is just useful and necessary, it’s generally not helpful to lose sight of the bigger picture over minute details
And it motivates why things r called cycles and boundaries and whatnot
This is my point about ignoring most of the actual topology for basic algtop, it’s silly to get caught up worrying about exact connectedness requirements because you’re always just covering your arse for some weird pathological counter example
can you elaborate as to why? i’m registered for hom alg but havnt seen algebraic topology yet
I think it would feel wildly unmotivated
Hom alg largely concerns itself with exact sequences and chain complexes
These are most naturally seen from the perspective of AT
i’ve seen those in com alg though
i would rather do hom alg first tbh
Where these actually resemble boundary maps between topological objects
Homotopy and homology thus arise naturally as a way of classifying properties of these complexes
A lot of the terminology makes sense when you think about homology geometrically as in algtop, but more to the point I think it would just feel like a weird amount of abstraction
I did homalg along side algtop though so I can’t say I’ve seen it without
have you seen the 5-lemma?
no
I only really know basic homalg and only because of my final project, it’s not a standard course at my UG
It also gives good reason for why the maps are called “boundary maps”, why things are called “cycles” and “boundaries”, etc
I did combinatorial comalg stuff which relies on some algtop and homological algebra
ok, you should see that (and similar stuff) in ur homalg course then, which will be useful for algtop
You can learn a lot if you're interested in stuff
Imo can definitely do hom alg first lol like the amount of hom alg you do in intro alg top isnt generally that much imo, but ig keeping in mind the example of singular homology is nice even if you dont know too much about it
Yeah I think it just provides nice motivation
Yeah I mean one doesnt need to do AT for hom alg but imo it gives motivation
For like why you care about the 5 lemma or snake lemma, but when you’re talking about derived functors or whatever I feel like you’re just doing algebra and that’s the fun
The “motivation” is doing a lot of the heavy carrying here
No my uni was very strict about prereqs
I took a pretty standard course selection I think (minus like 2 classes that I wouldn’t think are standard), possibly a slight amount more algebra and less analysis than some unis will require
i have been wondering this actually
Is the claim here that: we have two functors, one is the identity functor, the other sends A to TA plus A/TA, and there is no natural transformation between these two functors where the components are isomorphisms?
(idk if this goes to cat theory or here tbh)
This is weird
Since like, why would you do Hom alg without AT reasons
The why is important
cuz i would know a priori that it's useful for AT
Fair enough, knock yourself out ig
Thinking about chain homotopies and such sounds odd without it but
if i learn homalg here and there while doing algtop i feel like i wouldn't understand the homalg very well
anyways that's what i did when i first learnt it, so doesn't rlly matter now
The rough answer is it’s to do with holes, you can vaguely define a hole to be the failure of a boundary to bound a cycle (terms that make sense when you construct simplical complexes) and homology is capturing exactly this data
But then you realise there’s nothing special about the fact these are abelian groups given by a simplical complex, and all you need is the property of the “boundary” map (which again makes sense when you draw this stuff out for complex’s) and the ability to take quotients which is basically what gives rise to homalg
Because you care about AG, commutative algebra, representation theory or think it's an interesting theory in its own right
I’ve given a better explanation of that here before but I’m tired and on my phone and don’t feel like typing it out again
I suppose you could, but it feels weird to me
I’m interested in homalg on its own, I just like doing algebra
It’s terminal…
I don’t really feel a need to have an application, I just enjoy pissing about with modules
Consigned to noncommutative rings
I mean AT isnt required for hom alg and vice versa, I just think its nice to see the motivation of hom alg and/or basic ideas
Same reason why I think ppl should do multivar calc and lin alg together so they know where matrices come from when they do change of coordinates
Yeah it’s not required but it’s like, where’d these homotopies and stuff come from
What’s with these names etc
“Why would we expect this”
But to each their own I mean hom alg is interesting in its own right to some, I just think it’s cooler if you see it from AT as well
I think it is interesting in its own right and I do want to do it for its own sake, but I do agree that generally it’s helpful to have seen some amount algtop before to motivate it, I know that most people aren’t motivated by “pissing about with modules” and I do think the definitions of stuff like boundary maps would feel a little plucked from think air otherwise
But equally that’s true of a lot of maths, topology definitely has that problem but we trust it’s useful and do it anyway I guess
Yeah that’s true
I think most ppl are introduced to topology in a first real analysis course tho so they get the motivation for it from that
it's not like geometry is useful irl anyways
I just guess it’s a pedagogical thing
I mean,
pissing about with modules > pissing about with CW complexes
anyway
No math we discuss here is useful in the real world
You’re 100% correct!
If you don’t get the motivation for LA then your lecturer is fucking awful
what does motiviation even mean
I just think it’s useful in teaching it it, like learning about smooth things before Lipschitz ig
“Where does this come from” and “why should we care” is what I consider motivation to be
yeah I don't get the motivation piece either, I do math so that I get to do more math
I mean some of it should be visible in an analysis, or algebra, or like any other course
Well yeah imo the motivation comes from the fact that you see where it’s used later on in other math
If you tried teaching AT to an engineer they probably wouldnt give af bc it has no use to whatever bridge theyre engineering (idk what they do)
Motivation doesn’t mean solving real world problems, I want to know the context behind it, what problems it solves within maths
I mean, you’d think, but then you go a gorillion layers of abstraction deep and somehow physics reappears
such is the state of modern theoretical physics
“Hey is this property nearly able to be forced? Is it AVE axiomatizable?” -> quantum computing??????
Whar???
Also this, why should we expect so and so answer
If ng were here he’d talk abt cft and qft
Linear algebra might be the most important piece of maths ever conceived, I genuinely don’t think I could name an area where LA isn’t applicable
That’s partly what I’m referencing, and group stability
Differential equations, geometry, statistics, computing, physics, there’s genuinely just nothing that linear algebra doesn’t touch
ur just generalizing R^n
The only math we understand
Literally, maths is the process of making things a LA problem
module theory kinda generalizes linalg tho
What do you think analysis is vro
It does but not in a super helpful way
Like highkey
umm ok, what ur point
Everything returns to R…..
Linear algebra is incredibly geometric too, there’s about a thousand ways to motivate the subject because it’s that useful
or smith normal form
This is the first time I’m going to recommend the 3b1b videos to someone because I think doing maths and thinking LA is unmotivated is practically criminal
LA kinda boring tho
Your proofs based course is just making sure all the other stuff actually works, and letting you apply that theory to spaces that aren’t R^n
My favorite application of linear algebra is that the algebraic reals (all numbers that are root in some integer polynomial) are closed under addition and multiplication and division, so they form a field.
This is proved by viewing various subrings of the reals as vector subspaces over Q and saying "as we recall from linear algebra" a lot.
The reason for that is because you have done calculus for many years already, of course it will be intuitive
I don’t see how it’s different to going from calculus to analysis
you will definitely start to see that as you learn some more analysis and more math in general 
A motivation they use in the LA class at my uni is classifying conic sections, which is done by symmetric bilinear forms / orthogonal diagonalization.
The LA for engeniers course also have more examples, finding stay states for Markov chains, image compression with SVD, linear (and polynomial) ODEs
Yeah using LA in a dynamical systems course I took was cool
imagine doing markov chains in a LA course
Also just the more basic things, like solving similar systems of equations in parallel, and determining when a system has (unique) solutions.
Solving linear difference equations.
Basic 3d geometry, finding volumes with determinants
There was a problem about the quantum plane in my noncom class that essentially just reduced to a LA problem and that was very nice
Is that so hard to imagine?
Like you can bully a question about semiprime ideals into a simple eigenvalue chase, LA is just too good
yes, i find it a bit bizarre
A little for me, I’ve got no clue what a markov chain is beyond “probability”
I'm not sure when else you would learn about them.
They're a matrix you multiply by to transition from one state to another. And the eigenvectors are the steady states
You have some set of states and for each pair of states a fixed probability to transition from one state to the other. Each transition independent of the previous.
That's it
Ah ok that makes sense and yes I saw them in my LA class
There was some question with that set up in a workshop, never mentioned it by name but it was definitely that
Change of variables comes in too
Since hey, volumes? sounds good for that to me
That makes sense. Thank you Boytjie, Nope, and .enpeace!
:3c
What if R is finite? I get what you are trying to say; thats just what I immediately thought when I saw this message lol
What I immediately thought now was, "but R is known to be (uncountably) infinite!"
Well, then there finitely many, but still quite a lot (unless R has only one element)
Yeah if I don’t have enough time to count to a number then it’s basically infinite lol
A set with one element has one possible group structure.
A set with two elements has two possible group structures,
A set with three elements has three possible group structures.
...
Hey, algebra is easy!
Which is why Hilbert’s basis theorem is wrong because nobody is going to write out all those basis elements. Sure Paul Gordan, it’s “finite”
A set with 4 elements has 16 possible group operations (for each choice of identity, three ways to make it into C4 and one that makes it V4).
A set with 5 elements has 60 possible group operations (it's always C5, for 5! possible choices, except divide by 2 because of the "negate everything" automorphism).
However, OEIS doesn't know a sequence starting with 1,2,3,16,60 so I suspect I've miscounted something. Is my reasoning faulty?
Oh, there are more automorphisms of C5... 🤦
I was meaning R (the reals) not R (a ring), not a very clear choice on my part lol
The nefarious 6:
TIL you can search the OEIS like that, I probably should have known but I did not
Combinatorial questions start to scare me by 4 and terrify me by 6
There was this one book about function algebras and clones
I looked through it
Huge highlighted theorem in the last part: “this set has cardinality 6”

Every time I see a term related to universal algebra my brain does a neuron activation I might have a problem
Universal algebra seems cool I should check it out at some point
Is it particularly widely studied? I’m like aware that it is a thing but I can’t say I run into it very often or hear of people studying it
Is there any nice UA results I might like to know? Has it done anything for any of the more wildly studied areas of algebra? Any cool open problems?
It's not widely studied but there certainly are people studying it
Though a little hard to find
an open problem in UA is finding reasons to study UA
I mean it’s relevant
I don’t know many in it, but that’s a general logic thing tbh
Showing some classes are varieties (in the sense of UA) is a problem I’m trying to work on
Does UA fall more into the logic camp than the algebra camp?
Personally I am fascinated by so-called Malcev conditions, which give equivalent conditions for particular nice properties of, say, congruence lattices with the existence of terms which satisfy some properties. An example, in particular one of the more important ones, is called congruence-permutability (which one can see in groups manifesting as the fact that NM = MN for normal subgroups M, N), being equivalent to a ternary term p(x, y, z) such that p(x, x, y) = y = p(y, x, x).
The more nice results that I've seen are in the field of commutator theory, which is fairly technical and Im still slowly working through (I took multiple breaks because I was busy with final exams lol), but it for example characterizes those algebraic structures which are essentially the same as abelian groups, and in general the study of commutators reveals a lot of stuff about the particular algebraic structure.
Also, I have been told that duality theory is a very cool area of UA.
As for applications in algebra, I am aware of UA fruitfully being used to study quandles, BCK-algebras, and in the early days even groups, but beyond that it's way more applicable in logic I'm pretty sure. It's more often used as a general framework for treating algebraic structures, but we simply don't really care about many algebraic structures besides groups rings fields modules it seems? Except the logic folk of course.
Depends on what you do. But it feels like we're so used to being devoid of logic in algebra that any entrance of logic feels like we're already in the camp of logic
Though I'd say that commutator theory is mostly on the algebra side
I mean, mal’cev conditions are fairly related to certain logic things yeah?
Yes
Saying UA is logic is maybe not it, but it’s definitely logic-pilled and attachable by logic things
Huh that does seem quite cool but yeah it does seem to have a logic esque flavour to it
It's treading the line beautifully I'd say
I may skim some stuff at some point though, it does seem to be cool from random things I’ve seen you mention
I love inspiring people 🔥
Careful what you do with UA though, it might make you accidentally do logic
That's what happened with me at least, was doing universal algebraic geometry and ended up writing a whole section in my paper that was just model theory
That works, logic is something I’ve been meaning to dip my toes into for a while anyway
I’d like to learn model theory but there’s just a lot of maths out there and it’s never been a top priority (apart from when I briefly accepted a maths in pure maths and mathematical logic (sorry Boyt))
I think it's important to have at least a little experience in it
Beyond the basic logic in an intro to math class
Yeah no I would like to know more, and I know model theory has done some cool stuff for ring theory and there’s things there but it’s just never been a high priority and doing logic at my UG was really difficult
There were logic courses but they were in the philosophy department and they limited the number of maths students who could them pretty heavily so it was kinda a nightmare to do them
I always enjoyed that they were postgrad courses in logic and the course description was like “This is an ADVANCED course in mathematical logic for PhD students in Philosophy , make sure you meet the prerequisite knowledge expected! Maths undergrads can take it if they email the professor”
This is REALLY hard like HARDER than you've ever seen and the HARDEST you'll experience
Oh yeah first year undergrads are welcome :3c of course
It sounds like I’m exaggerating but it really was like that, but anyway yeah it meant I never got to do more than the basic propositional logic stuff in my intro to proofs class
😔 that's so sad Alexa play despacito
If you still want the algebra, you could look around in algebraic logic
Cursed to suffer model theory
Well they did say model theory = AG - fields
And UAG clearly doesn't have fields
So I guess this was all prophecised long ago
Or however the shit you spell it 
Horrid
I mean, in the nice case, anyway, it’s not too far….
I have noticed lol
The bad case of UA is not assuming you're in a congruence modular variety
Like honestly what are those subtractive variety mfs doing
Cringeeee
Imagine not being able to do commutator theory
I mean, there’s a lotta bad cases model theoretically too
I dunno the UA versions of niceness and badness though
Or to what extent the two agree
But hey, showing this class of algebras is a variety is like 1/3 of the way to a conjecture
The problem with not assuming anything about your variety or algebra is that in many cases it's just too general; you could literally be working with sets which have zero structures
Yeahhhh
Fortunately: we have structure
Unfortunately: it’s wide open whether that’s preserved in products
Hah get REKT products are probably the only nice construction we have 
And equalisers I guess
Mb forgot about reduced products those are fine
Homomorphic images
So quotients
Yrah
In this case, miraculously, they do
Subalgebras….also open if those are nice, but they’re “good enough”
I don't really like subalgebras
Congruences tell you much more about an algebraic structure imo
It's no wonder that 99.9% of Malcev conditions are about congruences
Yeah kinda sucks, but we’re close enough to nice here that it’s usable
Sometimes you can build upwards from them
Since like, products + build up/accessibility-ish stuff + technical logic conditions => the white whale
Unfortunately, as it turns out, harmonic analysis on products of groups kinda highkey sucks
What's that even entail?
Well, 1dim reps are always nice, but anything higher turbo sucks
Since like, you can’t just stick two reps together, because there’s a commutator
So maybe I’d benefit from the commutator theory 
I was about to say lmao but I don't know honestly
(By stick together, I mean on the same space, not a direct sum thing)
So you mean sticking a rep of G and a rep of H both on V to get a rep of GxH on V?
Any matrix is a rep over Z, but not every pair of matrices is a rep over Z^2
Ah of course
See also: Voiculescu almost commuting matrices
I've got a feeling though that this does work with the free product :P
So you don’t get saved even asymptotically
Welllllll
No
Because you get a free group subset
So your harmonic analysis explodes
Aw, but it's literally the coproduct property
Even if you can glue reps
Oh right because your group isn't nice anymore
So we’re in a rather precarious position
Gosh you guys sure are picky
Well, it might not be like a free group but ykwim
It's got algebraically independent elements yes
The coproduct is nice in exactly zero varieties which aren't commutative rings or any module variety
REAL
now, it’s nice here in gluing reps but like, we also want analysis
And analysis over the product is tractable but only if reps are
Or sets I guess BUT SETS DONT COUNT THEYRE ONLY ON THE GUEST LIST AS A FORMALITY
Morally the zero variety
I'll include them to make the category of varieties somewhat nice
Anyhow, there’s like a very precarious balance between “able to glue reps” and “algebraically tractable”
you want analysis 💔
What is tractable?
Well, it’s equivalent to rep stuff
So like, some specific group quotient stuff, commutators, centralizers etc
Harmonic analysis is really algebra and all that
Lol I'm kidding somewhat
Imagine, I got somewhat motivated to learn measure theory after seeing how you can generalised rep theory of finite groups to compact groups
And tractable as in not having too much independence of elements, free subgroups, etc
Ong
Well, somewhat
Mathematicians try not to handwave "too much of X" challenge
Like, the condition we want tells us “no subgroup has bad finite dim reps”
You can have no bad finite dim reps even though subgroups do though, so it’s a bit stronger
See F_2 \wr Z
“Sufficiently nice”
Jumping off a cliff
Hopefully my landing is
Sufficiently nice
F_2 has too much independence, but F_2 \wr Z doesn’t to mess up finite dim reps
But the F_2 subgroup means the left regular rep sucks so infinite dim can
Something something Z action vastly affects equations in the group
The exact formal version of this condition is stated in terms of the reps, though
The translation to properties of G? Idk, cry
The “white whale” is this
As stated earlier, we dunno if it’s preserved in products or is mal’cev and such
Hmm
Since like, that’s based on how the class of groups looks, but the reps kinda get trolled under what you do to verify it’s mal’cev
So it’s very nontrivial
I’ve tried some model theory attacks around it, some analysis, so the finite dim rep thing is “almost mal’cev”
But that doesn’t control subgroups being nice
That doesn’t control products
Have you read W. Taylor's paper on Malcev conditions?
No
What about it 
Also note, “almost mal’cev” isn’t enough without a lot stronger work
It characterizes classes of varieties which "form" Malcev conditions
Right of course
It’s just shy of every possible attack
But if you tried to make a counterexample you’d run into a similar wall of “we can’t just glue this like so”
Hmhm
Like, a possible counterexample route? Yeah maybe you can turn it into XYZ, but sorry some analysis stuff blows up
So you lose equivalence to actually reverse the thing to make the counterexample
Algebraic sets can be extended to universal algebras in the way you'd imagine (with or without coefficients in the equations). There is a "pseudo malcev-condition" that characterizes the property that the union of two algebraic sets is again algebraic. Namely:
"There exists an infinite set T of equations with variables in x0, .., x3 such that A ⊨ T <-> x0=x1 ∨ x2=x3"
I think there is a much higher chance of the group needing to satisfy something like this rather than a usual Malcev property
But I'm very sure that there is a lack of research concerning these types of conditions, sadly
Indeed
algebraic nonsense
I think that a meaningful extension of mal'cev conditions would be something actually cared about
It should actually be a full on variety and mal’cev btw
Since, as stated, it is mal’cev in a reduced form + technical conditions
And those technical conditions can be arbitrarily strong, it just needs uniform bounds
The old "needs uniform bounds" 
maybe if it was 1976
Don't mock me qwq there are still universal algebraists
i know, my phd had a universal algebraic flavour
just studying malcev conditions is something you'd do in a nursing home
Well, long standing open problem is if a specific bound is uniform 
grad school project
Well, it was a master’s project

(Where I bothered to write out some conditions where things work)
thats good!
Seems that as of 2015 there are still open problems regarding them lol
the problem was just an applcaiton of QR decomposition, sadge
Is it possible to prove $y = z \implies y + x = z + x$ assuming the group $(G, +)$, or it is only possible in ordered groups?
Hurricane
This doesn't have anything to do with ordering, and it's not even about being a group. It's essentially just what it means for two things to be equal.
Perhaps you meant the converse implication, which is true for groups. Still not related to ordering though
I don't mean the cancellation law, I am just wondering whether it is possible to derive this from the definition of group, or does this have to do with the definition of equality in FOL?
It would come down to the definition of equality yeah.
If two things are equal and you do the same thing to them they're still equal
Alternatively you can see it as a consequence of the definition of a function
so let $k$ be a field, $D$ a central simple division algebra over $k$ and $L$ a maximal subfield of $D$. in lecture notes, we proved that $D \otimes_k L$ is isomorphic to $L^{n \times n}$ as $L$-algebra, where $n^2 = dim_K(D)$. how does one conclude from the above, that $dim_L(D) = n$ ?
It's standard that if k <= L is a field extension and D is an n-dimensional k-space then D (x)_k L is an L-space of the same dimension
This really has nothing to do with the algebra structure here
Just choose a basis of D and observe that it lifts to D (x) L
Maybe it's possible to see this more abstractly...
There is a s.e.s 0 -> k^n -> D -> 0 and after tensoring, since the tensor product is right exact we get an s.e.s. 0 -> L^n -> D (x) L -> 0 since we can prove that k^n (x) L = L^n without much difficulty.
eggman
sorry I know that, I forgot a square over the n in the original message
OK I see
Yes
OK
Have you shown that n = [L : k] yet?
I.e., that n = dim_k L?
I don't remember the proof of this. It's not very enlightening I don't think
This is then just a corollary of that and the tower law.
Hm no, that is precisely what is being proven
but it is just stated that one sees dim_L(D) = n from the above isomorphism
OK
That was proven previously by tensoring with the closure of k
L^n (x)_k L
this is the kind of tensor you need to worry about
If you can argue that L (x)_k L is of a certain dimension over L, then you're done.
Indeed L is a [L:k]-dimension k-vector space
so L (x)_k L is a [L:k]dimensional L-vector space
so L^m (x)_k L is a m[L:k]-dim L-vector space
Setting m = dim_L D
Ach nevermind this is just the tower law 🙄
OK. Let me just say that we need more information about L. There is going to be some result that I can't remember that has to do with it being a maximal subfield
Darn, I can't find this result anywhere I want in the stacks project bit about central simple algebras
OK, it's proved here https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/074S
but it's in opaque language
I'll think on how to find a nice argument, but my bet is still that you've missed a nice lemma somewhere that your lecturer expects you to be able to refer to
Hmm, I'll look if something sticks out. We did have double centralizer before, and the fact that maximal subfields are their own centralizer if that's relevant
D(x)L acts on D by d(x)l * d' = dd'l, and this is a simple modules since it is generated by any nonzero element
So since D(x)L is Mn(L), D=L^n
Ah, so since L^n is the unique simple module of L^nxn D = L^n as modules over that ring and therefore as vector spaces since that ring contains L?
thanks!!
Hello, i have a question regading the proof of the coleman mandula theorem, at some point we use that the the liealgebra decomposes as direct sum of U(1)' and semi simple lie algebras. This is stated as a resulte from maths under conditions which are fufilled in the proof. but i cant find any reference to the statment so if somebody knows which theorem about lie algebras they use or has a ref to to proof it would be cool.
There's something called Levi decomposition that says a reductive lie algebra decomposes as an abelian + a semisimple lie algebra like you described
Can I show associative property of such monoid in this way
I actually don’t know how to show associative property between maps however I saw a method like this
No, there's quite a few problems with your image.
Some minor things: it says o is "a binary operation", but presumably it's specifically composition, because it's not true in general that any binary operation gives a monoid.
You're writing
Hom(A, A) -f-> Hom(A, A)
when I'm assuming you mean
A -f-> A
since f is a map from A to A.
The larger problem is that your diagrams aren't actually related to associativity.
Associativity is the fact that
(fg)h = f(gh)
and these compositions don't appear in your diagrams
I actually don’t know what this diagram is so I just tried
But how to show associative property in this case and define composition properly?
So I have to say o is the operation
So I'm assuming A is a set or something like that.
Then it's useful to know that two functions are equal if they agree on every input. So you can try to prove that
[(fg)h] (a) = [f(gh)] (a)
for all a, by unpacking the definition of composition
Just a set
Well, maybe I don't understand what you're asking, but you should say what o is.
If you say "Let o be a binary operation" it seems to imply it could be any binary operation when it is in fact a very specific one
So Becasue g(h) gives some input for f and it’s exactly in the domain of f so that’s why?
🫣🫣now i realized how misleading my wording is
You’re absolutely right
I am always trying to improve I am fixing it now! 🥰
Silly question, but if $A$ is a ring and $\mathfrak{a}$ an ideal, is it possible to have $\text{im } \iota \otimes 1 \neq \mathfrak{a} \otimes M$ where $\iota \otimes 1: \mathfrak{a} \otimes M \to A \otimes M$
okeyokay
That is usually the case, so yes
Damn okay
I guess I shouldn't trust my intuition when it comes to tensor products lol
Easy example would be
A = Z, M = Z/2 and a=2Z
Ah yeah makes sense, thanks
In this question, how do you show that 1 is a T_0-linear combination of s_1’, …, s_n’?
by assumption, it is a T-linear combination of them
Is this considered correct now? 🫣 i tried to see h(x) as a independent entity so to justify the associative property
the $\circ$ is an operation on functions, so instead of $(f \circ g) \circ (h(x))$, it should just be $(f \circ g)(h(x))$
soup_norm
since you’re applying the function $f \circ g$ to the argument $h(x)$
soup_norm
and same for $f \circ (g \circ h(x))$, which should actually be $f((g \circ h)(x))$
other than that, it’s right
soup_norm
when talking about "actions" in algebra being faithful it means the action is injective, so distinct g gives distinct permutation of A
no its just jargon u eventually get used to once u learn more math
u not an idiot
G/ker(phi) is removing that redundant structure of G that acts the same way on A
yup
What book is that btw?
dummit foote my guess
i recognize that font
I never read their group theory sections
Looks pretty decent, the group actions chapter in Fraleigh wasn't that great imo
The book i used when first learning group theory was some super obscure one
not sure why any class would choose to use it
beachy and blair abstract algebra
yea
take something in G/ker(phi), like gker(phi), that acts on A like gA
well whats happening here is that elements of G/ker(phi) can be represented by elements of G, and so the action of G/ker(phi) is defined thru that
an element of G/ker(phi) is a coset gker(phi) where g is in G
gker(phi) * a = ga
You can also think of a group action of G on A as a homomorphism phi : G -> Aut(A), in which case it's clear that the map G/ker(phi) -> Aut(A) is injective, ie. a faithful action on A
Automorphism group
I'm sure D&F mentions this equivalent definition somewhere
You can skip ahead, you don't always have to read a textbook linearly
a section on group actions surely talks about automorphism group
and what shedow said
I haven't read D&F, but I feel like if you can understand something easier by taking a sneak peek at a later chapter, then you should do so. The definition of a group action as a map G -> Aut(A) is pretty useful to keep in mind
Maybe it's called something other than Aut(A), maybe Sym(A)?
This is just the first isomorphism theorem
Sym(A) is the usual notation if A is a set, ye, Aut(A) usually assumes some structure on A
Yeah, it sucks, but it's hard to put everything you need to know in a linear order, so sometimes you just have to skip a bit back and forth
so basically Aut(A) means the set of permutations (or bijections) A->A, and this can be made into a group through function composition. If you have a group action of G on A then each g in G can be associated with an element of Aut(A) (i.e a permutation), by g -> (a -> ga)
and that mapping is a group homomorphism
first isomorphism theorem in the sense of the map G-> Aut(A)
applying first iso theorem there
i find it unlikely that there is jargon that hadnt been defined previously?
A group action of G on X can be thought of as a homomorphism ρ : G → Sym(X), to the set of bijections from X to itself. This in particular is given by the mapping
g ↦(x ↦g ⋅ x)
Applying the first isomorphism theorem this gives an injective homomorphism ι: G/ker ρ → Sym(X), i.e. a faithful group action of G/ker ρ on X
page 112
first page abt group actions in dummit foote
it talks about exactly what we're saying but ur right it doesnt use Aut(A) or Sym(A) its "S_A"
they write a map G->S_A and that discussion there is what we are talking about here
You can't think of a way to turn a homomorphism from G to S_A into a group action of G on A?
Because the induced map G/ker -> SA is the "same" map but now its injective
so its the same group action but distinct g gives distinct permuations
You should read section 1. 7 dummit and foote
it talks about this
Nvm I misread what you were confused about
yea ik what u mean
I guess its the same map in the sense of the image is the same
but its injective now
i guess in algebra its more abt thinking how the structures interact versus thinking abt individual elements
No
I understand how you are confused but its hard to explain what im trying to say i guess
This is not a rigorous definition of "equivalence" because an equivalence of group actions is something else
I looked at D&F and tbh I feel it could be written a bit clearer. It talks about "permutation representation" for some reason, and it doesn't clearly spell out that the axioms of a group action are literally the axioms for a group homomorphism G -> Aut(A)
I think Aluffi explains it much better in Algebra: Notes from the underground
Another question, maybe I am slow if this hold then immediately (M_n(F), •) is monoid
The definition is that matrix multiplication is the composition of linear transformation
Show that S_n, n >= 2 is generated by any triplet (a, b, c) of cycles of lengths n, n-1, 2 respectively
Don’t know where to start. I thought of conjugating the transposition by the other cycles but looks like doing just that doesn’t give enough transpositions
S_n is generated by any single n cycle and any single transposition - it suffices to show that it generates every transposition
not sure why a cycle of length n-1 is included there
Though be careful that the choice matters here
Unless n is prime
Assume wlog that a = (1, 2, 3, ..., n)
What you can do is conjugate c by a until c touches an element not touched by b.
Conjugate c by b until c is of the form (i, i+1).
Show that Sn is generated by a and this new c
Are you sure? What about n = 4 and (1 2), (1, 3, 2, 4)
oh, right, there was a coprime condition
Sniped
that's why n-1 was there
I was thinking of the (1,2) and (1, 2, ... n) case
which doesn't generalise I don't think
The same problem is still there, i.e.
(1, 3) and (1, 2, 3, 4) doesn't generate S4
(1, 2, 3, ..., n) and (i, i+k) generates Sn if k is relatively prime to n
I see, so just exploit the fixed point of b, thanks
why does Z4 have 4 elements of order 1 or 2?
yes order 4
That's how I'm being taught for direct products
ok ye sure just letting you know
If I have (n+1) polynomials p_i in n variables x_j over a field F, must there be some nontrivial polynomial in the p_is with coeffs in F which is equal to 0?
If the above is true (and I'm pretty sure it is), then if we add the additional requirement that every subset of n of the p_is is algebraically independent, must there be a unique (up to a scalar in F) solution of minimal degree?
First time I felt algebra is so interesting I literally saw something so similar to generating sigma algebra and it’s called generating submonoid🫣
In a quaternion algebra for elements a, b non zero over some field k, is the splitting field of x^2 - a over K always a splitting field for the quaternion algebra?
Why I think believe it to be true: Let $F$ be the aforementioned splitting field, then there is a $k-algebra monomorphism f : A \xrightarrow{} F^{2 \times 2}$ which by tensor product magic (i hope) induces an $F-algebra monomorphism$ $g : T \otimes_k A \xrightarrow{} F^{2 \times 2}$ which must then be an isomorphism for dimension reasons
eggman
How do I find the right classification of the elements of this group?
hm, think you can disprove it by noticing that the former group has no element of order 27 if these are indeed the cyclic groups denoted by Zn here
I know, but I'm trying to find the number of elements of order 3 and 9 in the group just to test myself
oh my bad
$A$ here is supposed to be the aforementioned quaternion algebra
eggman
the order of elements in this group are 1,3,9 so if you’ve counted all the ones of order 1 and 3 then you can find how many of order 9
I know that there is:
- 1 element of order 1
- 8 elements of order 3
- 18 elements of order 9 (by process of elimination)
However, I'm still not sure whether 18 is correct
well you need the lcm of the orders to be 9 like you have written
you could have (1,b) where b is order 9 in Z_9
or you could have (a,b) where a is order 3 in Z_3 and b is order 9 is Z_9
if you count the number of possibilities you should get 18 to verify that it is what you should expect after counting all the order 1 and 3 elements
ping
in the cyclic group Z_n, the number of elements of order k where k | n is given by phi(k)
Thanks, it's been a while since I've seen that
so they’re just counting the number of elements of the given orders that would be required to have the correct lcm
So I've forgotten
Can someone explain how I got this wrong please?
you are undercounting, as long as at least one of a,b has order 15 the other can have any order you want from {1,3,5,15}
Ye like order of (a,b) is lcm of orders of a and b
|b| must divide 20, so |b| can only be 1 or 5 in this situation
So, to my knowledge, these are the only "valid" pairings that give a lowest common multiple of 15
There are 4 elements of order 5 in Z/20, not 3
4, 8, 12, 16
That givds you anothee 8
Indeed note the number of elements of order p is always -1 mod p by Lagrange's theorem
Oh thank you, I think that was what I was getting wrong
Doing all those order counting problems in my head makes it easy to get it wrong
yeah nws
I'm trying to prove this about the symmetric difference on the power set. I know that it forms a Boolean group.
\begin{proposition}
Let $\triangle$ denote the symmetric difference on $\mathscr{P}(X)$. Then $\triangle$ is the unique group operation $$ on $\mathscr{P}(X)$ such that
[
(\forall A,B \in \mathscr{P}(X)),, AB\subseteq A \cup B
\end{enumerate}
\end{proposition}
calebuic魏凯布
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I don't see how to prove this from the assumptions given
Are there any restrictions on X size wise? Is it finite?
X is arbitrary
Damn
identity
i don't think one exists. there are a lot of exercises in that book
it would be quite a project
Well, many of them could be passed off as one liners in a manual
You can probably find some bits and maybe combine
Every time I trust my intuition on tensor products I just get everything wrong 
I don't understand how I got the highlighted part wrong
15 has order 20 in Z_100, not order 4.
so <15> is isomorphic to Z_20, not Z_4
Does that mean the typed solution is incorrect then?
yea
Okay thank you
also, i hate that they chose to swap the order of Z_2 and Z_12
I thought it would be okay for me to do it since it would remain isomorphic (my working is on the third image)
it's mathematically fine, but morally ur going to the 7th circle
Of fun
Is my proof correct? A disclaimer I haven’t proven the intersection preserves the submonoid since I am learning language of group
Though I’m essentially saying take the elements from smallest submonoid (since defined as intersection) and then such that the product x•y in every submonoid containing A
Since Generator is arbitrary so immediately it holds for the smallest submonoid containing A
Or I should just do the intersection preserves the submonoid first
I should make it separated
This look weird
It's a little unclear what's happening in the proof. I'm assuming <A> is defined as the intersection of submonoids containing A.
And that you use "generator" to mean one of those submonoids.
So the structure is correct I think, but it would be nice to write it out a little clearer.
And I guess you should say e is <A> because e is in all T
I kinda want my note to develop naturally so I want somewhat to separate the proof for that generated submonoid is a submonoid and monoid is closed under intersection so it’s more natural for my brain to accept…
And should I call T a submonoid? Or generating submonoid
I only know generator becasue of sigma algebra
I think we need to see definitions both of <A> and "generated submonoid" in order to understand that proof.
Is there even a distinction between generated submonoid and submonoid?
Using the term "generated" usually includes that it's "by the set X"
I defined it as intersection though I will be sending in a couple min I’m doing chore 🫣
Yeah, but then again every substructure is generally generated by itself, so that's not much of a property.
Yeah that's what I mean
Here
My wording can be weird, I rephrased it after the vids on YouTube..
A study techniques that rephrase anything after you learned it 🫣
I want to separate the proposition such that the <A> is a submonoid and the smallest submonoid containing A and the proposition that the monoid is closed under intersection
Please definitely point out if there’s any awkward wording🥰
You're missing the condition A \subset T in your definition.
It would also be good to include what "generator" and "generated submonoid" means somewhere.
Fixed! Is it proper to call T a generator?
I mean, there's nothing wrong with it I guess, but it's not a terminology I've seen used before
I guess it's kind of clashing since the elements of A are usually cashed the generators of <A>
How’s now
And is the study method for algebra fine? So you see some video so you prove what you watch
I would suggest reading a book instead but you do you
Trying to prove a lot for yourself is generally good I think. But I guess it comes down to which videos you watch, and how you're organizing it otherwise
But I am not sure if I am dedicated enough
and how are we supposed to judge that lol
Like it was coincidental i like analysis and book is expensive so if i like it ill buy one. A person I befriended here suggested me a book
If I would be able to solve something like a midterm of any school’s exam for respective subjects then I’ll buy it? Is that a good plan?
I suppose so
I think just reading about a topic online and enjoying it constitutes buying a book
I cannot encourage piracy in any way. Have you ever googled the name of a book by the way?
Some books that Google might know:
- Fraleigh's "A First Course in Abstract Algebra"
- Dummit & Foote's book
- Artin's book.
Yes I can just get it there
Certainly I’m not gonna do it but thanks for the information 🥰🥰🥰
Note is really I haven’t had any idea beyond this I can have a relative more mathematical environment 🫣
Is there something like a feild except we don't require 1 to have an additive inverse ?
I feel like that would have interesting behaviour
(so 1 would not have an additive inverse and 0 would not have a multiplicative inverse)
Yes, some people call these semifields (although a few different things are called 'semifields'). I saw a talk a while ago that connected these to some other object in an interesting way, but you'll have to forgive me because I don't remember the details. They are quite niche.
In mathematics, a semifield is an algebraic structure with two binary operations, addition and multiplication, which is similar to a field, but with some axioms relaxed.
This doesn't seem to contain the thing I was talking about
In ring theory, combinatorics, functional analysis, and theoretical computer science (MSC 16Y60), a semifield is a semiring (S,+,·) in which all nonzero elements have a multiplicative inverse
A semiring does not have additive inverses at all
Then I don't understand your question.
You want the field to have additive inverse, but for every element except 1 somehow...
Can someone explain the highlighted part please?
Like the positive rational numbers is not an example of what you're interested in?
It is not an example of what I am interested in
Then I think you need to explain further what you want
This is not true (unless there are some unstated assumptions on m and n)
For example Z/3 (+) Z/6 is not cyclic and has only one element of order 2
This is false
Or for another example, Z/3 (+) Z/7 has no elements of order 2 but is cyclic
there exists binary + and × functions on a set S
a + b = b + a
(a+b)+c = a+(b+c)
a*(b+c) = (a*b) + (a*c)
a*b = b*a
(a*b)*c = a*(b*c)
for all a,b,c in S
There exists 0 and 1 in S such that for all a in S
a+0=a
a*1=a
for all a not equal to 1 in S there is b in S such that
a+b = 0
for all a not equal to 0 in S there is b in S such that
a*b = 1
@rocky cloak
the latter part is a confusing statement, but a proof for this result would look something like this -
- in C*, the only elements with finite multiplicative order must lie on the unit circle
- you can only fit cyclic groups into the unit circle, and it's easy to see that C* has a subgroup isomorphic to any cyclic group
Then
1 + a^-1 * (-a) = 0
So a^-1 * (-a) is the additive inverse for 1
Proof?
Multiply both sides by a
More detailed:
say a*0 is different from 1 (otherwise 0 would have a multiplicative inverse)
Then a*0 = a*(0+0) = a*0 + a*0
so subtracting a\0 on both sides gives
a*0 = 0.
Oh, I didn't think of first step
Then
a + (-a) = 0
multiply by a^-1 gives
1 + a^-1 * (-a) = 0
Hm
But why is it impossible for 0 to have multiplicative inverse?
I just never postulated it to exist
I never stated it doesn't exist
Oh got it
Cause 0 into anything would be 1
So the thing would consist of almost 3 elements
And that is not fun
Another thing to note is that 1+1 cannot have an additive inverse either, so 1+1 = 1.
Which means a+a = a after multiplying by a. Which means
a = 0 for any a not equal to 1
Yes
But you can have {0, 1} with OR and AND I guess
I will stick my neck out and say, no that is not proper. It invites confusion with the existing convention of calling the elements of A "generators".
"then <A> is a generated submonoid" is still a very weird wording that I don't know the meaning of. Every submonoid has some set that generates it (if nothing else, then the set of all its elements), so if "generated submonoid" is intended to mean something different from merely "submonoid", then you need a better definition for that.
But your proof only purports to prove that <A> is a submonoid (which is fair, I suppose), and doesn't contain anything that appears to claim it is a "generated" submonoid, whatever that means.
I literally have no idea how this solution was acquired, can someone help?
since G is abelian, when you multiply every element in G every element will cancel with its inverse, given that its inverse is distinct
try and figure it out from there
The case where all ni are odd and the case where you have a unique element of order 2 should be the easy ones.
Then there is some work required for when there are several even ni's
Oh right I remember doing that in an exercise from a few weeks ago but I forgot
But it only works if there are no element of order 2
But every group of even order must have an element of order 2
That's the "none of the n_i are even" case,
And in this case we get an even group if one of the nis is even
A hint might be to consider each component of x separately.
E.g. how does $x_i$ relate to $\sum_{g\in\bZ_{n_i}} g$?
Troposphere
Well the answer would be x is the identity if and only if ni is odd. Otherwise, x would be the unique element of order 2
By how inverses cancel out after you sum everything together
you only need to think about the sum of each individual component
and when you sum over the entire group, the result is that each component Gi is exactly the sum over Gi multiplied by |G|/|Gi|
That sounds like you're forgetting that you're getting a copy of each g in Z_n_i for each choice of what all the other components can be.
You're basically asking me about this simpler case, right?
For example let's take Z_3 (+) Z_3.
The sum of all the elements is x=(0,0)+(0,1)+(0,2)+(1,0)+(1,1)+(1,2)+(2,0)+(2,1)+(2,2).
In the first position of x we have 0+0+0+1+1+1+2+2+2, not just 0+1+2.
I was asking how that case relates to the full case.
Oh my bad my bad
Well what we care about are the even Zni's
Since the odd ones will just be the identity again and again
I think?
Yes, so the question is, what will the positions with even n_i be?
They will either be the identity or their unique element of order 2
Depending on how many times the entire groups gets repeated
Yes. And the number of times it gets repeated is ...
Well if you're looking at Zni, it gets repeated n2n3...*nk times
Yes.
(At least when i=1).
So do we agree that the sticking point is whether the product of all the other n_j is odd or even?
What do you mean by sticking point? Sorry, I don't understand
The question that determines whether the i'th component of x is the identify or has order 2 is whether the product of all the other n_j is even or odd.
Yeah I understand that
So x_i has order 2 iff n_i is even and all other n_j are odd.
And we require all other $n_j$ to be odd because if they weren't then $x_i$ would be repeated an even number of times and it would also become the identity
Tropical Greens
Yes.
Can I please have a hint for 6a? This is what I have so far:
Given ((b_1, \dots, b_m, 0, \dots, 0) \in B_m) and (1 \leq i \leq m), ((0, \dots, b_i, \dots, 0) \in B_i), and so (b_i = n_i \pi_i(\textbf{x}i) = n_i x{i,i})
Thus, ((b_1, \dots, b_m, 0, \dots, 0) = (n_1 x_{1,1}, n_2 x_{2,2}, \dots, n_m x_{m,m}, 0, \dots, 0)).
However, I don't think this can be written as a linear combination of the (\textbf{x}_i)'s.
okeyokay
Wait hold up
Nvm this is chill since since $\pi_j(\mathbf{x_j}) = \pi_j(0, \dots, x_j, \dots, 0)$
okeyokay
I can prove it for finite X.
If X is finite and * is a group operation satisfying the property given, we have the following:
ø must be the identity. || ø*ø ⊆ ø, so we get ø*ø=ø||
singletons have order 2. ||Indeed, if S is a singleton, S*S ⊆ S and S*S ≠ S, so S*S=ø||
The product of any two singletons is indeed their symmetric difference.
||If S and T are two singletons with S = T, then S*T=ø i.e their symmetric difference.
If S≠T then ø≠ S*T ⊆ S U T but since neither S nor T = e, S*T ≠S or T. So S*T=S U T i.e their symmetric difference.||
Also note S*T = S Δ T = T Δ S = T*S i.e singleton products commute
Using the above fact and induction, show that any element of (P(X),*) is a product of its constituent singletons.
Using the above fact and that singletons have order 2, it directly follows that A*B for any arbitrary subsets A,B is their symmetric difference.
If you can prove ø is the identity without using finiteness you are done for the general case since the proof will carry over
I'm not sure I see how the step "using the above result and induction" can be generalised to infinite sets
The empty set must be the identity by the fact that ø * ø ⊂ ø, which means that ø * ø = ø
I must have hallucinated that, i dont think its true either
Thanks for pointing this out, i knew i was missing something simple
Happens to the best of us lol
Hmm, so if S is a singleton and A is any set not containing S, then
S*A < SuA and also S*S*A = A, so A < S*A. Since S*A isn't A it must be that S*A = SuA.
So if one of the sets is finite, the operation is symmetric difference.
For any A, there must be a B with A*B = X. Then B must contain A^c. Take a finite set S in the intersection of A and B (assuming the intersection is nonempty)
Then X = A*B = S*S*A*B = (A\S)*(B\S), so the union of still everything when you remove S -> S is empty
Now take any set C in X and any A in C. Then there again is a B such that A*B = C.
A and B can't intersect by the same argument as above. And if S is a finite subset of B outside C then
A*B*S = C*S
A*(B\S) = CuS
Which contradicts CuS < Au(B\S)
So anytime C is a disjoint union of A and B, A*B = C
Then for any A and B if there intersection is N we have
A*B = (A\N)*N * N * (B\N)
So we just need N*N = Ø...
Take a finite subsets S of N*N, then N*N = N*S*S*N = (N\S)*(N\S) which doesn't contain S, so S is empty
So it's kinda like induction I guess. It's reducing to singletons/finite sets
It feels like you can probably get away with doing just Ø and singletons as the first two steps, and then moving on to larger sets, finite or infinite, in one go using your S*S trick.
Yeah, you just need singletons
So, putting things together:
- Ø is the identity.
- {x}*{x} = Ø
- {x}*A is the symmetric difference, by considering {x}*{x}*A as above. Similarly from the right.
- For arbitrary A and B, an element that's in neither is also not in A*B, by the original specification.
- If x is in both A and B, then A*B = A*{x}*{x}*B = (A*{x})*({x}*B), reducing to case 4.
- If x is in A but not B, then A*B = {x}*{x}*A*B = {x} * ({x}*A)*B, and using 4 on ({x}*A)*B and then 3, we see x is in A*B.
And this works not only for P(X), but for any subset of P(X) that contains all the singletons -- say, the Borel sets in P(R).
I.e. for any Boolean algebra B there cannot exist a group structure on B such that ab < a ∨ b that is not the symmetric difference, or the addition of the corresponding Boolean ring.
Hmm, the argument we have so far depends on the Boolean algebra having enough atoms.
This is not always the case -- for example if we take the Boolean algebra of periodic infinite binary sequences, it has nothing to play the role of singletons in this argument.
I didn't see the "that includes all singletons" clause lmao
If we didn't have singletons (and Ø) we coud do something like f: R -> P(R)
f(a) = (-infty,0] cup [a,infty) for a >= 0
f(a) = (-infty,a] cup [0,infty) for a < 0
and then define A*B = f(f^-1(A) + f^-1(B)) on the range of f.
where is the (n-1)! coming from?
Assuming you mean the (n-1)! in the last line of your image:
If f is an n-cycle, then there are n-1 different elements that can be f(1); then n-2 elements that can be f(f(1)), then n-3 different elements that can be f(f(f(1))), ...
Nice!
no, in the paragraph
why are there (n-1)! ways to make this identification
Because there are n-1 cosets other than H, and you can assign them to the n-1 numbers from {2,3,...,n} any way you want.
Gamma acts transitively on Gamma/H. g takes H to gH
For a subgroup of Sn the stabilizer of 1 will have index equal to the size of the orbit of 1. So it's only n if the action is transitive.
but then isn't that only n different possibilities - 1 for each representative taken from a given coset
oh wait
is it because you might identify other cosets differently?
like lets say your cosets are H, g_1H, g_2H, g_3H,g_4H
Yeah. It's just a bijection between {1, ..., n} and G/H that send H to 1
ok yes that makes sense
Can somebody please give me a hint for this question? I really have no clue how to proceed, especially since the universal property is given for modules over the same ring
I assume you are fine with how you can form these tensor products M (x)_A N, but not sure how to put the B-module structure on M (x)_A N (and similarly other way round)?
I'm assuming the B-module structure on M (x)_A N is b(m (x) n) := m (x) nb right
I'm just confused because if we write M (x)_A N = C and N (x)_B P = D then we're asking that C (x)_B P is isomorphic to M (x)_A D. But the only techniques that I've seen for showing tensor products are isomorphic only apply when they're all over the same ring
Or maybe I can establish some bilinear map out of (M x N) x P into M (x)_A (N (x)_B P)? but then I'd have to consider (M x N) x P an A-module and I'm not sure if I'm allowed to bestow my own structure upon it
Am I supposed to use the fact that A (x) N \simeq N \simeq B (x) N?
Yes, exactly
Small remark: because this text uses commutative rings, the order doesn't really matter, but you need to be more careful in the non-commutative case
Yeah this is a good point
It's also slightly unclear because each of these objects is an (A,B)-bimodule
You can try to show that both satisfies a universal property of multilinear maps out of MxNxP
You can also use tensor-hom adjunction to show that maps out of the two are the same, which is exactly the same thing repackaged
Does "click" mean something different from making perfect sense to you?
Like isn't clicking when you see that it makes sense
Have you tried just computing an example?
Like some small group and subgroup and just see what all the cosets are
Just take any group and subgroup?
Computing examples scares me
I guess what I have in mind is like idk I feel like I used to be like eh examples are boring and often can just be done by computer etc
but now for me examples can be extremely hard to come by or hard to compute lol
maths is hard
Well, the doing it yourself is kinda part of the process
I have a proposition in smth i'm writing where I have 0 examples where the conditions aren't held lol
but i suspect it isn't even usually true
At least they didn't say "let me ask gpt"
Could it be that
Perhaps
The conditions always hold?
I would love to know this but suspect they don't even usually hold
For sufficiently loose definition of 'always'
Goldbach's conjecture (I have a nasty counter example)

