#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 322 of 1
wikipedia only defines positive definite for hermetian matrices
For context, i was looking at the solution to this problem
the first two parts are quite logical
I think proving the spectral theorem goes beyond a level where you could understand the notion of being positive definite. But like you could also just run a course without it, it’s a perfectly valid choice
There’s a lot of linear algebra out there and only so many weeks in a semester
Just wait until you do anything physics adjacent and they use slightly different words for every property of a matrix lol
ive seen a lot of memes/ppl making fun of math used in physics
Meh, a lot of that’s just like first year UG memeing, there’s a lot of serious maths used in physics
Anyway, moral of the story, don’t be upset about not being aware of a definition, it happens, there’s lots of maths and not much time
Weird. I would have just defined it as x^TMx > 0
this might be a bit of a silly remark, but i feel like theres just so much in linear algebra
if that makes sense
like theres the sideway <
whatever that is
always looks fancy
and then direct sum, but times
and idk just a bunch of stuff
and it all feels distinct
like analysis didn't really feel like all that much content imo
and group theory (although i dont know that much) doesn't seem that broad either?
I mean theres a few things to say about that I think. Linear algebra is the study of vector spaces, its going to be broad, that is a broad goal. It perhaps feels more like disjoint topics then analysis because in some sense it is, the study of any vector spaces is argueably a more broad goal than understanding functions on a specific set (the real numbers).
More so though, I think algebra is just more unfamilar to you, stuff like the wedge sum (the sideways < you mention), the direct sum etc etc occur all over algebra. These ideas do repeat, and the do generalise. Vector spaces are modules over a field, so you can relax the field requirement to say commutative rings, which is where algebraic geometry lives. You can relax that further to non-commutative rings which is another broad fun area. But also all rings have an abelian group structure, and they all have a monoid structure etc etc
But even at the course level, I do imagine LA will be one of the most content dense courses you take in UG for the simple reason that LA appears everywhere
No matter what you do with maths you will need linear algebra at some point
Can anyone explain the preposition part ie why Gf lies in Sp to me
I think that is probably the key point in all honesty, it likely just is a bigger course than anything else youll take in your UG, there is a lot to say about any area of maths you can think about, but it just starts to get a little specific. Everyone benifits from more LA
All of math is some form of generalisation of linear algebra in a way thats why it is vast
Even the question i asked right now (Galois theory) is an attempt to generalise linear algebra
well for galois extensions, any automorphism is uniquely determined by its action on the roots of f
and the automorphism must send a root of f to another root of f
Oh got it
so combining these two facts we get that the galois group must embed into Sp
so it suffices to show that G generates the rest of Sp
Thanks @velvet hull
yeah what's the issue
First paragraph
Why is it cyclic and what is E×
given any ring R, R^x denotes the group of units of R
so for fields, F^x is just F \ {0} because everything nonzero is a unit
So why is E^× cyclic
ah, I can prove a stronger statement for you:
Let R be an integral domain.
If G is any finite subgroup of R^x, then G is cyclic
Since G is finite and abelian, the fundamental theorem of finitely generated ab groups tells us that G is isomorphic to a product of a bunch of cyclic groups Z_{i1} x Z_{i2} x ... x Z_{ij}.
Let k = lcm(i1, i2, ... , ij),
Then g^k = 1 for all g in G by Lagrange's theorem.
But then every element of G is a root of the polynomial x^k-1 = 0, so |G| = k.
But then this means that k = |G| = i1*i2*i3* ... * ij, or in other words all the i's are coprime.
Thus their product is isomorphic to a cyclic group.
(unfinished)
It’s actually equivalent teehee,
Let G be a finite subgroup of R^x, and F the field of fractions of R. Then G is a finite subgroup of F^x
OK
truee
They're equivalent as they're both true
Go fucking die in a death
Let R be a ring in which x^|G| = 1 has no more than |G| roots
the proof I originally had in mind uses a lemma that's annoying to prove, but I think this works
I would argue the contrary, depending on how far you're willing to take the definition of linear algebra
People who study division rings should be observed like little critters
But then again, depth or width of a branch of math really isn't comparable as every branch of math can be extended indefinitely, especially widely used subjects like group theory or LA
but for the sake of posterity, here it is:
Lemma. If G is a finite abelian group such that for all n, there are at most n elements of order n, then G is cyclic.
Let |G| = n.
Then every element of G satisfies the polynomial x^n-1=0 by Lagrange's Theorem.
Then for every 1 <= m <= n, there are at most m elements in G of order m because they must be exactly the solution set to x^m-1=0.
Thus G is cyclic.
the lemma is annoying to prove look it up
it's a pretty useful lemma regardless, as you see here
I mean, it kinda follows from the classification of finite abelian groups
oh true, with the FT it becomes really easy
And you can just use the classification of fg modules over a PID to get that
Without that I guess it's Möbius inversion time
So you're basically done
It seems easier to just prove that classification
Agreed
the PID classification haunts me in my nightmares
It's very clean, I like it
the result is clean sure
But?
Is it not exactly the same?
Idk I've never gone through the proof for a general PID
Topology?
Generalisation of metric spaces
I wouldn't count that as LA
Metric spaces is linear algebra now?
It is LA . The most obvious metric space is Rⁿ
And much of its properties come from the fact that it is a NLS
Does that mean set theory is linear algebra because R is a set
Lol
Closure operators are field theory because they generalize the fundamental theorem of Galois theory
The setup of 2.20 is just that R is a pid and P = R[X]. How is it true that n = 2 if the chain is maximal and R has infinitely many primes? isnt (2, X) in Z[X] a maximal chain of length 1 despite Z having infinitely many primes?
As far as linear algebra is concerned it’s mostly the inner product structure you care about no? At the very least the fact it’s a normed vector space rather than just the metric properties
Explain the generalisation for analytic number theory and you’ll have me convinced
either youre misunderstanding the question or im misunderstanding your answer
lol I wish i had an advisor
Bro calling the manager
but aren't you missing (2) / (x)?
oooh
i was thinking we were only considering subchains that are heads of longer chains
since we're working over PIDs the explanation is pretty intuitive.
any chain has at most 2, because the base ring can contribute at most 1 prime, and then the indeterminate itself can also only contribute at most 1 prime
do yall think someone can explain conjugation in the symmetric group
sure, what about it?
okay so like I see this yea
(1452), (134)(25), (2541) are all members of S_5 yea?
how does it have 4 indices then
if it maps 5 symbols
well you just leave the last one unchanged
so if you really want to write it out it's (1452)(3)
but we usually omit the 3
so (12345) * (1452)(3) = (14352) ?
I got (1534)
wait hol on
(12345) * (1452)(3) = (1534)(2)
is that how it works
as in I was under the impression that each symmetric group number served as like an index
yk
i dont know what you mean but as long as you got it now
like (12345)(21345)(31245) = (21345)(31245) = (32145)
each number in the element of the group indexes the previous set of numbers
and thats how they sorta work
okay wait can you explain how you got this
HChan
chat I have an issue with part b) of this exercise, I don't think it's entirely accurate
am I wrong? or was the condition (n, a) = 1 missing in D&F?
how is that a contradiction
gxg^{-1} = x^2 has no solution right
the group is abelian
so its equivalent to x=0 which isnt possible
You're right
But in a general finite group G, if we had gxg^-1 = x^2 (where |x| = 12), then it would be a problem would it not?
by that i mean g couldn't be in the normalizer then
why not
hm wait nevermind
we're looking at the normalizer of the cyclic subgroup generated by x in G
not the normalizer of G
I was just confusing the two
thanks 
np
but wait here we don't know if g commutes with x, since x, g \in G (which may not be abelian)
so gxg^{-1} = x^2 might be possible
in which case g <x> g^{-1} = <x^2> so it wouldn't be a normalizer
I should find a concrete counterexample
You cant choose what a equals
The correct way to give a counter would be to give G,x and g
That is true
Now I was having a hard time finding that, because there is no counterexample 
@rose prism @vocal pebble Okay I've proven it 
Now I can rest easy, and proceed with the rest of the proof
it was kind of annoying to prove that g<x>g^{-1} = <x> without knowing a priori that (a, n) = 1
I mean it's perfectly valid
I just don't like it 
If you want a much simpler proof, here is Bezier's proof:
if (a,n)=d, then x^(an/d) = 1. Hence 1 = (gxg^-1)^(n/d) = g^(n/d) x^(n/d) g^-1(n/d). Hence x^(n/d) = 1, meaning d=1
Chat
I know there's a relatively simple classification theorem for finite abelian groups
But what about finite non-abelian groups?
is research being done on that ?
We have the classification of all simple groups
Which is like, thousands? Of pages long all research combined
Group extensions in the abelian case are already messy enough
Group extensions in the nonabelian case are horrid
It’s absolutely insane to even consider, think about classifying just 2-groups and how impossible that is.
It’s a miracle the simple groups are nice enough to completely write down
Classifying only two groups seems doable

Here, C6 and C12
Why I oughtaaaaaaa
But yeah, amen
Oh I mean simple ones lol
Just like afaik it hasn't been written up nicely and people have found errors and stuff which have then been fixed or whatever
Wasn't there meant to be smth but one of the authors died lol
That would be such a thing to happen
that's the thing with the monster group and E_8 lattice and stuff right?
monsterous moonshine conjecture?
or I suppose that's different
oh I guess the monster group is one of the simple groups
2-groups? groups of order 2? that's easy! every group of order 2 is isomorphic to Z_2
where's my nobel prize? 
not noble, Abel prize
that's part of the joke 
is a group where every element is of the same prime order always abelian?
No, e.g. the Heisenberg p-group (of order p^3) has this property
I see. Thanks!
exercise: show that if this particular prime is 2 then your group does indeed need to be abelian
not true
Just did that that's why I was wondering :D
oh
there's an extenstion of C_p^2 by C_p which is exponent p^2
good catch thanks
is there a nice bigger family of examples for this
e.g. is there an example of order p^n for all n
good question. I do know of a larger one as a sylow of some nonsense
I'm trying to remember how the classification of p^4 odd p goes
i think i have a silly question lol
what is < e_1,...,e_p | e_i e_j = e_{j+k} where subscripts taken mod p lol>
inb4 trivial group
looks blackburn-group esque but I'll have to check
this feels like a natural construction though
there is one for p^4
it's an extenstion of the heisenberg group by C_p surprise surprise
it's abelian whatever it is. e_ie_je_i^(-1)e_j^(-1) = e_ie_j(e_je_i)^(-1) = e_{i+j}e_{j+i}^{-1} = 1
this is true lol
actually yeah this is silly cause e_p e_p = e_p so e_p = 1
and then yeah just note that in a commutator the sum is 0
and everything is order p lol
np
I think this is a more fruitful way of trying to prove this
just keep extending
actually wait are we silly. If you have He_p then just take He_p*C_p^n to get a non-abelian exponent p thing of whatever order you want
ur welk
oh lol
very true
Eepy
Assuming you mean e_{i+j}, isn't this just a multiplication table for the cyclic group of order p?
Very true lol, the relations imply e_k = e_1^k
This is the solution to an exam problem asking for the Galois group of x^3 - 2. Am I wrong, or is this 10 times longer than necessary? Like, we know the Galois group is a subgroup of S_3, and |G| = 6, so G = S_3, right?
Seems like they're avoiding to use that we know the Galois group is a subgroup of S3.
I hate stuff like that
Just use the theorems we have available, why make things difficult!
surely the fact that the Galois group is a subgroup of S_n is pretty elementary, I don't see why you can't use that
(not ranting at you btw, just ranting in general)
it is super elementary and i would just do this lol
in my experience model solutions etc are often suboptimal lol
just the existence of idempotent not equal to 0,1 is enough to disprove that it is a field, right? what is the all the yapping after that for?one can simply say:
e = \delta - 5 is not 0,1, so e and 1-e are not 0 but their product is 0, which dont happen in fields...
Yeah that's enough to conclude it's not a field, but I think the following yapping is just to show more specifically what kind of ring it is
ok
so e is like a "projection operator"
so if there is nonzero nonidentity idempotent eS x (1-e)S is not degenerate and we have isomorphism from S -> eSx(1-e)S
but is the fact that its isomorphic to F11 x F11 already not apparent from the fact that (1,\delta) is a basis for the ring S = F11[\delta]?
Let $G$ be a group and let $A, B \subseteq G.$ $A \subseteq H \iff B \subseteq H \ \forall H \leq G$ is enough to ensure that $\langle A \rangle = \bigcap_{A \subseteq H \leq G} H = \bigcap_{B \subseteq H \leq G} H = \langle B \rangle$ right?
Neamesis
what is the actual question
My reasoning is that
I just want to check if my reasoning is correct with this one
my reasoning is that if A is a subset of H iff B is a subset of H \leq G, then taking the intersection over all such subgroups should yield the same subgroup
i.e both the sets must generate the same subgroup
looks fine as subgroup containing A has bijective correspondence with subgroup containg B
oh right yea you can state it in terms of a bijective correspondence as well
alright thanks 
This is useful to restate a subgroup generated by a subset in terms of generating it by some other easier to work with subset
Yes. You can also put H = B to see A ⊆ B and H = A to see B ⊆ A.
H is subgroup when B may not be
it is el classico solution
Let $L/K$ be a finite field extension. Show that for any $a \in L$, the minimal polynomial of a over K coincides with the minimal polynomial of the K-vector space homomorphism $\phi_a : L \rightarrow L, x \mapsto ax$.
Ante0417
I don't understand this question. In particular, what is the minimal polynomial of a K-vector space homomorphism? I have only seen it defined in terms of algebraic elements.
it's the minimal polynomial of the linear map phi.
in simplest terms, it's the radical of the characteristic polynomial det(A-xI), I'm trying to figure out a better way to explain it
Hey, I would like to show that f(x) = x^4 + 3 cannot is irreducible over F_5, why I could not use eisenstein criterion, what can I do ?
eisenstein's criterion relies on the fact that f(x) being irreducible in Z[x] implies irreducibility in Q[x] (Gauss's lemma)
and that relationship arises from the fact that Q is the field of fractions of Z
or in other words, factoring numbers in Z is "as good as" factoring numbers in Q
that is no longer true between F_p and Z
yep, thanks, It was a stupid idea
hint - ||fermat's little theorem||, ||x^4 is identically 1 in F_5||
In general for any element x of a K-algebra, its minimal polynomial is the monic polynomial of smallest degree with x as root.
I don’t buy this. Polynomials are not polynomial functions. And the function x -> x^4 is not the identity, it’s 1 on the units by fermat’s little theorem. Even if it was, what would this say about x^4+1? x+1 is certainly irreducible but x^4+1 isn’t.
Instead you could use Rabin’s algorithm or just make deductions about possible quadratic factors by comparing coefficients to arrive at a contradiction
first part is a typo, otherwise you're right
wanna make sure im understanding what they mean by conjugacy classes right
yeah i dont really get what they mean by conjugacy classes here
would you take a group of these homomorphisms, where your operation is multiplication?
i.e. $\tau \star \sigma(x) = \tau(x)\sigma(x) = \tau(x) \circ \sigma(x)$
donut123
It says conjugacy classes under Sn
yeah, so its what i was saying right?
So conjugation here is probably φ → (y → x^-1 φ(y) x)
ok i think that makes sense
as 3 and -3 are quadratic non residue , now try to write this as product of two qudratic with undetermined coefficiants
if 3 and -3 were quadratic residues it would mean that x^2 \equiv 3 (mod n) has a solution right (similarly for -3)?
yes
I'm glad I still remember some basic NT
you have to take n= p prime
ah okay
it need not always form a group? since inverses needn't exist
a_n is just the number of orbits when S_n acts on the set of homomorphisms by conjugation im guessing
Wait so f and g would be in the same class if there exists some h (homo G to Sn) such that for all x in G, h(x)f(x)h^{-1}(x) = g(x)
Oh actually nah h would just be any permutation
Oh that makes sense
So Sn acts on the set of homomorphisms from G to Sn by conjugation
Oh that’s literally what you just said
whats the meaning of studying all this when we have to go to war
So that you might have seen something beautiful before being pushed into the killzone
at the end that beutiful thing doesnt matter
that will be left with the body
Is "at the end" everything that matters
The sun will eat the earth in some years anyway
in 2026
math is beutiful but then why people says that it is language of universe
People say that because math is the language of science and statistics
But science and statistics are very earthling things
yes
so it is language of science developed on earth
By definition they are an earthly attempt to probe the cosmos
so it is mere attempt , to live in delusion
To call something delusional implies there is something else that is more real
I love war
Bro, what the fuck
sure, beyond
What's the meaning of doing anything besides making yourself angry at the people you're going to war with then???
We all have existential crises sometimes 🫂
Hell, you're gonna die in war anyways, so why not just kill yourself immediately right now
develop science for more intense war , so that we have to build things again
What is realest is what's in front of you
a coward words are those, i would die as a warrior
Absolutely indoctrinated
that i am looking for
If it weren't for H*tler we wouldn't have spectral sequences
I would frankly like the moderators to step in
wait im still confused
one? 🙋♂️
I have solved upto part H already, but couldn't start with part J
How can Sn act by conjugation on homomorphisms from G to Sn
Do you like fix some element of G, and conjugate on phi(x)
The group structure, I have proved is D4
thats because galois group has order less than 8 and cant be abelian(if it is then K will be galois which is not galois) so D_4 is write ans for part (H)
Let $S_n$ be the symmetric group on $n$ elements (we agree that $S_0=1$). Compute $h(z) := \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_nz^n$, where $a_n$ is the number of conjugacy classes (under $S_n$) of homomorphisms of $\phi\colon G\to S_n$,where $G = \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$
donut123
So I'm still struggling to understand what conjugation means here
but focusing on the homomorphism part, you can always consider the associated group action ($g\cdot x = \varphi(g)$)
donut123
If you split up $[n] = {1,\dots,n}$ into orbits, each orbit is quotient of $G$ by stabilizer.
donut123
Your stabilizer is a subgroup of $V_4$ (same thing as $G$), so its either the group itself, one of the three order two subgroups, or trivial
donut123
Now the logical leap I don't get in the solution is that they just say
The stabilizers are $1, G$, and the three versions of $\mathbb{Z}/2$. So the number of conjugacy classes is the number of solutions to the equation $n_1 + 2(n_2+n_3+n_4) + 4n_5 = n$
donut123
because we have nothing to loose
Hi all, I need help with an excercise from Pinter: "Let $c \in \mathbb{C}$ be a root of a cubic $f \in \mathbb{Q}[x]$. Then $\mathbb{Q}(c)$ is the splitting field of $f$."
a-square
This isn't true
I need a hint. I tried looking at the various fields involved and only managed to prove that the splitting field is of degree at most 6. I then tried calculating the roots directly and got a quadratic discriminant that doesn't look like it's a perfect square
Or is the question to see if it is true lol
Hm pretty sure this is just false. For example the "root field" [usually people say splitting field] of x^3 - 2 is not of this form
For any choice of root
Indeed Q(c)/Q is a degree 3 extension for any root, but the splitting field is a degree 6 extension of Q
The other exercises seem fine for what it's worth
I noticed errors in some other exercises in the latter chapters of Pinter, but this is the first time when the result is flat out wrong :\
Ah OK rip
Should I switch to another textbook for Galois theory maybe? I chose Pinter because it has lots of exercises, but I understand the basics of category theory (but not homological algebra) so a more advanced treatment is okay as long as it has exercises for both computations and proofs
For Galois theory textbooks you won't need any category theory or homological algebra anyway so you should be more than fine. It sort of depends on what you want to do with Galois theory I guess, but I quite liked Rotman's book (quite popular iirc) personally. The stacks project stuff is very clean too but a lil unorthodox
I'm doing it as a hobby. My goals are:
- Plug gaps in my undergraduate education, which was in applied maths,
- Prepare for taking on classic algebraic geometry (I've already started working through Harris's First Course in parallel).
Ah very nice
Oh another standard textbook is Stewart's iirc but yeah I would recommend either that or Rotman heh
Thanks!
The first edition aimed to give a geodesic path to the Fundamental Theorem of Galois Theory, and I still think its brevity is valuable. Alas, the book is now a bit longer, but I feel that the changes are worthwhile. I began by rewriting almost all the text, trying to make proofs clearer, and ofte...
Yes exactly
Help with this pls
Tteppa
So I'm assuming conjugacy classes here just means that two homomorphisms are the same if they differ by an inner automorphism of Sn.
So we're essentially just picking two commuting elements of order 2 (or 1), so they will be a product of disjoint transpositions, and you want have any halfway overlap of transportations between the two elements.
Other than that conjugation means you can relabel the transpositions however, so it's just about the amount of transportations and how they overlap.
So it would be something like
sum[i=0 to m] (i+1)(m-i+1)
where m = floor(n/2)
So m is the max possible disjoint transpositions, i is the number in the first element, then the overlap is between 0 and i, so i+1 possibilities and then between 0 and m-i for the rest.
I guess you can use the formula for triangular and pyramid numbers to make a nice formula
Feels like there should be some generating function methode to do this, but idk what it would be
solution
i don't really get anything after when they say partiion [1,n] into orbits, then get the stabilizers
like they seem to suddenly jump to the equation
also in your definition of conjugation, what you do you by they "differ" by an inner automorphism
The orbits is equal to G/H where H is the stabilizer
i got that
So you can write [1, n] as a disjoint union of G/H for various choices of H
yup
So then you get it?
well i dont get the jump from this to conjugation?
because this stuff all applies to a single homomorphism, right?
Not really no
we're saying that this homomorphism gives some group action, defined by $g\cdot x = \varphi(g)$
donut123
Yes
And then conjugation is the same as giving an isomorphism of G-sets, so you're just counting G-sets up to isomorphism
sry, whats a g-set 🥲
A set on which G acts
oh so like in this case, [1,n] is a G-set for G
Yeah, or [1, n] together with a specific action
so when we conjugate in this case, we are conjugating every element of this G-set?
so we would be conjugating $\varphi(x_1),\varphi(x_2),\dots,\vaprhi(x_k)$ for all $x_k \in G$ individually
donut123
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Say
psi: G -> Sn
and
phi: G -> Sn
are two actions on [1, n].
Then what it would mean for these to be isomorphic G-sets is that there is a bijection
f: [1, n] -> [1, n]
that commutes with the action, i.e.
f(psi(g) x) = phi(g) f(x)
Which means
f o psi(g) o f^-1 = phi(g)
I.e. phi and psi are conjugate
ok that makes sense
Ok I want to clarify my understanding. Say I have homomorphisms $\psi$ and $\phi$, and I have the $G$-sets $([1,n],\sigma)$ and $([1,n],\tau)$ respectively. If we already suppose $\psi$ and $\phi$ are conjugate, there exists some permutation $\rho$ such that for all $x \in G$, $\rho \circ \psi(x)\circ \rho^{-1} = \rho \circ (a_1a_2\dots a_k)\circ \rho^{-1} = (\rho(a_1)\rho(a_2)\dots\rho(a_k) = \phi(x)$. So if $H_\psi$ is the stabilizer of $x$ for the action $\sigma$, and $H_\phi$ is the stabilizer of $x$ for the action $\tau$, then left multiplication in $G/{H_\psi}$ and $G/{H_\phi}$ are the same, so $H_\psi = H_\phi$. On the other hand, if we suppose $H_\psi = H_\phi$, then the actions act the same, up to the elements of $[1,n]$ we choose to associate with this particular stabilizer. We can map these choices onto each other by conjugation, since conjugation in $S_n$ is kinda just relabelling the numbers in the permutation. Thus, $\psi$ and $\phi$ are conjugate if and only if the associated stabilizers are the same. Any choice of these stabilizers specifies a good action, so it suffices to count choices of these stabilizers. We can pick any subgroup, so that gives the given equation ($n_1$ is for $G$, $n_2,n_3,n_4$ are for $\mathbb{Z}/2$, $n_5$ is for ${e}$)
donut123
My last question is why does any choice of stabilizers create a valid action?
Like I get that the action comes from left multiplication on the cosets of $G/H$ for some subgroup $H$
donut123
yeah idk i just dont get how you start with some choice of subgroups and get an action
if the action is transitive it makes sense
also is it just me or is the solution lacks enough depth?
The action is just left multiplication on the cosets.
For multiple groups you just take the union of G/H1 and G/H2
Like let's call the elements of G 00, 10, 01, and 11.
Let H be the subgroup generated by 10 and K the subgroup generated by 01.
Then G/H u G/K is a set with 4 elements. 10 swaps the two cosets of K while leaving the cosets of H as they are.
also jagr what do you recommend for a group theory book
or just algebra in general
ive been using dummit and foote because i feel like artin goes through things fast
but once im done with the group theory chapters (1-6) i might switch back to artin cuz it covers some extra stuff
but i was thinking about aluffi
but i dont wanna be this guy
If A is an integrally closed domain and K is its field of fractions and L is a finite-dimensional K-algebra, is it true that b ∈ L is integral over A iff its characteristic polynomial has coefficients in A?
I haven't really read Aluffi, but I don't think it's a mistake or even "category-pilled" to see a lot of commutative diagrams and exact sequences while doing algebra. That much is just getting used to a good (but not the only) language/notation.
At least for abelian groups/modules. For groups and rings, I think a very generous use of isomorphism theorems would probably suffice.
hell yeah D&F gang
Also nice blender donut
I just hope they release a 4th edition of D&F where they cover groups with operators
They are both in their 70s, so I'm sure it's possible 🙏 maybe
yes if b is integral then its minimal polynomial has all of its roots in the integral closure of A inside L, thus the roots of the characteristic polynomial are in the integral closure of A inside of L. Then the coefficients lie in the same ring, but the coefficients of the char poly are in K so we win. The other direction is obvious
To be clear, all roots of the characteristic polynomial are roots of the minimal polynomial because a and (multiplication by a) have the same minimal polynomial?
yeah
Actually, L might not be normal, so I'm just going to add the assumption that it's a field extension IG.
Cool. Thanks!
Oh I didn’t read that L was not a field
Eh I mean this is just out of my curiosity so it doesn't really matter
I think in general we can just work in the copy of L in M_n(K) via "multiplication by" embedding
and use that char poly divides some power of min poly for matrices (should follow from rational canonical form)
anyway I suppose as you say as long as L is finite it doesnt matter
the only thing we used about L was that the integral closure char poly etc were well defined
algebraic curves?
Is this fine?
it's valid, maybe a little wordy
How can I make it less wordy?
and by wordy do you mean I'm using more words than necessary?
Does this help 
hmm, so I think the key point in the argument here is that any ascending chain of subgroups in a finite group must terminate at G
ye ye
it seems that even (Q, +) doesnt have maximal subgroups, when it comes to infinite groups
so rather than separating the proof into two steps, you can just show that (like the last part of your proof), and then this means that H is contained in a maximal subgroup pretty trivially
like I said, this is a style thing not correctness
yes right
But there aren't two parts, everything after "If not, then there is a proper subgroup K_1..." is one cohesive unit
everything before the 2nd paragraph is me constructing the ascending chain of subgroups
so we have to use part (i) , this means we have to find all intermediaqte subfields, still i dont see how it will help
Holy crap! Apparently every non-trival finitely generated group has a maximal subgroup!

I just saw this in an exercise in D&F
that's really cool so even if the group is infinite, if it's finitely generated it must have a maximal subgroup
did you proove?
using chains
i think it is a proof by contadiction , if no maximal subgroup, group isnt finitely generated
ye
nice steps are given here
Now I have
How I felt writing "By Zorn's Lemma S has a maximal element, hence G has a maximal subgroup":
then imagine how zorn felt in his time
Aguacate
They mean the same thing
Lol
Aguacate
this is what i meant haha
Polynomials of degree 2 dont form a ring tho
Coefficients in Z/2
So it must be the latter
ah right beause you have the product
Even if i didnt, i would have addition
I guess you might see something like R_2 for the degree 2 homogeneous component of a graded ring, but if so it would be (Z[x])_2
In general $R[x]$ denotes the ring of polynomials of any degree with coefficients in $R$
R may be a ring or a field
well I guess every field is a commutative ring
commutative division ring
Neamesis
ah, I see. I got confused because with the reals, if I'm not wrong, $\mathbb{R}_n[x]$ denotes the set of polynomia of degree less or equal than $n$ with real coefficients right? So its the same notation for very different things
Aguacate
I don't know if that's standard notation, but that would form a vector space of dimension n + 1
Its the notation i used last year in linear algebra maybe its a thing used more in my country?
Or maybe the book your course was following
I typically use $P_n(\bR)$ to denote the set (vector space) of polynomials with degree less than or equal to $n$
Neamesis
which I think is in Axler's LADR
But yea $\bZ_2[x]$ denotes the ring of polynomials with coefficients in $\bZ_2$ and similarly $\bZ_p[x]$ denotes the ring of polynomials with coefficients in $\bZ_p$
Neamesis
thank you for your help!
If im not wrong, in an integral domain, if $ab=0$ then $a=0$ or $b=0$.
But I also found a theorem that says that the characteristic of an integral domain is either 0 or a prime number.
How can it be different from 0? If it has characteristic $p>0$, because its an ID then $pa=0 \Rightarrow p=0$ or $a=0$!
Aguacate
Z/(p) is an ID with characteristic p, for example
I see. Then what did I say that was wrong about IDs?
oh..
ive always been a little confused when they say "R-module complement" here
the last sentence i guess
C gives a complement to psi(A) in B. that doesnt mean the set-theory complement to psi(A) in B is C right
i guess im just thinking complement in what sense?
It's in the same way the word is used in linear algebra.
W is a complement to U in V if W(+)U = V is an internal direct sum
The notation na for elements a ∈ A, n ∈ ℤ means repeated multiplication (for positive n, its just a+a+...+a with n summands), so its not really multiplication in the ring (but scalar multiplication in the ℤ-algebra). To view it as multiplication in the ring, you can identify an integer n with the element n * 1 (where 1 is the multiplicative identity of A), then na = (n * 1)a is multiplication in the ring. So in the case where A has char p, even though neither of the factors in the scalar product p * a are zero, in the corresponding ring product (p * 1)a the factor p * 1 is zero (and this is why Asteroid said that p = 0 in Z/(p))
That makes a lot of sense, thank you for explaining
yeah this is why i was thinking about aluffi
Be careful not to confuse ring multiplication with repeated addition. The definition of characteristic is the smallest n such that $n\cdot 1 = 0$, where $n\cdot 1 = 1 + 1 + \dots + 1$, while the definition of an integral domain talks about ring multiplication. In Z/3Z for example, let's call the elements ${0', 1', 2'}$, we have $3 \cdot 1' = 1' + 1' + 1' = 0$, but $3$ is not an element of Z/3Z, it's just an integer, so "normal" ring multiplication of $3$ and $1'$ doesn't make sense. I see Jussari already answered you, but I didn't want to delete what I had already written 
sheddow
Also, you can define the characteristic of R as the kernel of the unique ring homomorphism from Z to R, which is sometimes nicer to work with
Characteristic -37
why are free modules important
They nice
convince me
Every module is a quotient of a free module, so taking a free presentation allows you to understand finitely generated modules through manipulating matrices. See for example the classification of fg modules over a PID for an example of this.
Free modules have the nice property that Hom(R^n, M) = M^n, so you can express equations using maps of free modules.
Free/projective resolutions give rise to derived functors, which is a very strong invariant for understand representation theory.
They're also useful for showing existence of things defined by universal property. See construction of tensor products for example
by R^n and M^n you mean RxRx.... n times right
Yes
right i see i see
the first statement is kinda just like groups ig
group presentations and then the classification of finitely generated abelian groups
this is getting too categorical for me as an ex analyst
it's too hard
universal property more like universally pissing me off
If F is a finite field and p(x) in F[x] is irreducible, does p(x) split in F/<p(x)>? i.e. does adjoining one root give you all? I feel like it should be true, since finite field are nice, with cyclic galois groups and everything, but can't see how to prove it
It is true yeah.
One way to see it is if you look at the splitting field of p, then by the Galois correspondence gives that F[x]/(p(x)) corresponds to some subgroup. Since every subgroup of a cyclic group is normal it is a normal extension
Or I guess with much less machinery every finite field is the splitting field of x^q - x, so are Galois extensions
Nice, thanks 
could someone help with this proof? I know you have to use the correspondence theorm somewhere but I'm a bit unsure how exactly i'd go about applying it. Suppose that H ⊂ G is a normal subgroup. Show that if G/H is abelian then every subgroup
of G containg H is normal.
Do you know what subgroups of G containing H corresponds to as per the correspondence theorem?
i don't think i do
Okay, what do you know about the correspondence theorem then?
so what i was going to do for the proof using the correspondence theorem set up a function phi
and like show it's injective
and then invoke the correspondence theorem
oh wait ig i could just say A/H is a subgroup of G/H since every subgroup of an abelian group is normal A/H is normal then by the correspondence theorem since A/H is normal in G/H A is normal in G
would this work?
niceee ty
So then the answer to this question is that it corresponds to subgroups of G/H
(which are all normal)
Do you think this write up is proper? Since H in G is normal and G/H is abelian for some subgropu A of G containing H, by the correspondence theorem A/H is a subgroup of G/H. G/H is abelian so its sugroups must be normal thus X/H is normal so all subgroups of G containing H are normal
this has never made sense to me ever
specifically F|psi(L) I have no idea how to interpret
the original sequence is L -> M -> N
Categories are cool though
D&F spotted 
For Hom functor, how does one interpret the exactness in the middle entry?
0->L->M->N->0 to
0->Hom(D,L)->Hom(D,M)->Hom(D,N)
I am trying to review this stuff to get better intuition for it and im wondering if its worth going through the proof of the exactness in the middle spot again
It's not making any sense to me either if that helps.
There would be nothing natural about such a bijection F <-> (g, f). If the sequence splits you could at least construct an additive one, but even then it requires a choice.
So this seems mostly like nonsense
Exactness in the middle is just kernel equals the image.
So if D -> M -> N is 0, then D->M should factor through L
What is this from?
dummit and foote page 388
Lol that screenshot seems slightly oddly phrased
Where in the proof is the fact that P is a direct summand of F(S) important?
I know its kind of the main point but
The definition of the map P->M is to go though the splitting of pi
Yeah sorry im trying to think about what my question is better
Also unsure what the statement they are proving is
If P is a direct summand of a free module then it has that lifting property
So P projective
Sure
Yeah I mean ig idk what ur question should be but the other direction should be insightful
Probably a silly question but what if P just injects into a free module but its not a splitting?
So the structure of the proof is that you have a map
P -> N, then composing this with the projection
F(S) -> P you get a map F(S) -> N for which you can apply the lifting property.
If P is just a submodule of F(S) how would you get a map F(S) -> N
I meant to ask if you have F(S) -> P surjection and P injects into F(S)
But no splitting
Well, try to step through the proof yourself and see where it fails.
For simplicity, assume we're working over the ring R=Z/4 and P=Z/2, F(S)=R and M -> N is the surjection
Z/4 -> Z/2
But morally why it fails ||if the surjection and injection are unrelated, then you essentially just have a random map F(S) -> N, and the lifting property won't help you||
Ty
instead of the bit enclosed in red brackets, can i write the following?:
suppose f(a1,a2,...,an) = 0 (eqn: 1). now divide f(x1,x2,...,xn) by x1 - a1, treating the rest of the variables as constants. so after division we get f(x1,x2,...,xn) = (x1-a1)q1(x1,x2,...,xn) + r(x2,x3,...,xn). by induction we can write f(x1,x2,...,xn) = (x1-a1)q1(x1,..,xn) + (x2-a2)q2(x2,..,xn) + ... + (xn-an)qn(xn) + c where c is a constant in C. we know c = 0 from eqn:1 , so f \in ideal generated by (xi - ai)s. The other inclusion is easy. Hence M_a is generated by the (xi - ai)s
Is this argument fine?
it seems fine to me
but wanna make sure. I feel like the books proof is a little handwavey
ok thanks for verifying
I have a question about Appendix A in Eisenbud
Are you asking how one would prove this for extensions with infinite transcendence degree?
I think the proof in the book is incomplete even for finite degree
Since we can rescale by elements of k, the ground set shouldn’t even be finite if k is infinite, right?
What is "the ground set"?
But without L being finite, we need to assume that each B is finite for the proof of the Lemma to work
Ground set of the matroid
Well, you just need one of them to be finite
You just compare your basis to one of smallest cardinality. And if that cardinality is finite, then the proof goes through
Is the requirement Q being a subset of the ring R mentioned in the last paragraph necessary here? Or can R just be any a division ring?
im unsure if this is the right channel to ask, but i will ask here because idk where else
is there a name for lattices with internal "implies" terms? like a /\ b ==> c iff a ==> (b -> c)
nevermind! i have found that what i was looking for was probably heyting algebras
Can anyone verify this, here D_4 is galois group of polynomial x^4-44x^2+464=0
You need to be able to divide by n!, so that means you contain Q.
Yes, they are to intuitionist logic what Boolean algebras are to propositional logic
if O(G) = p^n, p is prime, then G has a subgroup of order p^a for all 0 ≤ a ≤ n.
i proceed by induction. supposing the result holds for all groups H of order p^m < p^n, i want to show it holds for G. G has a non-trivial center, let a be in Z(G). let |a| = p^k where 0 < k < n-1, for k = n-1, n the result holds trivially. since p divides |a|, there is a cyclic subgroup of G of order p, say generated by b, G has an element of order p. ive looked at a hint that says look at G/<b>. <b> is normal in G, so G/<b> make sense and it is of order p^n-1 so it has subgroups of all order but how do i relate this to G?
there are cases, like center is full group
if G is abelian that case must be treated separately, for non abelian you have to take inverse of projection hom of subgroup H of G/Z(G) this inverse image has will have desired prop.
There is a relationship between subgroups of
G/<b> and certain subgroups of G. Usually called the correspondence theorem. Are you aware of this connection?
no i am not. what is this theorem
So the subgroups of G/N are exactly of the form H/N where H is a subgroup of G containing N
It's a very important and foundational theorem, so I'm a little surprised if you haven't heard of it
i will have to look it up then
maybe he doesnt know that it has a name but used it many times
no i don't think i do really lol
Anyway, once you have this you're done. Since then you get subgroups of size
p * p^k for k<= n-1
yes indeed thank you
this is probably trivial but if M and N are R modules and f: M -> N is a surjective module homomorphism, it is true that we can find a restriction f': M' -> N where M' is a submodule of M and f is an isomorphism of modules right?
Show that if $G_1,G_2$ are two finite groups with $\gcd(|G_1|,|G_2|)=1,$ then show that $Aut(G_1\times G_2)\cong Aut(G_1)\times Aut(G_2).$
Franklin244
Any idea how to prove this?
how the elements aut(G_1*G_2) looks like
This is would mean N is a direct summand, so it's not usually the case.
Consider for example Z/4 -> Z/2
Consider an automorphism of G1xG2, what do you get if you restrict it to G1?
No idea...
They are just homomorphism on product of group , so it is tempting to define a map which takes $\sigma\in Aut( G_1\times G_2)$ to $(\sigma|{G_1\times {0}},\sigma{G_2\times {0}})$
Akhi Mishra(Riemman Slayer)
oh wow i see ur right
Does anyone have a reference with a precise definitions and statements of decomposition of torison modules over a Dedekind domain into primary torsion parts?
Something like: for R a Dedekind domain, T a torsion R-module (not necessarily finitely generated), T = (+)_p T_p, where T_p is the "p-torsion" of T.
Can I show that if H has order n! /2, H is a subgroup of S_n, then H is A_n.
Without using A_n is simple for n≥ 5?
H does not contain all transpositions lest it be S_n. But it is normal (index 2). So H contains no transpositions. But S_n/H ≡ C_2, with all transpositions mapped to the non-identity element, so any product of an odd resp. even number transpositions is non-trivial resp. trivial in S_n/H, i.e., is not in H resp. in H. But that is exactly the criterion to not be resp. be in A_n.
What is resp. ?
respectively
ie, odd product is non-trivial hence not in H, even product is trivial hence in H
am i heavily mistaken, because this seems heavily false. take the point 1/2 + 0i \in C with a ball of radius 1/2 around it. it contains no points of Z[1/2i], right?
oh, wait a minute you are right we are talking about Z[x]/(2x^2 + 1)
Well, really it's image in ℂ. But yes, it includes (1/2 i)^n for all non-negative integers n, e.g. it contains -1/4.
Rambling about annihilators and primary decompositions
Let A be a Dedekind domain and S a saturated multiplicative set. Let T be the set of prime factors of elements of S. Then S = {a ∈ A : all the prime factors of a are in T} and S^{-1}A ⊆ ∩_{p ∉ T} A_p. Is the reverse inclusion true?
This equality is going to be true iff the primes not hitting S is exactly the complement of T
I’m like 99% sure
For a normal ring, you have A = \cap A_p where p ranges over height 1 primes of A, and I am like 99% sure in full generality that the inclusion is proper if you don’t include even a single A_p
What's your definition of hit?
Intersection is nonempty
Basically I’m saying that Spec S^-1A = Spec A \ T
Is I think equivalent to the claim
This is true by definition of T.
Yeah
Ah, I see.
So we caan
Why you’re asking is simpler than what I was saying
can just apply this to S^{-1}A
Yours can turn down to the even simpler statement that
A = \cap_p A_p = \cap_m A_m
When p ranges over all primes, m over all maximal ideals
height 1 should be maximal in general, right?
For this case yeah
Does this prove the third isomorphism theorem?:
Take the composition of morphisms (canonical projections):
G -> G/N -> (G/N)/(H/N)
The kernel of this is the preimage of (H/N) under the projection G -> G/N, but this is just H since N is a subset of H.
Since the map is surjective we have that (G/N)/(H/N) is isomorphic to G/H by the 1st isomorphism theorem.
Yeah
But I guess maybe you need to prove that H/N is normal or is a subgroup or whatever
ah yea
Can you check my proof, please?
I’m confused because I had to use ideal quotients, which Lang hasn’t introduced at this point
Jesus Christ
I mean you are using localization
You can manually show by just using the definition of prime that if p is prime and missed S then S^-1p is prime
And that it’s an iff
Damn
Then you can turn your proof into just noting that S^-1p is maximal in S^-1A so it’s also prime in S^-1A
But I’m pretty sure you can also just argue by contradiction
Like if xy in p and x and y aren’t in p, then you can produce an even larger ideal, like clearly x and y can’t be in S or else xy is and p hits S
Is my proof at least correct? 😅
Then you can conclude that one of x or y isn’t in S, and one of x or y isn’t in p, and then because p\cap S is empty that WLOG x is not in p and not in S. Now look at (p,x) and you can argue this doesn’t intersect S
I am not gonna read all that sorry vro
I saw the word monoid and peaced out
Come on, pretty please 🙂
This exercise follows the chapter on localisation, so I assumed that it’s the right tool
The map phi_s isn't surjective so you shouldn't expect the image of an ideal to be an ideal.
Sorry this is fake and untrue, you need an assumption of radicalness I think
2nd iso only tells you it's an ideal in the image
Okay, I’ll see if it still works if I replace the image with an extension
hi everyone, I'm super lost with this question. I was hoping someone could help give me some direction: Find all left, right and two-sided ideals of the ring of n × n complex matrices.
I mean, obvioulsy we have the trivial ones, but how would I even go about classifying all of them
Multiplying by elementary matrices helps partially.
(Here elementary matrix means matrix with only one non-zero entry.)
ah, how so? as in like row operation?
Bro said pretty please
Pretty please with a cherry on top? 😜😘
the only proper two sided ideal is 0 ideal
but it has non trivial left and right ideals
I kinda managed to cobble this part together.
its the left and right ideals which I'm having trouble with
set of matrices with all the entries 0,with possible exception at j-th column is simple left ideal
i gues any left ideal will contain these type of ideals
how would the proof of this go though?
it is left ideal is trivial, it is simple can be show using multiplying matrices as suggested above
these are special because these are simple left ideals
right, but how can we know that this is the set of all leftideals?
i did not say that
sorry, im lost
Hy any hint for this problem :¿
I have to prove every subgroup of D_n of odd order is cyclic.
So I am thinking about if H is a subgroup of odd order then is it possible that any reflection lie in H ?
Oh no
Because if H contains any reflection then order of H must be even
So only subgroup of odd order H must be a subgroup of < r >, so therefore H is cyclic
Even if you dont have reflections in H the order of H can be even
it is true by some triviality
I dont see how this is directly implied from your previous statement
cauchy
What if the subgroup contains elements of the form sr^k?
Reflections arent the only elements of order 2 in D_n(elements like sr, sr^2,..) . You need to take care of the other cases as well. It is trivial, but you need to show it in a proof
If the subgroup contains an element of the form sr^k, that means the subgroup has an order even
Yes thats what i am saying you need to mention
Yes I proved this, you can verify my argument
That does not account for subgroups like {e,sr} for example
Why?
sr i would usually say is rotation reflection
Rotating the mirror you mean
im asked to determine all the subgroups of S4 generated by the elements of order 2. now the elements of order 2 in S4 are exactly the transpositions and product of transpositions which has no letters in common. if a product of transposition has a letter in common then that is a 3 cycle which has order 3. so in total we have 9 elements of order 2. now all transpositions generate S4, so that's one. each one of these 9 elements generate their own cyclic subgroups, so in total now we have 10 subgroups. if we try taking product of transpositions and there is a letter in common, we have a 3 cycle which has order 3. do we allow it? because then it is a subgroup of S4 generated by an element of order 3 not of order 2 or am i confusing? like even though it is a 3 cycle it's still coming from elements of order 2??
Can you post the question?
Because in general you can generate S_n by all the transpositions
that is the question, Determine all the subgroups of S4 generated by elements of order 2
I think you have to consider cases,
- Case when number of generators is 1
- Case when number of generators are > 1
yes that's what i am trying to do. the first case is done. now about the second case there is my confusion
Questions says about subgroup generated by order 2, not that H = { x | |x| = 2 }
ohkk thanks then all the cyclic subgroups of 3 cycles in S4 are also in the list
what else do i need to consider
What do you mean by cyclic subgroup of 3 cycles
generated by 3 cycles
You cannot take {1, (123), (132) }
Because it is not generated by elements of order 2
ok my phrasing is wrong
yeh, transpositions generate S4. also <(1,2,3,4)> = <(1,4)(1,3)(1,2)>, so we can include the subgroups generated by 4 cycles as well
Well no you can’t. (1234) isnt order 2
It’s contained in <(14),(13),(12)> sure but isnt generated by an element of order 2
no no the question asked by elements of order 2, there can be multiple elements
Yes…. Which may contain cyclic groups of order 4 as subgroups…. but those cyclic groups themselves don’t count
As I just said
The problem is (14)(13)(12) is not order 2
Exactly the same as up here
This group is contained in <(12), (13)> = S_3 but is not equal to it
ohk i see back to square one then. i have only counted the subgroups generated by each of the elements of order 2 in S4
If you could do that then you’d just get every subgroup, because S_4 is generated by those three transpositions
But remember you also have the elements (12)(34), (13)(24), and (14)(23) to use
Perhaps as a little helping hand: || the isomorphism classes of subgroups of S_4 are 1, C_2, C_3, C_4, V_4, S_3, D_8, A_4, and S_4||
this would seriously help!! thankss for the hint
Let F/k be a finitely generated field extension with trivial algebraic part (i.e., no f ∈ F \ k is algebraic over k). Must there exist a separating transcendence basis for F over k?
Hmm, is separability of F/k equivalent to dim_F (Ω_{F/k}) = trdeg(F/k)?
Let k = Fp and K = k(x^(1/p^n) : n in N).
Ah, that's good to keep in mind.
For me finitely generated means field of fractions of a finitely generated algebra though, i.e., a finite extension of rational functions in finitely many variables.
Ah, I missed the finitely generated part
Hmm, I'm not sure about some of the following (particularly for transcendental extensions), but: F/k separable ⇔ F/k, k(a^1/p)/k linearly disjoint for all a ∈k ⇔x^p-a irr over F ⇔ a^1/p does not exist in F ⇔ algebraic part of F/k is separable
determine the R-module structure on the abelian group M: R = Z/10Z and M = Z/3Z. I know there isn't one, but can anyone explain this
Let S = / = 0 be any subring that is discrete. we know that S must contain 1 and 0. if S contains any noninteger real, we may divide by 1 and obtain a number in (0,1) that is in S. then all its powers are in S, so in particular we get a sequence converging to 0, so it will not be discrete. Thus the subring must contain only integers. Since it contains 1 it contains all integers, so S=Z. does this make sense?
For any m in M, what should 1*m be?
What about (1+1)*m, and (1+1+1)*m and so on?
What happens if you add 1 to itself 10 times?
1 * m = m, (1 + 1 ) * m = m + m and so on. If we add 1 to itself 10 times, we get m added to itself 10 times?
And what is that equal to in this case?
And what is 1 added to itself 10 times in Z/10
0
10m mod 3
Yeah, what is that?
If there was a ℤ/10ℤ module structure on ℤ/3ℤ, then 10m = (10 ∈ ℤ/10ℤ) ⋅ (m ∈ ℤ/3ℤ) would have to be 0 in ℤ/3ℤ for all m ∈ ℤ/3ℤ.
So what if m=1 for example, what happens then?
well, there isn't such k exists
Yes, very nice
Have you seen the fun result that any subgroup of R is either discrete or dense? This is fun
when do you want to think about the action by left multiplication?
like, i think its pretty useful when dealing with the index of subgroups, right?
Let L = K(a) = K[x]/(f) be a finite extension of K with inseparable degree p (the characteristic). Is there a classification of field extensions E/K over which L becomes non-reduced?
ie such that f is not square-free in E[x]
Yes
In a prove of Cayley theorem
can we do better than just discrete here?
i feel like you should be able to say if a subgp is discrete then it must be cyclic
yes so if G\leq R is discrete define inf_{g\in G}(|g|) := s > 0. s must generate G. if some element x is not generated by s, then we may divide x by s to get 0< x - ns < s for some n and x-ns \in G which contradicts the minimality of s
all of these have roughly the same argument
so even the subgroups are isomorphic to Z
basically discrete subgps of R is the same as scaled copy of Z and discrete subrings of R is only Z? makes sense because subring => subgroup and 1 \in subgroup => scaling factor = 1
Can you check my proof, please?
Sorry yes
Never realised this before but there is a description of the base-change of infinite separable (algebraic) extensions:
For a pro-set $A = \varprojlim_i A_i$ (a formal directed inverse limit of sets) and an object $X$ of a category with products and directed limits, define $X^A \defeq \varinjlim_i X^{A^i}$. (In the category of sets, $X^A = \operatorname{Hom}(A, \iota(X))$, where $\iota$ is the natural embedding of sets in pro-sets.)
Raghuram
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
For $L/K$ an algebraic extension and $E/K$ a field extension, $\operatorname{Hom}_K(L, E)$ is naturall equipped with the structure of a pro-(finite) set (the inverse limit over all finite subextensions).
Raghuram
If $L/K$ is a separable algebraic extension and $E/K$ any extension splitting every finite subextension of $L$ (e.g., the separable closure of $K$; there is a smallest possible $E$, namely the splitting field of the minimal polynomials of all elements of $L$, which is also the normal closure of $L$), then the formula $L \otimes_K E → E^{\operatorname{Hom}K(L, E)} \colon l \otimes e ↦ (\sigma(l)e){\sigma \in \operatorname{Hom}_K(L, E)}$ defines an isomorphism of $E$-algebras.
Raghuram
Since both L (⨯) E and E^{Hom(L, E)} are the directed limits of l (⨯) E of E^{Hom(l, E)} over all finite subextensions l of L, the proof is trivial given the usual result for finite separable extensions. But this does identify a definition to understand for the codomain.
if a set R has binary operations +,* satisfying all ring axioms except addition commutativity, then by the assoc., distributive law for any a,b \in R, we have: 0 = (b-a)(-1 + 1)=-b + a + b -a => b + a = a + b
whats the point of including addition commutativity in the axioms, then?
is it so we can directly say: R,+,* is a ring iff R,+ is ab. group and R,* is monoid?
You don't have to if you don't want to.
(and * distributes over +) yes, pretty much.
distributive is most important 😅 (imo)
Is a finitely generated projective module itself free because if it wasnt then it couldnt be a direct summand of a free module?
Proving that the group has to be abelian was the first ever question in my intro ring theory class and it’s a problem which has weirdly stuck with me, random straightforward but fun fact
that is what makess a lot of things work yes
This is just false.
Canonical example being k^n as an M_n(k)-module (more generally, any simple module of a semisimple ring, e.g., irreps of finite groups in characteristic 0).
Another example: any fractional ideal of a Dedekind domain R is a finitely generated projective module (in fact, for any fractional ideal I with inverse J, I (+) J is isomorphic to R (+) R, so is a direct summand of R^2), but is not free unless it is principal (more generally, two fractional ideals are isomorphic iff they are equal in the ideal class group: Cl(R) parametrises fg projective R-modules of rank 1 up to isomorphism).
what are some common methods to show a module is free?
Oh my bad it was fg module projective then its a direct summand of a fg free module. Why is that the case then?
@tough raven
What have you tried?
I willl get back to u
Just explicitly finding a basis works in many cases.
But it depends a lot on what information you're given about the module I think. Often it makes more sense to look at properties of the ring, like are all projective modules free, are all torsion free modules projective.
Let p1(x), p2(x) ∈
Z[x] be two nonconstant polynomials in the Unique Factorization Domain Z[x].
Suppose that 1 is a greatest common divisor of p1(x) and p2(x). Show that the
quotient Z[x]/(p1(x), p2(x)) is finite
can someone guide me through this one please.
do you have any ideas?
It's not a perfectly usable condition, but a necessary and sufficient condition is that for some irreducible (or equivalently any non-trivial) factor g of f over E_sep, the coefficients of g are perfect p^th powers in E.
(This works for any inseparable degree of f.)
if u view p1, p2 as polynomials in Q[x], then there is a, b in Q[x] such that a p1 + b p2 = 1. there is some c in Z such that a' = ca and b' = cb in Z[x], and so a' p1 + b' p2 = c. so c in (p1, p2). u can carry on from there
Let E_sep be the splitting field of the separable part of f (f_sep := g such that f(t^p^k) = g(t) and g is separable); then the fields E ⊇ E_sep making L non-reduced are those containing one of a^(1/p) for a a zero of f_sep. There isn't one such smallest field, but a set of them forming precisely the quotients of A_f := E_sep[x]/g(x^p). So at least over E_sep, the fields making f non-reduced/non-square-free are those admitting (local) homomorphisms from A_f (assuming f is inseparable to begin with).
So... what can you say about the quotient Z[x]/(c)?
my guess is that in the quotient ring c acts as 0, hence we have Z/cZ[x] / (p1,p2).
Let F/k be a finitely generated field
hey, i don't quite understand the ideal of a ring and reading the definition made me confused abt normal subgroups as well which i grasped well earlier
You can define ideals as kernels of ring homomorphisms
likewise, normal subgroups are kernels of group homomorphisms
If I want to show there is an isomorphism from Gl(2, R) / Sl(2, R) -> R does it suffice to show f: Gl(2, R) -> R by f(A) = det(A) is a surjective homomorphism with kernel Sl(2, R)
Yes
SL(n, ℝ) is the kernel of the determinant map GL(n, ℝ) → ℝ^×
Which is indeed a surjective homomorphism
This also generalizes to any commutative ring with identity
Guys I have this problem in my homework:
There are 1001 hats numbered 1 to 1001 and 1000. People stand in a line, and each person is given a hat (so that one hat remains unworn). The people stand so that each person sees only the hats in front of them, not their own or those behind them, and no one sees the unworn hat. The person in the back (who can see everyone) is asked what number he thinks appears on his hat, he answers out loud, the next person in line is asked, and so on - only numbers between 1 and 1001 are allowed, and the same number may not be repeated twice. What strategy can the people coordinate in advance so that at most one person gets their answer wrong?
I'm literally dumbfounded as to how to solve it due to the constraint that the same number cannot be repeated, because I thought of using T as the sum of all hats, S_1 as the sum of the 999 hats person 1 sees, and then guessing S_1 mod 1001, but if it comes out to be neither the hat of person 1 or the hat without a person, it screws over the person that is supposed to guess this number... Anyways, will appreciate any help 🙂
Please 🙂
ted ed has a similar video on this puzzle
why dont you check commutative algebra by balwant singh
its there
I have this book, I just want to finish Lang’s chapters on Galois theory before going into CA
it is there
What do you mean, what is there?
your proof is there
Oh, okay 🙂 Which chapter?
it is localization section
Thanks
Is the difference between the internal direct product and external direct product the same idea as the Cauchy vs Dedekind completion of Q? I ask because its never been clear to me why some texts bother defining both just to instantly say theyre the same and just speak of the direct product.
I can see that theyre technically different constructions so at best give you isomorphic objects , so I guess this is the idea
This was prompted by an exercise in my group theory course to prove theyre both the same, and it reminded me of the, in my opinion, strange decision in Rotman's Homological Algebra to introduce new notation for the external product, only to like 10 pages later show theyre both the same, which leads me to believe there must be some reason to distinguish them
I guess the internal direct product naturally has the factors as subgroups instead of quotients?
That's about the only difference I can think of lmao
Basically it's a question of whether you already have a group that contains both factors (so you know how multiplication works, but it may or may not be a direct product you get), or they are unrelated groups and you need to construct a set with a fresh operation that can count as their product.
I mean, the internal direct product is more if a property than a construction.
For two subgroups you have they're product, and then you call it the interval direct product if it satisfies certain properties.
Whereas the external direct product is an actual construction
Once you have constructed an external direct product, then internal direct product of (the images of) your factors in the group you just constructed that will turn out to exist and be the entire groip.
It's certainly very different from the distinction between Dedekind and Cauchy completion.
They are quite different constructions the happen to be the same. One relaying on the order of Q and the other relying on the metric.
Conversely, when an internal direct product exists, it will be isomorphic to the external direct product (which always exists), but just looking at isomorphism classes loses information about where in the original ambient group the internal d.p. sits.
Hmm yeah I see that from the construction vs property distinction
I suppose part of the reason I always feel unsure about the emphasising the difference is precisely because they do give isomorphic objects. Thank you both for the good answers though!
Hey, do you have any tips on how to show the following:
"Show that there only exists one group homomorphism $g:\mathbb Q \to \mathbb Z$, that is the trivial" (where Q and Z are additive groups)
Michael
Suppose Q sends 1 to a. What does p/q get sent to?
Not quite sure...
Only thing I can think of is that g(p/q)=g(1/q+1/q+...+1/q)=p*g(1/q), but I don't really see the use in that
you can find g(1/q) by doing basically the same thing just not with p
Could you elaborate?
1 is a multiple of 1/q
Ohh, so g(1/q)=g(1)/q. Then g(p/q)=pg(1/q)=p/q*g(1)=pa/q?
Perhaps first argue that f(nq)=nf(q) when n is a natural number.
And since a is an integer, and we need this to be true for all p/q, we need a=0?
Is this the first isomorphism theorem
Hmm, I would just say f(1)=f(n/n)=nf(1/n) for all n>0, so f(1) is a multiple of everything.
What do you mean by this?
Once we have checked that the determinant map is a homomorphism, it immediately follows that the subgroup of matrices of determinant 1 is the kernel of the map.
Yeah, a ends up having to be divisible by every non-zero number -> is 0.
And that is the definition of SL(n, ℝ)
Yeah, that's how I got to g(1/q)=g(1)/q. But yeah, the answer is already there
Potentially very incorrect, but does this "important fact" follow from the sequence $\begin{tikzcd} 1 \arrow[r] & K \arrow[r, hook] & \mathbb{Z}^s \arrow[r, "\theta"] & A \arrow[r] & 1\end{tikzcd}$ and the fact that $\mathbb{Z}^s$ is Noetherian? If I am correct, which im not convinced I am, is there an easier way to realise this? It feels a little overkill if this does work
Nope
Yes, an abelian group is Noetherian if and only if every subgroup is finitely generated, and that's exactly what is going on here
I guess if they hid the proof it could be because it needs exact squences, Noetherianity and the 5 lemma lol but that just felt very overkill
thanks though!
Wait lol the kernel is a subgroup so it falls out even more directly
I mean it's really just about being Noetherian, you can prove it with some simple induction.
Like if e_i is the standard basis for Z^s, then K\capZe_1 is generated by just a single element, then you can look at the image of K in Z^s/Ze_1 = Z^s-1. By induction this is finitely generated, so K can be generated by just s elements.
Yeah I realised that if M is Noetherian and 0->M’->M->M”->0 then M’ and M” are Noetherian is insanely overkill, that definitely works
And also just the fact that the kernel is a subgroup and then remembering what Noetherian means lol
like the fact that a homomorphism from g -> h is an isomorphism from g/k -> h if k is the kernel
I was about to say tf are you using exact sequences for 
Look man idk it was the first thing that came to mind 
I did at least acknowledge it seemed like insane overkill
Is it true that if a finite group is solvable, then it has a composition series where each factor is cyclic of prime order? I think you can take the derived series, then refine it to a composition series where each factor is abelian and simple, therefore cyclic of prime order, does that work?
Yup
I know what the first isomorphism theorem is, I'm just saying that one need not invoke it to conclude that the kernel of the determinant map is SL(n, ℝ).
The first isomorphism theorem in this case shows that the group ℝ^× is isomorphic to the quotient GL(n, ℝ)/SL(n, ℝ).
Also your statement as currently written is incomplete. The theorem states that G/K ≅ ϕ(G) (image of G under the homomorphism ϕ), so if the homomorphism is surjective, we get the special case where G/K ≅ H.
Ok thanks
I think it's js a misunderstanding since I replied to u saying sl is the kernel but I meant like "once you have that information do you conclude there's an isomorphism based on the first isomorphism theorem"
Sl(2, R) being the kernel under the determinant map is like trivial
also yea my statement was wrong there I forgot surjective
Anyways ty
Also how do u type the mathbb R without latex do u have a macro or do u js copy paste it every time
Have a pro orz keyboard
I have a LaTeX extension for Gboard on my phone
What group action can I define $D_n \curvearrowright \mathbb{C}^2$?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
If we're talking linear actions, then all representations of Dn are classified
https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Linear_representation_theory_of_dihedral_groups
In short, either the trivial action, or the reflection acts as some kind of reflection and the rotation acts as some kind of rotation with order dividing n.
And I guess for n even you have extra one, where the reflection doesn't do anything but rotation rotates 180
That is what I tried to do, but I was told that this action is wrong:
Because x,y in C and not in R
I dont know why it matters tho
I don't know who told you that. I'm also not sure what it means for an action to be "wrong". Like are they saying it doesn't define an action, or that you haven't found all of them or... I don't understand what that means
So there is nothing wrong(in your opininion) with this action(onto C^2)?
No, it's one of the irreducible representations
Great! Thank you!
I guess if you want it to look more "complex" you can diagonalize the r-part instead of the s-part
wow nice
Can we NOT diagonalize both?
diagonal matrices commute with each other
So no
yeah, cool.
Thanks
Not really, most groups are order 2^n
every group is special ❤️
a group of order 2^n is a p-group btw: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/P-group
Oh that's true
It feels to me like a lot of the heavy lifting just comes from C2 being so small, so you can pack n composition factors into a group with just 2^n elements.
I wonder if one instead compared groups of length n, would p-groups still dominate?
I guess it's a little tricky to formalize since there are infinitely many groups of length n...
I feel it's mostly a matter of 2 being the smallest prime, so pretty much any reasonable enumeration of the finite groups will tend to reach groups with power-of-2 orders earlier than other groups with the same power of another prime.
hm yeah it does seem like that's the case
What do you mean by "length n" though?
A group with a composition series of length n
Yeah looking at the list of number of groups of order n, there are
5 of order 8
5 of order 12
5 of order 18
5 of order 20
5 of order 27
4 of order 30
2 of order 45
5 of order 50
3 of order 75
So it seems the number of prime factors seems more important than whether they're all the same prime
I want to prove that sqrt(2) + cbrt(3) is irrational. Assume that x = sqrt(2) + cbrt(3) is in Q, then sqrt(2) = x - cbrt(3) so sqrt(2) is in Q(cbrt(3)) and conversely cbrt(3) is in Q(sqrt(2)), which implies that Q(sqrt(2)) = Q(cbrt(3)), but this is impossible since they have different degrees. Does this work?
In R/I, why can’t you have an ideal of R that is not in I so its not 0 in R/I but doesnt contain I?
Centralizer of a subgroup is always a subgropu of that subgruop, right?
wait atually no
nvm
R can have plenty of ideals that are neither contained in nor contain I
If you have an ideal J in R and you consider it's image in R/I you get (J+I)/I, works for any ideal J
Ok, I was getting confused with the correspondence theorem. i think i understand what i had wrong now
why should one care about group rings? like i’ve seen them mentioned but just a possible construction, but i haven’t seen any reason to comsider them or anywhere they show up naturally
Modules of group rings are reps of groups
In general it is a common pattern to want to study some kind of thing, therefore construct some algebra whose modules are that thing.
ohh so the reason i haven’t seen any reason to consider them is that i haven’t been given any motivation for rep theory
that checks out
The motivation for rep theory is that it's nice.
nice
nice
i have gathered as much as there being geometric things involved and i like geometric things 
Yes
the proof is trivial 
No this is false
The centraliser in G = S_3 x S_3 of H = {1} x S_3 has trivial intersection with H, even
I thought it said subgroup of that group
geometric in the same way as for example many finite groups can be considered from a geometric perspective, they act on geometric things
Group rings are also just weird and cool
ah nice
Mathematicians love saying stuff like this
are they wrong though
Nice things are nice 👍
I mean C[S_3] is weird and confusing, M_2(C) (+) C^2 is nice, so it’s kinda true
Though admittedly my knowledge of rep theory pretty much starts and ends with like Maschkes theorem for group rings lol
I mean representation theory of groups is basically what motivates group theory
