#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 327 of 1
ah it’s a good way to remember that thanks
0 is convenient because it's the neutral element of the underlying group, and this means that kernels of homomorphisms (as equivalence relations) are uniquely determined by what they send to 0
In the Netherlands and in Germany they call fields "bodies" 
Kernels are very much a additive thing. Like when you have map A -> B of rings you can view it as a map of A-modules and then the kernel is the kernel of this map of modules
deepl translated it like that but I remembered it was field in english :))

Körper
Yurr
I’m not into module theory yet 😩
Idk
Dww
Well in your case you can do it as vector spaces over K aha
i have the book of Serge Lang about algebra but never read it lol
Lichaam
Yeah so in german there's Leiche for like corpse and stuff lol
And Leichnam
I'm sure it is the same origin
NO trace of either soma or Körper
Nice
Mm right
R u Dutch I assume lol
Yis
Nice
I love vector spaces because they're actually just numbers with weird morphisms between them
no, infinite dimensional vector spaces do NOT exist THEY ARE NOT REAL
Yes I am SCARED of them
Like wdym they can have injective nonbijective endomorphisms

What about as a Z-vector space
what about as a F_p vector space
"vector space"
That's not Z anymore 
F_p vector spaces have torsion
What about as a S-module
p=0
wtf is a torsion..
Where S is the sphere spectrum
I have heard that name before..
No clue what it is
.
also known as the field of zero elements

Every element of an F_p vector space must have finite order
I.e. add it to itself p times and you get 0
VECTOR SPACE!? HOW COULD HE!!!
An Fp vector space is equivalently an abelian group A with pA = 0
Kinda funny when like
"Structure becomes a property"
I like i like
Similarly with Q-vector spaces
It's interesting
There's a universal algebraic reason, naturally
(being that quotients correspond to the satisfying of equations)
Man those equations love being satisfied
(hello, algebraic geometry department?)
Me all the time
is one definition used more often than the other?
they're equivalent
functionally it doesn't really matter, (left) modules are (left) modules are (left) modules
They're the same definition
An R-module is an abelian group M equipped with a ring map R -> End(M)
an R-module is an R-action
An R-module is an Ab-presheaf of R^op
Oh so a functor from R^op to Ab…?
What’s R here though
A ring is a preadditive category with one object
Oh so this is just “an R-module is a ring acting on an abelian group”
Yup
Cool
You can also replace R by the category of fg projective modules if you like your categories additive
I’m good thanks
if R is a commutative field no?
Fields are always commutative
Le corps commutatif
not in my book
What book is it
French moment
Arnaudies/Bertin-Groupes algèbres et géométrie Tome 1 , 1998
page 43
ah
It's like how "positif" is "nonnegative"
its written division algebra when it’s not commutative
That's only when it's an algebra over a commutative ring, usually a field
Unless that's different too
why is it necessary to use induction here? If p = p(x) is a zero-divisor then $\exists \text{ non-zero } q = q(x) \in R[x]$ such that $pq = p\sum_{i=0}^m b_i x^i =\sum_{i=0}^m (pb_i) x^i = 0$. Since q is non-zero there is an $i \leq m$ s.t $(pb_i)x^i = 0 \Rightarrow pb_i = 0$
dompa
Just because a sum of stuff equals 0 doesn't mean each summand is 0, so you would need some argument for that
ah okay i see the error now
or actually i dont, $a(x) + b(x) = 0 \Rightarrow a(x) = -b(x), deg(-b(x)) = deg(b(x))$ and $pb_i x^i$, $pb_j x^j$ have distinct orders unless both are equal to 0 (which in itself would prove the only if part)
dompa
I believe jagr is looking for the statement "x^j, x^i for i != j are R-linearly independent"
That's not true though.
The degree of pb does not have to equal the degree of p.
For example 2(2x+1) = 2 in Z/4[x]
I mean that would be helpful if we were doing a combination with coefficients in R.
But these are combinations with coefficients in R[x]
my case is that the i = 0 term of the above sum is enough. You're not going to get any constant terms from any of the other terms, thus pb_0 = 0?
am I smoking that good gas station zaza here
Well, that argument shows that
p0 * b0 = 0.
Then you can use induction to get the rest
Which is what happens here (except they start with the leading term)
right yeah I've just done the full thing on paper. I basically did just do the argument we were trying to avoid backwards
whoopsie doodles!
So, the automorphism of the group preserve the maximality of the subgroup, right?
I mean if H is a maximal subgroup of G then f(H) is also maximal subgroup of G, f is an automorphism of G
For any two subgroups H and K, H is contained in k iff f(H) is contained in f(K)
I see
So I can use this fact to show that the Frattini subgroup is a characteristic subgroup, right?
This is from a CMI question paper?
I remember seeing something about the Frattini subgroup
No
Yes
Okay thank you
need to find all the rings with identity of 4 elements
There are 4 rings up to isomorphisn
i was thinking about setting up the multiplication of these elements
a^2 = a gives Z/4
oh yeah ping me in that server
would setting up a^2 to be different elements (0,1,a,b) just work?
Whether or not you get Z/4 is mostly dependent on what 1+1 equals in your ring
i mean there are two abelian groups of summation
Yes, but a^2 = a doesn't really tell you about the additive group
Also 0 and 1 are the only elements of Z/4 with a^2 = a
yeah, right, i was just thinking about multi
would you encourage to check this with two groups
I would check the two different groups seperately
In general to classify finite rings it's good to split into cases based on what the characteristic is
Then it usually becomes easier to classify
Great idea
alr
But say, it has characteristic 2, I know there is a field of order 4, but what if someone doesn't know so how he/she come up with it?
At that point just writing down
{0, 1, a, a+1} and asking what a^2 can be will get you everything
I see
But what if our ring size is bigger?
Or really the same as you did before think about
F2[x]/(x^2 + ax + b)
I mean there is some ring, which is not coming from F2[x]/ (x^2 + ax + b ), right?
there is Z/4
Like if you're characteristic n and commutative, then you're equal to
Z/n[x1, x2, ...] modulo some ideal
Oh
You can bound how many xs you need based on the structure of the additive group
Like for Z/2 x Z/2 you just need one extra, because then 1 and x already generate the additive group
I see
In a commutative ring, a non-unit generates a proper ideal. In a non-commutative ring, is it still true that the two-sided ideal generated by a non-unit is properly contained in the ring?
No - for example, any non-zero two-sided ideal of M_n(k), where k is a field (or a division ring), is improper.
Rather x is a left (resp., right, two-sided) unit iff Rx (resp., xR, both Rx and xR) is equal to R.
Ah, I see, thanks. I have zero intuition for noncommutative rings.
So matrix rings have exactly two two-sided ideals, and yet they aren't division rings. Very much unlike the commutative case, where every commutative ring with exactly two ideals has to be a field.
How complicated can a noncommutative ring with exactly two two-sided ideals be?
Consider, for a noncommutative ring R, the following three statements:
- Every ascending chain of left ideals is eventually constant.
- Every ascending chain of right ideals is eventually constant.
- Every ascending chain of two-sided ideals is eventually constant.
Clearly, 1 and 2 together imply 3. But 3 doesn't imply 1 and 2, right?
So if a ring is a division ring iff it has exactly two left ideals iff it has exactly to right ideals.
Rings with exactly two two-sided ideals are called simple rings. The only artinian simple rings are Mn(D) for a division ring D, but non-artinian simple rings can get wacky. The Weyl algebra is one example.
This is correct yes, either 1 or 2 will imply 3, but there are no other implications amongst them
Thanks to you too!
Can someone help me find a polynomial in Q(π) that vanishes at x=sqrt(i)+sqrt(π)?
Start with x = sqrt(i) + sqrt(pi).
Get rid of the square root around the pi by isolating sqrt(pi) on one side and squaring both sides.
Then get rid of the square root around the i by isolating sqrt(i) on one side and squaring both sides.
Then get rid of the i by collecting all terms with i in them on one side and squaring both sides.
You'll get lots of terms, plenty of opportunity for silly sign errors, etc., but at the end I think you ought to end up with no worse than degree 8.
Great thx
hello, i am wondering if i could have some help understanding how i should begin to think about proving this
im thinking about just representing the subgroups in terms of their generators but im not sure
maybe i should instead think of H_i like a set and find the smallest construction that both contains all the H_i and is a subgroup
Do you know of the concept of a subgroup generated by a subset of the group
Hint: think about intersecting a collection of certain subgroups. This same construction is used generally when you want to find the smallest X satisfying P, assuming P is preserved by intersections, like the composite of subfields or the closure of a set in topology
i think thats what i started doing
i think i understand what that means
like theres a subgroup generated by some elements from the group
This is what i have so far
degree 8 is optimal by the tower rule
f(x) = 0
Nice, you're definitely on the right track 👍 it's a bit hard to parse the definition of S, but I think it's the set of all subgroups H such that every Hi is a subgroup of H, right?
yes
is there a way i should rewrite that?
i was wondering if my notation was correct
tip do a pagebreak
No I think it's fine, it's just the subset vs subgroup notation, plus lack of universal quantifier, but it's no big deal
i see
you're starting really low, so might as well do a pagebreak
yeah ur right
im not fully sure how to show closure
this is only day 3 of my abstract algebra class so im still pretty new to all this
That's fine
What you do is the following
take a,b in H_0
by definition this means a,b are in H_i for all i in I
but if each H_i is a group then ab^(-1) is in H_i for all i in I
wait doesnt that cover every requirement?
i remember seeing the ab^(-1) trick before
the ab^(-1) is basically a trick for simple proofs
in general it's best practice to do
- ab is in H
- a^(-1) is in H
i see
it's just that in this case it follows immediately for the trick
in general the easiest way to show ab^(-1) is in H usually is to show ab is in H for a,b in H and showing b^(-1) is in H lol
I need to go to bed, but I think you got this, just show closure, then the fact that it's the smallest and unique should be relatively straightforward. Good luck! 
have you had topology?
i see
not yet
but i am taking it in the fall
damn
technically my current research is on topology but they have us avoiding the technical stuff for now
there is a way to connect this to topology
but it's not really useful
just a neat fact
so I'll refrain from saying it
Oh uhh, call the groups that contain all of the H_i closed
(just real quick, H_0 is unique because if there were another H_1 that does everything H_0 does, we just have both of these sets being the smallest)
right?
this defines a topology
not a useful one but still one
then H_0 is quite literally the closure of the union of all H_i for this topology
oh wait ive seen the definition of a topology
isnt it just like some sort of finite intersection
at least thats one of the requirements
finite intersection is for open sets
I see, nice 
i see
yeah, and then basically the minimum follows from existence of closure in a topological space
Multiplication by an element in H_0 (or its inverse) defines a homeomorphism
And all closed sets are fixed under that homeomorphism
as the groups that contain H_0 form a basis for the closed sets and are fixed by this action
so H_0 is a group
So I guess you can actually do this from just topology @glad osprey
ok heres the proof done
at least i think its done
i dont see an error in it so i think im in the clear
why so many lines?
well if G is in S then we have H_0 just being the union of all H_i right
no
im not sure
I mean, you're doing paragraphs, isn't this LaTeX?
yes
but i mean i feel like having paragraphs with the lines so close to each other makes it kinda hard to read
I'll show you how I'd write it and you can see if you like it
sounds good
oh wait im being silly
G being the only thing in S would make H_0 equal to G
alright
oops I wrote "Notice that all since"
that happens sometimes when you're rewriting stuff
btw how do u do that thing where the math is in the middle
yeah that happens to me
Trivial Lemma
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
thank you
btw i was luckily able to get the not empty part myself
since G is in S its never the case that all elements in S are disjoint and so H_0 is not empty
sure
You just need to make sure to write it
The reason as well that I did the math in the middle
wasn't really about showcasing that
it was more so I would avoid lengthy walls of just text
oh i also have to add in the uniqueness part
I'm deleting this from my pc, I'll send the file itself as well
What was the guy
ring with p elements?
yeah i thought i might be interupting the convo which is why i deleted
so rings with p element
if 1 \in R
then it is the field
sure
you want to classify non-unital rings with p elements?
yeah
i mean the exercise mentions all the rings with p elements
but with identity it's straightforward
Hint: Additive structure
Hint2: ||Group theory||
Hint3: ||Lagrange's theorem||
@ivory ore do you want more hints?
i'm trying to think
well let's take all the non-zero element and take multipliction in whatever order, it should not give back any non zero element
in non-zero elements again product of all the elements but a specific a_i should give a_i or 0
implying (a_i)^2 = 0
again if we do the same by taking 2 elements out of the string say a_j and a_i
the product should give a_i or a_j or 0
well i have exhausted too much time and couln't figure out any multiplication that works
If g^m ≠ e and g^m has order k, can I say order of g is mk?
the order of g must divide mk but it is not necessarily equal to mk
take Z/12Z and g=2
And what should I take m here?
m=2
g^2 = 4, 4 has order 3, and g has order 6, so 2 × 3
Oh g^4 = 8, 8 has order 3, but g^2 has not order 12
Got it thanks
I have to prove if G is a finite group and N is a normal subgroup, if G/N has an element of order n, then G has also an element of order n. Any hint?
So assume gN has an order n in G/N, then g^n in N.
If g^n = e, then we can conclude that |g| = n.
If g^n ≠ e, then g^n = n1 for some n1 in N.
Since G is a finite group so g^n has a finite order
isnt it trivial
How?
well sorry i was thinking something else
you should try the case when n is prime
I think then we can do it by using Sylow
when n is prime that case i found intresting
i am getting some infinite descent for contradiction
Oh
without sylow
Yeah I know
I think we can do it by contradiction, taking the corresponding mapping G -> G/H, it is onto mapping
Suppose there is no g in G such that |g| = nk, for some k in N.
Since the mapping is onto, |gH| divides the |g|, so if there is some element of order n then n must be divide |g|, so we get the contradiction.
We can show directly
Take |gN| has order n, then |gN| divides |g|, so n divides |g|, |g| = nk, so |g^k| = n.
Elements in N have finite order, and since g^n \in N, we have k such that (g^(n))^k = 1
the element g^k has order n
oops thats what you did
So g^n has order k how it implies g^k has order n?
Without using group homomorphism how can I see |gN | divides |g|?
g^(nk) = g^(kn) by commutativity of integer multiplication
Yes but how it implies g^k has order n?
It implies |g^k| divides n
ur right let me think
ok in general its a false statement, as in Z/pZ k*1 (k<p) has order p, but p*1 has order 1
Yes
This one?
|gN| is the smallest d with g^d in N, that should be clear.
Say g has order n, then certainly g^n is in N.
Let ad + bn = gcd(d, n)
then g^ad * g^bn = (g^d)^a is in N.
So d <= gcd(d, n)
I got it
Thank you, jagr
Hello! I have a question about semi simple actions. Let’s say a group A acts on a group V, and that this action is semisimple. In their book, Kurzweil and Stellmacher wrote that the restriction of the action of A tu a subgroup that is not normal may not remain semisimple. And for that they say that the exercise 1 in the picture justifies it. Can someone help me with that?
What is pi and CA(V) here?
As for your semisimplicity statement:
Let ||S3 act on C2xC2 by permuting the 3 non-identity elements. Then this is a simple S3-module||
||If you restrict to a subgroup of order 2, then the resulting module is not semisimple||
It is the set of elements of A that fixes every element of V
And what is pi?
So replacing A by A/C(V) you can assume C(V) is trivial.
If p divides the order of A, then A has a subgroup of order p. Then the question is how can Cp act on an elementary p-group?
The answer should be trivially or non-semisimply
I don't know what tools you have, but how I would approach it would be that
||ZG acting on an elementary p-group would factor through ZG/(p) = FpG.||
||FpCp = Fp[x]/(x^p), and you can use the structure theorem for PIDs to tell you what all the modules are. The only simple one being the trivial module||
What are ZG and Fp for you?
So we can make a field of p^n, n in N, just by taking the irreducibile polynomial of degree n+1 in Z_p[x], right?
But how can I always generate irreducibile polynomial of n in Z_p[x]?
Irreducible of degree n, not n+1. You can prove that there is an irreducible of degree n for every n in Z_p[x], but all the proofs I've seen have been non-constructive. I think it's pretty non-trivial to find irreducibles of arbitrary degree
What is Z_p for you guys
😈
Z/pZ
Yeah
Its whatever I need it to be
Good answer
If I'm referring to the ring Z/pZ without prior context then I'd use F_p though
The convenience to shorten Z/(q) is worth angering number theorists
Everything is worth angering number theorists
If your goal is to just construct a field of order p^k, you let it be a splitting field of x^p^k-x over Fp
Oh
Prove that the collection of all roots in the extension are closed under field operations
And then Fp adjoin all the roots is a field
I don't know field theory
Hmmmmm I can’t think of a clean way of doing it without field theory
I guess for an extremely janky way to do it is to consider the set of roots of x^p^k-x in the algebraic closure of Fp
And you can prove that the algebraic closure of a field always exists without needing any field theory
P adics
I wouldn't call that janky, it's pretty natural.
Just sort of requires knowing field theory
Of course also no need to construct the algebraic closure there
Just adjoin roots of that polynomial
I said that but this is their response
If you don't know how to adjoin roots to split a polynomial, then you surely don't know how to adjoin roots to split every polynomial
Does this work for showing that $\text{Spec } A$ irreducible implies $N(A)$ prime? Suppose that $\text{Spec } A$ is irreducible and let $N(A)$ be the nilradical of $A$. Suppose there was $ab \in N(A)$ with $a$, $b \notin N(A)$. Then there exists prime ideals $\mathfrak{a}$ and $\mathfrak{b}$ with $a \notin \mathfrak{a}$, $b \notin \mathfrak{b}$. Thus, $\mathfrak{a} \notin V(a)$ and $\mathfrak{b} \notin V(b)$. Therefore, $X \setminus V(a)$ and $X \setminus V(b)$ are nonempty open sets. Let $J \in X \setminus V(a) \cap X \setminus V(b)$. Now, $ab \in N(A) \subseteq J$, but $a$, $b \notin J$. This contradicts the fact that $J$ is prime.
okeyokay
Oops I should mention here that X is Spec A
Hello, i have a question about proving the existence of irreductible polynomials of degree n over a finite field F_q.
The problem is that most of the literature on the internet, i either don't understand or it uses the existence of the field F_q^n.
Do any of you know if it is possible to first prove the existence of irreductible polynomials?
I mean to prove the existence of F_q^n using the irreductible polynomials
Once you have an irreducible p(x) of degree n over F_q, then F_q^n is just F_q[x]/(p(x)). Did you mean something else, like proving the existence of an irreducible of degree n in the first place?
Yes exactly, i wanted to prove the existence of an irreductible of degree n first and then construct F_p^n because:
-idk how to construct F_p^n any other way
-it makes more sense to do it this way in my project
The usual proofs first prove the existence of F_q^n as the splitting field of x^q^n - x, then prove that every finite field F_q^n is isomorphic to F_q[x]/(p(x)) for an irreduible p(x), thereby indirectly proving the existence of an irreducible of any degree. I'm not familiar with a more direct way to prove this, but maybe there is
i know the proof of the existence of p(x) from the field but i don't like it
Keith Conrad's notes are a really nice reference for this btw: https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/galoistheory/finitefields.pdf
i'll check that
i think the key for my understanding is here: how do we get this splitting field in the theorem if we don't use irreductible polynomials?
do you see what i mean?
the lemma uses irreductible polynomials to prove the existence of the splitting field
and then: "general theorems guarantee the existence of such a field" doesn't help me much
if you want I think you can prove the existence of an irreducible polynomial by counting irreducible polynomials of degree d with an inclusion-exclusion argument
the point is you take the splitting field of t^{p^n} - t. This gives L/F_p some field extension. Then L^* is equal to all of the (p^n - 1)th roots of unity thus L has size p^n -1 + 1 = p^n
the problem is that idk how to properly define field extensions without those irreductible polynomials
Neither lemma 2.1 or 2.2 assumes the existence of any irreducible polynomials. You can construct the splitting field by just adjoining roots, and this always works regardless of what irreducibles exists. The crux of theorem 2.2 is showing that the splitting field of x^q^n - x has exactly q^n elements. When adjoining roots you might be forced to add "too many" roots: the splitting field of a polynomial of degree n may be an extension of degree n!.
well if I have any polynomial p(x) it has irreducible factors \prod_i p_i(x) and each of those forms generates a field F_i (one could either take the splitting field, or just adjoint a root of a p_i), then I can take the field generated by all of the elements of the F_i and I get F/F_p
Maybe this can help: https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/galoistheory/splittingfields.pdf
how do you extend the field structure to the roots we make up?
What do you mean?
if i got it well, we make up roots that we add to our field to create a new one, but for it to be a field we need to extend addition (shouln't be hard) but also multiplication to the new elements
the ring you are getting is F[x]/(p_i(x)) where p_i(x) is irreducible
it turns out that if p_i(x) is irreducible that ring is a field
yesyesyes
and it's isomorphic to F(a_i) where a_i is any root of p_i(x)
lemme explain my problem
-i know how to construct F_q^n knowing an irreductible polynomial of degree n exists over F_q
Yes I know, but you don't need that
-i know to provethe existence of irreductibles knowing F_p^n exists
you can construct fields just by taking a compositum of these fields F_i
but idk how to prove the existence of any of them independently
you take X^{p^n} - X
yes
factor into irreducibles
take the splitting fields
take the field generated by all of those fields
ohhhhh
within a fixed algebraic closure
ok
then every element of that field satisfies X^{p^n} - X
how didn't i think of that
so you can show that it can only have p^n elements
it is very clear now that you say it
and then you can show that it has at least p^n elements
np
Hello! Im having a doubt about what I have overlined here (A is a group acting on a group V). My problem is that for a normal subgroup B of the semi direct product AV with B\subset V, we have that B is A-invariant AND normal in V. But this seems then to imply that every minimal A-invariant subgroup of V is automatically normal in V…
i think it's one of those things i really struggled to understand but won't be able to hold back from calling it trivial from now on
I think V is abelian here
so every subgroup is normal
Yeah that’d make sense
Every mathematician's journey
"wtf is this, this makes no sense" - spends 3 weeks trying to understand - "oh it's trivial"
Wow I’ve completely mastered the first step, I’m halfway to achieving mathematical greatness
"After carefully considered your question I have concluded it is in fact trivial"
-professor getting back to you about your question from last week
bonus points if it also took the prof a week to solve it
esca
Np
I think you can argue that any localisation of a Noetherian ring is Noetherian
(at a multiplicative set, I mean -- not just an ideal)
Yeah ok yes
This is true
So we immediately get that Z(1/2) is Noetherian.
I don't quite get this argument
namely, I don't see where separability is proved in 3 -> 1, and I also don't see why each of the automorphisms produces distinct \alpha_i
Is this true for all rings or all commutative rings? I know it’s true for left Noetherian semiprime rings, but we only covered localisation for domains in my noncom class so I’m not sure of the general theory
I have no idea how noncomm localisation works
I'm assuming commutative here
I remember reading a chapter in a book that showed how completely fucked noncomm localisation is but I simply do not remember how it works
“I know it’s true for left Noetherian semiprime rings”
Bro why tf do you know that
So I think here we don’t say every automorphism produces a distinct root
Consider the orbit of alpha under G, this is a set of elements, all of which are roots of f, maybe some automorphisms send alpha to the same alpha_i but idc
Because g is just products of x - alpha_i where alpha_i are roots of f
oh wait im fucking stupid
thanks lmao
🫶
Even the “nice” special case I learned in class was just 
It’s a theorem of Goldie lol I took a course on non com Noetherian rings
You just kinda construct the localisation via a universal property, at least for domains, by building what you want out of the free ring, and what you get is sort of a mess, but under nice enough conditions (usually the Ore condition and some other adjectives) things behave somewhat ok
gotcha
Generally it just is horrible though, like in general you can write things as simple fractions, it’s basically awful
I loved that class but the time we spent on localisation was just painful, and I’m still not sure what the point of it is
Like I’m yet to come across somewhere it’s actually useful
It gives you a model to base the construction of the derived category as a localization of a category

I tried to define localisation for certain types of general algebraic structures once, for some algebraic geometry thingy

I fear I hath angered the gods
That’s the only time I’ve ever seen localization of noncomm rings mentioned
Model as in model theory? I understand essentially none of that sentence beyond knowing derived categories are a thing that exist lol
Like
When you think about how you would do it
You take a note from how the ore condition for noncomm rings is and how they do it
Or something
Idk
A ring is a preadditive category with one object goes brrr
I need to learn category theory properly soon I know such a strange collection of things about it and absolutely do not see the big picture
do it
Ideally in my masters!
Heh
same time I learnt about it!
I’ve learned about abelian and monoidal categories for other classes before ever properly having done the basics, so I kinda get it all but no where near as well as I’d like
More so when it comes to limits and stuff, I’ve just never had to deal with them
Universal properties are a great place to start I’d say
To be fair looking at Leinsters basic category theory I’d say it’s only really the last 3 chapters I don’t know about so that’s probably not too bad, my foundations are potentially a little less spotty than I thought
What it does show is that ℤ[1/2] is not a Noetherian (or finitely generated) ℤ-module.
Wut
ℤ[1/2] is not a finitely generated ℤ-module.
Yeah but how does what Esca wrote prove that
using the same notation to refer to modules that would be an ascending chain that doesn't stabilize
I meant more that that's what formalising the intuition of what was written leads to, IG
Oh yeh
Nvm I gets it
I guess you have to accept Z[1/n] as good notation for \frac{1}{n} \cdot Z
for it to work
yeah and it would be nice to say thats what i meant all along but the exercise is finding a commutative ring thats non noetherian lol
Just pick a really big ahh ring
If I have a group G=<x1,x2,dots,xn: r1,r2,dots,rm> where r1,dots,rm are relations.
Is there a way to find the derived group G'?
G' is just the abelianization right?
so you'd just add in the relations [xi,xj] for all i!=j
If G^ab is the abeliazation, then G=G/G'
so it is enough to check for generators
ok, cool, thx
ah okay
actually wait
yeah okay I had it backwards
so what we said is true, yeah?
G'=<[x,y]: x,y different generators of G>
I believe this is true
I can't immediately see what happens to the relations
but I think nothing really substantial happens
yeah I also think it works. thx
Is it clear that it’s normal tho?
yes
If it’s normal then I think you win
When you quotient by those relations you can see the quotient is abelian
Cuz this makes all generators commute
And this is also includdd inside the commutator subgroup
does the set of all countably infinite sequences with sum and prod defined index wise work
im really new to all this so apologies if this sounds dumb
the chain being $\langle (1,0,0,\dots)\rangle \subset \langle (1,0,0,0,\dots), (0,1,0,0\dots)\rangle\subset\cdots$
esca
You’re onto something
Sequences of what tho?
$\mathbb{Z}^\bbN$
esca
thanks chmonkey
It actually doesn’t matter
You could take a product of an infinite number of whatever nonzero rings
And this works
once again i am coming here to ask for help
seems like everyday im introduced to a new problem that i have no idea how to solve
i know that every element of G has an order that divides 35 by the last equation
the second hypothesis isn't even necessary
actually all the hypotheses aren't necessary
except for being of order 35
what are the possible orders of an element of G then?
This is an odd question tbh. I think I would just argue that there is an element of order 5 and an element of order 7 by Cauchy, they’re coprime hence the order of their product is just the LCM
As TTEG points out there’s no reason to use the last hypothesis, and even assuming abelian feels odd since it makes it quite a bit easier
Though I guess if you don’t know sylow you might be stuck
35 is a pretty small and simple number though so maybe there’s a nice counting argument without appealing to Sylow if you don’t assume abelian
well i will say
this has to be done without lagrange or sylow
sylow isn't useful, but without lagrange explains the weird hypothesis
Even without it you don’t need that assumption, I’m not sure how you even could use it
Oh wait am I being dumb?
isn't lagrange's theorem that the order of a subgroup divides the order of the group?
so the second hypothesis "gives you lagrange" even if you didn't already know it was true
Yeah but don’t we just need Cauchy? Though I suppose Cauchy tends to come after Lagrange
Yes I guess you could just use Cauchy, strange to even call them different theorems to be honest
I actually can't think of a good way to prove cauchy without lagrange
In any case, I do think Sylow is useful, you can even drop the abelian hypothesis I think and just make a counting argument on the size of the p groups
but I think Sylow isn't necessary since the group's order is squarefree
Yeah potentially you use it in the proof, I genuinely can’t remember it’s been a while lol, something something orbit stabiliser
you just need the thing about p||G| thus there is an element of order p
Oh yeah definitely not necessary
Finite groups are simply a nail, and I have a very large Sylow shaped hammer
proving the forward direction, we have $\pi \colon M\to R/\mathcal{I}\colon (r+\mathcal{I})u\mapsto r+\mathcal{I}$, which is an epimorphism. then $ker(\pi) = \mathcal{I}u\cong \mathcal{I}$ and $M\cong \mathcal{I}\boxplus R/\mathcal{I}\cong R$. but $R$ isnt assumed to have identity so im confused, the statement just seems false to me? what am i missing?
esca
oh i dont have cauchy either
this is day 4 of a summer abstract algebra course
tomorrow is isomorphisms
Yeah ok that’s fair then, but essentially the last condition is the part of Cauchy/lagrange that you need
i see
i mean without those tricks, i cant think of anything else besides assuming an element that isnt generated by some other element is in the group
and then show it doesnt work somehow
There’s a bunch of proofs of Cauchy
I can think of one which is pretty standard you do without Lagrange
Or well, you can do without it
Because it’s an orbit argument but you can manually do it to not appeal to orbit stabilizer and therefore don’t need Lagrange
But in some sense the proof you do ends up being so similar to how you prove Lagrange
But I’ve seen like 4 proofs of Cauchy’s theorem and I imagine one of them doesn’t use it
i dont even have orbit stabilizer
we essentially have no tools rn
Yeah you don’t need it
Okay I looked at the problem
Rip lol
I can only see how to do this via Cauchy which would involve just proving it lmao
you just count elements based on their orders
knowing that there are only 35 elements and one of them has order 1
wait is this it?
yah
.
im not seeing it tho
i mean i know theres 1 element of order 1, 4 elements of order 5, 6 elements of order 7, and 24 elements of order 35
but why couldnt there exist more than one group up to isomorphism that does this
if there is a single element of order 35 you win by definition
why
that's the definition of a cyclic group
also i just realized this only applies to cyclic groups
oh i see
i suppose this would be done by virtue of G being abelian
or i could show that suppose that there are elements of order 5 and 7 in the group
then create an element that must be order 35
yep
so you just have to rule out every element having the same order except for Id
Okay so you already need to know that |g| | |G| tho right?
that's part of the hypotheses
uhh im not fully sure weve proven this
so if every element had order 5 then there are smth like 7 generators i think
You can’t solve 1 + 4n = 35
Yeah. Altho you have to argue that <x>\cap <y> = 1 or <x> (= <y>) if x and y are both of order 5 or 7
This would be trivial with Lagrange, but still easy af without
I mean I think it’s kinda trivial either way
this would be easy af if only i had remotely any intuition with group theory
its only 4 days in tho so ig i cant be too hard on myself
What’s the order of a non identity element of <x>
something that divides the order of x
I haven't looked very closely at this, but is pi an isomorphism of M and R/I as R/I-modules? Aren't you supposed to treat R/I as an R-module?
5,7,35
I was assuming |x| is 5 or 7
ah good catch, thanks. but treating R and M as an R module and constructing an epimorphism that way also gets us M iso R i think
I don’t think you understand what I’m asking
But I think it’s better if you just try to make your own argument atp
That’s hella false
fair enough
Ru is not isomorphic to R
It’s R/ann(u)
This isn’t a vector space so you can have torsion
And the rest of your proof is hella over complicating it
If you’re generated by m youre R/ann(m) by the map x -> mx
And if you’re an R/I you’re generated by 1’s image
And that’s the end
well R isnt guaranteed to have id
I have seen this image
does R have to be cyclic for M to be cyclic?
I am dubious of this being true if you don’t assume R has a unit
But I don’t know anything about these sorts of rings so
Idk
I just don’t see how you can show it has a generator otherwise lol
nw ill take it on faith for now, thanks
Consider any one-sided ideal I of a ring R with unit. Then I is a rng. Moreover, the I-submodule of I generated by any subset of I is included in the R-submodule generated by the subset (I is also an R-module and its I-module structure is the restriction of its R-module structure, so any R-submodule is an I-submodule; this proves the claim). Thus, if I is not principal as a one-sided ideal of R, it is not cyclic (generated by one element) as an I-module.
Could anyone recommend a book or website that tabulates the classic identifications of homogeneous spaces—something like a lookup table? For example,
SU(2)/U(1) ≅ SO(3)/SO(2) ≅ S2,
CPn ≅ SU(n+1)/S(U(n)×U(1)).
Well, i just realized i don't understand why it is true 
The nonzero elements of a field form a group under multiplication
So this follows from Lagrange
But how do i know that the splitting field of X^{q^n}-X has less than q^n elements first?
A polynomial of degree n has at most n roots
And the roots of x^q^n - x forms a field
The thing is that i want to prove the existenc eof such fields, and i understood how to construct the splitting field of x^q^n-x
But how do i know that there's only its roots in it?
Wait
I think i can do it by induction or something...
Idk
Have to write it
Maybe not
No idk
Consider the set of roots for this polynomial.
Show that is closed under addition, multiplication, subtraction and division.
Conclude it is a field
How do you define the operations on the roots if you don't know F_q^n yet?
you don't have to know what they look like
as jagr said, you just verify that the roots are closed under field operations
for instance if a^q^n-a = 0 and b^q^n-b = 0 then (ab)^q^n - (ab) = 0 is true, and you don't need to know anything about a and b for it to be true
you treat them as some element of some field
You said you understood how to construct the splitting field. So that's the operation
This way you show that the roots is a subfield of the splitting field of x^q^n-x
Ye i just didn't make the links quite right
Ty for your patience everyone
hey sorry i have a quick question
can the complex numbers be given the structure of a lattice-ordered field? my professor mentioned this question in class
What's the definition of lattice ordered field?
Partially ordered ring which is a field and where the order is a lattice?
$\alpha= \sqrt{22+2\sqrt{5}}$ and $\beta= \sqrt{22-2\sqrt{5}}$, then is it true that $\mathbb{Q}({\alpha} +\beta)$ and $\mathbb{Q}({\alpha})$ are isomorphic?
Akhi Mishra(Riemman's Cat)
Shouldn't be no
what about $Q(\alpha)$ AND $Q(\beta)$
Akhi Mishra(Riemman's Cat)
They're isomorphic yes
they're conjugate as subfields of the splitting field of Q(alpha, beta), so yes
okay then i am right
presumably jagr made a typo, but it's no because alpha and alpha + beta have non isomorphic minimal polynomials
yeah thanks for confirming
I made a typo?
shouldn't be no sounds like a double negation to me 
today prof said i should know french also for good maths , how it is related
A lot of maths was historically written in French, you can definitely avoid it though
“Shouldn’t be no” is really “shouldn’t be, no” which reads fine. English is weird
I'm not sure it's so relevant anymore. I had to read a Russian paper and Google translate really takes you a long way these days.
so we need french only to live in france now
You might need it to live in parts of Canada and a few African countries aswell
why
immigration and colonialism
Cuz they speak French there
✨colonialism✨
A commutative algebra is a field iff its a division algebra, right?
Yes
How would I go about getting an basis of the quotient of J=<x^2+x^3,y^2> in k[x,y]?
it's just the quotient of a basis for k[x,y], no?
Like Gröbner basis? Or what do you mean?
k[x,y] is infinite dimensional as a vector space but k[x,y]/<x^2+x^3,y^2> is finite dimensional as a vector space. I mean a basis as a vector space
As a vector space it’s 1,x,x^2,y,yx,yx^2
yes exactly
we have very good books in france from Bourbaki
Is <1,x,y,xy,x^2y,x^3y> also a basis?
x^2y and x^3y are linearly dependent
You view the ideal as telling you what relations you are imposing on k[x,y]
So you add the requirement that y^2=0 and x^3=-x^2
And then the basis is all the lower degree terms
I see thanks ok
Well all the lower degree terms in terms of the degree of each variable
So for instance y^2=0 tells us that every polynomial f(x,y), when viewed as a polynomial in (k[x])[y] has degree at most 1
$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3},\sqrt{5}....)$ and $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3},\sqrt{5}....)$ not isomorphic how to show?
Akhi Mishra(Riemman's Cat)
One contains a square root of 2, the other doesn't
that we have to show
Any Q-linear map preserves 2
Indeed, just write down an element and square it
my prof messed my mind with simplis
it is all because of that radical question
please give an example of field which is isomorphic to its proper subfield
If I want to find all subgroups of R* such that it has index 2, then how can I do that?
And in S_n, I want to prove that A_n is the only subgroup of index 2, without using that A_n is simple for n≥5.
So let H be the subgroup of index 2, then a^2 in H for all a in S_n. And since we can write every 3 cycle into a^2 so we get A_n \subset H, so we get H = A_n, right?
Q(x)
iso morphic to Q(x^2)
positive reals
Do you mean closed subgroups? Otherwise it’s probably not true
that there is only 1
Closed subgroups?
Closed subgroups.
How can I show there is only one?
Only one?
Should be true either way.
R^* is like C2 x Q^N right
ah true i was being silly
I don't get it what does it mean by C2 ×Q^N?
Think about a map R^* -> C2
What happens to elements that have a square root? Which elements is that?
Okay
So are we finding the total number of homomorphisms R* -> C2?
Every positive real number has square root
Negative have not square root
Onto homomorphism
Yes, an index 2 subgroup would correspond to an onto homomorphism to C2
Yes
I got it so every number who has square root will be map to 0, thank you jagr ❤️
every subgroup is either containing full even elements or half even or half odd so case 1 gives A_n second case gives a^2 is even but a^2 cant be odd so a^2 is only only turning out to be even
Hey, could anyone share some feedback on my proof of 2.17?
Aguacate
Ring is abelian group
So a^2 is even, so it contradicts the second case?
And what about my idea, is it correct?
i didnt understand the meaning of writing every 3 cycle into a^2
Let (ijk) = (ikj)^2
So that means (ijk) in H
We don't need to be let 😅
A_n is generated by all three cycles
its good
yes
So a^2 is even, how does it help me here?
we cant get -1 signature
S_N/H= C_2
Yes
implies there is a homomorphism S_N to C_2 with kerner H
also H has odd cycles inside use that also
ok let me finish, H cant contain all 3 cycles so we must have one 3 cycles out side H say a with phi(a)=-1 then 1=phi(a)phi(a^2) and phi(a^2)=-1, which cant be, so phi(a^2)=1 and gives 1=phI(a^3)=-1,contradiction
i was observing not prooving
How 1 = phi(a)phi(a^2)?
a is of order 3
I see
But why are we doing this? I mean we already get the idea that all 3 cycles in H so A_n \subset H, then H = A_n.
Thank you
alternate
Yes thank you
I have to prove that if G is a group of order 2^n and G is abelian then the number of elements of order 2 is odd.
Can I say, let H = {x | x^2 = e } then H is a subgroup and it has order 2^k, so it implies that the number of elements of order 2 is odd.
Is it correct?
So H is subgroup, it is clear, right?
The number of elements of order 2 is 2^k - 1 btw
Yes
Because we count e only in H which does not order 2, and every element who has order 2 will come in H,
And x in H, x≠e implies x has order 2
USE FUNdamental theorem
i think we should once look at it
the condition on the order of G is unnecessary. If G is a finite abelian group then G[2] = { g \in G|g^2 = e} is a finite abelian group of order 2^n, and every element except for e has order 2...
same argument works if you just assume that G has finite 2-torsion
A better exercice would be to proove that for G finite, if x^2 = e for every x € G, then G is abelian and G ~ (Z/2Z)^n
I mean it’s the same exercice, but it’s clearer
Lagrange theorem
Yes but I found this one easier
I see
What is a finite 2-torsion group?
a finite group where every element satisfies x^2 = e
Yo what ?
Oh I see
It is given that G has order 2^n, so H has to be order 2^k
And every even order group has at least one element of order 2
Oh I see
so you keep saying!
Ok but I was talking about my exercice
It is easy to see G is abelian
He's called Notknow, not Notsee 
^
We can use the fundamental theorem, so it will imply G isomorphic to (Z/2Z)^n
You can use it if you proove that G is abelien yes
.
that's lucky since there are a lot of those on discord
I proved that G is abelian
i mean it’s pretty trivial no? ab=(ab)^-1=b^-1 a^-1=ba
Gg OMG
You didn’t proove anything
mdrr
He did, he just skipped a few steps. (ab)^2 = e = e*e = a^2 b^2
Don't sleep on Notknow, he's not called Notprove 
Oh I see
?

❤️❤️
just to check i have something right, I am computing Aut(U(10)), with U(10) being the multiplicative group mod 10
i found that there are two automorphisms because there are two generators, 3 and 7
so theres one automorphism that sends the identity to itself and the other automorphism just flips them
am i right on this?
when i look it up it seems i dont have the right idea
Other than sending the identity to itself, what does that first automorphism do?
what does it mean to "classify subgroups up to automorphisms" and what is this point of this
I’m still learning abstract algebra, so you shouldn’t trust me that much, but swapping 3 and 7 while 1 and 9 are kept the same seems to be an automorphism
You’re right that any automorphism needs to send a generator to a generator, and that to show automorphisms are equal you only care where the generator goes (as this determines everything else), but you don’t immediately know that swapping the two actually gives a homomorphism
You should verify that it does
(Note: in these simple cases you can show it will work anyway, but you need to do an argument to show that)
i see
am i right though that these are the only two homomorphisms?
as in i have to send things of certain orders to other elements of that same order in the automorphism
in which case, every permutation of the elements in U(10) that fix 1 and 9 are automorphisms
Okay sorry, it’s clear the map will be a homomorphism, you need to show its well defined
You can show that the automorphism group has order two because U(10) is iso to Z/4Z, then Aut(Z/4Z) is iso to Z/2Z. This is basically two applications of the euler totient function
My man bro is like 1 week into group theory
He needs to toil in the mines
And figure stuff out by hand
yeah i was thinking it was Z/4Z
there is a hw problem were i need to find two groups that arent isomorphic but their automorphism groups are
My first immediate thought is to find ||groups with no nontrivial automorphisms|| but your idea should work as well
i mean i just thought of Z at first
since its automorphism group is very simple
Z doesn’t work (as a group with no nontrivial automorphism)
1 -> -1
But it does work for your problem
oh yeah sorry i was meaning i was gonna like Z and U(10) together
i actually dont know enough about automorphisms yet to have the intuition about a group that has no nontrivial automorphisms
wouldnt that have to be one where every element has different orders?
oh wait so Z/2Z works
and then D_1
well no but those are isomorphic
Actually, now that I think about it, my approach is more annoying than I thought. Just do what you were doing originally
Also using Z as your first group is a good approach
thank you
i just took by far the simplest group we have
infinite cyclic group with 2 generators
i should say the simplest that isnt almost useless
What is even simpler than Z_2…
well im trying to think of a nontrivial group with a trivial automorphism group
sorry i mistyped
Yuh
dihedral group of order 2
{e}
And what’s that automorphism group
e \mapsto e
So it’s…
i guess that would probably be a better example
since {e} might be a better place to start
but i quickly associated Z and U(10) in my head
yeah
But U(10) is just Z/4Z so ¯_(ツ)_/¯
i ended last semester with primitive roots in elementary NT class
so its still fresh in my head
Chmonkey uses Z_2 to mean Z/2?
No but I was matching notation
Yeah I assumed so, just teasing
For this let’s just say G and H are abelian cuz I forget if that’s necessary
If |G| and |H| are coprime, show that Aut(G x H) ≈ Aut(G) X Aut(H)
I think you probably can’t do this yet without Lagrange
But if you take this as given for a moment
we havent got to direct products yet
but i know what it is
If G is any odd order abelian group (I don’t think you need abelian btw) then G x Z/2Z and G have the same automorphism group
oh thats pretty cool
and wait
is the trivial group and Z/2Z the only groups with trivial automorphism groups?
S_n for n >> 0
Oh yah
i guess i would just have to cook up a group where all the elements have different orders


