#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 328 of 1
oh we are getting to symmetric groups soon
i know thats essentially the heart of abstract algebra
Sounds right
Ah wait that’s just outer automorphisms
To have no automorphisms at all you have to be Abelian
man ive been kinda struggling with this class so far but this stuff is so cool
So then probably you do have to be Z/2
Oh yeah lol
Wait Aut(S_n) is usually S_n
Lol
What about if you’re infinite abelian tho
I guess also like
Non-finitely generated
I think you still have the problem of inversion
x \to x^-1
So you have to be all 2 torsion
Yup
Then i think it’s easy to see you can only be Z/2
wait
Then vector space swap basis elements
theres something to do with counting the number of proper divisors that has to do with having a trivial automorphism group i think
Nice, I think you just reproduced the proof here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/8379/g2-implies-g-has-non-trivial-automorphism
i think its just that if the order of a group equals the number of proper divisors of its order then its automorphism group is trivial
maybe not even proper
ah i see
If anything this result just sounds like it can tell you something that is not possible for most groups
so no number greater than two is equal to the number of its divisors
yeah
i would imagine for n > 2 that its always less
The implicit assumption is that it’s finitely generated, no?
Because yall just wrote out the exact same thought process I had
It’s abelian because of conjugation
no this argument has nothing to do with being finitely generated
And then inversion has to be trivial so everything is order 2
So it’s a vector space over F_2
Then you swap basis elements
Mmmh okay
oh btw, to get in A in the algebra class im taking, you have to do some sort of project on a topic related to abstract algebra, and im wondering if you all know anything cool that could reasonably be covered in a first course
be presented rather
Only group theory?
i think rings are at the very end
but i think groups are the most reasonable
if we cover enough about rings i might be inclined to do smth about galois theory
since i know the basic idea of the fundamental theorem of galois theory
Maybe you can talk about Lie groups or something
If you have the background to do so
You have the problem of needing to get people on board with what a manifold is but like
You could talk about group actions and quotients of them for topological spaves
This is pretty cool because it’s a pretty central topic in algebra, and being able to kind of nicely do that in topology using these algebraic gadgets is nice
And also very useful in practice
oh yeah
i mean i dont know much about diffgeo
You don’t really need to know much I think
And depending on what “presentation” means
You don’t need to explain why something works
Like to say “projective space is obtained by quotienting K^n+1 \{0} by an action of K*”
Where K is R or C
And then maybe say why quotients in topology can be whack, like uhhh
Ping pong lemma, banach tarski paradox
A manifold locally needs to look like R^n, but once you do a quotient this can easily be broken
But hey, in this nice situation it still looks like R^n
You could also talk about homology very very vaguely, but this again requires some background on your end
But I think even the question of
“Take a donut and a donut with two holes, these are clearly different with our eyes, but how can we make this precise?”
Well you can associate something called homology which spits out groups and in one case you get Z and in the other you get Z^2 or whatever
Or you could talk about stuff that has nothing to do with topology
Since its an algebra class
yeah but like
algebraic topology is super cool
I just find it hard to think about a topic to present on that isn’t Galois theory or rep theory lol
Unless you want to be like “hey we didn’t talk about semi direct products” or something
what about the jordan-holder program and composition series?
i think it stays within the realm of group theory. i also thought it was cool to see for the first time
one cool purely group theoretic theorem that has a very beautiful proof which uses only basic group theory (but in a fiendishly clever way) is the following
if G is finite and Z(G) = 1 then the chain of finite groups Aut(Aut(…(Aut(G)))…) eventually stabilizes
an easier version is that if G is simple nonabelian then Aut(Aut(G)) = G
oh that is pretty cool
if Z(G) isnt trivial then does that chain eventually just become isomorphic to Z(G)?
nothing is really motivating that claim just a guess
The chain doesn’t become trivial it just stabilizes
So like at some point applying Aut n times is the same as applying it n+1 times
I think if the center is nontrivial the result can fail
Though I don’t see how right now
oh i see
Krull-Schmidt theorem and Jordan-Hölder are nice classification type theorems gir finite groups
Unipotent matrices is maximal subgroup of invertible upper triangular matrices
Not maximal. But it is a subgroup
If I allow to vary first diagonal entry to be non zero real then , it contains unipotent subgroup
For example
i maybe wrong can you tell me the intermediate subgroup
What do you mean? You already gave one example, do you just want more?
okay thanks one is enough for now.
do you know an example?
There is a conjecture that it will at least always fall into a loop
There are two notions of "stabilizes". If you ask that the inner homomorphism G-->Aut(G) be an isomorphism at some level, then G=D_8 never stabilizes. However, Aut(D_8) is abstractly isomorphic to D_8. So the notion of "stabilizes" that I'm asking for is whether G is abstractly isomorphic to Aut(G) at some level
I doubt that being the case; I think there must be a group where it's periodic
is this true? People have asked whether this is the case, but is there any evidence supporting this conjecture?
it seems to be unkown
We know basically nothing about automorphism towers
Besides theorems about centerless groups
I have to show that if G is a group of odd order and H is a normal subgroup of order 5, then H \subset Z(G).
Any hint?
I know if I can show that any non-identity element of H in Z(G), then we are done.
But I don't know where I have to use the hypothesis that G has odd order
well please check it We have a map from G to aut(H) taking an element g to an conjugation map by g , check if this is surjective and order of aut(H) is 4 so 4 divides |G| which cant happen similarly if image is of order 2 , 2 will divide |G| now remaining is trivial map hence which means conjugation by any element fixes H, implies for any h in H and g in G ,ghg^-1=h or in other words every element of h commutes with any element of G , so H is subset of Z(G)
Great, how did you come up with this idea?
I am dealing with group actions nowadays, similar things are in dummit foote group actions chapter .
I see, can I DM you?
If two elements alpha and beta have the same minimal polynomial over a field K, is K(alpha) isomorphic to K(beta)?
say like $i\sqrt[4]{5}$ and $\sqrt[4]{5}$ over $\mathbb{Q}$
Tiessie
Yes, they would both be isomorphic to K[x]/(p(x)) where p(x) is the min poly of alpha and beta
thanks thats what I thought as well
I felt like the fields in the example I gave would be very different but I guess not
Interesting
is this also true if H has order p for an odd prime p?
In that case p-1 can have odd factor
Oops, right, thanks 
I guess it's kinda confusing that Q(5^(1/4)) is a subset of R while Q(i5^(1/4)) isn't, but they actually are isomorphic, they're just embedded in C differently
r u doing galois theory recently
Yep, did it this spring! One of the most fun courses I have done so far 
undergrad or grad
undergrad
nice ,
So not too difficult, we followed Bhattacharya for the most part
my prof made that difficult
asking to calculate lattice structure
You are doing a PhD?
yes, in phd we have to do a freshman course to recall everything
whole algebra were covered
You mean like the lattice of subfields?
hmm
And your research area?
May I get to know which university you are in?
ergodic theory
no

it must be private , otherwise other people from my department are also here they will recognize me
You can tell me in my DM, if you want
let it be bro, it wont affect anything
my wife checks everything so i got instructed to keep everything hidden
from where u r getting these problems
Gallian
okay nice
21, 22, How can we do this without using binomial, maybe induction will help, but how can I prove that (1+p)^p^(n-2) ≠ 1 mod p^n?
binomial is best way, for 21
But it computational
You can also yeah just do induction and it follows nicely
But, does induction works if I want to prove that (1+p)^p^(n-2) ≠ 1 mod p^n ?
That’s the easy part
(1 + p)^{p^{n-3}} is not 1 mod p^{n-1} by inductive hypothesis, so then if you multiply by (1 + p)…
i did it in 1 line in mind
But when you have to write it cannot be written in one line, right?
rest terms getting 0 module so if i need to write i need two lines
But we have to show that the rest terms are getting zero
thats easy part for u, p^{n-1}(p^{n-1}-1)/2 * p is zero mod p^n as 2 divides p^{n-1}-1
similarly work with rest
Yes I know, I am struggling with other terms
binomial coefficient is an integer , use this
also use p is prime
Sorry, I don't get it how it helps me by multiple by (1+p)
Well you can split it into a sum of two terms
is this from D&F?
Yes
If f: A --> B is a surjective ring homomorphism and p is a prime ideal of A, is f(p) a prime ideal of B
I got yes but for some reason it seems wrong
Wait nvm
My logic was wrong
I assume you mean f(p)
I think
and not necessarily
Yeah I meant f(p)
for instance p = (x^2 + 1) in Q[x] = A mapping to B = Q[x]/x^2
but it is true if p contains the kernel or something
for trivial reasons
I mean the condition of f(p) being prime is literally that <p, ker(f)> is prime
by definition
no worries
I have to prove that D_2n / < r^k > isomorphic to D_2k, where k divides n, so I am trying to show r<r^k> has order k in D_2k/< r^k>, so it is clear that order of r<r^k> divides k
Find the correct generators
I think r<r^k>, s<r^k> will be the generators
And if r<r^k> has order m, then m divides k, so m = kx, for some x in N, so it implies m has to be k
So r<r^k> has order k
Yes you just have to choose $\bar{r}$ and $\bar{s}$
UGOBEL
Alternatively, by the first isomorphism theorem, there is a surjective homomorphism D_2n -> D_2k defined by r^{x} -> r^{x mod k}, s -> s whose kernel is <r^k>
k divides n ensures that this is map exists
Is there an example of a ring (commutative, with multiplicative identity) where:\
1)there is an element without unique factorization and factorization does not terminate\
2)there is an element with unique factorization but factorization does not terminate\
Are both of these possible? Im aware of examples with non terminating factorization, like the monoid algebra $\mathbb{F}2[M]$ where $M ={x \in \bR | x \geq 1}$ . Here we have for any nontrivial non-unit element $n$, the following $$n = \sum{m\in M}c_m\cdot m$$ where $c_m=0$ almost always and $c_m=1$ for atleast one $m\in M, m\neq 1$. note that $$\left(\sum_{m\in M} c_m\sqrt{m}\right)^2$$ is a proper factorization for $n$. I am trying to see if factorization is unique or not here. I suppose for 1), the answer would be yes, and the same ring is an example (by picking two infinite subsets $A,B$ with $\prod_{a\in A} a = \prod_{b\in B}b$ but $A\neq B$)
Herzog
If both arent possible in same ring, what about a ring where 2) occurs?
I suppose these "infinite products" make sense only in some rings(those with topologies), so my question is restricted to those
trying to prove that distinct field automorphisms (over lets say F) are F-linearly independent (dedekind's lemma i think). working with the case of two, it's pretty simple. if they're linearly dependent, one is a scalar multiple of the other, but they have to fix 1, so if sigma2=ksigma1, then 1=k. but i'm struggling to find what goes wrong if we take
sigma3=c1sigma1+c2sigma2
(i.e. proof by contradiction) like i'm trying to show that sigma3 can't be "distinct". i'm not sure what that precisely means in this context. would that be to show that sigma3=sigma1 or sigma3=sigma2? just want to make sure i know what i'm trying to show i don't really need a hint beyond that
by symmetry, it shouldnt really matter if you show that sigma3 is equal to sigma 1 or 2
but I'm not exactly sure that this is the right approach
i'm more just trying to understand what this actually means. like is it going to be one of the others (sigma1 or sigma2) or something else (what does distinct mean in this context)? why do we care about linear combinations of automorphisms which i think shouldn't usually result in another automorphisms? or is that kind of the point? that this shows that field automorphism linear combinations can't result in a new distinct automorphism?
i guess that one of the ci's has to be 1 and the others need to be 0, if sigma_n=sum c_i sigma_i
but, then again, why do we care that linear combinations can't lead to new automorphisms? idk it just sort of seems to come out of nowhere and i'm not sure what the goal or use of this result it, beyond just being cool.
this was taught to me as an intermediate result for proving the existence and uniqueness of canonical forms
For instance, suppose that E/F is a finite Galois extension such that Gal(E/F) is cyclically generated by T. Let the order of T be n.
Then the set {id, T, T^2,.. T^n-1} is F-linearly independent. Hence there exists an x in E such that {x, T(x), T^2(x), ..., T^n-1(x)} is an F-basis for E, and so by change of basis we get that the matrix representing T is similar to a matrix in rational canonical form
hm interesting
We start off with a unital ring $S$ and a unital subring $R$ where both share the same identity.
Let $N$ be an $R$-Module. It is generally not possible to make $N$ an $S$-Module, so instead we try to embed $N$ as an $R$-submodule of some $S$-module or equivalently to find an injective $R$-module homomorphism between $N$ and an $S$-Module. It turns out this is also not generally possible but below gives a "best choice" of the $S$-module where best means an injective $R$-module homomorphism is possible.
We consider the free abelian group with the basis $S \times N$. For this group to satisfy the $S$-module axioms as well as be compatible with the $R$-Module on $N$, we quotient out by the minimal relations. This quotient group is called the tensor product $S \otimes_R N$. We then somehow define the action of $S$ on the tensor product making it an $S$-module.
Finally, there is a natural way to define an $R$-module homomorphism from $N$ into $S \otimes_R N$. We note that this homomorphism is not necessarily injective but is the best choice since we quotiented out only minimal relations to construct the tensor product earlier.
somethingwrong
I am trying to understand the basic motivation/construction of the tensor product for modules(just for extending scalars) given in dummit and Foote chapter 10. Does this sound right?
Looks right to me. Not sure it should be considered the motivation for tensor products, but it's certainly one motivation.
other than this and making two modules multiplicatively compatible, what would you say a good motivation for the tensor product?
Okay thanks alot for checking
Yes wanted to ask that too, is there another preferred way to motivate the tensor product? I will try to look at this multiplicatively compatible thing too
I'm not immediately sure; it is not my area of core expertise. It's more that tensor products of rings do so many different things at once that it would surprise me to have only one motivation for modules. (For example, the usual "representation of bilinear maps" motivation for tensor products of vector spaces ought to apply to the module case too, as far as I can see).
loosely what i mean by this is that the tensor product of two R-modules can be thought of as the smallest module structure where you can multiply two module elements as if they were elements of a ring. these multiplication relations are exactly the relations that you quotient out by to obtain the tensor product
i dont think i have enough familiarity with them to give better exposition
To give my two cents, the tensor product of two modules is the largest module that there can still exist a surjective bilinear map onto it
So it’s the largest thing the two modules can “agree” on, in some sense
Being adjoint to the hom functor is pretty important, the adjunction -(x)M, Hom(M, -) between ModR and ModEnd(M) comes up a few places (see Morita theory or tilting theory).
Any functor ModR -> ModS that is right exact and preserves coproducts is given by tensor product by a bimodule. So it can help to understand such functors by studying the modules (see for example Tame-Wild dichotomy).
The tensor product has a nice universal property classifying multilinear maps, which is very useful for constructing multilinear structures (see the tensor algebra, exterior algebra, symmetric algebra).
The tensor product and Tor can be used to measure torsion.
Localization is given by a tensor product (though this might fall under extension of scalars).
how localization is given by tensor product
we modded out the equivalence relation
S^-1 M = S^-1R (x) M
Couldn't find an attached image in the last 10 messages.
Couldn't find an attached image in the last 10 messages.
ok so the question 5 asks for which n in the natural numbers exccluding 0 and 1 is the following statement true
a,b were pretty easy
i did c and i believe that it isnt true for any n becayse 2z is always even thus meaning u will only be able to get the even/uneven numbers depending on if your n is even or uneven
but on d im completely stuck idk what to do
i tried for a few numbers and i believe it is true for all n that have gcd(n,3)=1
but well idk how to proof it
Let $f : \mbb Z/n \rightarrow \mbb Z/n$ with $f([z]) = [2z]$. Then, $\forall a \in \mbb Z/n, \exists z \in \mbb Z : a = [2z]$ iff $f$ is surjective
UGOBEL
so u say i gotta define a function?
i.e. $f \in Aut(\mbb Z)$, so iff $f([1]) = [2] \in \mbb Z/n^{\times}$, and so $pcd(2,n) = 1$
wait am i right on c that it isnt true for any n?
UGOBEL
ok here u lost me
(d) is asking for which n is the group homomorphism Z/nZ —> Z/nZ taking [z] to [3z] surjective
the hint of the function helped tho im doing something now
Aut(Z/n)*
ok i think i did it
i proved that f: Z_n to Z_n is a surjective function
if n isnt a multiple of three
thanks!!
👌
I guess f(k) = 3k
No, c) is true for odd n
Fellow Nederlander
oh yeah you are right well the oproof is pretty much the same tho
hi
I wrote it 😵
ITS FINE
😓
Are vector spaces a way to show how rings (V,+,∙) works geometrically?
Could you expand on this? Vector spaces aren’t usually rings
I guess a you can interpret a vector space as how fields "work geometrically", in that it's something acted upon by a field.
Though it feels like stretching the use of the word "geometrically".
I mean mathematicians stretch the word “geometry” all the time right
Look at AG
There are different levels of stretch though
AG seems like a much further stretch to me
Well, AG actually involves topology and smoothness and geometric ideas.
Just saying vector spaces are geometric without any justification seems like a big stretch.
Well, a 1D vector space is more than enough to capture the geometric behaviour of a field , but a 1D v.s over a field is just the field, so like, i think trying to interpret it that way is not really the way to go
If you already have some idea of geometry in your field, and then you just slap that onto a 1d space, then the space hasn't really done anything
To be fair I know very little about it but
It’s all algebra
Which isn’t exactly known for having pictures
Not known for having pictures?
As I'm wondering why vector spaces can be defined only by those 8 axioms, which I think will be useful to connect it to groups stuff(? , I haven't start learning groups' properties, though I was interested about it, hope I'm not presenting like a dumb.
Yeah it’s symbol-pushing right
I mean if ur in high school that's true
You can argue that all of math is symbol pushing if you want I guess
I’m not tho
I’m talking about algebra specifically
Then I have no idea what you're talking about
Algebra
Yeah, but as I recall you're definition of algebra is something close to "math I don't like" right?
No…?
I just remember you have this rant about how category theory can't be algebra because you like category theory and don't like algebra.
That’s part of it sure
If they really were the same then I’d expect to like them the same amount
If x = y then f(x) = f(y)
So if f(x) is not f(y) I can conclude x is not y
algebraist
some relations can do that but not mappings
What do you mean?
I remember there are relations that take one input to two output but they're not mapping and functions, maybe I mixed up
Here f is a function, apologies if that’s unclear
anyways, I know what you mean by that
Sure, but the conclusion that you don't like algebra would hinge on the assumption that category theory isn't algebra.
Anyway, I don't really care how were categorizing the different fields or what counts as geometric or not.
The main point was just figuring out what living meant I guess. Which I'm not sure I'm closer to...
I mean I think my argument is very clear
If x is category theory and y is algebra
You’re claiming x = y or something to that effect
This would imply Like(x) = Like(y)
But that’s false
Hence x is not y
I did not use the assumption that x is not y in deriving this
or maybe could anyone introduce this subject to me, as I want to learn it rapidly and deeper later.
You used two unstated assumptions here, namely Like(x) and NotLike(y)
Yes but that’s my own subjective experience
It’d be pretty presumptuous for you to argue you know that better than me, don’t you think?
this
Well, if you don't like super Mario, but you do like legend of Zelda. Then you claim to not like video games, people will find that weird. I don't think that would be presumptuous
Then please do enlighten me with your mind-reading powers
As I want to derive these axioms of vector spaces
Then you go on to argue that Zelda can't be a video game because you like it
I’m sure logically convincing me that I like algebra will work out great
I mean it's not an argument about what you like, just what algebra is
Anyway, we've had this discussion before, so no point in doing it again
Yet for some reason you always take issue with me saying I don’t like algebra
As if I can’t have my preferences in peace
Somehow it’s morally wrong to dislike algebra or something
sorry for saying that, but could anyone answer me: Why the group-like structure of those 8 axioms can expaned to a vector space uniquely?
or it is not relevant to this subject?
It’s hard to give a proper answer because in a sense these 8 axioms define what it means to be a vector space
I have no problem with anyone disliking algebra, so then you have misunderstood
In the sense that, at least as far as I’m aware, there’s no separate definition of vector space which these 8 axioms are meant to capture
Sure sure, it’s always me who’s misunderstanding
Whether it’s you or my own thoughts
CHILL, though I can tell you two are about the end of 'discussion'
No one is claiming you're misunderstanding you're thoughts.
Just that you're defining "algebra" differently than other people.
That's it, that's the only claim being made against you.
Then why on earth do you care so much about that
I want to derive them, like, why I don't need more axioms, or why all other properties are non-trivial (means they can be derived by other axioms)
What we call algebra is a social construct anyway
Why be so insistently prescriptivist about what is or isn’t algebra
hey bro, answer me first
I think studying linear maps is a good motivation for a lot of them?
I don't care. That just was the topic of discussion right now.
What does geometry mean vs what does algebra mean
also if you’re referring to me then I’m a sis :)
Lol, you're not entitled to an answer. There's nothing really to answer, a vector space is defined by those axioms, that's it. If you had different axioms, it wouldn't be a vector space
I mean, some geometrical properties can be translate into linear algebra, and why we can ensure that we have "enough" axioms
I can argue from a logic point of view.
We have some collection of things we call "vector spaces". We make an educated guess at what axioms should define that collection, and we can show (albeit using some advanced math at times) that the only objects satisfying these axioms must be these things we call vector spaces
To be fair there’s an argument to be made that there aren’t enough axioms
E.g. nothing about continuity enters the picture
But we can still give a name to whatever objects satisfy those 8 axioms
no Godel's stuffs pls
And currently we call them vector spaces
As far as I’m aware this is unrelated to Gödel stuff
There's nothing inherently special about these axioms, they just happen to work, and are nice to work with
There are ways to repackage these axioms in a nicer way
I mean, there must be a reason to define things
For example, a vector space is a field acting on an abelian group
Indeed but this reason isn’t necessarily understandable
Sometimes it’s just luck
We noticed that these were the properties of vector spaces we used, so we abstracted them
Sometimes it’s complicated social forces
Sometimes it’s because the definition leads to very interesting math later on
but why we choose those axioms, and not others?
Because they work
I understand what you mean
And they are nice to work with
Like there definitely is a reason for every math definition
It’s just that mathematicians are not in the habit of writing these reasons down
but the proper definition of vector spaces seems to be appear later than some linear algebra stuffs
means those axioms were chosen to followed naturally by not disturbing properties derived before or later.
the point of the definition of a vector space is to abstract away a lot of theorems from linear algebra and apply them to a whole range of situations.
Yeah the history of math is very messy
Often definitions come last historically
Whereas they usually come first pedagogically
but something like determinants did have an elegant derive of definition.
and I believe everything has one
You need to understand that there is no inherent reason we chose "these axioms specifically", because they are not more special then any other set of axioms defining vector spaces
Yes but even if the reason is elegant, it might not get written down
Since it’s not part of the proof, in a sense it’s an inefficiency
At least to a lot of mathematicians
what is not elegant about vector spaces
Wdym
time isn't a big problem anyways
This is more about paper length
everything in math is elegant
You can put motivation for your definitions
But you can also just, like
Not bother
And you get a shorter paper
@solid prawn i don't understand what you're asking
this
yeah I don't understand this
the concept could have more or fewer axioms or different axioms
why we chose those 8 axioms
but it's obviously a useful concept no matter how you choose to express it
because they look pretty simple and they work
That's what I've been saying qwq
like there is a universal style people have agreed upon for defining algebraic structures, and these axioms are very much in that style
compare with the axioms for a ring or a module
I'm trying to derive it, not writing a poem to express how great they are
I guess if you look at the development of linear algebra, it's starts with linear equations in R^n. So R^n is like the model vector space.
Then you get natural subspaces like kernels and images, and you can apply the same theory to things like solutions to linear differential equations.
Then you set up the minimal axioms needed to prove your theorems, and boom you got a mathematical theory
if you already understand what you're trying to express, then you can sometimes easily write down axioms for it
or I'm trying to explain why thry are
for example, why determinant looks like that, which looks terrible for beginners
so like Jagr says the basic point is people tried to find the minimal list of axioms that make classical linear algebra over R^n or C^n work
and we can derive it from n-volumes
so they could apply it to lots of superficially unfamiliar situations like solving differential equations etc.
that's one choice of derivation
why are they the minimum, say?
Well a basic part of linear algebra is that you need to be able to take linear combinations
that's actually the main thing
how do I proof this set of axioms are unique, any other set of axioms are equivalence to this?
They aren't unique
there isn't ever going to be a unique set of axioms for a desired object
you have to decide what you want first
then you can show that your axioms do produce an object compatible with that
Any other set of axioms defining vector spaces is equivalent to the usual chosen set of axioms because.. that's how equivalence works
or in general, how to determine is there enough axioms for an object, to fix its meaning?
axioms are just sentences
It might depend what you mean by "fix its meaning"
you could have many sentences that describe the same set of mathematical objects uniquely
If you mean "we have a class K of objects and we want to determine if some set of axioms T define K" then that's, kind of very hard
the least amount of axioms, also
That's also hard
there is no such thing as the least amount of axioms
you could always combine 10000 axioms into one extremely long formula
Try this for sets lol
you are not thinking clearly
yes but I mean the minimum things it need to follow
Not sure I follow
I was talking in the sense of model theory / universal algebra
I was just referring how hard it was to land on the current axioms for set theory
not that hard actually, we just have to find the logic statement that expressed the whole thing
Sometimes it really feels like throwing things at the wall with educated guess and removing redundancy
Nothing is hard, we just have to do it. Problem solved
so, are we finally reaching the gate "Understanding the thing I want to ask"?
you need to sit down and give a rigorous treatment of what you are imagining. I think you took the determinant, had one definition (in terms of permutations or something) that you didn't like. Then someone told you some other definition (the intuitive concept of oriented n-volume) which you did like, they made an attempt to mathematically formalize the properties an "oriented n-volume" should satisfy, and they showed your permutation definition was recovered from that. You are now trying to do the same with vector spaces except you're not willing to actually do the work of making a rigorous claim about what the object (here vector spaces) "should look like"
And then you have to prove that anything satisfying those axioms is actually in your class
And first you have to actually find those axioms
yes, the process is just like prooving they are equivalence definitions
Often you want those axioms to be of a certain form (equations or something), as that yields certain properties
Sometimes the class isn't even defineable using axioms
that's just not how most definitions work
most/many definitions are trying to abstract away nice properties of some specific class of examples
vector spaces are like this
and I'm trying to explain why they look like this, in simple ways
the important exercise is to go back and make sure that R^n or C^n actually satisfies these axioms, and that the basic theory of linear algebra still works with only these axioms
that's like saying "i'm trying to explain why this painting looks like this"
well the person who invented it choose for it to look that way because they thought it was beautiful and simple
and because it successfully abstracts the key properties I mentioned above
yes, although I know it's a dumb action
i.e. it gives a framework in which linear combinations make sense
just explain what the painter is thinking
they were thinking this
in order to understand the painting
there you go
furthermore, how beautiful and simple it is.
I think the first one and arguably the second one are subjective qualities
which is part of what you're running into here
Sometimes the painter was just thinking "this looks right", and all the subsequent theorizing is not about reading the painter's mind but about figuring out why that particular thing looked right.
Hello I have that a soluble group is simple iff it is cyclic of prime order. But I claim the group {e} is a contradiction to this?
Might either be a mistake or buried somewhere in the definitions of soluble and simple
soluable group : $\exist s \geq 1 : G^{(s)} = {e}$ \newline
simple group : $H \triangleleft G \Rightarrow H = {e}$ or $H = G$ \newline
But for every $k \geq 0$, $G^{(k)} \triangleleft G$, so $G$ is both soluble and simple if $G^{(s)} = G^1 = {e} \Rightarrow G$ is abelian etc...
UGOBEL
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I thought e is usually not called simple
At least to me
Lol another potato... woah
But yeah this will probably be their convention
how is the symmetry operation defined in the dihedral group? do i pick one arbitrary line of symmetry and persist with it throughout all the rotation and flipping operations?
Thanks I missed it in the def
im pretty sure if u rlly wanna, you can define the dihedral group without any reference to actual geometry
using generators
similarly to how we can define e^x using a power series instead of naive definitions
can someone tell me if i got this right? say we're looking at the nth roots of unity in a field of characteristic p.
if n=kp^m (where (n,k)=1), then X^n-1=(x^k-1)^(p^m). so the nth roots of unity are just kth roots of unity. and so there's no primitive nth root of unity, but there are primitive kth roots of unity (if k is not 1, or maybe 1 counts as a primitive 1th root of unity idk) and any kth root of unity will also be an nth root of unity?
I think yes, any kth root of unity will be the nth root of unity, say x is the kth root of unity that means x^k = 1 implies x^n = 1, right?
usually we do r^a s^b or something. technically, you don't have to pick a specific one. like r could be clockwise or counterclockwise (as long as it has the right order). and s can be a reflection across any arbitrary line of symmetry. it's a cool geometric fact that you can get ANY other reflection over some line of symmetry via r^a s for some a. that is, any reflection can be obtained by whatever starting reflection you chose, and then rotating it some number of times.
so, yeah, we usually just say <r,s:r^n=e, s^2=e> or something
yeah just raise both sides to the p^m power cool
Yes
I'm not entirely sure what you're asking, but the dihedral group can be defined as the symmetry group of a regular n-gon.
Each line of symmetry will give you a reflection.
yeah so i was asking about the line of symmetry of s in the generator, whether i am just picking an arbitrary line at the start and generating the rest of the group using s corresponding to the same line of symmetry or not.
for example if i had an equilateral triangle line this
A
B C
and my LOS passes through A and midpoint of BC. then after performing a rotation the triangle now looks
B
C A
now my LOS is passing through B and the midpoint of CA right?
yes you pick an arbitrary one, and the rest of the reflections can be achieved through composing it with some number of rotations.
heres how my confusion arose: i read somewhere that traditionally the LOS is the one passing through a specific vertex and the center of the polygon. i assumed this to remain invariant even after rotations and so initially my LOS rotation along with my rotations. i found i couldnt verify the basic relations this way.
if you pick s to be the one that flips B and C but fixes A in your example, then the one which flips A and B and fixes C is just sr. the first rotation you did, and then the same reflection (flipping the bottom two nodes) gives
B
A C
if i understand what you're saying correctly (idk if i am) then you do need to keep the same exact line of symmetry (i.e. the reflection you use) the whole time. imo it's simpler to think of the dihedral group as being a composition of just one reflection and just one rotation (i mean you don't have to, but i find that easier to keep in my head). i kind of struggle with the shape manipulation in my head, personally, so an algebraic definition in r and s is easier fo rme.
yes you understood it right, thanks
a good way to think about it is as a permutation of the vertices of a polygon and how you work with products of permutations
is it two that if two groups are isomorphic then they have the same number of generators of the same order?
i know the converse doesnt hold
it makes sense in my head that this is true but im not sure if theres a strange counterexample
Consider the ring ( A = \mathbb{Z}[i] ).
\begin{itemize}
\item[(a)] Prove that ( (2 - i) ) is an ideal of ( A ).
\item[(b)] Prove that ( A/I ) is a commutative field with 5 elements.
\end{itemize}
\textit{How could I begin with b)? I don't even know what I'm looking for or how to start.}
Aguacate
every finite integral domain is a field
so prove (2-i) is prime and the quotient only has 5 elements

youre annoying lol
You could try constructing an isomorphism from A/I to Z/5Z
@echo vine
the thing is I don't really understand how A/I even works
Yes, isomorphisms preserve order of the elements
Its like Zn but with Z[i] right?
or sorry I think FIT is easier here
I don't know what that is
I'm not sure what you mean? I mean, you could certainly construct differing generating sets for the same group so in that sense, no. But if you have an isomorphism φ:G->H and (S) is a generating set of G then φ(S) is a generating set of H, so
Isomorphisms preserve anything that isn't the precise elements
^
So order, generating sets, minimal generating sets, etc.
You can see this abstractly as isomorphisms preserving any (possibly infinitary) proposition obtained from equations in the language of groups
uhh if it helps, for any equiv class [a+bi], we have a^2+b^2 = (a-bi)(a+bi), so [a+bi] = [a^2+b^2] and every class has an integer representative. Then note 5 = (2+i)(2-i) so [5] = [2-i] = [0], so this is like ur sign to just think of it as Z mod 5 (but u already have this since its the unique finite field of 5 elements)
im not sure if thats wym
hmmm
useful way to think about this yes
What does the fact that a^2+b^2 = (a-bi)(a+bi) have to do with the rest? Or with the class
I'm sorry this subject is very new to me and I dont understand a lot yet
What doesn't fit there is stuff like orderability, but I am sure you can just add a relation to your signature to fix that
Sorry, I was going about it wrong. This should help
Note that (a+bi) - (a+2b) = bi - 2b = -b(2-i), so [a+bi] = [a+2b]. You can then use this to construct ur surjection
im just trying to explain how "A/I works" and like how you'd think of it being Z/5Z. We have 5 as a multiple of (2-i) as above, so 5 is 0. Since 2-i is 0, 2 is i, so i^2 = -1 is 4, do you kinda see
I kind of see this
I don't really understand how I can build the surjection from this though. Thank you for all your help yet but I think im missing something important
Think about how you can construct a map from Z[i] to Z/5Z that "enforces" this relation
Basically the answer: || Let ur map be [a+bi] -> [a+2b], and verify that (2-i) is the kernel ||
apparently we can assume that the r_i's are prime here, but i'm not sure why? say we have like a_1=2^(1/6), then a_1^6 is in Q. is the idea like. we can instead choose a_1=2^1/2, and then a_2=2^1/6? then a_2^3 is in K1=K(a_1)=Q(2^1/2)?
I see
I had to prove that Z under addition isn't isomorphic to Q under addition
I ended up just showing that Q isn't cyclic but I was wanting to show that Q is generated by more than two elements
Anybody know how to solve this in here
I’m in need of a help is a linear algebra problem
can you just post a screenshot
Gotcha u
This is just a little bit of the work that got to be done
Yeah, that sounds correct 👍
Uh stupid question but if R and S are commutative rings are the prime ideals of R x S of the form p_1 x p_2, with p_1 and p_2 prime ideals of R and S respectively
R x S / I x J ≈ R/I x S/J which is an integral domain if and only if either I=R or J=S, and the other is prime
So the answer is not in general right, because prime ideals are proper
I guess that makes sense, we could have R x J be a prime ideal since it could be proper
but R wouldn't be a prime ideal of R since it's the whole ring
Just not ever, as prime ideals by definition aren't the whole ring :3
Wait wdym, aren't cartesian products of prime ideals still prime?
I just explained why not
The product of two integral domains is never an integral domain
oh something like (1, 0)(0, 1) = (0, 0) right
Yup
thank you!
So on cyclotomic field, the ring of integers is R = Z[zeta].
Considering identification Z^n = Z[zeta], which operations will permute it?
For simplicity, let's assume n is power of two
Also, you can think of a map R^n -> R^n as Z^(n * n) -> Z^(n * n)
How could I express the transpose map in terms of R?
This should be trivial but I dunno how to simplify this
One key property Q has that Z does not have is that it's divisible.
Meaning for every x in Q, and positive integer n there is a y in Q with x = ny (repeated addition of y n times).
It might be easier to think in terms of a specific isomorphism. Like say f:Z -> Q was an isomorphism. Then we can define x to be f(1)/2. What could then f^-1(x) be?
If you want to show Q is generated by more than two elements then just take a generating set Q
So assuming zeta is prime-root of unity, and your basis is 1, zeta, zeta^2, ... Then multiplication by zeta would permute the basis.
In general I'm not sure that you can find a basis where permuting them corresponds to something particularly natural.
As for your second question I'm not sure what "express in terms of R" should mean necessarily. I guess you can do some fourier transform trick to extract the coefficients of the matrix and do something from there...
Oh, Fourier transform?
Hm, can one express arbitrary permutation of Z^n in terms of R = R[zeta]?
Well, I'm still not sure what "in terms of" should mean. But I'm guessing the answer is that you can't
By "in terms of R", I mean using arithmetic operations in R.
Then I'm leaning harder towards no
hilarious pattern
Very dumb question, but there's the usual theorem that R[x]/f(x) --> R^d sending a polynomial in R[x] to its remainder by division with f(x) is an isomorphism of abelian groups.
Does this generalize to polynomial rings in multiple variables nicely? For example, let's say R[x,y]/(x^l + 1, y^m + 1). I'd like to say there's an iso to R^(lm) and it seems plausible since the x^i y^j monomials form a basis, but is there an easy set of quotient ring manipulations I can do to show this?
as long as all the leading terms of the generating polynomials are units. this is probably not a necessary condition though
I guess there's the isomorphism that R/I (x)_R R/J = R/(I+J).
But R = F_2[x,y] here, so idk how much that helps me
over a field it's true
if the base ring is a field then polynomial division always terminates
This isomorphism is true for any commutative ring due to the right-exactness of tensor product
oh, that's the tesnor product
I misread it, yeah
but quotients of polynomial rings over fields are always nice
Ah, were you thinking of direct sum?
So you're saying that F_2[x,y]/(f(x)) (+) F_2[x,y]/(g(y)) = F_2[x,y]/(f(x), g(y))?
Is there a simple proof of this? In my case, f(x) and g(x) are monic
wait, that doesn't look right, let me think
Yeah, it doesn't seem right to me either
I feel like it should be more like F_2^(l*m) rather than F_2^(l+m)
well the first one is an infinite dimensional vector space, only the latter is F_2^(lm)
Yeah, I know that when tensoring over F_2[x,y], F_2[x,y]/(f(x)) (x) F_2[x,y]/(g(y)) = F_2[x,y]/(f(x), g(y))
i see
I was looking to generalize the usual iso of abelian groups R[x]/f(x) --> R^d when f(x) is monic
assuming that this "like function" is well defined
it is cause it's my preference
there are numerous things one can call algebra, and saying that it is well defined means that each representative must agree on the same value. do you also dislike homological algebra?
When you hear that someone is "studying algebra". What comes to mind?
Are they drilling through thousands of factorisation problems?
Are they an undergraduate student of mathematics, pursuing studies you can't think of any real-world applications for?
Well, you're all wrong (or maybe you're not).
Suggested prerequisite:
https://youtu.be/roP_HC7...
$\mathbf{Cat}$ is not monadic over $\mathbf{Set}$, so in this sense it differs from the "algebra" i know
Pseudonium
i haven't done much homological algebra, so i can't make any substantial comments there
anything I say is algebra is algebra end of story
catgebra
Let me rephrase my original question.
Let's say I have the polynomial ring R[x,y] and consider monic polynomials f(x) and g(y) of degree l and m respectively. Is it true that as an R-module, R[x,y]/(f(x), g(y)) = R^(l*m) since a basis for this quotient ring (viewed as an R-module) consists of monomials x^i y^j where 0<= i <= l-1 and 0 <= j <= m-1?
Have anyone seen http://arxiv.org/abs/1610.09725 before ? Its maths as well as its parent paper are really intense 😵💫
We provide a new upper bound for the length for the shortest non-trivial element in the lower central series $γ_n(\mathbb{F}_2)$ of the free group on two generators. We prove that it has an asymptotic behaviour of the form $O(n^{\log_φ(2)})$, where $φ=1.618...$ is the golden ratio. This new technique is used to provide new estimates on the le...
yeah from what i can tell, if you're viewing it as an R-module, i don't even see how the multiplication would be visible?
all you can do is add elements and multiply them by scalars from R, right
Yeah for sure. But that's ok in my specific application I'm considering
mhm mhm
maybe a better way to phrase this is like
as long as f and g are monic, it doesn't seem to matter what the specific form of f and g are
in that you wouldn't be able to determine f or g from the R-module structure
like the isomorphism to R^(l*m) you suggest is independent of f or g
so long as they have the prescribed degrees that is
Yeah, it just so happens that in my situation, that's all the info I need
cool cool
About f and g, namely that they're monic of certain degrees
Not sure on the right place to ask this.
What does it mean to say su(2) has rank 1?
su(2) is the Lie algebra
But rank refers to a matrix (presumably it can be extended to an operator)
If I remember correctly, it’s the dimension of a cartan subalgebra?
So in this case they’re taking the abelian subalgebra generated by J_3 as their cartan subalgebra
As far as I know this rank doesn’t refer to the rank of some operator, but I haven’t studied enough lie theory to say definitively
No
What if f = g?
I think you need to assume something like f and g share no irreducible component, this is assuming R is a UFD
f and g are polynomials in different variables though
still correct
She finitary my Eilenberg-Moore category till I variety of algebras
Categories are special cases of partial semigroups just extended to classes; algebra enough for me
Categories are triangles and 2-categories are tetrahedrons
Alright, now define their homology
that is how u define their homology og
I am doing Dummit and foote's exercise, i don't need any hint, i just want to confirm what does it mean by G a transitive permutation group on the finite set A, is that mean for any a and b in A there is g in G such that ga = b?
That's correct
Then, isn't trivial because since |A | > 1, so if all permutation fix a, then there will not a permutation which maps a to b ≠ a, which contradicts transitivity, right?
Oh wait
Sigma doesn't fix any a oh
One way to do it is to take a trace to get each coefficient, then add it back together.
That is, the field trace map Tr : K -> Q gets each coefficient, interestingly.
The issue is that this has high complexity.
This sounds like a fun problem, can you post here if you solve it? 
Suppose that φ is a homomorphism from a finite group G onto a group H, and that
H has an element of order 8. Prove that G has an element of order 8.
this problem is hella stumping me
of course if that element has a nonempty fiber then the problem is easy
but what if it doesnt
oh nvm im stupid
that element has to have a nonempty fiber bc the homomorphism is onto H
in this proof, how does K_1 = F(\omega \beta) give all the roots?
What if G is trivial
H can be any group
Oh it's onto
Then yeah just take an element g that maps onto an element of order 8 in H
I could see F(\omega, \beta) working, but then in this case K_1 isn't normal radical.
yeah i didnt read that one word
What are good book recommendations for intro to abstract algebra
I can’t find it specifically in book recommendations
Artin or Dummit & Foote are what I think of
dnf or artin
I liked undergrad Hungerford when I was starting out. It’s a lot less comprehensive than a book like Dummit and Foote though, so that’s a better option if you want a more in depth experience
Thank u very much
If artin or dummit and Foote are too hard, consider Judson’s open source book.
Thx
Dummit foote dumb foot
Dummit and Foote?
more like Peak Algebra
🗣️🔥
Okay so in the lattice of subgroups of a group $G,$ the join and meet of two subgroups $H, K \leq G$ are defined as $H \lor K = \langle H, K \rangle$ and $H \land K = H \cap K$
Neamesis
so quite literally like union and intersection
except union isn't necessarily a subgroup, so we take the subgroup generated by the union
if D&F is too hard, do analysis and then come back to D&F 
I think algebra is a better intro subject than analysis 😦
so the smallest subgroup containing both subgroups and the largest subgroup contained inside both the subgroups
very cool
if you want a conceptual understanding of algebra read aluffi
I need hint
Any hint? I am thinking if ga = a for all a in A, is it imply g = e, I know I have to show there exists g which doesn't not fix any a in A.
What is a transitive permutation group?
for any a and b in A, there exists g in G such that ga = b
Well, that’s not the same as saying there’s a fixed point free one
Since if you showed such a g = e, that would just rule out things with every point fixed
(And, as an aside, you won’t be able to prove g=e with these assumptions)
As in, every g would have some a with ga \neq a
I know that's a different question
How do I show there is some g in G which doesn't fix any a?
Well I’m saying your thinking above this one seems wrong
So ga = a for all a in A, doesn't imply g = e?
Well, let’s pretend A = [1, …, n] is just the list of numbers 1 to n
It does not
Unless that’s included in your definition of transitive permutation group, which might already quotient out the kernel
Basically just depends on if G is already given as a subgroup of S_n or has a homomorphism to S_n
G has homomorphism to S_n, because G acts on A
(If it’s the former, then I guess you are correct, but then that’s just by definition)
You mean injective homomorphism?
Yeah unless you already know it’s injective there may be a kernel
Which is a g with every point fixed
I see
Anyway
So what permutations in S_n have the desired property
Yes (123)(45)
So it doesn’t just have to be an n cycle in S_n
Yes
So any permutation which cycle type is n1,n2,..,nk such that \sum n_i = n, n_i ≥2
How is that different from a regular permutation group S_A?
It’s not the whole thing
So what is the transitive permutation group 
The smallest subgroup of S_A for which that condition is satisfied?
A subgroup of S_n with the property he said
Oh any subgroup
that makes sense
Since ga = b is at it's core a transposition applying (a b) to a would give you b
and I assume "transitive" is alluding to transposition
So if we have such group, how do you guarantee an object that moves every point at once
No
(12345) generates a transitive one on {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
I see
See you can act A by S_n × S5, by just the first factor of S_n×S5, | A | = n
I see
So how do I prove that exercise?
So how would you go about showing such a point always exists?
What happens if you try to directly make one? What if one didn’t exist?
But no a is fixed by all g
Yes
Maybe you know orbit-stabilizer. What does it tell you about the proportion of elements that fix a given a?
|G : G(a) | = n, where G(a) = { g in G | ga = a} and n = | A|, since it is transitive so | G : G(a) | = n
so a permutation group acts transitively on a finite set with more than one element
exploiting the definition of transitive action you get the group action only consists of a single orbit {ga} for all g \in G
as there is more than 1 such A there has to be one g which doesn't fix all the a's
I need to show there exists g such that ga ≠ a for any a in A
So enumerating A as {1, ..., n} if we look at G(1) u G(2) u G(3) ... G(n), that's the set of all elements that fixes something.
Yes
So is that everything?
No, every G(i) has a common element e
So at most it is n × (|G|/n -1) + 1
And it is less than < | G |
So there g such that it doesn't fix any a
Thank you jagr, Sharp ❤️
My name shouldn’t be there
You helped me
Now you can see the idea
after some thought it seems that 6 is the smallest order for which non-abelian groups exist, if you go any smaller, all the groups are abelian
1 is trivial, 2, 3, 5 are all primes so cyclic group, and there are only 2 groups of order 4 (upto iso) both of which are abelian
liked it
Man classification theorems are so peak
and 60 is smallest number where non abelian simple group can be found
But what about Z_2 x Z_3 
Oh
it's isomorphic to Z_6
Z_m x Z_n is cyclic whenever (m, n) = 1
of course
Can't wait to properly learn sylow's theorems 🔥🔥🔥
All groups of order p^2 are abelian even
Ah yea you have that as well
3^2 is actually odd
Group theory seems to reveal 6 as a rather special number
And in string theory 6 dimensions are compactified 
It reminds me about how Aut(Sn) \cong Sn for all n >= 3
calabi-yau 
woah what?
the automorphism group of S_n is isomorphic to S_n? for all n \geq 3 except n = 6
damn
Yes
I think its bc 6 is the only number that is the product of two genuinely twin primes
In the sense that 2 and 3 are one apart
hiidostuff conjecture
So true
If only I was good enough at group theory to make any meaningful conjectures
One day I will be but for now im struggling in my algebra class
Every great mathematician was once a student 
True
And i shouldn't say struggling since I am sitting comfortably with an A
But I regularly spend 3-4 hours on the homeworks
Which are daily
I mean if you aren't classifying all finite rings do you really know algebra
So true even tho im only doing groups rn
oh wow not weekly?
Nah bc its a summer class
as in you get homework every day?
I do the 5 hardest questions always since I wanna improve
ah makes sense
Yes
So daily 3-4 hours of group theory
journey to the top, one step at a time 🗣️
Its also rough bc this is right after 5 hours of math research
what are you working on?
So until like mid July im spending about half my day on math
Smth to do with algebraic topology but its really not
Its basic graph theory
Which is less than i hoped but at least im doing research
The problem is the two people im working with have no clue what they're doing which is also unfortunate
One of em is a business major and was shocked that we needed to prove stuff
But im hard carrying which is frustrating as I was hoping on working with other passionate mathematicians
I'll do research during the year but I think that'll be an endeavor with only me and some postdoc
I suppose I am reassured by the fact that its only my first summer as a college student so I at least will eventually do more respectable work
I am sure you will 
If b is in orbit of a, is that true that stabilizer of a = stabilizer of b?
I think there will be some relation between their stabilizer
Yes conjugation
Any hint for 27?
I know if G is abelian then its class equation is 1 + 1 + 1 +...+ 1
And gi \in stabilizer of g_j
Pick g1, I have to show G(g1) = G
So g1,..,gr in G(g1)
Say k is the size of orbit(g1)
Then k = |G|/|G(g1)|
in a noncommutative unital ring A with left ideal I, the annihilator of A/I is contained in I but is it always all of I?
Notice that an annihilator is always a two sided ideal, but not all left ideals are two-sided
ah of course, thanks!
It is in fact the largest two sided ideal contained in I.
how does one see that
nvm I see
ty
construct a counterexample to $G\cong H\times G$ implies $H$ trivial. does the following work? for any $n$ and odd $p$, define $\varphi : \mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z}\times 2\mathbb{Z}:2^np\mapsto (n, 2p)$
esca
This is not a homomorphism, and it's a little unclear what happens for negative numbers, but it doesn't seem to be surjective
hmm yeah youre right i was mixing up multiplication and addition. thanks.
Let ( R = \mathcal{P}(S) ) denote the set of subsets of a set ( S ).
Define two new operations on ( R ): for all ( A, B \subseteq S ), set
[
A + B := (A \setminus B) \cup (B \setminus A), \quad
A * B := A \cap B
]
Prove that R is a ring.
hzh
Does it suffice to draw diagrams to verify the ring axioms?
depends how good your diagrams are. But I'd just do it symbolically
Maybe they're proving the thing is a ring object in Set, in which case yes you can draw commutative diagrams
I thought they meant drawing venn diagrams to prove things like distributivity
That’s what I meant, I’m doing it symbolically now but stuck on proving associativity
associativity of addition I'm assuming? Since it's just an XOR operation I'd write out a huge (8 rows) fuckin truth table personally but there's probably a cooler way of doing it
Personally I'd do that using a series of venn diagrams
well hold on, since it's 2 xors an element of A,B, or C belongs to (A+B)+C if and only if it belongs to an odd number of {A, B, C}, and same is true for A+(B+C)
so they define the same set
I guess an alternate approach is just showing that it's isomorphic to (Z/2)^S which you know is a ring
These types of groups are interesting
A non-abelian group where every subgroup is normal
I think they are called Hamiltonian groups?
dayummm 
yeah so it's basically just Q_8
Lattices of subgroups are actually super pretty 
Yes, even this monstrosity
it's a beautiful monstrosity
Thought I wonder what the consequences of the lattice of subgroups for a given group to be a planar graph is (and in general how graph theory interacts with group theory in this manner)
Maybe in geometric group theory
is this the atlas?
looks like some blue print of tony starc
Would this table suffice? Going off that x is in A + B if and only if x is in A or B
woww
Interesting
Open ended exercise: Compare and contrast the subgroup lattices of D_{2^n}, Q_{2^n} and SD_{2^n}. They’re very closely linked to each other in a nice inductive manner

SD? semi-dihedral group?
what is Q{2^n}?
generalized quaternion group?
yes and yes but you can think of it as dicyclic of order 2^n if you want
I woulda just done this
Yeah that looks way better
then cause the last two columns are equal they both define the same set
Thanks
Let $X,Y\subset\mathbb{C}$ such that $[\mathbb{Q}(X):\mathbb{Q}]=[\mathbb{Q}(Y):\mathbb{Q}]<\infty$ does it mean that there exists an isomorphism $\phi:\mathbb{Q}(X)\to\mathbb{Q}(Y)$ with $\phi(\mathbb{Q})=\mathbb{Q}$??
And what about if the degrees of extension are infinite
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
for the infinite case actually it is obviously no, because we can take $X=Q_{a\ell g}$ and $Y=R$.
But what about the finite case?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
No, you can find examples even with |X|=|Y|=1
Gal(-) is functorial so I highly doubt this is true, pick two Galois extenstions F/Q, G/Q satisfying your condition with non-isomorphic Galois groups, then any isomorphism f : F/Q -> G/Q would induce via functoriality an isomorphism between your galois groups, a contradiction
I don't think Gal is functorial.
But it is true that isomorphic extensions would have isomorphic Galois group
Or at least I'm not sure what exactly the domain category for it should be when you say it's functorial
I tried to find examples but like..
$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt n)\cong \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt m)$ for $m,n$ not perfect squares and that's it actually.. I didn't try any other examples
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
Not sure why you think those are isomorphic, but that would be the easiest example yeah
which operation on Q should i assume here?
Addition
Lol, why they are not isomorphic?
OHH
WAIT
I'm dumb sry.
So $\mathbb{Q}(\alpha)\cong\mathbb{Q}(\beta)$ for $\alpha,\beta\in\mathbb{C}$ if and only if $\text{irr}(\alpha/\mathbb{Q})=\text{irr}(\beta/\mathbb{Q})$?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
I googled it. It seems to be
Not quite, they can be isomorphic on other cases as well
Is there a "nice way" to classify all cases?
I'm gonna guess no
Not even when $|X|=|Y|=1$? Damn
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
I should've specified specifically that we're mapping out of extensions over a prime field of fixed characteristic so it's basically just the galois correspondence
thanks
how do we know w_i not 0 in Mp
since Mp not 0 there is some m/s not 0
m is generated by wi
If all the wi were 0, then all of Mp would be 0
ok thats what i thought initially but then i did something that confused me i think
but no yea that makes sense thats fine
th
thcx
thx
I mean, what if a1=a2=0?
then ann(x) is (1) which is probably not cap ann(mi)
Let m > 2 be an even integer and let n > 2 be an odd integer. Find a formula for the
number of elements of order 2 in Dm × Dn
im finally getting to the point where these problems are getting cooler and im getting better at algebra enough to solve them faster
at least i hope
but the formula i got is mn + m + n + 1 and i was wanting to check with yall that this is right
mn because i can have (sr^i, sr^j) for any 0 \leq i < m and 0 \leq j < n
m because i have have (sr^i, e)
n for the opposite reason
and 1 because i can have (r^(m/2), e)
Im trying to understand a proof - i dont get this part. M if fg A-module with A noetherian. If an ideal I contains only zero divisors of M, then there is an associated prime of M containing I?
What I know about associated prime is that P is associated prime of M if P = ann(x) for some x in M and P is prime ideal
yeah this is right, there are n+1 involutions in D_n and it's clear that (x,y) is an involution iff x and y are
i see
i really should get (m+1)(n+1) tho?
i guess im questioning myself because i could have used better logic
i know that if |a| = m and |b| = n then |(a,b)| = lcm(m,n)
Adios Muchachos
and since 2 is prime this implies that for |(a,b)| = 2 then |a| or |b| = 2
so now if i have some function that counts the order 2 elements in D_k, say f(k)
i just get f(m) + f(n) + f(m)f(n)
which is (m + 1) + n + (m+1)n
oh hey yeah it does work
phew
actually no i think i did math wrong
i should get mn + m + 2n + 1
well no it should absolutely be symmetric in both arguments
D_m x D_n is iso to D_n x D_m but you're claiming they have different numbers of involutions
i dont think that this is true though
even if i flip the order
it still holds that i should have f(m) + f(n) + f(m)f(n) elements with order 2
at least i think
since that expression is symmetric for f(m),f(n)
I think my answer was off too, it's alot more complicated than I'd like actually
it depends on if m or n are even/odd
yeah, which is why the given parities make this question more interesting
oh you were given parities
I'm trying to find a basis for $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{2}})$. \
I proved that $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{2}}):\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})]=2$ and using the tower rule we get that the basis consists of 4 elements, and it is obvious that $\left{1,\sqrt{2},\sqrt{1+\sqrt{2}}\right}$ are part of the basis, so how can I find the 4th generator?(I know it is $\sqrt{2}\cdot\sqrt{1+\sqrt{2}}$ but I don't know how to prove it)
i think the logic i used is fairly sound but maybe i am missing something
yes, m is odd while n is even
sorry other way around
in that case I absolutely agree with this
alright awesome
im happy this didnt take me hours unlike the other problems ive had in past days
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
well giving you K will give the game away immediately, so I'll just say take G to be S_4
sqrt(2)*sqrt(1+sqrt(2)) is what you are missing
have you read the brackets? lol
i just noticed it now lol sorry
np
since yk it why don't you just prove that they're all linearly independent
Maybe there is a way to understand why it's true instead of "guessing" this is it?
I mean.. the following is PROBABLY not true, but maybe a field extension of degree 4 with basis {1,α,β,γ} has γ being linear dependent with αβ
(Over Q)
in your case u have 2 extensions of degree 2 u make a basis for each then you mmultiply the sets and you get your basis
yes, that's exactly what I did, so {1,sqrt(2)} is a basis for the extension Q(sqrt(2)):Q and for the Q(sqrt(1+sqrt(2))) : Q(sqrt(2)) why it gives me both sqrt(1+sqrt(2)) and sqrt(2)sqrt(1+sqrt(2)) as the generators
(sqrt(1+sqrt(2))) is obv
Q(sqrt(2)) gives 1,sqrt(2) and Q(sqrt(1+sqrt(2)) gives 1 and sqrt(1+sqrt(2)) then multipling them gives the answer too
so we are back to "guessing" the final generator.
That's fine
ok
Ill just "guess" it(and prove it is a generator)
And what do you think of this?
you didn't guess here you just get the basis of each extension by itself andmultiply them
i do think it's correct
Forreal? damn
If yes, then I get what I wanted
Question is, how to prove it lol
wait i'll try
ok.
How to even start trying and think abt this question... hmmm
$\alpha\beta = a + b\alpha + c\beta + d\gamma \quad \Rightarrow \quad
\gamma = \frac{1}{d}(\alpha\beta - a - b\alpha - c\beta)$
Mexn
shouldn't this be enough?
damn
assuming d~=0
yeah ofc
K4 is characteristic subgroup of S4, because it is unique normal subgroup of order 4, right?
{ 1, (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23) } is a characteristic subgroup of S4, but {1, (12) } is not normal in S4
{1, (12) } is a normal subgroup in that characteristic subgroup
exactly
presuming you mean (12)(34)

