#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 323 of 1
whaaat
Gonna tell all my group theorist friends that they do their work so we can understand the reps better
What can rings and fields be used for? I’m gonna take it to get a math degree however I’d rather get a stats degree since the rings and groups are seemingly useless. There only somewhat useful in quantum mechanics I’ve heard, but have no relation to financial math or data science (from what I’ve heard), which is what I want a career in…
Mostly pure math
The Brouwer fixed point theorem is useful for economics so everyone should learn some algebraic topology really
is just memoring random actions/subgroups a good problem solving technique?
like, i cant tell what is meant to teach vs an actually good idea
Should I take on a stats degree just because I want to focus solely on applied mathematics. I mean Inknow nothing about coding in R and two of the class are a kin to internships, so I thought I would be able to just learn via practical experience the coursework composited in the stats degree, however, AI told me that stats would be nice for my career ambitions…
in dummit and foote 4.4, a common strat is to use that N_G(H)/C_G(H) is a subgroup of Aut(H)
Developing a solid example space is an important part of understanding a subject, you should certainly be aware of common techniques and illustrative examples
and in the exercises you look at the ation of G/A on an abelian group A
yeah - i'm just wondering if these are actually common techniques
Sure, if you have to memorise this. But I must say that I don't need to think about this too much – to me this doesn't need memorisation. And yes, these are common ideas.
not random actions, but useful lemmas, which is what that is
not neessarily memorization
Learning common tricks is definitely part of learning a subject
N_G(H) obviously acts on H by automorphisms, and we kill out the kernel of the obvious map N_G(H) -> Aut(H) -- which is C_G(H) -- to get a subgroup. This just works out.
i get why its a thing
It’s like realising adding 0 in useful ways is essential to analysis
its inner automorphism
No they're not necessarily inner automorphisms
ooh thats an insightful analogy
But I can see what you are trying to communicate
well yeah for G it would inner automorphisms
like G/Z(G)
i guess one big thing i do is like, im not always sure what steps lead to an actually new insight
like in competition math geometry, a think i often do is to use theorems like power of a point, and then when i get stuck i try everything (like similar triangles), only to realize that yields redundant information since power of a point is just similar triangles
Why are these the possible cycle types? is it just that all of the 4 cycles with a single fixed point can be written as the product of 2 2-cycles?
arent these just partitions of 5?
Possibly, im horridly bad at combinatorics and it leads to me struggling with S_n lol
relatable!
I really wanna go through "A walk through combinatorics" by Miklos Bona when I find the time, I'm too bad at combinatorics
But yea I'm pretty sure cycle types in S_n are just partitions of n, I don't know how to prove that right off the top of my head though
same tbh I can't prove anything about binomial coefficients that doesn't immediately follow by writing it's definition in terms of factorials
Well i mean the possibilities are clearly just the partitions
Right yeah
(evidence is in #discrete-math save me)
but im asking about why we dont dont have any of type (4,1)
I think its just because we could write all of those as type (2,2,1) but im not sure
..a 4-cycle is not the same as 2 2-cycles?
we do though (1 2 3 4)
is this table complete? because as it stands there seem to be 24 + 20 + 15 + 1 = 60 elements in S_5
but there are 120 elements
If your main interest is data science it could make sense to study statistics as that's what data science is. But I'm not sure you should tie it to the significance of rings and fields.
There's lots of math, like measure theory, dynamical systems, numerical analysis that underpins financial math and data science.
As for job prospects I think it depends on a lot of factors, and exactly which concepts are directly applicable on paper might not be the most relevant.
In many cases it might be best to choose depending on what you find interesting. Whether that be math or stats
that makes more sense
this is the realest, cool constructions in math are cool intrinsically
also isn't it kind of like a generalization of algebras over a ring?
I was really confused about why there wouldnt be any for (4,1). In any case this highlights the fact that I am inexcusibly bad at both basic combinatorics and working with symmetric groups and definitely need to work on that
and algebras are inherently cool because operator algebras are a thing 
There's 30 of type (4, 1)
not really
algebras over a ring are a strict generalisation of group algebras lol
it's like literally the opposite way around
It's not a generalization, it's just what it is
yeah
oh
(ofc I have no idea historically if this is where the idea came from, and I doubt it)
I find applied mathematics the most interesting, which involves statistics. I just heard that group/ring theory aren’t particularly applicable in financial mathematics or data science neither machine learning, which are the fields I want to pursue. I’ve heard that group/ring theory aren’t particularly more attune to theoretical mathematics, cryptography, and quantum mechanics, however, I foreseeably won’t be spending my entire life on that. I mean I’m just weighing the career prospects in terms of what employers may think when they see a stats degree vs a math degree in the job application repository.
5 choices for your first element, then 3! Ways to pick the next 3 in the cycle?
Algebraic topology is used in data analysis
5 choices for which element is fixed, then 3! ways to cycle the rest
like Topological data analysis
and for algebraic topology you need algebra i.e group/ring theory
one day I will learn this, it seems so cool
Persistent homology is cool but I think not super applicable because it’s so slow and complicated
I see
Robert Ghirsts book is nice though
Robert Ghrist the GOAT
He even started a Topological data analysis series in his youtube channel
I essentially only know about TDA because I got put on a homology/combinatorial comalg project with a stats student who knew 0 algebra so I don’t know it super well but it seems pretty cool
Discrete Morse theory and all of that seems quite interesting
is there a term for the set of elements that are mapped to 1 in a ring homomorphism?
Ive never heard it being given a name
kernel of the map on the multiplicative structure?
The fiber of 1
isn't it just the kernel + 1? atleast for unital ring homs
It is
Y it be called da kernel doe
It's part of this extended "fiber" "germ" "sheaf" "stalk" metaphor
I have somehow never connected the dots between fibre kernel and sheaf
Probably because I don’t really know about sheafs but I just never clocked they were the same metaphor
I want to count the number of monic irreducibles of degree p over GF(q), where p and q are primes. I've looked up the solution, I just want to make sure I understand it:
So the idea is that GF(q^p) is the splitting field of x^(q^p) - x over GF(q), and every linear polynomial and every monic irreducible polynomial of degree p is a factor of x^(q^p) - x, and those are its only factors. Therefore we can just add up the degrees to get q + p*k = q^p where k is the number of monic irreducible polynomials of degree p. I think I see why every irreducible of degree 1 and p are factors, but why are there no other factors of x^(q^p) - x? If f(x) is an irreducible factor of degree n, then GF(q)[x] / (f(x)) is an intermediate field of degree n between GF(q) and GF(q^p), but [GF(q^p) : GF(q)] = p is prime, so n = 1 or n = p, is that correct?
Yes. The key is that p is prime. You could also do this for general degree n, getting ∑_{d ∣ n} d n_d = q^n, where n_d = # irreds of degree d. This can be solved by Möbius inversion (and then dividind by n) to get n_n = 1/n ∑_{d ∣ n} mu(n/d) q^d.
I see, thanks 
<@&268886789983436800> spam
This isn't really groups, rings or fields, but this feels the right channel to ask: suppose we have a nonempty set $A$ with a binary operation $\cdot$ and an unary operation $'$ such that $(x'\cdot y)\cdot z = y$ for all $x,y,z$ (we're not assuming any kind of associativity, commutativity etc). I know that if $A$ is finite, then it must be a singleton (which isn't hard), but what's the answer without the finiteness requirement? Is there an intuitive example of a nontrivial structure that would satistfy this?
Outsider
Let your set be the natural numbers and define
x' = 0 for all x.
0 * x = x+1
x * y = x-1 for x not 0
You can even enlarge this by adding in more elements and just defining 0 * x = x and x*y = x for the new elements x
neat, thanks! are you able to explain how you came up with this? what's the motivation?
is it really supposed to be (x'y)z = y?
(Genuine question, making sure no typos cause it's very restrictive which in some sense seems to be the point)
yes, that's what's in the problem set (not mine, but I got curious)
the general context seemed vaguely adjacent to Boolean algebras
but I don't see the connection
Neat
So f(y) = x' y would need to be injective. And because
(x' y) z = y, if x' y was equal to x' that would probably be a problem. So okay, what's a function that's injective but not surjective? Successor on N. Does that work? Yup
Why did someone ask this question? meh it works
I wonder if you can like classify the type of algebra that satisfies this
Clearly the function f: A -> P(A) given by f(y) = A'y must be injective.
I guess it will be some kind of tree structure where ' takes you somewhere to the bottom of the tree, and then
x' * moves you "up" (possibly in different branching paths depending on x') and then *z will take you down reversing whatever x'* does
I didn't pay attention to your example, but I wonder if there are commutative semigroup examples
Is there a smart way to show that $(\mathbb{Z}/24\mathbb{Z})^\times$ is elementary abelian besides explicity writing an isomoprhism
donut123
cuz i mean if you write out the elements its obvious
They're very much not commutative
Is there no non-trivial commutative model?
Oh wait
nvm
y = (x'y)z = (x'z)y = z leads to a trivial model
Yeah
assuming both
what if you only assume one (like associativity)
y = x'yz
yw = (x'(yz))w = yz
forces yw = yz.
So multiplication is trivial
Z/24 = Z/8 * Z/3 so if you know that (Z/8)^* = C2xC2 that would be enough
so (x'y) = (x'z) forces y = z
so no non-trivial model
Z/24Z = Z/3Z x Z/8Z therefore (Z/24Z)* = (Z/3Z)* x (Z/8Z)* -- exercise if this is not obvious to you! Then you can just calculate what jagr said above. This still does require you to know (Z/8Z)* is an elementary Abelian 2-group, but you should hopefully know that (Z/pZ)* is iso to C_{p-1} when p is prime.
|| Is it just by the CRT? It doesn't feel like enough but we have n = \prod{i=1}^t p_i^{s_i} so CRT gives Z/nZ = (+){i=1}^t Z/p_i^{s_i} Z, then units must be mapped to units. I feel like im being silly and missing a step though||
So the first part is by the CRT
But (R x S)* = R* x S* for any rings S and R
N.b. this is a true blue equality, not merely an isomorphism!
Is it possible the notation is confusing you? By R* I mean the group of units ofc
Oh is that literally just by the definition of the direct product then? Im possibly making this harder than it needs to be haha
(its been a long day)
Yeah no I see that haha, its just by how we actually define multiplication
Note: this is the 'real reason' that Euler's totient function is multiplicative
Is there a "fake" reason generally presented? I think ive erased ENT from my brain
I've seen some awful direct proof by counting things coprime to n or whatever
some kinda direct counting thing
It's a shite explanation
This is the real reason, in every way that I can imagine
Wait no I remeber the proof we gave in my ENT course because it was fucking insane lol
But yes I agree just defining the totient as the size of the group of units then using the definition of the direct product is much nicer
Maybe ENT should be taught after abstract algebra 
It was
We had already taken a course on group theory and on ring theory prior to that class
Page 1 of the notes lol
This is vile
Hmmm?
Isn't there another one using convolutions?
Yeah it got me thinking about what the proof we seen was and it made me remember thinking it was absolutely wild
I'm not at all aware of it, please feel free to share it
Like I think this is actively unhelpful lmao
The matrix is a red herring
1*totient = Id
So totient = Id * mobius
Yeah this lecturer is not great tbh...
hence multiplicative
Ah OK moebius stuff, that's fair
Shes lovely, and like cracked out of her mind, but a horrid lecturer
I would argue maybe a bit too high powered
and I think the CRT is still the 'real' reason
For me this was the "canonical" proof for phi being multiplicative
but still neat
Because it stays within the realm of arithmetic functions
I would still argue worse than the horrible "matrix" proof is not requiring rings to be unital
(I've seen non-unital rings in practice)
(and modules over non-unital rings*)
The ring of upper triangular matrices can be decomposed into diagonal + Nilpotent.
Iirc I saw modules over the nilpotent part, or something inspired by that
Seems fine to me. This is essentially saying that {1, ..., nm} → {1, ..., n} ⨯ {1, ..., m} by reduction modulo n, m resp. is bijective, i.e., CRT.
So why not just state this directly instead of concealing it like this?
You've spotted how to make it conceptual, but I don't think that's made so clear as written
It is stated directly, just using the words "every residue exactly once" instead of "the following map is a bijection". It's largely a matter of taste, and while the latter style is clearer at a more advanced level because it distracts less from more complicated ideas that might be present, the former is clearer at a level of less familiarity where someone might not be used to these things enough to immediately get what's being said when they see/hear "bijective function".
Maybe it's a little more wordy than it needs to be, but I think this is within the bounds of adapting to the audience.
This is the right channel to ask a question about fields, yes.
what progress have you made?
I guess K is not of characteristic 2
See I would possibly agree but this was a 6th semester course, like in no way was this introductory. I agree that it is a proof, and I can follow it easily but I do think its a far more complicated presentation than is needed, and as Boytjie points out, the matrix is more of a red herring than anything else, so actually if anything its likely more confusing to a weaker audience because the matrix is largely superfluous
terrible progress im just learning the topic
We know that $[L:K] = 2$.
Letting $L = K[\sqrt d]$ we know that $[L:K] = 2$ as the minimal polynomial is $(x^2-d)$
Now assume $d = c^2$ for some $c \in k$. then $L = K[\sqrt d] = K[c]$ and then as C is already in K we simply get $[K(c):K] = 1$ which is a contradiction.
BOSS
its wildly incorrect ive been told, just trying to understand how to approach problems like these
you can't let L = K[sqrt(d)] as that is what we are trying to show
all we know is that [L:K] = 2, that's it, you need to show that at least one such d exists first
recall the definition of the degree of a field extension, is the dimension of the field as a vector space
[L:K] = 2 means that elements are either deg 1 or 2 right
sorry yes
L is a vector space over K with dimention 2
(also as jagr said, I'm pretty sure you need to assume that the characterisitc is not 2 for this result to be true)
My class didnt really cover characterisitc so ill take it as truth and note it down to prove later
it just means that 2 is not 0 in this field
ah ok
you'll see why that's necessary later
also does this hold true
yes, but that's not necessarily useful here
ok
algebraic extensions need not be finite
i.e. just because every element in the extension has degree 2, does not mean that L=K[sqrt(d)]
the local property does not pass into a global property
go back to the dimension thing
sure
L is a vector space over K with dimention 2
so the set is something like
${a l_1 + b l_2 \mid a,b \in K}$ where the basis is ${l_1,l_2}$
BOSS
you can assume that l1 is equal to 1 (why?)
we need to get elements of K in L?
because any linearly independent subset of a vector space can always be extended into a basis
can you expand sorry
so, this tells us that L = K[l1,l2]
yes
but that's still annoying to deal with, ideally we want a single element l such that L = K[l]
and then maybe we can figure something out from there
ok
point is, if you can get rid of a variable theres no reason not to do it
we can get rid of 1 because its in K?
it is K i mean 1 times any element in K gives us K
ok
K[k] = K for all k in K
{1} is a linearly independent set, which can be extended to a basis {1, l_2}
ah
ohh
ok that makes sense*
in field theory you're going to be digging up a lot of the old LA facts
Yeah im figuring
adding getting better to LA to my list
ok now continuting
L = K[l]
we know that
$[K[l] : K]=2$
BOSS
that means the minimal polynomail for l has to be order 2 in K[x]?
has degree 2, yes
sorry, l has to be oder 2
ok that means, there exists some solution in K[x] where l^2-d = 0
theb we know
l = sqrtd
?
alternatively here's the way I like to phrase it:
we know that {1,l} is a basis for the vector space L over K.
then consider the vector l^2.
now as the set {1,l,l^2} has more vectors than dimension, it must be linearly dependent; i.e. there must exist scalars a,b,c such that al^2 + bl + c = 0
you are deriving essentially the same thing, but I like this proof more because it's a good showcase of the ping-pong between abstract algebra and linear algebra that field theory is about
i like ur explanation much better
this just feeds into l being d tho right
sqrtd
no, it does not have to be d
for instance Q[sqrt2] = Q[2+sqrt2]
but it does have to have a component of d.... try and figure out how that works
There is a magical formula known as ||the quadratic formula||
whats that
jkjk
ok so we are just factoring out al^2 + bl + c = 0
dont we just get back teh quadratic formula here
because a=a,b=b,c=c
The quadratic formula gives you a formula for l involving a square root
ah
ok so we get some $l = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac}}{2a}$
one sec im on my phone
BOSS
That's right, so what d can you use here?
wdym
sorry
oh its a there exists
hmm
im not sure
mainly what does d need to be
that's a good question
also, this is why you need to assume that 2 is not equal to 0
yeah i see that now
Well it needs to be something where we can write l (and everything else in L for that matter) as
p + qsqrt(d) for p and q in K.
If only there was some expression like that nearby...
oh wont it just be the formula itsself then
like p+ql?
im lost
it needs to be something where we can write l (and everything else in L for that matter) as
p + qsqrt(d) for p and q in K.
uhh its a basis for L
Yes, now have we manage to write l as something akin to that?
And what is d in that case?
interesting we just found our basis explicitly basically
i^2
oh sorry
other way
sqare root of I
For this, is it enough to observe that Gal(N / K(a)) is a normal subgroup since the Galois group is abelian, then by the Galois correspondence K <= K(a) is a normal extension, thus every root of p(x) is in K(a) since it's irreducible and one of its roots are in K(a)?
So I'm not sure what I is here, but recall that you managed to find a formula for l that contained a square root in the expression
What was in that square root?
b^-4ac?
getting a thumbs up from jagr is the best feeling in the world
thanks 
i strive to one day now
ok im confused on whats going on
we got l
and we are trying to find dome
[K(l):K]=2 right
Yes, we saw sqrt(b^2 - 4ac) appear.
So it's natural to think that d=b^2 - 4ac
good luck 💪 don't get addicted
ok
Since
sqrt(d) = 2al + b
it's in L
but we can only get this by saying b=0,a=1 right
ohhhhh the ret of it
is in Q
wait
no
K
Well you're not the one deciding what a and b is
Take what out of the equation?
sqrt(b^2 - 4ac) from $\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac}}{2a}$
BOSS
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
you can't, but remember in what context we're considering this equation in:
So the equation is
l = (-b + sqrt(d))/2a
if you multiply both sides by 2a and add b you get
2al + b = sqrt(d)
Ok i think i need to trace my steps and understand how i got here
to have it make sense
we are claiming that L[-b+-sqrt(...)/2a] = L[+-sqrt(...)]. why can we do this?
Ok so we know that $[L:K] = 2$, thus we have it so L is a vector space of two dimentions over K
BOSS
so we can say the basis {1,l} are linarly independent
thus basis {1,l,l^2} are going to be linearly dependent, giving us the equation
a+bl+cl^2 = 0
so we can easily solve for l using the quadratic formula and we get $\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac}}{2a}$
BOSS
because thats legit the difinition of what is going on here
so now we have it that K(l):K = 2 and l = the quadratic formula
oh
is l possible combinations of the quadratic formula?
no right
im not sure
what is 1 here(underlined in red)? identity map or trivial map? i am asking because in both cases ~ is becoming equivalence relation
the identity
thanks
D&F detected 
thanks for saving my time
If it were the trivial map then every map would be trivial
as from (i) we would have
ρij = ρjj • ρij = 0 • ρij = 0
Yes
We know that the subgroup operation $uN \cdot vN = (uv)N$ is well-defined i.e $u_1N = u_2N \text{ and } v_1N = v_2N \implies (u_1u_2)N = (v_1v_2)N$ iff $N$ is normal
Neamesis
what would be a counter-example to this? what is a abnormal subgroup and a group for which this isn't well defined?
Not "subgroup operation" I mean the quotient group operation
C2 as a subgroup of S3 would be the smallest example
ah so any 2-cycle subgroup
Yup
in just S_3 or any S_n?
Works for any n>2
If it isnt normal in S3 then it wont be normal in Sn, n>=3
Right since there's an isomorphic copy of S_m in S_n iff m <= n
so still an equivalence relation
It is, but it would just be a~b for all a and b
So all that extra data would be useless
"Yes let me attach a sheaf to this space" and it consists of singletons

How do I do the normality part? My first idea was to show that K(a, b) is a splitting field over K(a), but I'm not sure that works
If f(x) is a min poly with root alpha and g(x) for beta, surely f(x)g(x)'s splitting field is F(alpha, beta)?
Is that right
No worries
Supernatural projections when? 
I guess this is the algebra version of adding a zero in analysis
expanding identity into gg^{-1}
nvm
Prove that if $p$ is a prime and $P $is a subgroup of $S_p$ of order $p$, then $|N_s(P)| = p(p- 1)$
Wanna check if I'm doing this right. Since $|P| = p$, $P$ is cyclic. Suppose $P = \langle g \rangle$. $g$ must have order $p$, so it is a $p$-cycle. Thus, $P$ contains $p-1$ $p$-cycles. Consider the action of $G$ on $\mathscr{P}(G)$ by conjugation, and specifically the orbit of $P$. Conjugation in $S_p$ is just about cycle type, so every conjugate of $P$ has $p-1$ $n$-cycles. There are $(p-1)!$ $p$-cycles in total, so the size of the orbit is $(p-1)!/(p-1) = (p-2)!$. By orbit stabilizer, $p!/|N_S(P)| = |S_p:N_S(P)| = (p-2)! \implies N_S(P) = p(p-1)$
donut123
oh if i randomly say $G$, i mean $S_P$
donut123
the order of the normalizer of P in S_P is p(p - 1)?
very interesting
So we have normal subgroups
if N is normal then G/N has a group structure
do people study subgroups H such that G/H has not necessarily a group structure but a weaker one like a monoid or a semi-group structure?
perhaps we can name these "subnormal groups"
or semi-normal, or pseudo-normal would work too
Subnormal groups unfortunately already exist
Although, I'm pretty sure that the well-definedness of the group action implies normality already, anyways
Would have to verify that
but do subgroups like these exist?
.
the group action of left multiplication? i.e G acting on H by left multiplication?
suppose g in N and for any h that ghN = hN
=>N = h^-1 g h N
=> h^-1 g h in N for all h
Thus N is normal
So even just requiring that the induced multiplication on the left cosets be well defined implies normality
Groups are very nice objects, all things considered
Let A be a commutative unital ring, and Spec(A) be its prime spectrum. For a subset F \subset Spec(A), define I(F) to be the intersection of all elements of F.
I have proved I(F) is radical, but I also want to show that V(I(F)) = F. How do I do that? F being contained in V(I(F)) is trivial, I'm not sure how to show the other side.
Because it's not true in general
It's only true if F is the set of prime ideals which contain some fixed set S in R
The easiest example might be if F consists of just a single prime
Which you define as F being equal to V(I) for some ideal?
If so you might try to prove that rad(I) = I(F)
Yeah, I already did prove that I(F) is radical
Right, so then you're halfway there I guess
Oh okay I think I got it
Let F = V(J) for some ideal J in A.
Then J \subset I(F) \subset q for any q in V(I(F))
Hence q is in V(J) = F
If $p$ is a prime and $P$ is a subgroup of $S_p$ of order $p$, prove $N_{S_p}(P)/C_{S_p}(P) \cong \text{Aut}(P)$
$N_{S_p}(P)/C_{S_p}(P)$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $\text{Aut}(P)$. Since $|P|=p$, its cyclic generated by a $p$-cycles. This will commute with powers of itself (no disjoint cycles), so $C_{S_p}(P) = P$. Thus, $|N_{S_p}(P)/C_{S_p}(P)| = p(p-1)/p = p-1$. However, $\text{Aut}$ has order $p-1$ too, since $P$ is cyclic. Done
donut123
So this should show F -> I(F) is the inverse of the map I -> V(I) and hence V forms an one-to-one correspondence between radical ideals and closed subsets.
Also, general question, but what do you write when you do like group theory problems
like, i always just have to do it all in my head
I personally just jot down literally everything that goes on in my head, it works most of the time
Like "G is a group of order pq. Hence it is cyclic."
Everything you can infer and which seems worthwhile just jot down. It lets you think for the next steps needed
This is actually insane 
What do you need to prove this?
Sylow theorems?
With the sylow theorems you can prove statements like these.
But it's not completely true as written
What additional hypothesis is required on p and q?
Isnt it line if p doesn’t divide q-1
I see
And I dont think you need sylow, just Cauchy
The counter example to cyclic always is unique, I think it’s order 12
12? that's not a product of two primes though
Oh oops
Well you need something to guarantee normality as well, but it doesn't need to be the sylow theorems.
What is "cyclic always is unique"?
i remember seeing somewhere (not actally done/proven yet) that if p divides q-1, theres a unique non-abelian group
for the p divides q-1 ase, i think you need semidiret produts

damn
D&F only covers semi-direct products in chapter 5
but I recently read that semi-direct product of G and H is like a direct product G x H but now you introduce a map phi : G --> Aut(G)
reminds me of the difference between product spaces and fiber bundles
Yes, that should be true
yeah, im still on chapter 4 lol
finishing up 4.4 exercises
Let $\Gamma$ be a finite group acting on $\mathbb{C}[\overline{x}]$ some polynomial ring.
Let $I$ be an ideal fixed by this action.
It's true that $(\mathbb{C}[\overline{x}] / I)^\Gamma \simeq \mathbb{C}[\overline{x}]^\Gamma / I$ right?
Really, what I want to know is that if $f + I \in (\mathbb{C}[\overline{x}] / I)^\Gamma$ then $f \in \mathbb{C}[\overline{x}]^\Gamma$.
To show this isomorphism, consider the quotient $\mathbb{C}[\overline{x}]^\Gamma \to (\mathbb{C}[\overline{x}] / I)^\Gamma;\ f \mapsto f + I$.
Then this has kernel $I$ yea?
I mean it all seems to work but idk, I'm having doubts for some reason
Spamakin🎷
Why is there a bar on x?
some number of variables
$\mathbb{C}[\overline{x}]$ is common shorthand for $\mathbb{C}[x_1, \ldots, x_n]$ for some unspecified $n$.
Spamakin🎷
Oh Interesting I didn't know that
I guess my main doubt is showing surjectivity. Say $f + I \in (\mathbb{C}[\overline{x}] / I)^\Gamma$, then why is $f \in \mathbb{C}[\overline{x}]^\Gamma$.
Spamakin🎷
Sometimes even for an infinite number of variables indexed by some set
Oh I would've used an underline
Or \vec
So this is not a finite group, but if Gamma is the infinite cyclic group acting on C[x, y] by
x |-> x+y
and y fixed.
Then C[x, y]/(y) is fixed by the action, but the fixed ring of C[x, y] is just C[y]
So if it's true you need to leverage finiteness
I guess you can just take the average of the Gamma orbits of f
Yeah
f' = Sum_g g(f) / |Gamma| is clearly fixed
and it's image is f+I
This may be true. However, I think the difference between trivial and general fibre bundles is also analogous to the difference between semi-direct products and general extensions.
One is doable and the other horrible? Lol
Do you know a counterexample with a finite group in positive characteristic?
I'm guessing involving the Frobenius endomorphism.
Can I just double check this proof? We can write $A \cong \bigoplus_{i=1}^k C_{{p_i}^{n_i}}$ for some primes $p_i$ and integers $n_i$. We see that for each $C_{{p_i}^{n_i}}$ we have $C_{p_i}\triangleleft C_{p_i^2} \triangleleft\cdots \triangleleft C_{p_i^{n_i-1}}\triangleleft C_{p_i^{n_i}}$ and $C_{p_i^{n_i-k}}/C_{p_i^{n_i - k -1}} \cong C_{p_i}$. Hence, each $C_{p_i^{n_i}}$ has a composition series, with the factor $p_i$ $n_i$ times. Then, since $A$ is Abelian, all of its subgroups are normal, so in particular, $C_{p^{k_i}_i}\triangleleft A$ and by the following lemma, we get the desired result.
Nope
The lemma is:
The question and your proof use n_i with different meanings (in particular, your proof must allow p_i's to repeat), but otherwise this is fine.
Also, you don't really need C_{p^k} to be normal in A. A composition series only requires each subgroup to be normal in the one immediately after it.
Dont I need the C_p^k to be normal to apply the lemma (i.e. so I can quotient by it)?
Also yes I do apologise my notation is disastrous there, Ive used k in multiple different ways and switched between using n and k pretty freely, oops
Oh, just the summands. Then yes.
I thought you were talking about the intermediate subgroups too.
Yes apologies my quick back of the napkin notation here was less than ideal, I was just meaning the summands
The example I gave for the infinite cyclic group should work for the cyclic group of order the characteristic
But over F_p, x^p - x would be fixed.
It is true that R is integral over R^G for finite G regardless of characteristic.
IG it's still not surjective.
Yeah I'm saying I don't think that will surjects onto Fp[x, y]/(y)
Oh I see
I haven't learnt group extensions yet but I'll keep that in mind
whats the reason for this name(germ)?
I'm not sure if this is the origin, but it is consistent with sheaf terminology. The germ is a part of wheat.
This is the ongoing lexical field right, the sheaves, the stalks, the germs...
All very pretty
As far as etymology goes I believe it has to do with “germ of an idea”
Or maybe not
The sheaf metaphor is prolly more accurate
I think the "germ" of an idea has the same etymology as the germ of a seed and so on
Let's just be clear though -- this of course has nothing to do with bacteria
i dont know about this analogy
maybe i will have to read more to get an idea of why its called so
It's just a name.
Well, I think the word "germ" for bacteria also has the same etymology
C.f. germination
also \rho_U is surjective because given any equivalence class \bar{f} \in A (equivalence class of a function f), say f has domain V, we can consider a continuous extension or restriction of f from domain V to domain U (whichever is appropriate) and this extension or restriction gets mapped to \bar{f} by \rho_U?
and \rho_U is not injective because there are many continuous extensions of a function and many functions whose restriction matches a given function on a domain
this seems simple but i want to verify because its slightly abstract for me
(question is regarding this exercise)
btw the equivalence classes are just the continuous functions which match each other in some neigbhourhood of p, right?
basically. it’s really equivalence classes of pairs (f,U) where U is the domain of some continuous function f that contains p. then it’s basically what you said: (f,U) is equivalent to (g,V) if there exists a neighborhood W of p contained in both U and V such that f and g agree on W
Can someone please help me understand the 1-1 step: g * (g’)^-1 in ker(theta) -> gker(theta) = g’ker(theta)
Are u writing gtheta to mean theta(g)?
Your notation confuses me to be honest, but the proof that it’s injective is just the same as the proof that it’s well defined but backwards
If that helps at all
I can write out how to do it if you need but perhaps you’ve seen how to show the map theta is actually well defined
Yes
Why do you write it like that?
My professor uses this notation where he applies the function on the right side. He’s from the UK if that means anything 😭
I have no other reason for it other than that’s what I’ve seen from him
I just adopted it
Sorry about the confusing notation, it’s how my professor writes it. I would like some help for showing how the function is well-defined then
Who need they subgroup normalized
Nah but its an interesting class
Very interesting material overall
So the map psi : G/ker(phi) -> im(phi) is defined by mapping g*ker(phi) to phi(g), to show that it's well-defined you need to show that psi gives the same value no matter which representative of g*ker(phi) you choose. Do you see how to do that?
one thing that irks me though, at least with the conventions that the author used for our textbooks is the notation suckedd
Ong i sometimes completely forget analysis is a part of math
Or do you sometimes forget that it isn't?
hi everyone, I was hoping someone could give me a hand with this question. I need to find all homomorphisms from $f: \mathbb{Z}^3 \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}$
theaveragejoe6029
ive got that if x,y,z = f(i), f(j), f(k) respectively, then xy = xz = yz = 0 and x^2 = x, y^2 = y and z^2 = z, but I don't really know where to go from there
also f((a,b,c)) = ax+by+cz
Isn’t it pretty clear that this makes the only viable map the 0 map?
Err
Sorry not quite but close to it
U(p^n ) is isomorphic to Z/(p^n - p^(n-1) )Z, when p is odd prime, any hint how can I show that?
What is U
I would say think about what x^2 = x means when x in Z
Sorry, U(n) = { m in Z | gcd(m,n) = 1, 1≤m≤n } under multiplication modulo n
You just count them
Oh
This is annoying
If I remember correctly the right way to do this is via induction
I think you show manually for Z/p^2Z though?
But uh, I think it’s something like if u mod p^n-1 is a generator you show that u itself is a generator or something
Sorry I kinda forget
No problem
sorry, I dont really see this
oops, didn't mean to send that
No, but I can't quite see it tho
I think you need a couple of lemmas, there is a proof in Ireland and Rosen. Page 43 theorem 2 and 2'.
ah, okay. So I got how the zero map, works. but what do you mean by not quite. I can't think of anything else that would work
algebraists be like: "What the hell is convergence 🗣️🔥🔥🔥"
Try harder
thanks
Rip completions of rings
I mean making completions of rings is analysis tbhtbh
i dont really see how they can be tuples... we are ordering the intervals containing $p$ by reverse inclusion, and defining $A_U=$ ring of continuous functions defined on $U$ and taking $A = \varinjlim A_U$ so the equivalence classes of $A$ can only be functions... i mean the function contains its domain information, so specifying $(f,U)$ is redundant anyways, right?
fastrack_and_backtrack
Yes. It's just a bit convenient to specify it this way because then you can use the same name for f and f restricted to some subset of its domain
Can I get a hint for this?
I know that in order to show that N is normal
I need to show $gNg^{-1} = N \ \forall g \in G$ which is implied by $gNg^{-1} \subseteq N \ \forall g \in G$ which in turn is implied by $gx^{-1}y^{-1}xyg^{-1} \in N \ \forall x, y, g \in G$
Neamesis
since you know? You only have to check that a subgroup's generators are normalized by every element in G order to show that the subgroup is normal in G
(gx'g')(gy'g')(gxg')(gyg')
Yeah you can actually prove the stronger thing that any automorphism f: G -> G has f(N) = N
I thought about this but I'm not sure how this would help
This is one of the generators
This is called a characteristic subgroup
a subgroup fixed by any automorphism is called a characteristic subgroup? or is that another name for the commutator subgroup?
Intuitively they occur as subgroups that can be "defined without arbitrary choice of elements"
Fixed by any automorphism
Thanks Jagr and Arki 
U(p^n ) is kernel, how?
Oh sorry i missed something wait
Let me edit
So it must be cyclic
I think the easiest way to see it is because it surjects onto U(p) which is cyclic of order p-1 it has an element of order p-1.
Since p-1 and p^n-1 are relatively prime you just need to show the existence of an element of order p^n-1.
1+p is such an element, which can be seen by binomial theorem and some counting of powers of p in the binomial coefficients.
i dont know why i am typing some wrong things maybe still in hangover forget to erase the wrong thing and copies it as it is
all the elements you need to find , that are relatively prime to p so U(p^n) is outside of the kernel of the map Z/p^N to Z/pz using canonical projection a+<p^n> goes to a+<p> so, restriction on U(p^n) is injective
Then idk what restriction on U(p^n) means
oh i think you are looking at it as group homomorphisms
but i forget to say it as ring homomorphism
Then idk what you're talking about
still not injective
if a semisimple algebra is written as a direct product of simple subalgebras, does that direct product contain instances of every isomorphism type of simple subalgebras
Assuming by algebra you mean unital, associative algebra over a field, the answer is no: take the semisimple Artinian algebra M_2(k) and consider the simple subalgebra of scalar matrices.
This semisimple algebra is in fact simple and indecomposable
hey guys good morning
good meowning
I need to show that the Klein 4-group V_4 is the only subgroup from A_4 (alternating group) of order 4
then I have to conclude that V_4 is normal to A_4 thus A_4 is not simple
I have no idea how to go about this
😢
groups of permutations are so confusing to me fr
for reference V_4 = {id, (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23)}
When you've shown uniqueness normality is easy: consider that the conjugate of a subgroup is a subgroup of the same order
yup i guess normality should be easier but i don't know how to start showing the uniqueness
since it has order 4 it has to contain only elements of order 2 or 4
does A4 have elements of order 4?
sure, give me an example
how many elements of order 2 are there in A4?
does (123) have order 2?
from my calculations
wait wait
ok i get it
the elements of order 2 from A_4 are precisely the elements in V_4
right?
so this does it for the proof?
the proof of V_4 being the only subgroup of order 4
yes
ok!!
hey thanks that was really helpful
i struggle a lot with groups of permutations
as a quick remark, V4 in A4 is what is known as a Sylow 2-subgroup
what you have shown is that if all the elements with order the power of some prime forms a subgroup, then that group is necessarily normal
this is by the first sylow theorem right
you'll learn more about them when you study group actions
ok yeye
we're starting to see the sylow theorems
not sure what you are referring to here, but Sylow's 1st theorem only guarantees the existance of a Sylow p-subgroup
what I'm describing here is stronger; namely that if you can show that there is a unique Sylow p-subgroup, then that subgroup is normal
i am referring to the second theorem my bad
and that subgroup will consist of exactly the set of all elements of order p^k
yes, it follows as a corollary
Meowing for groups
Yes
Which this is a lot nicer than just the normality iff unique, since it also says something about a nice action of G on them ofc
not that remember what theorem name/number is which matters much, of course
do you guys consider group theory as a necessary unit for one to study?
for what?
well im a electrical engineering and applied math student
interested in AI/ML
the units i take include: linear algebra, computational lin alg, cal 1 to 3, complex analysis, real analysis, computational mathematics,probability, pdes, odes, network mathematics (graph theory). for my last elective i can choose between optimisation research (mathematical programming) or group theory. im not sure what i should choose.
for your interests they are not so useful
Heyo
@sick spear im not sure if i choose GT for the sake of knowing it exists even tho it may not be related to my field, or if i do a optimisation research unit
I missed this problem on a group theroy test I just took
was wondering how you would actually solve it
yeah that was my main concern
but do you think just knowing it exists is useful? is that a good enough reason to take a unit?
and GT is pretty fundamental if im not wrong?
well it is massively useful and foundational for pure math
but optimization research will be more practical for your interests
okay tq tq
i agree
@velvet hull is this more group theory or is this advanced algebra
yeah thats group theory
part 2 is not group theory
it's still introductory abstract algebra, but the objects of study are rings and fields instead of groups
groups, rings and fields are the first 3 objects studied in abstract algebra
okay sorry if im asking silly questions. my knowledge in pure math is rlly bad right now
For this, we can work out that $A \cong C_2\times C_3 \times C_{30}$ by Lagrange and FTFGAG's. Then in each component we have 2, 6 and 6 elements such that $g^6 = e$ (not necessarily order, but like a multiple of the order), but I dont think we can just say there are $2\cdot 6^2$ elements of order 6, but im not sure how to fix the amount of like "over counting"
Nope
It feels very lcm-y but im not quite seeing of what
C2xC3xC30 has only 180 elements.
Anyway, it's easier to count the order of elements if you factor it into cyclic p-groups. So C2xC3xC5 instead of C30 for example.
Either way the order of an element in a product is the lcm of the order of each coordinate
Oops I mean C2xC6xC30
quick question, really silly, but (1 2)(1 2) would be an example of the identity function , right
Yeah
2 cycles are self inverse
cool! Thanks!
Hey!, could this be true without asking H normal in G?
$Let ( G ) be a finite group, ( H \triangleleft G ), ( p ) a prime divisor of ( |G| ), and ( P ) a Sylow-( p )-subgroup of ( G ). Then ( H \cap P ) is a Sylow-( p )-subgroup of ( H ).$
Asking because in proving this I didn´t use it so is surely wrong but, idk. (I did it observing that $H\cap P$ is a p-subgroup of H and then taking Q a p-sylow of H. Then I know $Q \subseteq gPg^{-1}$ for some g in G. Then $|Q| \leq |H \cap P|$, so H \cap P must be a p-sylow of H, right?)
ArgR4N
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
No it would be pretty far from being true if H were not normal. For example take H to be a Sylow subgroup of G other than P
Thinking about this more, I think I just need to remove the elements I’ve counted which have order 2 and order 3, which I should be able to do as a basic counting argument
But I don’t think that’s what you’re saying, could I ask what you had in mind?
"Then |Q| < |H cap P|" is incorrect
OOOO is see
If you factor everything into cyclic p-groups then there's just prime factors to deal with. Then you just need to count the number of stuff with both a factor of 2 and 3
You need normality for doing H\cap gPg^g{-1} = g(H\cap P)g^{-1} to conclude that, rigth?
For example
(C2)^m x (C3)^n
has
(2^m - 1)(3^n - 1) elements of order 6
Yeah
g (H \cap P) g^-1 = gHg^-1 \cap gPg^-1
thx
How would I show that there's no 3 or 4 cycle of order 2
in S_4
I mean I could brute force it, for S_4, but that doesn't seem very fun
Ah ok yes this is much nicer
I did my counting argument and got 56, but that’s far more annoying than saying A=(C2)^3 x (C3)^2 x(C5) so have 7*8 elements of order 6
An n-cycle has order n
I'm not sure how you're defining n-cycle without that being immediate
But either way you can try to prove that
Unless I'm missing something, artin hasn;t defined n-cycles that way
I could have just missed it though, for I can't find a defn on a n-cycle
He doesnt spell it out but it should be pretty instantaneous
Let $\rho$ and $\rho$ be two (not necessarily equivalent) irreducible representations. Let $R$ be the matrix of our representation $\rho$ and $R'$ the matrix of $\rho'$.
Serre now defined a blinear form
$\ \langle r_{i_2,j_2,} , r_{j_1,i_1} \rangle = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g \in G} r_{i_2,j_2,} (g^{-1}) r_{j_1,i_1}(g) \$
And said, that his would be an inner product of our Vector space $\mathbb{C}^G$ (this contains all functions $f: G \to \mathbb{C}$ iff $\rho$ and $\rho'$ are unitary representations. Then he wrote, that we can always get a to $\rho$ isomorphic representations which is unitary regarding the inner product $\langle \psi, \phi \rangle = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g \in G} \psi(g) \overline{\phi(g)}$ with $\psi, \phi \in \mathbb{C}^G$. And i dont understand why we can have such unitary representations
I thought it's just a cycle with n distinct elements
damn
galev
Oops. i Talk about representations of finite groups.
I suggest trying to prove it, suppose you had an n cycle with order less than n and see that it doesn’t work
Look at the action on 1
I can't quite parse your sentence. Are you asking why there is always a unitary representation isomorphic to a given representation rho?
yes
hmm, okay
I googled and the internet talks about 'Weyl's unitary trick' which i dont get, because they define a new scalar product, where our representation is unitary regarding the new scalar product
But couldn't it be, that the new scalar product isn't as defined as this one here?
So your representation is G acting on C^n.
Define an inner product by
<v, w>_G = 1/|G| Sum <gv, gw>
Notice that the action of G is unitary with respect to this inner product.
Now pick an orthonormal basis, then the change of basis from standard to the new basis gives you an isomorphism of representations.
Or closer to your notation, if $\rho$ is an n-dimensional representation you define inner product on $\mathbb C^n$ by
$\langle v, w\rangle_G = \frac1{|G|} \sum_g \langle \rho(g)v, \rho(g)w\rangle$
If P is a change of basis from standard basis to an orthonormal basis wrt the new inner product, then
$new-\rho(g) = P \rho(g) P^{-1}$ is unitary.
jagr2808
I don´t understand a thing of this is incredible, can I ask what´s rho?
rho is defined as rho: G \to GL(V). In this case V is C^n and G is a finite group
(Because im too dumb for representation theory on compact groups)
It works the same for compact groups just replacing sum by integral
Oh, good to know.
I just don't like serre's introduction to representation theory
And what makes the role for 1/|G|?
So really you replace
1/|G| \sum
By integral wrt the normalized Haar measure
So if you will |G| is replaced by the volume of your group
$|G| \coloneqq \int_{g\in G} 1$
jagr2808
It's the unique (up to constant) measure on G that is preserved by left multiplication by elements g in G
Hi all. Does there exist a section of a quotient map $\mathbb{Z}(p^{r+1})^{\times} \to \mathbb{Z}(p)^{\times}$, where $p$ is an odd prime? The fact that $\mathbb{Z}(p^r)^{\times}$ is cyclic seems to imply that $\mathbb{Z}(p^r)^{\times} \cong \mathbb{Z}(p)^{\times} \times (1 + (p))$ because $(p - 1, p^r) = 1$, so the short exact sequence $1 \to 1 + (p) \to \mathbb{Z}(p^r)^{\times} \to \mathbb{Z}(p)^{\times} \to 1$ should split, but so far I failed to construct the section of the quotient map.
a-square
How difficult is it from 100 to 1000 to understand existence and uniqueness? 😅
I think it's not too difficult. Let's say 450.
Wikipedia describes the construction
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Haar_measure
In mathematical analysis, the Haar measure assigns an "invariant volume" to subsets of locally compact topological groups, consequently defining an integral for functions on those groups.
This measure was introduced by Alfréd Haar in 1933, though its special case for Lie groups had been introduced by Adolf Hurwitz in 1897 under the name "invari...
From 100 to 1000 is a unique scale
It does exist, just from the classification of finite abelian groups. But I'm not sure how easy it is to give an explicit construction of a section.
Actually,
x |-> x^p^r should work
I'm working on an exercise in Lang to prove that $\mathbb{Z}(p^r)^{\times}$ is cyclic. The reason I'm interested in this particular section is because that would conclude my proof by induction (I already proved that $1 + p$ generates $1 + (p)$).
a-square
Thanks, I'll try it
I don't see how this step would help anything in proving the group is cyclic.
If you've proven that 1+p has order p^r, then your done anyway
BTW should I be concerned by the fact that this exercise is difficult for me? The previous exercises about rings were pretty easy.
damn, you're right 😅
Idk, it's somewhat hard. I don't know what other exercises you've been doing, but some are harder than others of course
Okay, last question: why am I getting a deja vu from this exercise? The structure of $\mathbb{Z}(p^r)$ looks a whole lot like that of $K[C^{p^r}]$. Is it just because it's a local ring?
a-square
I guess so.
Assuming K has characteristic p they're pretty similar
Even in characteristic zero, $K[x]/(x^{p^r})^{\times} \cong K^{\times} \times (1 + (x))$, for example
a-square
There's a proof in Bass that I researched for another hobby project
Yes, K[x]/(x^n) would be a similar ring in general
K[C_p^r] is very different in characteristic not p though
1 need not necessarily be in the cycle, i suppose just look at the action on any number in the cycle? Or do you mean on 1 as in identity permutation
I was being imprecise, it can be any element of the cycle. My point was if you have sigma = (a_0,...,a_n) and k<n then sigma^k(a_0) = a_k \neq a_0
One could say wlog 1 is in the cycle, yeah (but if you were able to see that you should immediately also know why order is n)
Where in this case a_0 = 1 I suppose
why can't we follow the same proof (using zorns lemma) as showing all vector spaces have a basis for modules?
im referring to the one here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zorn's_lemma#Every_vector_space_has_a_basis
For a module you might get into a situation where you have a linearly dependent set that doesn't span, and yet if you add any of the elements missing from the span, you get a linearly dependent set.
So all Zorn's lemma will tell you in that case it that there exists a non-extensible linearly independent set, but it's specific to vector spaces that such a set will span the entire vector space.
For example, consider Z as a Z-module. The set {2} is linearly independent, but its span consists only of the even numbers.
I we try to add one of the missing numbers -- say 17 -- we get {2,17} which is not linearly independent because 17·2 + (-2)·17 = 0.
Dumb question but is rank Z_2 = 0 since there is no linearly independent set in Z_2
in linear algebra, the key to "linear independence -> spanning" is the fact that you can always divide by any scalars to get to a set of vectors with "minimal magnitude", per say.
in modules, as Tropo pointed out, it's possible to have a maximal LD set that has "too big of a magnitude" to reach some of the "smaller" vectors in the module
yep, it's because the torsion forces any nonempty collection of vectors to always have a nontrivial homohgenous solution, i.e. be LD with the 0 vector (assuming you're talking about it as a Z-module)
Got it thanks
Which kind of rank? As a Z-module it is 0; as a Z_2-module it is 1.
As a Z-module
Can anyone give me any pointers for how to do part b of this? Also, pretty sure a) is false for p = 3, but that doesnt matter
The only examples weve had in workshops for composition series have been for like S_4 or C_n so have been rather easy
Without stating the obvious, try to find a nice normal subgroup
Ok so N is normal and isomorphic to F_n
Oh wait yeah I forgot they gave you that lol OK nice
What do you mean by Fn
I genuinely could not possibly hope to tell you
I guess Fp lol
If you replace like a^-1 by a this is scaling and translation but I misread
Yeah exactly
Ah wait but then thats a group of order 88, and I can do that
then just stitch them together
Also you can just quote what it is
Like there is a theorem on what Fp^x is as a group
how about this: can you identify what G/G' is?
look at the matrix components
C_p-1
Yeah ok, I was kinda forgetting how I did a lol
In fact I mean this is a group of order p(p-1) and there aren't too many options
I wonder a) can be done without much computation
I did exactly no computations
Very good
I guess 2) and 1) show they are all commutators and then you check the quotient is abelian?
Yeah I mean I didnt write out an actual isomorphism I just kinda looked at it and realised it looked like F_p lol
I just kinda hand waved part a) and done it by vibes, I think you can say something about F_p having no proper subgroups and the commutator is non trivial
I think if you combine 1) and 2) you get like the thing with a^2b - a as a commutator but yee
But that still uses minor computation ig
c) is interesting
I need to head home now but ill try it when I get home, im guessing its just a bunch of case checking
Im a chronic last bus catcher, I’ve been grinding
And it’s not paid off this has been my worst semester of exams ever
What are the ideals in the ring $M_n(\mathbb{C})$? I've spent a while and can't figure it out
Luke
I am confused about how to do this
So I understand that the ideals of Z2 are {0} and itself and the ideals of Z4 are itself, 2Z2 and {0}. So, the ideals of Z2xZ4 are all the pairs of ideals.
well then you're basically done; recall that an ideal I is maximal in R iff R/I is a field, and I is prime in R iff R/I is an integral domain
You need to specify left or right
But when you multiply by elementary matrices you can start to realize their structure, its related to ideals in C
(I guess this isn’t very helpful when you have a field, but it’s basically the same process to identify ideals of M_n(R) for any ring R)
I have to show if H and K are subgroups of G, HK is a group if and only if HK = KH.
But I can only conclude that if HK is a group then KH \subset HK, how can I show HK \subset KH?
for left is it just sets of matrices with only non-zero entries in a particular column
Well we want to show that any product of the form hk, can be written as k'h' right? We know HK is a subgroup, so given any $hk \in HK$ let $hk = a^{-1}$ for some $a \in HK$ so that means $a = h_1k_1$ now I think you can finish the argument
Neamesis
(This is proposition 14. in D&F btw, I didn't come up with this
)
I got it, thank you ❤️
Those are left ideals, but there are more.
Anyway, if this is an exercise then I'm assuming you might be meant to find the twosided ideals.
They have a bit of a simpler structure (and there are much fewer of them)
Is this where Morita equivalence comes in?
I’ve only ever looked at the case of 2 sided ideals but I vaguely remember reading the description of a project on Morita equivalence and I thought it mentioned something like that
Morita equivalence would be more helpful for finding the left ideals
These are commutative rings. Surely the left ideals are equal to the right ideals in that case?
Matrix multiplication is very much not commutative
oh wait nvm. I missunderstood your answer
Yes. I get the same answer. In fact $\mathbb{Z}_2$ is a field so there are only the trivial ideals. Note that $2\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z} \subset \mathbb{Z}_4$ is a prime ideal. We can lift it up to $\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_4$ to create prime ideals for the product.
Ante0417
Moreover, $\mathbb{Z}_2$ and $\mathbb{Z}_4$ are principal ideal domains. I then claim that it follows that $\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_4$ is P.I.D. In principal ideal domains the notions of prime and maximal are equivalent.
Ante0417
Yes, the right is the same except for the rows, and the two sided ideals are the trivia ideals
The twosided ideals are indeed the trivial ones. And you get a bijection between left ideals and right ideals by transposing. I guess that's what you mean by "the same"(?)
Let $K$ be a field. Suppose I want to characterize the units in the non-integral domain $K[X,Y]/(XY^2)$. Is the following a valid argument?
$\bar{g} \bar{\epsilon} = \bar{1} \Leftrightarrow g\epsilon \in \bar{1} \Leftrightarrow g\epsilon = 1 + pXY^2$ for some $p \in K[X,Y]$. But clearly, $K[X,Y]$ is an integral domain. Hence, it must be that $g\epsilon = (r + a(XY^2))(r^{-1} + b(XY^2))$ for $r \in K$. Then, $\bar{\epsilon} = r$. Hence, we conclude that the units are exactly K.
Ante0417
I don't know how you're concluding the "hence it must be that" part, but have you considered
(1+XY)(1-XY)
No you are right. This proof is incorrect and I think its precisely the line referring to.
Maybe we can just add another case to it
We can maybe consider another case $g \epsilon = (r + p)(r^{-1} - p)$ where $p^2 | XY^2$
Ante0417
I think it would probably be better to write out a general product of polynomials and see which conditions are needed for them to multiply to 1 in the quotient ring
Why more so for left ideals? Is it not a symmetric notion? I do perhaps just need to actually read and understand this so telling me to do that is also a valid response lol
I can't imagine an equivalence between categories of left modules implying an equivalence between categories of right modules
Yeah I get that left and right modules are generally quite different, I guess my thought was more that it would be odd if equivalnce of left modules gave you more information than equivalnce of right
But youre not wrong in what you say, that would be a surprising implication I suppose
I meant as opposed to twosided ideals
Morita equivalence gives you information about modules and left/right ideals are left/right modules
Yes, that was also what I meant lol
Yes no sorry my question was about one sided ideals to begin with lol
The proof is straightforward for 2 sided
Though it's an interesting question whether Morita equivalence of left modules implies a Morita equivalence of right modules
My first thought is no, but also that a counterexample would need to be ugly...
I feel like an answer either way would be interesting none the less
It can be shown that the left module categories R-Mod and S-Mod are equivalent if and only if the right module categories Mod-R and Mod-S are equivalent.
Actually, it's not too hard come to think of it.
Hom(-, R) is a duality between fg projective left modules and fg projective right modules, so would send a progenerator to a progenerator
Ah yeah that makes sense
I really want to learn more about Morita equivalence an all of that, my noncom lecturer usually supervises dissertations on it and it seems pretty cool. She had suggested a mini-project about rings which are morita equivalent to the first weyl algebra but that seemed like too much work
Possibly fun exercise: Morita equivalent rings have isomorphic centers. -> define the center of an abelian category such that Z(Mod R) = Z(R)
I saw some videos about this by a channel called K-Theory
Oh, well of course
Modules are nice objects, I should've known
I have my group theory exam in an hour but I will think about this when I have a chance lol
I think this will come down to the same reason that Morita equivalence is only interesting for noncom rings though
Yeah, commutative Morita equivalent rings are isomorphic, but you can still have equivalences between one commutative and one non-commutative
Which can be interesting
And then that commutative ring is necessarily isomorphic to the center of the non-commutative one :0
How much does that actually say about the noncommutative ring?
Oh that’s pretty nice
What the center is? Not a lot. Tells you if it's connected or not
No I meant whether it's Morita equivalent to it's center
Does that make it "pseudo commutative"? Or anything
All is well, nothing to see here
I guess yeah, idk if there's anything that particularly stands out about the rep theory of commutative rings, but you would have that the category of left modules is equivalent to the category of right modules, that's something
Hmm
Morita equivalence is surprisingly well defined and says more about the ring itself then I'd imagine
Men in black type shit
Well maybe you can say something about the ideals of the center and left ideals of your ring
Actually, since it equals End(P) for a progenerator and you have this duality you should get that it's isomorphic to its opposite
Interesting
No, scratch this. Was thinking Hom(-,R) would be the identity for commutative R, but thats not true 😢
I mean, it's not weak I guess, but there are loads of such algebras.
Is it normal that I forgot group and field theory as I do not use it in practice?
I forgot the Sylow theorems completely, except for that it uses actions to analyze structure
i think that’s normal. i too forgot all of that same stuff. i do not use it in the math that i am interested in (god knows it will come back. the stuff you never thought you needed again always comes back…)
Btw what are you majoring in?
Also thanks for reassurance
i recently graduated. i majored in math and cs
wbu?
I am doing PhD in cryptography
Graduated uni?
yea, undergrad
searching for swe, quant, and hardware verification roles. really just something in cs
planning to go back to school later
Ahh, you going for CS?
well, i need an income, so i am hoping to use cs for that. but i want to go back to school for math
I see, sounds like a good plan!
As long as you have honed skills, you would settle pretty well
thanks! wbu? are you planning to go into academia or industry after your phd?
I am not sure, likely research position in industry
i see, that sounds like fun!
Yea, thanks!
gl you both heh
Yeh
Hello Absta 
I think this is normal, and there is a silver lining that the understanding has more gotten lost than disappeared and you will be able to pick it up again if and when you try much more easily than the first time.
z(y-1) is not a zero divisor on k[x,y,z]/(x(y-1), y))? But x is nonzero in k[x,y,z]/(x(y-1), y)) and z(y-1)*x = 0?
i was just looking at an example of a regular sequence
What you wrote is the definition of being a zero divisor, so that would make it a zero divisor
so x(y-1), y, z(y-1) is not a regular sequence?
this example in matsumuura says its a regular sequence
ohh shoot
If A is noetherian, then the length of a maximal M-sequence contained in an ideal I is well-defined because of the ACC ?
That group theory exam was the thing dreams are made of
I may have just had the worst exam period of my life but I ended it on an insanely high note Jesus Christ
All I needed was some unadulterated algebra, none of that topological or geometric fluff
And combined with getting an 80 on my diss yesterday I should actually be on for a first despite my horrific performance in the others
Now time to sit in the sun and drink all the maths back out of my head 
F yeah
Your diss? Were you like “Riemann, imma show you sum, your math so whack it attract the cranks”
Exactly what I did, wasn’t an honours dissertation
/ UG thesis depending on your proclivities
Well done hehe
@kind temple sup bro
sup
inf
glb
lub
Hey, I got interested in understanding algebra a little more in depth, more than the usual introductory (first courses of an undergraduate) that involves stuff like matrices, sets, relations, functions, vector spaces, beginner to number theory stuff like congruence, polynomial concept, induction.
Specifically my interest is more about the abstract part, never got to learn in depth stuff like groups, rings, classes.
The thing is that the books I got so far are hard to understand the general idea because I guess most of them are used as reading material for courses (even if the preface says you can study it on your own).
Anyways, I'm looking for recommendations in books that somehow bridge that gap between undergraduate algebra to abstract algebra. My interests are mainly discrete mathematics, computer science, formal logic.
I post here because I don't know if I'm blind but didn't see an algebra channel, ping me if I'm wrong!
The TLDR is I want to bridge gap between algebra and abstract algebra, but books I've seen so far are too basic (gets up to undergraduate algebra) or simply too hard because it seems like the "second exposition" kind of resources.
Undergraduate algebra is abstract algebra
Read Dummit and Foote
Is that kind of "read in the order you need" kind of book? I'm looking at the contents and it looks like so
You should start with groups in my opinion, but some later parts are sort of interchangeable in terms of order.
Maybe. They will tell you in the text at what point you can skip around, until then keep moving forward in a linear fashion
A good understanding of groups is essentially necessary for algebra in general.
If you know groups, you will find rings easy
if you know rings, you can do anything 🔥
This is section 3.3
Yes these little notes on what parts are now accessible are one thing I really like about the book.
I'm just interested in general topics, I'm not studying mathematics formally yet, just computer science, my favourite part of CS was the discrete math, number theory, axiomatic logic part, and I also found out a real grasp on abstract algebra is mandatory for not getting lost in more advance topics.
Another thing I love about D&F is the 10 trillion examples they provide every section
The book you mentioned looks like a big chunk
You don't have to do the entire book
There is no abstract algebra without groups. You need to study them.
you can do like chapters 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8
chapter 5 as well, that's also important
it has the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups
Start with groups, make some progress, then decide which parts you don't need as per your requirements.
What do you think about this one? is cheaper on my country
https://www.amazon.com/Contemporary-Abstract-Algebra-Joseph-Gallian/dp/1133599702
CONTEMPORARY ABSTRACT ALGEBRA, EIGHTH EDITION provides a solid introduction to the traditional topics in abstract algebra while conveying to students that it is a contemporary subject used daily by working mathematicians, computer scientists, physicists, and chemists. The text includes numerous f...
That one is good too
it's quite colorful and there's a lot of pictures
and there are fun little quotes at the end of every section
and at the end of every chapter there's a biography about a mathematician
quite a fun book
my friend has it
But I myself prefer D&F as I love everything about this book 
Hard to judge, I just tend to read a big source and use other sources as complementary material, but always returning to the single source, I don't really know the technique to study math in a real setting, I guess my approach doesn't work with the university times
it's not just university times
learning math is like a ladder
without the bottom rungs, you cannot get to the top
Not used to just skip straight to other chapters, that is why it is hard to find the material
The 'technique to study math in a real setting' is to work through a well-chosen book.
Yes it's usually a bad idea to skip straight to a chapter without have the prerequisties to study that chapter
Yeah that is my point but you always need something from the other field to learn the field you are at, like you could start from naive set theory and I guess you will still need some first order logic at minimum
I don't see what the confusion is
