#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 330 of 1
Here's a snapshot of the last part of the last section of the report I presented in my logic class. Sometimes i just think what is not possible with category theory (I can see a joke up for grabs lol)
Eff is the effective topos btw, sth sth kleene and computability
that haven't should be a have, that's a bad typo right there
I wish I could understand this :0 I still have to learn topos theory sometime
Seems fitting tbh
Basically I had a categorythat i built with intuitions of turing machines, then upgraded it to a topos by bilding a subobject classifier, which turned out to be just the effective topos! Then I used Lurie's ideas to make an infinit-topos version of it.

I want to find out what is this quotient ring Z[x]/(2_x^2 - 4 , 4x-5) I did some calculations and concluded that x-10 and 7 are elements of this ideal and I know that the ideal generated by x-10 and 7 is maximal therefore the ideal generated by the original two elements is either the same maximal ideal or the whole ring can someone give me the idea how to show that the original two elements are contained in the ideal generated by the newer elements or if not then how to show that the original 2 elements generate the whole ring?
Was the underscore in Z[x]/(2_x^2 - 4 , 4x-5) meant to be there? If so, what does it mean?
By subtracting appropriate multiples of x-10 and then appropriate multiples of 7, every element of Z[x] can become one of {0,1,2,3,4,5,6}.
Also, if you map 2x²-4 and 4x-5 into Z/7Z by setting x=10, then you'll find both of the generator polynomials map to 0, so this map factors through a (surjective) map from your quotient to Z/7Z.
Since the ring has at most those 7 elements, and also at least 7 elements, it must be isomorphic to Z/7Z.
Okay so modding successively first by (x-10) and then by (7) we would get the field Z_7 and also the original polynomials get sent to 0 so those two are the elements of the ideal generated by x-10 and 7 and therefore the original ideal is the same as (x-10 , 7) therefore the original quotient ring is isomorphic to Z_7.
Thanks @tribal moss
understanding it
Any hints for (i) $\implies$ (ii)? So far, I have the following: Suppose that $\text{Spec } A = U_1 \cup U_2$ where $U_i \neq \varnothing$ is open in $X$ and $U_1 \cap U_2 = \varnothing$. If $U_i = X \setminus V(E_i)$, then $V(E_1 \cup E_2) = \varnothing$ and $V(E_1 \cap E_2) = X$. Define $\varphi: A \to A/\langle E_1 \rangle \times A/\langle E_2 \rangle$ by $a \mapsto (a + \langle E_1 \rangle, a + \langle E_2 \rangle)$, however I'm not sure this is right (I used the fact that every prime ideal contains $E_1 \cap E_2$, in particular $E_1 \cap E_2 = {0}$, so if we can define a ring homomorphism with kernel $E_1 \cap E_2$ and show its surjective then we're done
okeyokay
Here <E_1> and <E_2> are the ideals generated by E_1 and E_2
I know that the map is a bijection if and only if <E_1> and <E_2> are coprime and their intersection is trivial, but I don't know if this is the case
What does that mean again
I was able to prove that the map is surjective
Since they're coprime
I want to now show that they have trivial intersection
Shouldn't be too hard?
what book is this from?
Atiyah-Macdonald
Same thing different terminology, I got confused
But yeah you’re basically there
I see, so E_1 n E_2 = (0) implies that if a is in <E_1> + <E_2>, then a is a finite sum of elements in E_1 and E_2. But that implies that a is 0
Hmmmm, I’m not sure that is sound
Porque
If every prime ideal contains E1 n E2, what does that tell you it’s in?
What is it in this case
What’s the intersection of all prime ideals
Well it's in the nilradical
So what is <E1> n <E2> contained in
But then what does that mean about V(<E1>) and V(<E2>)
Well I mean if <E1> n <E2> is contained in the nilradical which is contained in (0) then their intersection is (0) right?
Because (0) is a prime ideal
Wait am I trippin
A n B n C \subseteq A no?
Wait I feel like I'm going insane
Because clearly the nilradical is not always 0 because why would we define it that way
So why is the nilradical not contained in (0) if (0) is prime
Or do we not consider (0) prime in any context
Oh I guess we need the ring to be a domain lol
Indeed if there are indempotents then 0 is not prime
Okay so we know that every prime ideal which contains E_1 n E_2 contains <E_1> n <E_2>
There is a trick that gets you around the nilradical being nonzero tho
Lemme see what you have done so far lol
(i) $\implies$ (ii). Suppose that $\text{Spec } A = U_1 \cup U_2$ where $U_i \neq \varnothing$ is open in $X$ and $U_1 \cap U_2 = \varnothing$. If $U_i = X \setminus V(E_i)$, then $V(E_1 \cup E_2) = \varnothing$ and $V(E_1 \cap E_2) = X$. Define $\varphi: A \to A/\langle E_1 \rangle \times A/\langle E_2 \rangle$ by $a \mapsto (a + \langle E_1 \rangle, a + \langle E_2 \rangle)$. If $\langle E_1 \rangle + \langle E_2\rangle \neq (1)$, then $E_1 \cup E_2$ is contained in some maximal ideal, hence prime, contradicting $V(E_1 \cup E_2) = \varnothing$. Thus, $\varphi$ is surjective by Proposition 1.10ii. On the other hand, suppose that $a \in \langle E_1 \rangle \cap \langle E_2 \rangle$.
okeyokay
Sure looks good
not to interrupt, but i need some clarification on this problem
Also my hint is uh like this map cannot always be an iso
To see this, note that the ideal generated by E1 is not determined by V(E1)
Wait so this map is not even correct then right
Hint - Z(G) is always normal
Uhhh what if I took the intersection of all prime ideals containing E_i
Right
Okay I'll try that thanks
well yes which means G/Z(G) makes sense
i shouldve said what ive already thought about
of course we have to have that |Z(G)| cant be 1 or p^3
as its not trivial and G is not abelian
if Z(G) were order p^2, then G/Z(G) \cong Z/pZ as Z/pZ is the only group with order p up to isomorphism
but im not sure G/Z(G) \cong Z/pZ necessarily exists
Actually my hint was also a bit bad lol
It does by assumption
or rather the surjective homomorphism from G to Z/pZ
Now try and play around with cosets in G and see what happens to elements
Iirc when I did this I showed that i) => iii)
You can even reduce to the case where the nilradical is zero if u want
well im pretty sure it just boils down to proving that if G/Z(G) is cyclic then G is abelian
Yes
Every element in G has the form x • z
I'm gonna be sick
i see
this is true of any group. What you mean to say is that g = x^kz for some integer k and a fixed x
Sure, they can work out the details lol
Is => true? I saw somewhere online that it's not true
And I don't want to try to prove it if it's not true lol
There are a few ways to understand A-algebras; one of them being that B is an A-algebra if there exists an embedding of rings of A into B
Then you can verify that multiplication by A (when viewed as a set of scalars) is compatible with the internal addition of B (viewed as a set of module vectors); and B also has internal multiplication that is compatible with scalar multiplication (and hence has an algebra structure)
i think i see it
So an A-algebra homomorphism can equivalently be thought of as a ring homomorphism that respects the embedding of A, ie preserves the algebra structure.
But then this is exactly the claim
it was less bad than i thought
just sps G/Z(G) = <aZ(G)> for some a \in G. Then let x,y \in G be arbitrary and suppose x = a^k z and y = a^l z' for some k,l \in Z and z,z' \in Z(G). Then xy = (a^k z)(a^l z') and all these elements commute with each other, so we can rearrage to get yx
Oh, I think I see the post you’re talking about, I think you necessarily need to assume h is a ring homomorphism to begin with, and the fact that it commutes with the embedding of A enables it to be a module homomorphism as well, which is not something we initially assume
im still wondering though why it doesnt matter if there is no surjective homomorphism from G to Z/pZ in the first place
would that just mean that |Z(G)| automatically couldnt be p^2
Well, there could still be one, the kernel just cannot be the center
i see
so it works to suppose a homomorphism did exist such that Z(G) is the center
and by contradiction show that the homomorphism doesnt exist because Z(G) cant be p^2
so in a sense we are getting two pieces of info out of the contradiction
i guess i should know thats possible from my studies in philosophy
I would say that they’re two interpretations of the same piece of knowledge that there is a contradiction
But sure
fair enough
man it feels like im actually getting better at algebra
i dont feel completely stuck on problems anymore
bonus follow up problem, show that for G a p-group, there is always such a homomorphism
I was thinking about that, but are we sure that the derived series always terminates at Zp?
Let me go through my own notes again
Oh wait if it doesn’t terminate at Zp
Then we’re done as well lol because its always an abelian p group anyways
ok that's not how I was going to do it but
A) every p-group is solvable (nilpotent, even)
B) all of the composition factors have to be C_p for obvious reasons
the proof I had in mind is much more elementary
but you're correct in that this method works
Is your confusion that you know Z/pZ is the only group of order p up to isomorphism, but you're not sure whether that means there exists an isomorphism from G/Z(G) to Z/pZ?
it was
but i think ive resolved why it works
its mostly just that saying that |Z(G)| = p^2 is equivalent to saying that G/Z(G) \cong Z/pZ is possible
Hmm, so if |Z(G)| = p^2 then |G/Z(G)| = p, right? But Z/pZ is the only group of order p up to isomorphism, so G/Z(G) is isomorphic to Z/pZ, which is the same as saying there exists an isomorphism from G/Z(G) to Z/pZ. This is not just a possibility, we know it exists
oh of course
its just that G/Z(G) always exists
so necessarily if |Z(G)| = p^2 then we have that G/Z(G) \cong Z/pZ
And if we were trying to rule out |Z(G)| = p^2, knowing that such an isomorphism "may" exist is not enough
well no it always exists
I'm confused lol
it's a group of order p. There is one of them. They are all isomorphic to one another
ts shit is skeletal
and brother? I got a bone to pick with u
I know, I'm trying to point out the fallacy of arguing that an iso "may" exist
true, it is june after all
i was thinking about this so incorrectly that it confused everyone
i was just not recognizing a corollary of a fact i already knew
Real
Yep, I think you got it now tho, good job hiido 
I do wonder if there is any other funny way to do this probpem
Oh yeah lol, the way I knew to do it is different but essentially equivalent
If the centre has size p^2 then consider the centraliser C of any non-central element x. Then C contains x and the centre, hence is the whole group, so x is in the centre, contradiction
Lol
What's wrong with p-Sylow?
So I had to prove or disprove that the Q rings Z[x]/(x^2 + 7) and Z[x]/(2x^2 + 7) are isomorphic to do so I assumed isomorphism that implies there is a bijective homomorphism between the two rings then there would be a unique pre image of the coset for x in the 2nd ring would be a coset of some linear polynomial ax + b in the first ring now 2(ax+b)^2 + 7 = 2a^2x^2 + 4abx + 2b^2 + 7 therefore x^2+7 doesn't divide this => that a non 0 member of the first ring is mapped to 0 therefore contradicting injectivity of the map and therefore these rings are not isomorphic.
Now this is my work regarding this problem . I would like to know 2 things :-
- Is my proof correct?
- If (1) then is there any easier way to do the same without using the module structure of the first ring.
Your proof looks fine, I’m trying to look for a simpler proof but I haven’t found anything that is massively more so yet
In Z[x]/<2x^2+7>, notice that 2(x^2+4) = 1 so 2 is a unit.
But then if f is an isomorphism, this means that 2 must be a unit in Z/<x^2+7> as well (note that f(2) = f(1+1) = f(1)+f(1) = 2).
But then 2(ax+b) = 1 has no solutions for integers a,b, which is a contradiction
This proof isn’t that much faster but it’s the best I can come up with
(Bonus question: why does this reasoning fail when I reverse the two rings?)
what do u mean by reversing
Why can’t I say 2(ax+b) = 1 has no solutions in the other ring so 2 can’t be a unit there either
a non unit may go to unit
lol, I was thinking of the issue that ||elements in the other ring is not always of the form ax + b anymore, as thats an important subtlety||
But they can figure that out in their own
Doesnt this make Z/n just Z since you only have that equality in Z/0? Or should I interpret = as an element of?
p-Sylow theorems are hard to understand
personally
that just means "we are using the symbol 0 to denote this"
ohh so he just means := ?
sure
thanks
The proof ?
How can I prove "by definition" that sqrt(2) in Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3))?
More specifically, can someone help me find f(x) in Q[x] such that f(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3))=sqrt(2)?
I found an f(x) in Q(x)(instead of Q[x]) such that f(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3))=sqrt(2).
Is this enough, becuase Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3))=Q[sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)]?
Yes, as long as you can see why that equality holds
Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3))=Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3)), you can show this by considering degree argument
I knoy but im asking a different qhestion
use conjugates
I don't think Q(sqrt(2) + sqrt(3)) is equal to Q[sqrt(2) + sqrt(3)]. The former is a field, the latter is just a ring
This is true when the adjoined elements are algebraic over the base field.
Oh, you're right 👍
Either way, the equality is not important in this case, since you're working with Q(sqrt(2) + sqrt(3)) anyways
Ye
Urgent Galois Theory book recommendation needed that does it like Milne's notes but in detail
patrick's book is nice with problems
Patrick morandi ? Does it do it as much as Milne?
Or should I do Lorenz
patrick book has amazing excersises
i dont know about this one
OK bro
You can do that (as the subsequent discussion details), but for more "by definition" you can also let $\xi=\sqrt2+\sqrt3$, and then $$\frac{\xi^2-5}{2} = \sqrt6$$ so $$\xi\frac{\xi^2-5}{2} = 2\sqrt3 + 3\sqrt2$$ and $$\xi\frac{\xi^2-5}{2}-2\xi = \sqrt2$$
Troposphere
Can somebody explain to me how this map D \otimes D \to D was obtained? I don't think 2.14 says much about it (in particular, B \otimes C \otimes B \otimes C \to D is not bilinear, so we can't factor through a map (B \otimes C) \otimes (B \otimes C))
Wait I’m pretty sure the tensor product is associative
(Up to coherent isomorphism at least)
How many elements of order 4 does S8 have?
i personally got 744 but im skeptical
since i suck at counting
oh i think i just interrupted sorry
Yeah I think it is, I'm kind of new to it so I'm just trying to see how the map arises via the universal property
Ur all good
Ah ok sure sure
I think the map is bilinear
At least at the level of tensor product
Well this is what I had in mind:
[
\begin{tikzcd}
{(B \otimes C) \times (B \otimes C)} \
\
{(B \otimes C) \otimes (B \otimes C)} && {B \otimes C}
\arrow["g", from=1-1, to=3-1]
\arrow["f"', from=1-1, to=3-3]
\arrow["h", dashed, from=3-1, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}
]
okeyokay
Yeah this seems good
yeah but how does the map $B \otimes C \otimes B \otimes C \to B \otimes C$ induce $h$ is my question
okeyokay
Because here we have f inducing h but they don't have the same domain
Well you’ve got the bilinear map f right?
Actually I'm not even sure what f is lol
Or how it was induced by B \otimes C \otimes B \otimes C --> D
wait
if $h$ is the map $B \otimes C \otimes B \otimes C \to D$, then $h$ induces a bilinear map $f: (B \otimes C) \times (B \otimes C) \to D$ given by $f\bigl(b \otimes c, b' \otimes c') = h(b \otimes c \otimes b' \otimes c')$ right
okeyokay
yep!
you get it by composition :3
Who up ringing they fields
okay great thanks
I still haven't convinced myself entirely but I'll give it more thought
I am very tired so I’m not as sharp as I usually am~
apologies I can’t be more helpful
nw you're all good
Alright im coming back to ask for help on this
i need to count how many elements in S8 have order 4
ive sorted it down to four possible cycle expressions of the elements
(....)(....)
(....)(..)(..)
(....)(..)
(....)
im just so terrible at counting that idk what to do here
I mean it looks good
You just have to count the cycle types and you’re golden
yeah thats the part i have no clue how to do
i dont really understand how counting these would be any different
its just like 8 choose 4 over 4
or smth like that
fair enough
i mean is it really tho
wouldnt the first one be like
8! divided by 4^2
then the second one is 8! divided by 4 * 2 * 2
so the same thing
It’s 8 choose 4 and then 4 choose 4, divide by 2
why divide by 2
The two 4 cycles are the same
what?
oh i see
and then i also have to divide by 4
because smth like (1374) has four equivalent forms
i mean the way that i thought about it was
i just have an arrangement of all 8 things
but i have to divide by 4 twice
for the first case
to consider the four equivalent cycles
but i think i also have to divide by 2
bc if i have like (1374)(5268)
then i can just flip them
the other ones i dont have to divide by 2 bc im already considering the commutativity of disjoint cycles by only considering one arrangement
lcm(x1, x2, …, xk) = 4 iff there exists i € {1, …, k} with xi = 4 and for j != i, xj = 2^a with a € {0,1,2}
Do you have to count :
(. . . .)
(. . . .)(. .)
(. . . .)(. .)(. .)
(. . . .)(. . . .)
Oh, you already wrote it mb
So, DFT corresponds to CRT over C. Meanwhile, DFT also comes from Pontryagin duality as well.
How are the relations of the two?
Is this just coincidence in specific case, or is there more general phenomenon going on?
Does anybody know a way to look at a single variable polynomial and say whether it will have more than a single root based off the coefficients?
ah i misunderstood the question ignore it
Yes. You can calculate common factors of f(x) and f'(x). If f(x) has a root of degree k+1 then f'(x) will have the same root of degree k.
Therefore you can calculate how many repeated roots there are via this method
This works over the algebraic closure of any field
So you’re suggesting that I take a known root, then see the number of times I can take the derivative while having this a root, and if that number less than deg(f) then there exists a different root if I assume the coefficients come from an algebraically closed field?
You don't even need to take the derivative more than once!
Suppose in the algebraic closure that f(x) = (x-a)^n -- let's just assume monicity for now
Then f'(x) is some multiple of (x-a)^(n-1)
So gcd(f'(x), f(x)) is (up to some coefficient) going to be f'(x)
gcd(f'(x), f(x)) = (up to coeff) f'(x) if and only if we're in this situation, in fact
So all you need to do is calculate the GCD, which is easily done with the Euclidean algorithm
I hate group theory man
So I need r: B -> A s.t. r o phi = id_A
I know that without the assumption on the image of phi landing in Z(B) that this sequence splits, so there exists b in B such that <bA> is isomorphic to Z
psi(b) = 1
but then how does this further assumption give me the retraction r?
I know how to do this with the splitting lemma (you can show A, B are abelian) but I want to do this without the splitting lemma
If f(x) has a repeated root, then f'(x) will have a root of the same kind
Therefore gcd(f(x), f'(x)) will be nonzero.
Savvy?
Hold up lol
You can probably find this in any intro abstract algebra book
Heck, it's even on the wikipedia page for the formal derivative!
This isn’t necessary and sufficient though right?
If you had alpha a root occurring two times and beta a different root, you’d fail this test to be separable but you’d still have more than one root
Why not?
But that's not the question at hand
wait my bad I misunderstood what you're saying
Didn’t they say “tell if it had more than one root”
This isn’t the same as “is separable”
I'm not quite seeing your point
We can definitely detect whether or not there's a unique root in the same way
Let’s say you had a cubic which had alpha as a root twice and beta as a root one time, this has more than one root
it's just when gcd(f'(x), f(x)) is f'(x) up to scalar multiples
yeah yeah I get that
What’s your algorithm going to tell us?
I might not understand what you’re suggesting
gcd(f'(x), f(x)) is nonzero when the polynomial is inseperable, this is true
but equally gcd(f'(x), f(x)) = f'(x) up to scalar multiples when there is a unique root
wait, the question I was answering here was deleted!
:(
I think I can see how this got lost in the mix
Okay but I mean can you tell me how your algorithm tells me that f has more than a single root
I thought you were saying this algorithm will answer this question
Well let's say there is more than one! That f(x) = (x-a)(x-b)g(x)
Sure
how do I want to set this up actually
Maybe I will actually say
$f(x) = \prod_{\alpha in A} (x-\alpha)^{n_\alpha}$ let's say instead
Duckt(ji=-k)e
Okay
Then the gcd of f(x) and f'(x) will be $\prod_{\alpha \in A} n_\alpha(x-\alpha)^{n_\alpha-1}$, up to some scalar multiple I don't care about
Fuck
Sure
I keep making typos!!!
Duckt(ji=-k)e
So in fact if there is a single root -- in which case n_alpha = deg f for some alpha -- we can just read this off from the degree
You have issues in char p no?
Oh shite good point
In char 0 I agree
But it’s still hard to compute this gcd I think
In terms of some sort of algorithm in terms of the coefficients
I guess this works out uh if p does not divide the degree of f
Nah
If you take like
Why not?
Well that's still fine, we can still read that off from the degree
The GCD spits out 0 though?
I mean maybe if you think harder you can still distinguish
There is indeed more than one root and the gcd should be deg(gcd of the two) = deg f - 1
So in that case it's fine
Am I barking up the wrong tree
No I see
But what if you were
(x-a)^p•(x-b)(x-c)^p-1
Wait
Nvm
Yeah yeah I agreege
one sec someone is pinging mods
Ok nvm people are dealing with it
OK so in general my idea sucks 
(this is basically the splitting lemma but I think it's the most natural way to prove this) You've shown (using the fact that B is an extension of Z) that this sequence splits. Equivalently, B is a semidirect product of Z acting on A. So (using the fact that A lies in Z(B)), what's the action of Z on A?
Is there someone who does mathematical logic
If I have an element $\omega \in \mathbb{Q}(\omega)$ for some algebraic extension $\mathbb{Q}(\omega)$ of $\mathbb{Q}$, and I find a polynomial $f \in \mathbb{Q}[X]$ such that $f(\omega) = 0$ and $f$ is irreducible, then is $f$ the min poly of $\omega$ (over $\mathbb{Q}$)?
Tiessie
Upto being monic. If f kills \omega, then f factors as a product of the minimal polynomial and something. Since f is irreducible, that something must be a constant. So f is the minimal polynomial if you normalize the leading term.
np
yeah so the minimal polynomial divides any polynomial which evaluates to zero at w
Yes. It follows from Q[X] being an euclidean domain
huh... a euclidean domain or an euclidean domain?
a sounds better
I think so too, but rn can't remember why. It's just a gut feeling
Let $g$ be such that $g(\omega) = 0$. Divide by $f$ the minimal polynomial. Then $g(X) = q(X)f(X) + r(X)$ with $deg(r) < deg(f)$. Filling in $\omega$ gives $r(\omega) = 0$. Since $f$ is minimal we must have $r= 0$. So $g = qf$.
okay, because it starts with /ju:'... which is a y-glide
Tiessie
Cool!
guys had my exam and i just realised i got the isomorphism type for the galois group to be klein 4 instead of C4 because im silly is it over
Nah
share que
If we have 2 sylow 2-subgroups, H and K (where each element of H and K has an order of 2^n for various values of n), does HK only consist of elements of order 2^n (for various n)? Was trying to prove this, and not quite getting there. It SEEMS like my book is considering this is true, but Im not convinced. I suppose it possible my book is doing something subtle and Im misunderstanding it.
if HK consists of elements of order 2^n then it must be contained in some sylow 2-group (as by Cauchy it would be a 2-group), which by size considerations (in finite groups) is impossible
Well HK isnt even necessarily a group tho, right? I thought one of these groups would have to be normal for that to be the case.
ah, yeah that is true
No. Let $G= S_3, H = \langle (12)\rangle, K = \langle (13)\rangle$. Then $H$ and $K$ are Sylow 2-subgroups, but $HK$ contains a 3-cycle.
harmacist
But as enpeace music said, it's definitely true if HK is a subgroup
Yeah, this seems fair.
Well maybe the detail that Im not understanding can be cleared up specifically:
I have underlined what I currently dont believe based on what we are saying here
TLDR: Trying to show that a Group of order 160 is never simple.
Lemma 37.8 is |HK| = |H||K|/ |HnK|
I thought about it for a while — and ppl can feel free to chime in if I'm wrong here — but I think the step in this proof isn't valid (none of the other assumptions here would make this true about HK).
FWIW, here's the way I'd personally prove this: If G is simple, then n2 = 5. Let G act by conjugation on the set of its Sylow 2-subgroups. This induces a homomorphism G -> S5. It's nontrivial because of Sylow II, and it's not injective because then G would embed into S5, but 160 doesn't divide 5!. So, the kernel is a nontrivial normal subgroup
Yeah, I was beginning to believe the same thing! It wouldnt be the first time Ive found a mistake in a book. Thanks for your thoughts and you own path forward in this problem. I appreciate your time 😄
Np! Happy studying :)
So the question is I have to classify the rings of order 10. (I am assuming rings with unity and are commutative since they are the only kind of rings I am dealing with in my coursework)
My work :-
- The ring can't be a domain since then it would be a field but a finite field has a prime power as it's cardinality.
- Since a ring also forms a group over addition therefore by lagranges theorem the subgroup generated by unity divides 10 => the ring can have characteristic either 2 5 or 10 (it can't be 1 since then it would be the 0 ring) now if it is 10 then this ring is isomorphic to Z_10 which is isomorphic to Z_5 × Z_2.
Now if We assume that the characteristic is 2 or 5 then and consider the ring of order 10 as an extension of these fields now the minimal polynomial of the added element can't be monic and linear cuz then we are not really adding any new element to the ring so if it monic and non linear of then it would be a field extension and the cardinality of the bigger field would be either a power of 2 or 5 in the case of 5 the bigger field would have cardinality at least 25 so the sub ring (of order 10 ring) can't have cardinality 5 (or characteristic 5) and also any extension of F2 would have cardinality a power of 2 so again it can't be a subring.
Now if suppose that the minimal polynomial is not monic then the ring extension would have infinite order therefore the only possible ring is Z_10 or Z_5×Z_2
Can someone please check my work...if it is correct can you give me more rings of order 10 if we remove the condition for it being commutative and unital also can you comment on my way of analyzing this like if there could have been a better way to do it.
Thank You.
Ah yes sorry typo
i havent checked your work, but there is an easier way
if 1 + 1 = 0, examine what happens to r + r for arbitrary r in R
same for r + r + r + r + r if 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 0
the condition on it being commutative doesn't matter here since the addition is always commutative and multiplication by 0 on the left or right is always 0
Then that would mean each element has order 2 or 5 depending upon the characteristic of the ring and that would violate the cauchy theorem?
Since if characteristic is 2 then the ring of order 10 won't have an element with order 5
And similarly for characteristic 5
btw, you can show that all rings of order 10 (or more generally a squarefree order), unital or not, are commutative, either directly or by applying Sun's theorem/CRT to the underlying additive group of the ring
also, there do exist nonunital rings of order 10 -- try finding some!
yea, this reasoning sounds fine. you could also argue that the additive group would have to be Z/5Z or Z/2Z if the characteristic of the ring is 5 or 2, resp
It looks right, if perhaps more involved than it needs to be. Do you have the structure theorem for f.g. abelian groups?
At least, instead of speaking of minimal polynomials you could jump directly to saying, if the ring contsins F2 or F5, then it would be a vector space, and it has the wrong size for that (as you already end up arguing in the F2 case anyway).
how do you start classifying the non-unital ones?
the simplest one i can think of is ||just to make all products 0||
btw, the general fact that troposphere and i are referring to is the fact that if every non-identity element of an abelian group G has order p for p prime, then G is a vector space over F_p
Thanks for the input will definitely try
Ah , yes thanks
Sadly no 😔 this my first course in abstract algebra
Ah yes , thank you
another one is 2Z/20Z
Oo nice , will definitely work this out
is nZ / 10nZ a non-unital ring in general?
is it generally true that if phi is a group homomorphism from G to K
and if N is a subgroup of K then phi^(-1)(N) is a subgroup of G?
If n is coprime to 10 you just get Z/10Z.
okay, true
(With a nonconventional unit)
i think i proved it but since we didnt see it as a theorem i feel like i might have made a faulty proof
Yes.
thank you
Can you comment on this?
How may I interpret the binomial coefficent as a field element?
It seems like nCk should be a natural number that invokes repeated multiplication of a field element
so only the multiplication operation is involved in the summand in the right?
not the notation k*x = x + x + …+x (k times)
right, I can just express any natural number k as group element (1 + .. + 1 (k times))
It got bit tricky because,
3 = 1 + 1 + 1
but if K = Z_2 , 3 is the group element 1
similar to this
Didn’t click me before
I’ll share hold on
I don’t have the english but it says the same thing
If n is a natural number, then
below is a an element in the field
when K = R, this element is just the natural number, otherwise it changes
Not sure if I've come to the right channel. Anyway, I know that if $F[x]$ is a polynomial ring over a field $x$, then each polynomial determines a polynomial function. The map that sends an element in $F[x]$ to the polynomial function is one-to-one if $F$ is infinite. Is it also onto? Why? \
Now I'm studying the Zariski topology very briefly and without going too much into the details. The author lets $k(X_1,\ldots,X_n)$ be the ring of polynomials in $n$ variables over the field $k$. Then also says that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the polynomials $P$ and polynomial functions $p$ if $k$ is infinite. Is the proof of this result basically the same as for $F[x]$?
psie
Isn’t it by definition onto lol?
What is your definition of a polynomial function?
I think if you just examine that definition you see it’s onto
I don't mean for the polynomial function to be onto (perhaps it is anyway...). I mean the function that takes a polynomial and maps it to the polynomial function. The definition is kind of loose; a polynomial function is simply the function that we obtain by plugging in elements of the field into the variables of the polynomial.
That’s what I was talking about
ok 👍
So it is onto the set of all polynomial functions (because that set is by definition the image of your map) but definitely not onto the set of all functions.
we proved that for an artinian ring A with jacobson radical J(A), A/J(A) is simple, since, because A is artinian, we can write J(A) as a finite intersection of maximal submodules X_i. The prove was essentially just that the above map is an injective module homomorphism into a semisimple module, so A/J(A) is semisimple as a submodule of a semisimple module. Now my question is, to establish that the above map is an injective module homomorphism, how does the direct sum being finite actually matter
It’s not really an exact answer, but the key point here is that J(A) is a finite intersection
This lets you do the CRT to get that A/J is isomorphic to the product of the things which interact to form J (and actually it’s the product of the ideals)
To illustrate why this finiteness matters, in a polynomial ring k[x] with k algebraically closed the Jacobson radical is 0, but k[x]/m = k for any maximal ideal m
So if you could still do this you would get that
k[x] = k[x]/J ≈ Prod_a in k k
sure
Where the product has a single entry of k for every element in k
I don't see what breaks with an infinite intersection, we could still write down the same map and it would be a well defined module homomorphism right
Sure
But there’s a couple issues
1: There’s no guarantee the image is almost all 0 (difference between direct sum and direct product)
2: Infinite direct sums of rings are not rings because they lack a 1
Ah I see so it wouldn't actually be a well defined map into the direct sum
Right
thanks!!
Is any element of A in all but finitely many maximal ideals?
The answer is usually no (or at the very least it’s always no for 1)
$\Lambda$ solvable iff its derivative sequence is stationary at ${ e}$. does this statement have a name ?
tm
A definition?
solvable groups aren’t defined by derivative sequence in my book so 🤷♂️
They’re equivalent definitions
okay 
Usually people say “X is Y if it satisfies one of these equivalent definitions”
And the proofs that they are equivalent aren’t given names
how did they directly conclude that these are primitive elements of F_16?
Well, conjugates sounds like the image under an automorphism
So proving that any one of them is primitive would be nice
yeah but they've introduced that interpretation after this example
Curious order but nothing saying you have to only interpret examples in light of what comes before
Not too hard to show that map is nice algebraically
So all that would be left is showing that they’re primitive
So why is alpha, a root of that minimal polynomial, primitive
yeah, also the fact that the degree is 4
and f is over F_2, with splitting field F_(2^4)
Well you can make it out of that one f so I’d sure think at least one root is principal, and they’re all conjugate
(Which isn’t too hard to see is an automorphism, I’m pretty sure)
hmm.. i dont understand what you mean, Im sorry 😭
the conjugates of $\alpha \in \mathbb{F}_{q^m}$ with respect to $\mathbb{F}_q$ are the the images of $\alpha$ under the automorphisms $$\sigma_i (x) = x^{q^i}, i\in {0, 1, \dots, m-1}$$
omeganebula
how does the fact that they are automorphisms imply they are primitive?
if alpha wasn’t primitive, it would have order 3 or 5, which is not the case
ah... im dumb
thanks!
also can we generalize this? the root of any irreducible polynomial in $\mathbb{F}_q [x]$ is a primitive in the splitting field of the polynomial?
omeganebula
answer is no, you can find a small counterexample over F_2 (for instance)
in particular, ||irreducible x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + x + 1 = (x^5 - 1)/(x - 1), roots all have order 5||
let $\bigoplus G_i ={ (g_i) \in \prod_{i \in I} G_i,}$ where $(g_i)$ has a finite support, this thing is the external direct sum or the internal one ?
tm
im so lost with all these direct sum
External, as you're constructing it directly
internal direct sum is more of a property of a group, rather than a construction
As you can always build an external direct sum from groups, but not every group is an internal direct sum
so H and K are in direct sum (internal) if $H \cap K={ e }$ ?
tm
No
0 mb
Are we talking about abelian or nonabelian groups here
H and K subgroups of G abelian
Yeah ok
the subgroup generated by $H \cup K$ is $G=H+K$ and is said to be the direct sum of the groups H and K when $H \cap K={0}$
tm
that’s what it says in my book
G is the internal direct sum of K and H, if K and H are subgroups of G, and K + H = G and K ∩ H = 0
Then you get the direct product
You have an internal direct product
which does not correspond to the cartesian product then
It's naturally isomorphic
Same way that an internal direct sum is naturally isomorphic to the external direct sum
yeah but it’s not longer like H \times K, it’s HK
It's naturally isomorphic
Formally, the internal direct sum is also not equal to the external direct sum
vro i don’t ask if they are isomorphic or not 😭😭😭😭
just wanted to know if the elements of the internal direct product are tuples or not
like H \times K
They aren't
they're isomorphic to tuples
okay thx that’s what i needed
but since we're working within a group they're necessarily just elements of that group
Naturally isomorphic means that they are almost literally the same object, and is even stronger than just isomorphic
Usually natural isomorphism means the isomorphism used is “polymorphic”
In the computer science sense
It can be constructed in a uniform way, often as a result of being purely syntactic
hmmmm, mind explaining a little more? I dont know any cs
im interested
So for example, there’s a “natural” way to turn elements of a type T into a list of type T
You send x to [x]
You could also do x to [x, x, x]
Or even just x to []
For specific types T, you can do fancier things
E.g. send a natural number to its list of prime factors
hmm, so natruality in the comp sci sense literally boils down to the function accepting an entire type as input instead of specific values of the type
But the constructions I described above are “polymorphic”
It’s being able to define a function that works on arbitrary types
We’re only using the syntax inherent to lists here, nothing else
And so these functions make sense for any type T
Or for example, you can define a function from List[T] to List[T] that reverses lists
This is also “polymorphic” in the sense I described above
All the ones I gave above, except for the “send natural to list of prime factors”
Actual natural transformation in the category of types
Are there any naturally appearing artificial natural isomorphisms
What do you mean by naturally appearing artificial lol
Like natural isomorphisms which do make choices
Maybe those you use in proving full, faithful and essentially surjective => equivalence?
Ah yeah, of course
Extending the classical AG duality from coordinate rings to finitely generated reduced k-algebras, for example
I see
(coordinate rings are quotients of polynomial algebras)
I'll get back to you on that someday lol
how do I know which field extensions are Galois? I keep getting them backward in my head
Do you want a definition or a heuristic?
so ur saying $H \oplus K \cong H \cdot K$ ?
tm
both
the internal direct sum is isomorphic to the internal direct product
Definition: Normal and separable
Heuristic: Idk
A splitting field is going to be Galois in char 0
definition is just |Gal| = [E:F]
That’s probably the most common situation you will find
these are not the definitions or words that were in my course lol
Okay, but that’s not very verifiable
although i think we only did galois theory for polynomials over Q
Separable means the min poly of any element in the extension has no repeated roots
This is automatic in char 0
hence why i find it frustrating
ah right yes makes sense
Normal means that the field extensions contains every root of every minimal polynomial
That's not what I was saying
So if alpha is in E and beta is another root of m_alpha, then beta is in E
This is true for a splitting field
so for the last one
I don't think with abelian groups I've ever heard of internal direct product being used
theres an extension thats not Galois
mm makes snes
so what ur saying about the isomorphism
sense
Sure
I don’t remember off of the top of my head to be honest
But I think yes
but im not really sure where or why
But the Galois correspondence tells you that you can do this group theoretically
I'm saying that the internal and external versions are isomorphic
Once you compute the Galois group you find a non-normal subgroup
so the roots are all the 4th roots of 2
Of both direct sum and direct product
in the case non abelian?
And this corresponds to a subfield which is not Galois over the base
and the splitting field size is 8 since 4*2
Why are we switching to nonabelian groups all of a sudden
because i was talking about non abelian groups
I know that the galois group is dihedral from looking at the answers but again not really sure why
You need to figure that out
Write down automorphisms
They are determined by where the generators = roots of the polynomial get sent
And then you find some relations
hmmm interesting
The dihedral group is generated by something of order 4 and order 2
Which have some relation like
rfrf = e
Well, yes
If you can verify those sorts of relations you can either come up with an explicit isomorphism
I guess?
yeah but how do we know that the Gal is nonabelian?
Its easy to verify
You just verify it lol
like, why isnt it Z/4ZxZ/2Z
ig this why
the elements are automorphisms which you can explicitly write down
But anyways, internal direct sum and direct product are the same
So you just find two of them that don’t commute
They’re functions you can just compose and plug stuff in
ok well ig the instructions are clear mess around with them and see what happens
thanks
It's just that for abelian groups you'd tend towards saying direct sum while with groups you'd tend towards saying direct product
You gotta just start writing stuff down and play with it
I’m not the best at Galois theory so I can’t give any heuristic better than that
Yeah np
no worries still helpful
actually wait sorry
this is the step i was confused on
oh wait
you can use that crappy definition
we already computed size is 8 and we know this is degree 4 so it cant be galois
nevermind problem solved thanks anyway
it coincides if we take the addition for the direct product law right ?
What do you mean direct product law?
I was talking about internal direct product too
the law on $H \times K$ is noted multiplicatively in my course but nvm
Oh you mean the operation
yeah
Internal direct product doesn't have a choice of operation
(nor does the external direct product, for that matter)
Because the internal direct product, nor the internal direct sum is an object
but when you say that the two are the same, you’re talking in terms of isomorphism, not equality right
It's a property
internal
You're not constructing anything
A group is the internal direct sum of N and M iff it is the internal direct product of N and M
Where N, M < G
(are these abelian groups?)
Not necessarily, you technically have a notion of direct sum which is just the product but all the elements with finite support
Yeah, "direct sum" is not a thing for usual groups
alr i’ll try to prove it
afaik this usually refers to the free product
yes that's the free product in Grp
Ah, do they call that direct sum as well?
I guess it makes sense
in general direct sum is coproduct i think
Well there's really nothing that you're summing so the terminology doesn't really fit anyways

mhm, i don't think it gets used often for groups
Nothing really to prove
The definitions are the same
Direct sum is just for abelian groups and direct product for nonabelian groups
Wellllll
Depends on the definition they learned
my brain need it
For internal direct sum / direct product?
Like, you could certainly prove that a direct product construction is actually product
And direct sum construction is actually coproduct (in abelian groups)
Thats not what I was talking about
Augh nevermind this conversation is useless this is why we should teach category theory to preschoolers so they understand the difference between direct sum and direct product
I mean, it's not like everyone is taught the same definition. You do not need full category theory to talk about universal property, either
Yeah, that is true
💔 ts is dire. Direct product for both groups and abelian groups is the same it just so happens that in Ab it's a biproduct 📉
Shiver me timbers 🥶
what bothers me is that one corresponds to a product and the other to a sum
Because one is used for abelian groups and the other for nonabelian groups
okk
I need to prove that if F is a left exact functor Mod_A -> Mod_B, then for every f: M->N, F(kerf) is naturally isomorphic to kerFf. Which naturality diagram do I need to check here?
For morphisms of short exact sequences of the form ker f-> M->N?
This is pretty much the definition of left exact
Yes the whole problem is kind of weird
Like if you consider any f then consider 0 -> ker f -> A -f-> B
Well also any short exact sequence is of this form
I'm just wondering in what sense the word natural is meant
Is ker a functor
A natural iso of functors [[1], ModA] → ModB?
Maybe I'll just write "there's no choices made so the isomorphism is plenty natural"
ker f is a limit and you are saying F preserves that limit
ah sure
There's still a naturality diagram for "preserves limit"
Yes
We've barely defined categories and functors
Normally the lecturer writes naturality claims out explicitly
The functor F maps kerf → M → N to a kernel diagram F(kerf) → F(M) → F(N)
(Note this is stronger than just saying F(kerf) ≈ kerFf)
I think that's all you have to check
By abstract nonsense they will automatically assemble into such a natural isomorphism
I decided to prove that F kerf satisfies the universal property of the kernel
Are u in a category theory class?
No, commutative algebra
Can u send me the problem set or whatever this comes from cuz this is the sort of problem i want to study atm too
I was thinking about exactness of functors and still not exactly sure in what sense they preserve kernels or cokernels or whatever
A little bit of everything. So far we've done Zariski topology, some homological algebra, localizations, noetherianity/artinianity, Nakayama&PIT, integral extensions and now discrete valuation rings
here's the whole statement
I don't know why we're suddenly doing this now because we did homological algebra a while ago already
All the other problems in the sheet are about our current topics
Hi, could you explain why I got the second part wrong?
I'm not very familiar with the elements of D4 so I derived everything off of what I know of square symmetries
I don't think I should be getting that st=ts
The second part's asking for the elements of order 2 in [D_4=\langle \sigma,\tau\mid \sigma^4=\tau^2=1,, \tau\sigma\tau=\sigma^{-1}\rangle.] The identity $\tau\sigma\tau=\sigma^{-1}$ is crucial to working with dihedral groups; try proving it geometrically if you're not already familiar with it. Note that it's equivalent to the identity $\tau\sigma=\sigma^{-1}\tau$. In particular, for $D_4$, we get $\tau\sigma=\sigma^3\tau$. I think that's where the error in your calculation happened (it appears that you wrote $\tau\sigma=\sigma^2\tau$). \
So, here's a worked solution: It turns out that \emph{all} elements of the form $\sigma^k \tau$ (equivalently, $\tau\sigma^{-k}$) are reflections and thus have order 2. (This actually holds for all dihedral groups $D_n$.) Indeed, [(\sigma^k\tau)^2=\sigma^k\tau\sigma^k\tau=\sigma^k\sigma^{-k}\tau\tau=1,] where we've used the identity $\tau\sigma=\sigma^{-1}\tau$ repeatedly. So, in this problem, we should actually have [L={1,\sigma^2,\tau,\sigma\tau,\sigma^2\tau,\sigma^3\tau}.]
harmacist
correct; it should be sr = r^3s, whereas you wrote sr = r^2s
This should be correct now
Looks great! Nice work :)
Thank you
I got confused when doing the inverse for σ^(-1)
There's also a more general rule for any dihedral group:
For any Dihedral group $D_n$, one has: $\sigma^{-m} \tau = \tau \sigma^m$
Tropical Greens
I think this is correct
Yeah! That follows from applying $\tau\sigma=\sigma^{-1}\tau$ repeatedly
harmacist
Are all the classical Lie groups of the form $Aut(V, \beta)$ where $\beta$ is a bilinear form? ie. automorphisms of a vector space preserving a certain bilinear form? (except the special variants I guess, where we intersect with SL(V))
sheddow
<@&268886789983436800>
sorry for the terrible crop
but im really terrible at combinatorics so i dont fully how to explain whats going on here
intuitively, im guessing theres initially 8 elements in the centralizer in S4, and then each symmetric group above that introduces (n-4) times more disjoint cycles to consider
but how do i know something like (12)(345) doesnt commute with (12)(34)
Do you know orbit stabilizer theorem?
yes
So now if you count the how many there are elements in orbit of (12)(34), then you will get your answer, action is conjugation
Do you know what g(12)(34)g^-1 looks like?
not really
i think thats the biggest problem
im struggling to understand conjugation in the symmetric group
I think you are following Dummit and foote , so in the Dummit and foote there is a theorem which states that a and b are conjugate to each other iff a and b have same cycle type
no, this is a homework exercise from my prof
though he likely pulled it from D&F
even if they arent disjoint?
so anything of the form (..)(..) is conjugate
Yes
i see
so i have to show that the size of the orbit of (12)(34) is n!/8(n-4)!
alright cool
i missed that theorem
i think my prof went over it very quickly
but i was skeptical about if i was allowed to pull it off in my proof
So now you have to calculate number of elements of the form (ab)(cd), all are distinct
that should be easy
Yes
its n permute 4 divided by (2!)^3
so yeah i see it now
since we select four elements from n elements to permute and then say that swapping certain pairs doesnt change anything and swapping the order of those pairs doesnt change anything
I imagined treating the properties themselves that algebraic structures have as open spaces and try to put as many algebraic structures as possible as point in the topology
Things like associativity, existence of unit, commutativity becoming an open space.
I dont know if this is the right place to put this idea, but I found it nice.
These aren't quite open sets
But this is very close to the idea of a lattice of deductively closed theories over some signature and infinite set of variables
Although this idea makes sure everything is still set based
(putting a closure operator on the collection of "all algebraic structures" is a bit iffy because that's at least going to be a class if not worse)
I just can feel lattice is super close with this idea
But still, why?
I mean, properties themselves can be AND'd and OR'd and it will generate another property.
Kinda close to the whole idea of open spaces being closed to finite intersection and union under a topology.
Well, depends on whether or not you want infinitary propositions or not
Mhm nice point
And for the OR to work nicely, you have to make sure there are no free variables, else you'll get some weird meddling interference
Finally, due to negation, every set would be clopen anyways
And at that point it's better to just treat it as a lattice
Thx a lot
(though you can still ask questions like "what are the conditions for a class of structures to be axiomisable by so and so type of propositions")
Actually when I first rly thought of this it was during the convo with ex and it was chu space instead of topological space
But kinda felt bad pushing a slightly niche concept I was obsessed with to mathcord so I js said topology
Anyways im acc drnk rn buhbye
Lmao
Huh, never heard of them
Lore drop when
That shit is TOTAL fire bro
Reminds me of fuzzy sets
You drop og requirements of open sets having to closed under finite caps and cups and somehow still can construct a sensible definition of continuous maps? Absolute cinema
Cuz take K = [0, 1] lol
YEAH
And then you've got like a "fuzzy state machine"
Ah chu spaces are used in automata
Who could've guessed
Is there any algebraic chupology?
You can make one
Also Pratt (from the legendary gangster shit, KMP algoeithm) did something called Stone Gamut
Which is category theory based heavily and also the basic of chupology apparently
But my shallow knowledge couldnt get it
It looked like fire though
Stone? Same Stone as Stone duality?
YUp
Actual spectrum moment
Boolean algebras are crazy
Like wtf do you mean your only subdirectly irreducible member is the only simple member is the algebra generating the variety as a prevariety??
Dude,,, igtg see u man
wtf
sorry for the basic algebra question but uhhh
is it true that if H, K are subgroups of G, the index of K in G would be divisible by the index of H intersection K in H?
(that is, is $[H:H\cap K] \vert [G:K]$?)
maybe you want \mid there, not \vbar
bracket
Let me think if there's a simple proof for this
i know that this works if you replace divides with < then that's a well known result
My instinct says it's true and it's easy to prove when H is normal but give me a moment just to think
Just need to write this out on my blackboard
oh yeah that is true when H is normal
Wow I am struggling so much to prove this
OK so quick observation: the only coset in of $G/(H \cap K)$ which is contained in both $H/(H \cap K)$ and $K/(H \cap K)$ is $H\cap K$ itself. To see this, observe that if $h(H \cap K) = k(H \cap K)$ then $k^{-1}h \in H \cap K$ so both $k$ and $h$ are common to both $H$ and $K$.
Duckt(ji=-k)e
So I think we can do this
wait
Yeah OK
Ach no this isn't going to work
Let $a_i$ and $b_j$ be coset representatives of $H$ and $K$ in $G$ respectively. Then:
\begin{align*}
G
&= \big(\bigsqcup_{i} a_iH\big) \cap \big(\bigsqcup_{j}b_jK\big) \
&= \bigsqcup_{i, j} a_iH \cap b_jK \
&= \bigsqcup_{\substack{i, j \ b_j^{-1}a_i \in H}} b_j\big(b_j^{-1}a_iH \cap K\big)
\end{align*}
Duckt(ji=-k)e
I can add this b_j^-1a_i \in H condition since otherwise the intersection is zero
and indeed this just becomes:
$= \bigsqcup_{\text{ditto}} b_j(H \cap K)$
Duckt(ji=-k)e
So we need to think about how many of these cosets there are
Ah, wait. This isn't right.
If H is a subgroup of K then my idea up here is wrong
Darn.
I thought I could argue by the presence of the identity but I cannot
Take H = { (1), (12) } and K = { (1), (23) } and G = S3
The intersection of H and K is the identity, so we get [H : H ∩ K] = 2/1 = 2 and [G : K] = 6/2 = 3
I think that suffices as a counterexample
It is not, I am pretty sure
S3 is the smallest nonabelian group
As it works for normal subgroups, this is quite literally the smallest example
Yeah
Lol
Nice
It fails IMMEDIATELY, math really told us "no lil bro, this is NOT it"
And I didn't even have to do any search work
I can just sit back and let the mathcord do its thing
Happy to serve
Is (i) a well posed question?
If O(3) is a subgroup of O(3,1), that means an element of O(3) is in O(3,1)
But an element of O(3) is a 3x3 matrix, while O(3,1) consists of 4x4 matrices
Or are we treating elements of $O(3)$ like block matrices
$$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & \vec{0}^T \ \vec{0} & Q \end{pmatrix}$$
Douglas
whats ur sign convention
Mostly positive
t axis with -1
use selvester
What is that
sylvester law of inertia
What does this have to do with my question?
I'm asking about the validity of this
okay sorry didnt read that
Yes so strictly it’s not a subgroup
However there’s a subgroup of O(3, 1) isomorphic to O(3)
Another way of saying this is that there’s an injective group homomorphism O(3) -> O(3, 1)
The image of this is then this subgroup
If the injective homomorphism is obvious enough then it might as well be a subgroup
Well it’s not a strict subgroup afaik
What is a subobject of X but an object in the skeleton of the category of monomorphisms into X
So what do you actually need to show (ignoring the subtle point about isomorphism)?
Can you assume O(3) is a group in its own right and you only need to show it is contained in O(3,1)?
Or do you need to prove both that O(3) is a group and it is contained in O(3,1)?
pseudo has already said that this question is equivalent to finding an injective group homomorphism from O(3) to O(3,1). I think it's safe to assume at this point that O(3) is a group
Right so it just comes down to showing that O(3) is a subset of O(3,1)?
well no because as you correctly said, O(3,1) as a set only consist of 4x4 matrices and O(3) consists of 3x3 matrices, so it definitely isn't a subset. This is where I agree that the phrasing of this question (which I assume is coming from a physics based course) is a bit misleading. Just read it as "find a subgroup of O(3,1) that is isomorphic to O(3)". I am just repeating what Psuedo has said atp
so the block diagonals diag(1,Q) where Q is in O(3)?
sure that would work
oh yeah thanks!
:3c
what can i say about $a - b^{-1}ab$ if $a,b\in\text{Hom}_{\mathsf{Vect}}(V)$? im trying to prove that for $\mathfrak{sl}(V)$, $[V,V]= V$. my first step would be showing that is indeed a vector space, and i have obtained the following
$$
[u_1, v_1] + [u_2,v_2] = [u_1+u_2,v_1+v_2]-([u_1,v_2]-[v_1,u_2])
$$
$$
[u_1,v_2]-[v_1,u_2]= u_2(v_1-u_2^{-1}v_1u_2)+u_1(v_2-u_1^{-1}v_2u_1)
$$
is this a dead end or could i somehow invoke some conjugacy thing?
esca
of course everything here has trace 0, if thats necessary
also char F = 0 i forgot to mention sorry
i have to use the trace 0 fact, otherwise its not true
I'm not sure what the notation in Sentence 2 means---I'll assume that you're trying to show that $\mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is closed under the Lie bracket, and that you've defined $\mathfrak{sl}(V)$ to be the set of traceless linear operators $f:V\to V$. You've written the Lie bracket as $[f,g]=f(g-f^{-1}gf)$. Note that this exact expression doesn't necessarily exist because $f$ might not be invertible. However, what we \emph{can} do is write [ [f,g]=fg-gf,] the standard way of writing a commutator. Now, showing that $\mathfrak{sl}(V)$ comes down to showing that $tr(fg)=tr(gf)$. And the fact that $\mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is a vector space follows from the linearity of trace
harmacist
@quartz wind
im trying to show that the bracket is surjective, i.e. ${xy - yx: x,y\in V}=V$. but yeah thats a good point that the matrices arent necessarily invertible, i forgot this is the algebra and not the group
esca
thanks
basically the closed under linearity problem reduces to "given $v,u,w,x$, when can we say there exist $s,t$ such that $u_iv_j+w_ix_j=s_it_j$?"
this is via the structure constant formulation of the commutator
esca
Suppose I have a ring homomorphism from C[x,y] to C[t] which is identity over C and maps x to x(t) and y to y(t) and it is given that not both x(t) and y(t) are constant I have to show that the kernel of this map is a principal ideal.
My work :
Suppose that f(x(t) , y(t)) = 0 then since not both the polynomials in t are constant therefore f is 0 at infinitely many points in C^2 and f is not irreducible (in the source ring) then it factors uniquely into irreducibles(upto associates) in the the ring C[x,t] since it is a UFD... now if under the map this goes to 0 then one of the irreducibles goes to 0 since the target ring is also a UFD now I claim that this irreducible polynomial generates the kernel of the map. For this I will use the result that if f and g are elements of C[x,t] then the set of common zeroes of these two polynomial in C^2 are finite unless they have a proper factor in C[x,y].
Now if any other polynomial is 0 under this map and it is not a multiple of our candidate polynomial then it would violate the above mentioned result therefore the kernel is generated by our candidate polynomial.
Can someone please check my work?
Gotcha. If you can use Shoda's theorem, then that leads to a short proof. Otherwise, I'd use the fact that $\mathfrak{sl}n(V)$ has the following basis: Let $E{i,j}$ be the matrix with 1 in the $(i,j)$ entry and 0 everywhere else, and define [H_i:= E_{i,i}-E_{i+1,i+1}.] Then a basis for $\mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is
[{H_i\mid 1\leq i\leq n-1} \cup{E_{i,j}\mid i\neq j}.]
harmacist
thanks, ill try that
.
It sounds good, the zero set any f mapped to zero vanishes on is at least as large as {x(t),y(t)} is what you’re using right?
I like the proof
Say R =k[x,y,z] and I and J are ideals of R. Say g1,…,gs is such that the congruence classes in R/J span the vector space R/J. Now if the classes of g1,…,gs inside R/I span R/I does this imply J contains I? What if gi are instead an ideal basis?
Can someone give example of a finite field extension that is not normal and not seperable
you could compose examples to get an example where neither works. if E / F / K is a tower with E / F is not normal and F / K is not separable then E / K is neither.
since we want separability problems, we need to work in positive char. taking F = F_5(t) and K = F_5(t^5) would be nice. now we need to have a non-normal extension E / F, and we can add a root of the irreducible polynomial X^3 - t. and any other root would be cbrt(1) away, which doesn't lie in F_5.
so F_5(s) / F_5(s^3) / F_5(s^15) works.
me can try
hmm
maybe you just use linear indep of chars?
@rustic crown how
I am blank in this one
hmm maybe this works
so assume φ is the 2-frobenius, and we wanna know if there is an 'a' such that a, φ(a), φ^2(a), ... are a basis
this suggests to look at F_64 as a F_2[x] module
with x acting by φ
if there was such an element a then we get the map F_2[x] --> F_64 sending 1 to a.
since φ^6 = 1, this tells us that x^6-1 is in the kernel and by hypothesis this is surjective.
so we get the map F_2[x]/(x^6-1) -->> F_64.
which must then be an module-iso
maybe this doesn't say much
me brain eepy eepy
Same
@rustic crown OK
Tell me number of elements of Gal(F8 / F2)
Ah, F_2[x]-module
any books for ring theory i can find online?
I only a know commutative algebra one(which learns about commutative rings)
but general ring theory youre finding abt? I dont know
dude lol just search up any textbook name and then "pdf" and then youll find it
if youre new to ring theory dummit and foote is good
chapters 7-9
i just dropped
ive had a breif intro, i read algebra by artin but i wanna get deeper into the subject
commutative ring theory by matsumura is good
intro to commutative algebra by atiyahmacdonald is good but i prefer matsumura a lot more
if you choose to approach commutative algebra I'll give you the warning that it is going to be very dry
starting with ringd and modules
the subject is very heavily motivatived by algebraic geometry, and unless you have an understanding of the big theorems that you're going to prove it's going to be very aimless
yeah you are right , no motivation.
Hello ! Given a semidirect product $N \rtimes_{\phi} H$, I would like to understand how to determine $\phi$ knowing one of the possible sections of the corresponding short exact sequence, and why $\phi$ does not depend on the choice of the section.
UGOBEL
So I had this question that suppose that U and V are algebraic varieties for distinct set of polynomials in the complex polynomial ring in n variables and also that U u V = C^n now I have to comment about the algebraic meaning of this fact.
My approach suppose that f_1 f_2 ...f_n are the polynomials whose variety is U and g_1 g_2 ...g_m are the polynomials whose variety is V then f_ig_j are the polynomials whose variety is U u V now I claim that all the these "product" polynomials are 0 polynomials since if these polynomials are 0 for all pts in C^n then it would imply that they are elements of the kernel of each and every evaluation map from the polynomial ring to C this would imply that each and every maximal ideal of the polynomial ring contain these polynomials=> their intersection contains these polynomials=> these polynomials are contained in the jacobson radical of this polynomial ring => that 1 - xy is a unit in the polynomial ring for x belonging to J(R) and y in R but this not possible unless x is just 0.
So the ideal they generate is the 0 ideal.
Now my question is this the algebraic meaning of the condition in the problem.
If not then what is?
If no then what else is?
Yes
the implicit claim you've made is that the ideal corresponding to UuV is the product of the original ideals
which does not sound right
otherwise your reasoning looks fine
I think I had proven this previously suppose that U is the variety for the polynomials (f1 , f2 ...fn) and V is the variety for (g1 ,g2 ,...gm) then the variety for {f_i g_k} should be U u V since the variety for this set of polynomials contains U u V and suppose that it contains some x belonging to C^n and is not in U or V then this would imply there is a f_i such that it's root is not x and some g_j such that x is not it's root then f_ig_j doesn't have x as it's root therefore it cannot be in U u V.
I mean, you can just take two parallel lines in C^2, say <x-z1> and <x-z2>. then you're claiming that their product is 0?
you've only proved that any element in C[x1, ... , xn] - I(UuV) is not inside I(U)*I(V),
i.e. I(U)*I(V) is inside I(UuV). I don't see how you've shown equality
For anyf_i g_k since U is a subset of the set of roots of f_i and V is the subset of the set of roots of g_k U u V is the subset of the set of roots of f_i g_k.
again it looks like you've only shown inclusion, you've repeated the same argument to tell me that I(U)*I(V) is inside I(UuV)
how are you sure that there isn't some weird polynomial that cannot be written as the sum of f_ig_j's, that also happens to be 0 everywhere on UuV?
Let me clarify my thought process here cuz to me everything looks fine if I not misunderstanding something fundamental
- If U is an algebraic variety then there is a finite set of polynomials whose set of common roots in C^n is U call it (f1,f2...fn) similarly for V to be a variety I have set of polynomials (g1,g2..gn) (Now I don't know if these sets are unique or not)
- To show that UuV is a variety I have to show that there is a finite set of polynomials whose set of common roots is U u V and for that I constructed the set {f_i g_k} I proved that the set of common roots of this set of polynomials is U u V.
I think I get what you are saying now that there could be more polynomials other than these so that U u V is the set of their common roots but this fact had no use for me in proving that UuV is an algebraic variety since the "product" polynomial set does the job
you have shown that it is a variety, that's correct, but we do talk about "the" ideal that corresponds to a particular variety
because if I is an ideal that vanishes on U, then any ideal inside I also vanishes on U
so we usually talk about the biggest ideal
and that's what I've been talking about
let me go over your proof and look at it again
and see if it does the job

