#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 321 of 1
Z/pZ for p prime has no nontrivial normal Abelian subgroup... for an appropriate definition of 'trivial' ;)
But you are not trying to say that it's a trivial subgroup but rather a trivial group
longboard kayak
for 20 minutes im trying to figure out what is H'
oh well, for this we do not reach to 1 via derived series and just take the Gn=H right?
kinda lost here, brb i need food
why math has to abuse sign and language all the time, grrrr
G is a trivial subgroup of G
But it is typically not the trivial group
So G >= G^(1) >= G^(2) ...
And we're assuming that our group is not solvable
So...?
not it's gonna terminate before 1
or so to say it will terminate at a non-abelian simple group
so commutator of that terminal thing has to be itself, for commutator just helps you to get a abelian quotient, and here we can only have 1
This is false, but you have the right idea.
G^(1) = G does not mean the group is simple
We call such groups 'perfect'
are we doing topology now?
What?
poor joke, nvrmind
Clearly I'm missing something
"language abuse"
i can't see how is it false tho
would you walk me though that?
ohhhh, there has been a miscommunication by 1 i meant to indicate the trivial group = {e}
There exist groups G with [G, G] = G that are not simple
oh okay, actually i forgot for a moment that we are indeed working with the derived series(and was thinking of plain composition series)
yesh, we don't need to state whether it is simple or not
maybe i missed this but are there any conditions about when the scalars commute with the vectors
is that an extra condition or something that i can prove from this
because I dont necessarly see it
ie
$a\vb{v}=\vb{v}a, a\in \mathbb{F}, v\in V$
Brandon7716
i guess i just would need to provide an example of such a vector spaces over a field where the inheirt left and right multiplation will give different outputs
va isnt exactly legal i dont think
Vector spaces are modules over fields, which are commutative, so there’s no difference between left modules and right modules
the axioms are always stated in terms of F X V -> V
It’s just customary to pick left action usually
Left vector space sounds cursed
its a definition about notation(nothing much to worry about)
they are defining both va and av to mean the image of (a,v)
this is completely fine as long as you give the notation the correct meaning
you could view it in the more general setting of the actions being the same but for an introductory definition that might just be unnecessary word salad, possibly
The notation va is not define, but you could define it to equal av if you want.
that does make sense
yeah that is what i thought
Is there a non-computational way to show that H8 embeds into SL(2, F₃)?
Lies
Oh really huh??? Is SL_2(5) a lie??!?!?!?
The trivial group
I was thinking the trivial one too lol
Well SL_2(R) is definitely a lie
I went to a talk on geometric group theory today
Fun times!
What's that?
Well actually only half geometric group theory
Sorry, forgot to reply. Tbh I know almost nothing about it but i believe a major point is studying groups (in particular "big" non-abelian, usually discrete but possibly w other topologies) by them acting on lots of stuff like trees etc, and by using some metric spaces theory
Like you can associate a graph (the Cayley graph) to a group and ask about its "geometry"
Like half of my office does this subject but admittedly I know almost nothing lol
Thanks, sounds interesting :0
Oh, mind explaining a little further?
The Cayley graph as directed graph? Or only the underlying no directed graph
Uhh well viewing it as a space in the natural way
Like by gluing together copies of [0,1]
But then there is a metric you can put on it and stuffs
Alright, sure
And you let the group act on it too? By moving each vertex x to the one corresponding to xy?
Ah I should probably just look it up for myself instead of bothering you with these questions haha
Yeahh
Which is nice
Dw
Though tbh I don't know much anyway
I can imagine
It sounds a bit like how a quandle naturally acts on itself as topological space
(said topological space being either a partition topology or generated by some sequence of partition topologies)
having a group theory brain fart the statement "For all x, z in G, there exists a y in G s.t. x+y=z" is false right?
Take y = -x+z
So it's true
oh fantastic you are right
that means the proof im working on about modules for like 3 hours is finally correct
thank you very much
Hi guys, could someone give me some advice?
I have a problem, I'm studying group theory. Well, I'm studying math, but the courses I'm studying, like probability and Lebegue's measurement, I understand the topics to a certain extent, but when it comes to the exercises, I get completely blocked, and my brain immediately searches the solutions and things like that. I really feel bad, and I think that's not what being a mathematician is all about. What do you think I should do?
It's like I'm too lazy to think
My thought has been like, "Bruh, are you really seeing the solution when you said you were going to do the exercise?" What I mean is, as a minimal mathematician, I should try it.
And if there are times when I try lately I have tried but as soon as I get stuck on something my brain gives up.
must have a good mentor,
:c
Can there be multiple extension fields of the same cardinality, each using a different irreducible reduction polynomial?
In other words, is the irreducible reduction polynomial a parameter of an extension field along with the cardinality?
I am learning about some aspects of finite fields for the first time, so pardon me if my question is a dumb question 😅
For finite fields, no
The extensions are unique
For infinite cardinalities the answer is yes
what I'm gathering is your question is essentially if there are more than one irreducible polynomials of the same degree, and the answer is yes
but any two finite field extensions of the same size are isomorphic, but not uniquely
For a more concrete example, let's say you have the Galois field GF(2^8). You can use x^8 + x^4 + x^3 + x + 1 as the reduction polynomial (as in the Advanced Encryption Standard). But are there other polynomials you could use, that would yield a different multiplication operation?
Thanks y'all for the help by the way 🫶
so your question amounts to whether two irreducible polynomials can have the same splitting field?
consider Q(sqrt(d)) for any d in Z.
this gives an infinite family of (mostly) non-isomorphic fields.
But, as the other person said, finite extensions of finite fields are isomorphic, though not necessarily equal
$H \text{ char } G$ is necessary and sufficient for the full automorphism group of $G$ to descend to automorphisms of $G/H$.
amirite?
longboard kayak
better if a look at the hom and see what's going on here
Yeah it should be equivalent
yeah alr
also we need to take the fact into account that the subgroup is not unique upto order, or else it will be preserved without any option being left
idk what sort of groups to look at?
to empahsise the hint..... every subgroup of an abelian group is normal
oh yeah, i had that in mind, but i'm thinking if 2^n order would suffice or not
it's much more simple than that, just try constructing a group that has two copies of the same subgroup
V4
sure, that works, also ||Cn x Cn for any n||
got it, thanks
The humble switcharoo
i think taking multiple groups of same order and then taking semidirect product of it is the key to generally construct this?
no, you can probably get much more general than that
hmm one is acting on the nontrivial aut of the other twin, now i can "see"(in a handwavy way) why the whole aut is not gonna preserve them
the quaternion group is, I believe, the first nonsimple group that cannt be written as a semidirect product of groups
but every subgroup of Q8 is normal so it should work as an example
it has a centre C2
centre is char
also C2 is the only group of order 2 in Q8
OH, centre is not the only normal subgroup, 😝
Is this false? One side is trivial, but the other side is definitely not obvious if it's true
I was thinking on these lines - there will be an s such that r_1 * s = r_2 and there will be another s' such that r_2 * s' = r_1
From here, we have r_1 * (ss' - 1) = 0
If R is an integral domain, we are done. So if it's false, R cannot be an integral domain
Consider R = k[x, y]/(y(x^2 - 1))
The ideal generated by y and by xy are the same
Oh my god
How can I forget about this example after a semester of AlgGeo
Skill issue fr
Thank you
Wait, is x a unit in this ring?
It is not
I guess the easiest way to see it is to mod out (y), and use that x is not a unit in k[x]
is the following a valid proof that eveyr subgruop of a cylic group is cyclic:
consider $G = \langle g \rangle$
donut123
and $H \subset G$
donut123
choose minimal $a$ so that $g^a \in H$. We claim $H =\langle g^a\rangle$. Suppose not. Then there exists $b$ that is not a multiple of $a$, so $d=\gcd(a,b) \neq a \implies d < a$. Using bezout's lemma, there exists $m,n \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $am + bn = d$. Then $(g^a)^m\cdot (g^b)^n = g^d \in H$. But this contradicts minimality of $a$. Done
donut123
i know the usual method uses division algorithm
but this was on a final and i was being dumb (didnt have much time) and idk i thought of bezout's lemma first
Looks right to me. You do need to word things more carefully but I get what you mean.
It is indeed overly complicated
Let G be a finite group and let $\pi : G \to S_G$ be the left regular representation. Prove that
if $x$ is an element of $G$ of order $n$ and $|G| = mn$, then $\pi(x)$ is a product of $m$ $n$-cycles.
Deduce that $\pi(x)$ is an odd permutation if and only if $|x|$ is even and $\frac{|G|}{|x|}$ is odd.
(exercise from dummit and foote)
donut123
was getting a bit stuck
so $\pi(x)$ partitions $G$ into disjoint orbits under left multiplication by $x$
donut123
G acts freely on itself, so nothing non-trivial in G can fix anything
this is also a good approach
but im not really sure where to go from there
im guessing some kind of application of orbit stabilizer
I presume you know what cosets are
yes
so can you see the connection between those orbits and left cosets?
donut123
exactly
Hint with this too pls: Let $G$ and $\pi$ be as in the preceding exercise. Prove that if $\pi(G)$ contains an odd permutation
then $G$ has a subgroup of index $2$.
donut123
So there exists some $x \in G$ such that $\pi(x)$ is odd. By previous exercise, $|x|$ is even and $\frac{|G|}{|x|}$ is odd.
donut123
ok I've thought of a solution but it doesn't use the previous question at all lol
taking a permutation to it's sign (call this map s) is a group homomorphism ||with an index 2 kernel, A_n||, so ||the kernel of pi composed with s is G \cap A_n, because pi is injective||. Now ||use 2nd iso|| to conclude ||that G/G \cap A_5 is index 2||
I'm implicitly identifying G with pi(G) so I have less nonsense to write
I mean, 2nd iso is just composition of maps anyway
Yeah I thibj this is the intended way
The exercise referred to some previous exercise in a previous chapter
And it uses second iso
in that case why wouldn't they accept jagr's solution lol
Every Boolean ring is semi simple?
Didn’t completely pay attention, but someone mentioned smth about avoiding second iso
it's pretty clear that the jacobson radical is 0, but I don't see why a boolean ring must be artinian
We don't know the reverse Direction
well if by "reverse direction" you mean that every semisimple ring is boolean that's very false, take C[G] for any finite group G
Okay infinite product of Z_2 works i think
Don't know how to construct an isomorphism here. Trying to find a isomorphism between (r^i s^j, k) ---> some element in D_6 where i = 1, ..., n; j = 1,2; and k = 0,1. I'd appreciate any advice.
Probably the easiest imo is as follows: try to find two subgroups of D6 iso to D3 and Z/2Z
If people keep writing D_{2n} instead of D_n I’m gonna start writing S_{n!} instead of S_n
You can also express $D_n$ in terms of semidirect products ($\mathbb{Z}_n \rtimes \mathbb{Z}_2$) and use that direct products are commutative
n1lp0tence
I tried listing out each element in the direct product and mapping it to different elements in D_6.
We haven't done a lot with semi-direct products to be honest.
The ideals of the powerset R of a set X as a Boolean ring are ideals (closed under finite unions and subsets) of sets of X. If X is infinite, consider the ideal I of R consisting of all finite subsets of X. If J is a complement to I, then IJ ⊆ I ∩ J = 0 (this happens in every commutative semisimple ring). In particular applying this to {x} ∈ I and an arbitrary set A ∈ J, {x} ∩ A = ∅, so x ∉ A. But that just means that every set is empty, i.e., J = 0. But then R ≠ I + J. Thus, I has no complementary ideal.
I want to verify that F(a)/F an extension of F adjoining a with minimal polynomial f, we have F(a) either contains only a or it contains all the roots of f
can someone help please
This is certainly not true. Consider $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[6]{2})$.
n1lp0tence
okay
but how do i know how many roots i get
there is a thm that says the number of roots i get by adjoining one root divides the degree of the extn
but i have no idea why?
Suppose [F(a):F] degree 6 extn then why can't i get 4 roots of m_a(x) in F(a) and just have them permuted sending one to the next until it cycles through all 4 under a field embedding F into F closure extending to F(a) into F closure
this is somehow a contraidction 😦
I can't think of an argument that doesn't use the Galois correspondence. but the very loose reason why this won't work is because if such an automorphism does exist, then it must also permute the remaining 2 roots in a way that you necessarily get more roots of the minimal polynomial
it is the case that i need to show this without using galois theory
i have an idea but im not sure if its correct
what extension are u referring to here, is it the one u get after the root is adjoined? do you mean this recursively, as in you adjoin one root at a time and count the number of new roots you get? If so there would be a silly counterexample: for any Galois extension adjoining one root would already give you all the roots, so adjoining another one just gives 0 which divides nothing.
presumably by adjoining to the base field only
There is a thm that E algebraic over F then take alpha in E-F then there exists a minimal polynomial of alpha over F called m_a then the number of roots of m_a in F(a) divides [F(a):F]
F(a)/F is the extn im referring to
it does just strictly divide no?
$Q(\sqrt[3]{2})$?
n1lp0tence
like the example 6th root of 2 u get plus minus 6th root of 2 so only two roots in Q(6th root 2)
yes then u get one root only the real one since the other ones are complex
and it still divides
I am not sure why this is the case
ive been trying to figure this out with no avail for 5 hrs
I checked my notes from a while ago
I think this Corollary might help
the idea is probably to embed $\text{Gal}(k(\alpha))$ as a subgroup of something order $n$ and apply Lagrange
n1lp0tence
well assuming Galois theory we can prove your theorem very easily from this: recall that given an extension $L/k$, $[L : L^G] = |G|$, and since $L^G$ is an intermediate field $[L : L^G]$ divides $[L : k]$, as desired.
n1lp0tence
But $[L : L^G] = |G|$ is a highly non-trivial result tho, so idk how one would bypass this
n1lp0tence
is this like on your homework?
yeah proving is same order of difficulty as proving the Galois correspondence
in that case you should probably not try to invoke this result
do you think i can use
my intuition is like this
F(a)/F gives less roots than the m_a / F
right
well less than is easy
but this is arbitrarily less than
it's some number
wait not sure thats going to work
i was going to say that (x-a)(x-b)(x-c)g(x)
then I just take the x-a x-b x-c and construct a new minimal polynomial
but that contradicts the minimality of the original
this sucks
lol
do you want to just say your larger issue
i think the larger issue gets resolved if I can find a way to show the F(a) problem
yeah but it could be that this is a stronger statement than your other issue, assuming that it doesn't require Galois theory
F(a)/F then there is a fixed field intermediate between F(a)/F
yes
I'm supposed to somehow use that?
that's essentially the argument i did above
i don't understand
the problem is if you don't know the order of the intermediate extension ur cooked
cf
but do we even care abt the order of the intermediate? by lagranges it must divide thats all we care about
you need to link it to order of Galois group
im very confused about the whole fixed field root permutation field embedding stuff
so my understanding is that if I have a phi:F to E where E is maybe a splittig field of F for example, then if I extend F to some larger field K where K algebraic over F, then there is a PHI such that PHI restricted to F is just phi. PHI is completely determined by where it sends the roots of an irredpolynomial over F
why can't i send those roots to any other root I want? Why am i constrained by the number of roots being permuted must divide the degree of the minimal polynomial
yeah this is the isomorphism extension theorem
an example is Q maps to C then f is x^4-2 then I extend phi that fixes Q to the splitting field of x^4-2 then I send fourth root of 2 to fourth root of 2 times i then to fourth root of 2 times -i and back to fourth root of 2
sure you can extend arbitrarily but you want the resultant diagram to commute, i.e. it be a morphism of extensions
in this case I send to 3 things but 3 does not divide 4 contradiction, but whyyyyyyyyy
where does the contradiction come from
is this true for fields of any characteristic?
Any automorphism of F(a) is determined by where a is mapped and can map a to any root of the minimal polynomial.
Hence |Aut(F(a)/F)| equals the number of district roots in F(a).
Now calling this group G you have |G| = [F(a) : F(a)^G] which divides
[F(a) : F] = [F(a) : F(a)^G] * [F(a)^G : F]
This is not a homomorphism, you must have f(-x) = -f(x) which you don't do here
This is same as the proof I gave, the problem is OP can’t use that |G| = [F(a):F(a)^G]
Do you know of a way to bypass this?
Well, I don't know if this is any better, but if you let E be the splitting field of F(a) and G the automorphism group of E, then G acts transitively on the roots.
Take H to be the subgroup that fixes a and let H' be the subgroup that leaves F(a) invariant.
Then H' > H hence [H':H] divides [G:H]. The latter is the total number of roots while the furmer is the number of roots in F(a)
The only tricky think here is that G acts transitively on the roots.
You can prove by induction that any embedding F(a) -> E extends to an automorphism of E. This is a general fact for normal extensions
I feel like the root counting implicitly uses the Galois correspondence no?
Not really no. It's just orbit stabilizer
Oh wait you’re so right
So this does solve their issue since showing G acts transitively is pretty straightforward
is there a concept analogous to group order for rings?
the order of the ring?
ok they're still just sets so
just take the cardinality
in fact they're also groups so we don't even need to go that far down
mm cause Ive got a module generated by <m> and I've got another element with the same annihilator (hence same order) tryna show that this other element q also generates the module
true
i meant to say modules but typed rings sorry
that would be the order of a group element not the group
uh huh yes
but I think they meant element anyway so it's fine
do we know that q is in <m>?
oh I see yes you did say that sorry
all good
can I just say "oh if we think about these as groups then they have the same order and so <q> = M" that feels very handwavey
hmm
then yeah I think you can conclude that <q> = <m>. My thoughts are: if we consider the multiplication map R -> End(M), the kernel of this map is exactly the annihilator of m (cause <m> = M), so if q is also annihilated by this kernel and only this kernel then we must have have <q> = M
if <q> < M, then there must be more elements of R which send q to 0, implying Ann(q) > Ann(m) which is a contradiction
when you say R -> End(M) your talking about sending scalars to endomorphism
hmm
so your suggesting a map p(a) that sends a in R to the map that sends n to an (n in M)
is that right?
fixed
yeah nah yeah that makes sense thanks mate
no worries
This stack exchange has a theorem
"If R is a quasi-Frobenius ring (which since R is commutative is the same a a Frobenius ring), then two elements have the same annihilator if and only if they are associates (differ by multiplication by a unit) if and only if they generate the same principal ideal."
well technically this is for rings but
this makes sense but I hadnt thought of it before, we only covered it in the context of a map RxM -> M being scalar multiplication
yeah that also works - but it's just a nicely way to encode all of the scalar multiplication axioms into a short phrase
cause a ring homomorphism R -> End(M) automatically gives you a scalar multiplication, but not all maps RxM -> M do
ohh yeah thats really smart removes the need for some of the axioms
if you use this definition isnt the definition of a module just an abelian group with a map R->end(M) thats it?
yup that's the full definition
huh that is a lot more elegant than the definition in my class
wait this doesn't make sense? how can you intersect G and A_G? G is just some group, not necessarily a permutation group
Wew is identifying G with it's image in S_G
oh ok
yeah i just saw he mentioned that
i think you said exactly this, but i wanna make sureim doing the right thing
so you don't actually need second iso
since theres an odd permutation, pi compose f is surjective (cuz you can get -1)
so G/ker f is isomorphic to C_2
and then you're just done?
Yup
alr - a little confusing since dummit and foote refers to a previous exercise about like second iso stuff
also technically ker pi compose s is not pi(G) intereset A_G, its just isomorphic
but actually you don't need any of that, you just need mpa surjective -> G/ker iso to C_2
I'm gonna defend myself here, I'm 99% sure that it is straight up this intersection
ok then i think ur right
but yeah they're isomorphic anyway so who cares
yeah
Let $G$ be a finite group of composite order $n$ with the property that $G$ has a subgroup of
order $k$ for each positive integer $k$ dividing $n$. Prove that G is not simple
donut123
Felt like this was too easy for being the last problem in the chapter
isn't it just
take a prime factor
by cauchy's theorem, you get a subgroup of order p
wait nvm lol
was gonna say cyclic and done lmao
if p be the smallest prime dividing order of group then group is not simple (subgroup with index p is normal)
oh yeah lol forgot that
but i didnt understand your solution
nah i was doing gibberish lol
There’s a subgroup of order n/p
So taking quotient gives index p
We know that one exists
And by what you said it’s normal
good morning guys it's ya boy texas
i need some help proving this assertion here
do y'all have any tips
if I could prove that every simple abelian group is cyclic it's home free right? but idk if that's necessarily true
Well every subgroup of an Abelian group is normal. Do you know of any nice examples of subgroups?
You are on the right track
||center is either trivial or the whole group. It can’t be trivial, since every element commutes with powers of itself||
omg rachel goswell
I wasn’t talking about the centre
Indeed Z(G)=G for any Abelian group G
every abelian shit is just a dirct product of littile shits, isomorphics to some prime clocks on wall.
yup i think that seals it
It does but that’s a too strong theorem
Suppose G abélien and |G| not prime, then take p prime which divides |G|, by Cauchy, there exists x with order p, and so, < x > is a normal proper subgroup of G
cool
I think there is an easier way
induction seems like overkill
atleast it is basic
really general question, but when do you wanna think about group actions?
like on the surface, if you were the problem to show that if |G| = 2k where k is odd then G has a subgroup of index 2, i dont think i would think of group actions
What are groups for, if not to act
I think the answer here is basically anytime you want to think about a group.
Like, subgroups up to conjugation = transitive group actions. So if you're thinking about indexes of subgroups you probably want some kind of G/H group action.
Similarly the core of a subgroup H is the kernel of the group action G/H, and the normalizer is the automorphism group of G/H as a G-set. So this is often typically seen as group actions.
Then you have that homomorphisms to Sn and GLn are group, so understanding homomorphisms to them or related groups are best understood through that lense
And many of the nice theorems about finite groups are proven by finding some nice group action, like Cauchys theorem, the Sylow theorems, the center of p-group being nontrivial, burnsides complement theorem
In my class group theory started from group actions , saying every groups comes from a action, and every group can be embedded in GL_n(F), AND YES cauchy and sylow theorem prooven using actions and embedding it was nice treat .
Hmm, can every group be embedded in GLn(F) for some F and n?
at least for finite group yes
Well sure
for infinite group not sure
is it true for infinite?
Idk, I would think not, but idk
why was the word ring chosen
I dread to think about cardinality issues for trying to embed things bigger than uncountably infinite inside GL_n(F), even if F itself is larger than uncountably infinite (if such a thing is even possible for a field)
I believe historically it's from the fact that Z/mZ has a "cycling" kind of feel to i t
second answer seems mostly likely lol
but then only quotient rings should be called rings
There are a myriad other explanations that are given in the thing I linked
by definition, isn't a ring any group where you can add and multiply elements together
it could also just come from an archaic German interpretation of ring to be a collection of things
Every ring is a quotient ring so
why the word separable is used for the topological spaces having countable dense subset.
Because in R you can separate any two reals with an element of Q
why it is a general term then
A lot of topology comes from generalisations of things you do on R. You’ve got to call it something, seems like a perfectly good things to call it.
At begining it looks, but as I grew it was far from R, so I don't think this
I mean, you growing doesn't really change that a lot of topology is motivated by R.
The word seperable comes from functional analysis anyway, where thing do look a lot like R
95% of topologies I see are homotopy colimits of subsets of R so as far as I care all topology is quotients and subspaces of R^n
point set topology is just bigcap bigcup on steroids
Poo and pee
Noo i dont want to lose my
Very active tag
I have in fact not been very active recently
Ah, I didn’t know that, what’s the motivation in functional analysis?
I was always under the impression it was the thing I said but I’ve never actually looked it up
wdym motivation
countable sets are much nicer to work with than uncountable ones
Jagr mentioned separable comes from functional analysis, in what way does it show up there and how did that motivate the topological definition?
I don’t really know anything about FA
Just like you said. R is a seperable Banach space
Lol
For coprime naturals m, n, consider a field extension L/K of
degree m. Then every element a ∈ K with an nth root in L has
an nth root in K.
I managed to solve it eventually, but I wanna see if someone can find a different proof from mine
Cause mine it's kinda random and I feel like it can be solved in other ways
Consider the tower of field extensions L - K[a^1/n] - K. Denote the intermediate field by F (and it is a subfield of L by assumption so such a tower exists).
Then [F:K] divides n (to see why notice that Aut(F/K) has an embedding into Z/nZ) such that m = [L:K] = [L:F] [F:K] by the tower formula.
But then as n,m are coprime by assumption [F:K] = 1, ie a^1/n is in K
There’s a problem with this proof, see below, I think I made some incorrect assumptions about the existence of roots of unity, I’ll come back to this later
Consider K = Q, a=1 and n=3.
Then [Q(1^1/3):Q] has degree 2, so does not divide 3
Of course Q contains a different cube root of 1 (namely 1 itself)
So the argument should work when K has an nth root of unity.
So maybe one can show separately that a root in K(1^1/n) implies a root in K.
1^1/n to denote an nth root of unity is cursed
I think this is probably key
if you can reduce n to a prime, which seems reasonable
kronecker deltas are used
there is a triangular delta aslo
how do yall vocalize these? for the first one obviously just wondering about the second statement
Usually in context it's "Let f:A->B" to say "Let f be a function/morphism/map from A to B"
Whereas the f labeling of the arrow, in context, often shows up in a diagram and is simply not vocalized
can any body share a sevrer link for politics
For finitely generated Z modules A, B. If A, B does not have elements with order of some power of a fixed prime p, does it mean the statement hold for A tensor B?
This is from an exercise on Hatcher where he gave some complicated hints, but shouldn't this statement be obvious?
The same would hold true if I replace A with direct sum A_i, B with direct sum B_i right?
please mention the page
chpater
Any hint? I know if p is prime ideal then R/p is domain but how can I verify it is integral domain or not.
I know I have to choose R and p such that R/p not finite
see in C(R) and maximal ideal containing all cont function with compact suppport
But in C(R), there is an unity, right?
try ring with continuosu func with compact support
Take R = Z<x, y> to be the noncommutative polynomial ring and p=(x,y)
In commutator theory by Ralph McKenzie, deltas are used for congruences, as there they are denoted using Greek letters
If I'm gonna label arrows I usually start from alpha and just go alphabetically
Reach delta pretty quick
Lots of arrows
Wait until brother learns about differential algebra. Delta is common notation for derivations
discriminant of polynomial
Is Z<x,y> exactly same as subring generated by x and y in Z[x,y] ?
Non-commutative ring, how?
The non-commutative polynomial ring is not a subring of the commutative polynomial ring no
Do you require "integral domains" to have 1?
If not, then it appears that the definition of "prime ideal" would directly make R/p a domain.
On the other hand, if integral domains must have 1, then you could just take R to be the even integers, and p={0}...
yes
ahhhhh....
i didn't worked in non-commutative polynomial ring
maybe he is thinking it as product ideal of Z and <x,y> inside Z[x,y]
I think Jagr simply misread the problem statement to have "noncommutative" instead of "commutative".
ya maybe
but i also tried to work out with ring of continuous function with compact support, but not much aware about its prime ideal
Intuitively I think the only prime ideals there would be { f | f(a)=0 } for each a.
or can we take rng of polynomial with 0 contant term
0 function
{0} is not prime in the ring of continuous functions with compact support -- two bumps with disjoint supports have 0 as their product.
ideal generated by bump functions?
What do you mean? Principal ideals? Those are generally not prime, I think.
please give some nice prime ideal
"Working" in which sense? Notknow's problem?
yes
Right, because then the quotient ring is just the reals.
maybe result holds
i think there are more
Hmm?
this ring without unity is an ideal of some ring, can we use that
You did see my suggestion of 2Z/{0}, right?
take an infinite compact set S and consider the multiplicative submonoid of functions that vanish at finitely many points in S. then a prime ideal that avoids this multiplicative submonoid cannot be of the form {f | f(a) = 0}
No
I think that's a good counterexample to Notknow's problem.
(Or even any proper nontrivial ideal in a domain, quotiented by {0}).
yes
at the end it was most simple
IIRC on a compact Hausdorff space X, those are the maximal ideals; the closed (wrt uniform convergence) ideals are {f : f(Z) = 0} for each closed subset Z, and this ideal should be prime iff X\Z is connected(?).
Yes, I think it is obvious using the classification of fg ℤ-modules.
Ok I don’t know this stuff, but I was just recognizing some stuff: isn’t Hausdorff a topology or thing, but maximal ideal is a ring theory thing?
Yes. (Compact and continuous are also topology things.)
Hello
If they were both related wouldn't they be an example of a prescheme or small scheme?
I'm talking about Hausdorff and ideal thing donut123 said
I don't think { f | f(Z) = 0 } is prime if Z is an extended closed subset.
Choose f with support outside Z, and g and h with disjoint supports both inside Z. Then (f+g)(f+h) = f² is in the ideal, but neither f+g nor f+h is.
maybe his host space is compact housdorff not R
What I describe could equally well take place on, say, the unit circle, which is compact Hausdorff: If Z has nonempty interior there will still be space for disjoint bumps g and h on it.
@tribal moss
life is sweet chin, jst bang it
I agree there's such a multiplicative submonoid. But it's not obvious to me that there's a prime ideal that avoids it?
(It doesn't seem to be a general ring fact at play, at least: in Z, the nonzero squares form a multiplicative submonoid, but there's no nonzero prime ideal that avoids them).
{0} is prime there though
Yeah, but it's still not clear to me which general argument you're appealing to here.
i would assume that (a maximal ideal that avoids the submonoid => that ideal is prime) doesn't rely on the ring having a unit
0 is not in the submonoid
I may be forgetting something basic, but how do you know there's a maximal ideal that avoids it? And is it [maximal ideal] that avoids it or maximal [ideal that avoids it]? I can get the latter by Zorn, but it's not clear that it would necessarily be prime.
maximal [ideal that avoids it]
Okay, I agree such an ideal must exist. Why must it be prime, though?
if you have two elements outside that multiply together to go inside then one of them must not be in the submonoid, but then the ideal generated by including that element is also disjoint from the submonoid
if you have two elements outside that multiply together to go inside then one of them must not be in the submonoid
Okay so far.
but then the ideal generated by including that element is also disjoint from the submonoid
Why? Perhaps there's a way to get into the submonoid by adding our new element to something already in the ideal.
oops i made a mistake
consider the elements where you can multiply by something in the submonoid to go inside
this is an ideal and contains everything inside
and also avoids the submonoid
Wait, why?
How can "contains everything inside" and "avoids the submonoid" even be true about the same set, ideal or not?
sorry let me actually use letters
M multiplicative submonoid, P maximal wrt the ideals that avoid M
And, just to be sure, "avoid M" means has empty intersection with M, right?
I get that - I’ve taken some topology - what I’m confused about is that you are using a ring theory thing to describe a topology thing
Aren’t they pretty separate?
this is an ideal and avoids M
and contains P
assume 0 is not in M and M is nonempty
Hmm, I'll need to think about why that is an ideal first.
when you sum two you can multiply by the two ms that exist
Okay if we have a x and y in your claimed ideal (which has no name yet!) with mx in P, yn in P, then (x+y)mn is in P too.
So I accept it's an ideal.
And it cannot contain anything in M.
So it must actually be P itself, or it wouldn't be maximal.
Actually, could it be smaller than P?
it contains P
Ah, because your entire space is compact so 1 is in M.
i meant abstractly, it contains P
Now I'm lost again.
take any p from P. then any m in M works, since mp is in P
Ah, right, P is an ideal. Sorry.
i'm definitely overcomplicating this so you shouldn't apologize
for any element x in our ring consider {y in our ring | xy is in P}
we want to show that this set is P itself
that would show that P is prime
Yes it would.
Right.
well assume x is outside P
Outside what?
otherwise the set is just the ring itself
Huh?
P is an ideal, so if x was in P then any element multiplied with x goes inside P
Ah, I see, "the set" was {y | xy in P }.
this ({y | xy in P}) is also eventually P but call it P_x
sorry
P_x also avoids M, because x was outside P to start with
like if there was an element m in M such that mx is in P then x is in P
by what we said earlier
Okay, so putting it all together I think we have shown that if 0 not in M, then there's a prime ideal P disjoint from M
In a general ring.
So now back to function rings, this shows there's a prime ideal whose every member is a function with infinitely many zeroes.
this is the case for {f | f(a) = 0} as well
because our functions have compact support and we're working in C(ℝ, ℝ)
Oh, I thought you had switched to using a compact domain, like S^1.
this one
Okay.
So we have a prime ideal in which every member has infintely many zeroes in, say [0,1].
yeah
And that won't be { f | f(a)=0 } no matter whether a is in [0,1] or not.
Okay, I'm convinced.
Thanks for the explanation.
it's very nonconstructive but i actually don't think there's a constructive way to show there are other prime ideals
Sounds like fair game. ;-)
It's true if the saturation (closed under divisors) of the submonoid is proper (does not contain 0).
Why not?
They're different, but they can be connected. The ring under consideration depends on the original topological space, so it's reasonable for its algebraic properties to be related to the space's topological ones.
the set of associated primes of an ideal I of R is the same as Ass_R(R/I)?
an element of Ass_R(R/I) is an ideal Ann(m) for m in R/I?
in atiyah macdonald it says the asociated primes of I are the prime ideals that occur in the set r(I:x) for x in R. So from that it looks like radicals of annihilators of elements in R/I
Is is true that for a surjective $f: G \rightarrow H$, we have:
$D(G) = f^{-1}(D(H)) \cdot \operatorname{Ker}(f)$?
UGOBEL
What is D(G)
Deez gnuts
ong what is D(G)
probably the subgroup generatd by all divisible subgroups
Hi everyone I have a question related to the Banach-Tarski Paradox. Is G-equidecomposability a bijection?
D(G) = { [a,b] = abab^{-1}b^{-1} | a,b € G }
Also know as [G,G] (commutator subgroup)
D for Derived subgroup
yes
No right? If H is abelian, then D(H) = {1} and f^-1(D(H)) = ker f as well
Is there is a definition/term for the set of all pairs elements (x, y) in a ring (R, *, +) such that x*y = x+y?
well representations over rings are just modules, which is just linear algebra xD
these will exactly be 1 + a unit
seriously tho any graduate algebra book should have a section on module theory
check dummit and foote or aluffi
well this is still group representation
GL_2(R) -> Aut(k)
so the keyword is group representation theory
classical representation theory usually still studies functors into k-Vect, only more modern literature would contain study of representations over modules
but free modules are really not that different from vector spaces
what is ur current source
ic
i dont think any definition would change work over R-mod so if ur comfortable with classical representation theory just translate over the same definitions
lol
well i suppose the point of the paper (partially) is to work with more general representations
linear algebra is either over division rings or commutative rings (usually over something that's both)
if you venture outside that you're dead
well i meant that as a joke but at least R-mod is still an abelian category even when R is bad
hey i got the answer for the point group as D1 but im a bit confused how i could go about finding the index for this. Anyone have any suggestions?
do you know what the group G is, because its subgroup of translations is of course just Z
I think that's exaggerating. Things like Smith normal form are over PIDs and lemmas like the centre or classification of ideals of matrix rings are both valid over general rings and useful in module theory over those rings.
Can I say like that, since if H is a subgroup of index n in G then there is a unique group homomorphism from G to S_n?
I know there is a group homomorphism G to S_n and kernel \subset H, but I am not sure about uniqueness.
And if we can say there is bijection between subgroup of index n and homomorphisms then we can say G has finite subgroup of index n, because G is finitely generated so there are finite group homomorphism G to S_n, right?
I mean it's not unique, but you don't need uniqueness for the exercise.
If there are more maps G -> Sn than index n subgroups that's still a finite amount.
Yes G to S_n there are finitely group homomorphism because G is finitely generated
this doesnt seem right to me... the fact that the r(x) that the division algo in Z[x] gives us might be nonzero is precisely what we are trying to eliminate right? i rather have the following proof:
the division algorithm in Q[x] gives us that g = fq' --(eq. 1) . now if we apply the division algo in Z[x], we get that g = fq + r => g-fq = r but we know f divides the lhs (in Z[x]) by equation (1), thus f divides r (in Z[x]) thus f divides fq + r = g (in Z[x]) as desired
- does my concern make sense
2)if 1), is my "alternate" proof fine?
The proof in the book is fine. The point is that deg r < deg f, so it has to be the same in Q[x], since it's unique with w.r.t. this property
The proof in the picture is saying that you do division with remainder works the same over Q and Z, so when you performed the computation you will get r=0.
I don't quite follow your proof. You say that f divides g-fq by equation 1. But wouldn't that mean q' is in Z[x], in which case you would already be done.
guys how tf do I show that A_n is simple for all n >= 5
fr
i'm kinda going insane over simple groups n shit
helps if I use that
$A_{n} = <\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 2 & i \end{pmatrix} | i \in {1, 2, ..., n}>$?
scarpa
as fas as i know about a proof using induction, and using that any non trivial conjugacy class of A_n has at least n element
this is true
my prof proved in class
i'm just asking if i can use it to prove that A_n is simple for all n >= 5
yes
on stackexchange i saw a proof
which uses this fact
cool
chatgpt told me that i could show that every normal subgroup of An contains a 3-cycle
does that work?
As @ jagr2808 mentioned, it's enough that {subgroups} → {homororphisms} is injective, but that isn't entirely trivial either. ||Make sure to represent the cosets by 1, ..., n so that H is represented by 1; then H = Stab(1) recovers the subgroup from the homomorphism.||
Btw you can use \langle, \rangle for the angle brackets
like
I know the strategy
pick a normal subgroup of A_n, ok
show that it contains a 3-cycle
since N is normal, it contains all 3-cycles
I'm struggling to show that N contains a 3-cycle
If you've dealt with n= 5 then for n > 5 you can try intersecting with A_(n-1) and stuffs
that sounds like a whole lotta work
you have all the conjugations to play with
like give yourself a random bunch of even permutations and see if you can produce a 3-cycle
(using those permutations and their conjugates)
actually what i said isn't quite correct
you can only conjugate by even permutations
e.g. a 3-cycle
Is it really true that all finite fields of the same order are isomorphic? That would be wild...
It seems like, given that the operations can be anything as long as they satisfy the necessary conditions of commutativity, associativity, etc... you could make two finite fields of the same order that are not isomorphic
what are some methods to count |Hom(G,S_n)|? can I consider permutation representations and use stuff like orbit-stabilizer and burnside's lemma? i'm not sure how to go about these two though, or if there are any other methods
Yea
The point is that if K is a finite field then it has p^n elements for a prime p and integer n >= 1. So every element of K is a root of the polynomial x^(p^n) - x by Lagrange's theorem. This means K is a splitting field of this polynomial over Fp, and splitting fields are unique up to isomorphism
Note that these are not unique up to a canonical/unique isomorphism though
Hopefully one day soon I will learn the math required to understand all that (less than 3 weeks till my first college semester starts!)
Ah nice, sorry I wasn't sure of your background - I suppose the stuff here may technically be a little bit away but probably not too far if you read ahead (and you seem to have read ahead to be asking this aha)
(ive finished my degree and dont know what a splitting field is)
(which is my fault for not taking galois theory)
Valid
What do you do nope actually lol idk if I have talked to u much
heh
(Hello)
Went to one lecture, the man was insanely dry, took categories for quantum theory instead
Chad
Uhhhhh algebra vaguely, I like rings, generally happy if theyre around. I fuck with topology too, my UG thesis was about Betti numbers in algebra and topology, I liked the homological algebra I learned there
V cool ye
Im hoping I actually get into a masters somewhere and the idea becomes more clear
I think K theory seems cool maybe some noncom geometry, maybe some rep theory
V nice
I would expect this to be very hard in general
Haha yeah, I know some stuff about really "advanced" math, but there are a lot of gaps in my knowledge. I've been studying cryptography, and right now I'm learning about AES, which uses Galois field arithmetic. That's what got me onto the subject lately.
Or do you mean for specified examples
Ah yeah sure that is a natural way into finite fields
here's another interpretation: a finite field of size n will contain exactly the n unique solutions to the polynomial x^n-x / x^(n-1)-1 (the proof of this is nontrivial).
but then any 2 solution sets to a polynomial are necessarily "the same", so two fields are isomorphic
oh you did lol
Nws tho lol like just funny
It can be useful to connect it with G-sets of size n I guess.
There's a formula connecting it to index n subgroups here
https://qchu.wordpress.com/2015/11/15/finite-index-subgroups-of-the-modular-group/
rings are great. I hate them, and especially commutative rings make me angry at how many miracles they perform
I was thinking of Hom(Q_8, S_4) in particular, since someone said there's a really short solution with orbit-stabilizer a while ago
is a G-set the same thing as a permutation rep?
A G-set is a set equipped with an action of the group G on it
A map Q8 -> S4 is the same as an action of Q8 on {1,2,3,4}.
Thinking about this as a G-set it decomposes into orbits of the form Q8/H for subgroups H.
These subgroups must have size at least 2, since otherwise Q8/H would be bigger than 4, so they are nontrivial.
But any nontrivial subgroup contains {±1}.
So any such map factors
Q8 -> Q8/{±1} -> S4.
Counting maps C2xC2 -> S4 is much easier.
Nice
sorry i'm kind of new to group actions and stuff, but what does this mean? "Thinking about this as a G-set it decomposes into orbits of the form Q8/H for subgroups H". why do the orbits of the action on {1,2,3,4} have to be of the form Q8/H
This is essentially orbit stabiliser
Any G-set decomposes as the disjoint union of the orbits
yea
So you can reduce to the case where G acts transitively on the set
But then in that case it's of the form Orb(x) = G/Stab(x) for any x
what does it mean for the map to factor?
It means that it's the composition of two maps
oh i see thank you!
that works for A5
i have to think about the example of countable group which has uncountable subgroup, any hint?
yes, power set is group under symmetric operation
i see
you can make one now
you can take all the subests of natural with finite cardinality
i see
yes
now you can make subgroups containing singletons of the form {n}
yes i can because every non-identity element has order 2
yes
what about subgroups containg {x,y}
yes because {x,y} also has order 2
so total number of subgroups containing {x,y} at least | N \times N |, right?
we can repeat this for arbitrary for large cardinality
yes
i don't know much about infinite cardinalities, so how they will implies there are uncountable subgroup?
no
is it because N \times N countable?
you can say but it is countable union of countable set is countable
okay
you can easyliy now see that there is a bijextion from set of subgroups that we are identifying of the form {x,y,.....} to $\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\times......}$
yes
Akhi Mishra(Riemman Slayer)
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the last product is infinite
for {x} you have aleph 0 subgroups
for {x,y} you have again aleph 0*aleph 0=aleph 0
so there is bijection to $\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\times......}$
Akhi Mishra(Riemman Slayer)
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i don't get this part
thats the claim think about it
okay
so are you map subgroups {x} -> (x,0,0,...), {x,y} -> (x,y, 0,0,0,..), {x1,..,xN} -> ( x1,.., xN, 0, 0,..)?
yes this is not well - defined
You can be more precise
ordered (x,y) maps to (x,y, 0,...)
Yes
You have to be more precise you map creats some problems
{ e, {x}, {x,y}, {y} }
Yes but our 2 order subgroups are sufficient
but i don't see how it makes bijection with N\times N\times....
thank you, i will look at it
quick sanity check, is the arbitrary union of Galois extensions Galois? (assuming that the extensions are compatible of course)
Hey can someone explain what are the éléments of a gallois field F_q and F_q^m ?
You mean the compositum?
The Union of fields inside a given algebraic closure is unlikely to be a field even
assuming it's a field, I guess is the implicit assumption
but for instance if you fix a prime p, the union over all finite fields of characteristic p (ignoring the compatibility issues) is isomorphic to the algebraic closure of F_p
So then are you assuming the union is over subfields which are contained within each other?
not necessarily all contained within each other, but it induces a poset with a maximal element, yes
So all fields are contained within some other field? Or you just mean that the union is contained within a field?
Anyway you have to ask a precise question to get a real answer
okay, let me rephrase.
cyclic group
we have an arbitrary family of Galois extensions, all of which are embedded in a field - take it to be the closure or whatever.
is the union of the family of fields, assuming it is a well-defined subfield, Galois?
do tell if it's not precise enough
Then the union is equal to the compositum, and indeed one can show that the compositum of galois extensions is galois with galois group a subgroup of the product of the various galois groups in the union.
But it’s good to ask questions without implicit assumptions.
This follows because one can check by hand that it’s normal and separable because any element lies inside of one of the extensions which are known to be galois
what's a sketch of the proof?
is it just via the embedding into the direct product of the Galois groups
Yes if a galois element is trivial on every extension in the union it is per definition trivial
And since all of the extensions are normal the galois group of the union preserves each of them
So the map g \to \prod_i g|_{F_i} is injective homomorphism of groups
yes, that tracks
Consider any element, it is contained in one of the extensions in the union. Hence its minimal polynomial splits and is seperable
This is for a literal union though
i just needed the verification lol I am literally writing down what yall describing right now
i applied for postgrad tag and getting undergrad wow, how it is given
bro is unworthy
i have a degree but
im joking lol
no i just want to know what is the crietria for it
perhaps u can try modmail
or just ask in #advanced-lounge many mods are active there
i think still it is fine, will it change anything
idk iirc the form just asks for like textbooks/papers uve read recently
no
okay
like the role doesn't really matter
It grants you acces to the graduate lounge, not that its necessarily a very intersting place to be
as i have completed algebra coursework, i will shift to other channels soon(alg top, adv analysis ) , will i miss anything else related if i dont have postgraduate roll
no I think thats it
You get cool roles to tell the world what kinda math you're interested in
how to get it
.. you apply for postgrad
i did that but got something else
i still have amazing group theory problems, for now i will be fine
i and @chilly ocean have some sets of nice problems which are still unsolved so we will post it here. for now undergrad is fine, as i will stay here only
You, won't get problem sets if you have the postgrad role
i have own problems left to work out
you wait i will post after 24 hour
I just didn't see how it relates at all to the previous conversation
So I got kinda confused
i mean i dont need go anywhere else for now , for problems
Yes, how does that relate to getting the postgrad role
i mean even if i am not getting it i am surviving here
ok this is an assertion used in a proof of a bigger problem
in an abelian group G order pq, where p and q are primes, if every nonidentity element is of order p, the index of centralizer for every nonidentity element is q
(they contradict this later)
but why si that true
oh wait
for some element x of order p
Z(<x>) is a subgroup of G
p <= Z(<x>), since x commutes with powers of itself
if equals index is q
it cant be of order q, since <x> is a subgroup of Z(<x>)
and p cant divide q (both primes)
ok i got it
abelian group of order pq is Z_pq
yeah the problem was to show that if |G| = pq distinct primes, p <=q, and p does not divide q-1, then G is abelian
without sylow?\
yup
its like Lagrange + Class equation
if Z(G) = p,q, or pq, G/Z(G) is cyclic so abelian
so suppose Z(G) = 1
use what i just mentioned to get that theres an element of order q
so index p
let H = <x>
Do you mean in a non-abelian group? Otherwise the centralizer is always just everything
oops i just shouldn't have specificed anything
the problem is to prove G is abelian
One of those new fangled non-commutative Abelian groups
Not every group of order pq is abelian though, but I guess you just have an extra condition
non abelian shit, hanging out with two prime ladies
Yeah if p does not divide q-1
is this a joke? i thought commutative and abelian meant the same thing 😭
It was a joke, they are the same
As jagr mentioned the centraliser isnt very interesting for abelian groups because everything commutes
thats the indian system of teaching grp theory
I feel like this proof is trying very hard not to prove Cauchy's theorem
yeah in the exercises you use cauchy's theorem to show it is cyclic
i think they were kinda trying to show off techniques from the chapter
mainly that N_G(H)/C_G(H) is a subgroup of Aut(H)
I guess that's pedagogical
Welcome to English 802
I just flicked through my group theory homeworks from last semester because I thought I vaguely remembered doing this problem and im realsing I have 0 recollection of doing any of those homeworks
Im sure that bodes well for the exam next week
I really think it's bad to have too good a memory if you want to be a mathematician. You need a slightly bad memory because you need to forget the way you approached [a problem] the previous time because it's a bit like evolution, DNA.
-Andrew Wiles
This was the only thing I remembered, because I was very salty about this being the only mark I lost on the entire homework when it literally was by construction
jagr2808-
Something poetic in me remembering this quote isn't there
Its a nice quote though, what use are all these new tools and ideas we learn if we can't then return and apply them to motivating problems. Also just nice to see a problem which you struggled with before comes naturally now, even with the same tools
same goes for problems of life
What was the construction?
I mean I haven't looked at this in a while so potentially I am mistaken and there was something else to say, but thats the problem
I was mildly irritated at the time but I got 19/20 i wasn't losing sleep over it lol
Seems like you wrote pretty explicitly that N_n < N_{n+1} follows because of the correspondence theorem 
Was reading Milne's Galois theory notes. Have a doubt as to why $$\frac{Gal(E_2 /F)}{Gal (E_2 / E_1 \cap E_2)} \cong Gal(E_1 \cap E_2 /F)$$
holds
lajok000_92503
as it says fundamental theorem
Yeah fundamental theorem of Galois theory but I don't see t
It
@chilly ocean I don't see it
are you sure its saying fundamental theorem of galois theory
for me it looks like first isomorphism theorem of groups
the by (d) check it
Got it
Cam you explain the next line of counting as well @chilly ocean
Each sigma_1 in Gal(E1/F) restricted to E1 cap E2...
That was my feeling lol
Each sigma_1 in Gal(E1/F) restricted to E1 cap E2... then you want sigma 2 such that sigma_1 = sigma 2 on intersection of E1 and E2 that is sigma 1^{-1} sigma _2 is identity on E1 cap E2
Yes
But I don't see why why said that the extensions of Sigma 1 restricted to E1 intersection E2 gas exactly [E2: E1 intersection E2] Extensions to an element of Gal(E2/F)
but we know there are [E_2: E_1 cap E_2] of them which are trivial on E_1 cap E_2 and element of Gal(E2/F) so sigma 1^{-1} sigma _2 must be choosen in [E_2: E_1 cap E_2] ways
In general [E:K] = |Gal(E/K)|
Ok
I got it
Thanks guys
I hope I do good tomorrow
thats what the line is saying just before the computations of degree extensions
Thanks bro
Man why do I take up algebra when I suck at it.
all the best bro, please share something intresting , from ur ppr
I will
My Prof always puts interesting problems which is why I am stressed
In 15 hours from now I will post
Gn. Will sleep 4 hours then grind again
I am genuinely feeling tensed. I had studied before but forgot everything due to lack of revising
Gn
is it because they dont share the same identity?
Yes
if i define subrings differently so that Rx{0} becomes a subring always, what problems arise ?
say i remove the condition that subring needs to have same identity
it still feels reasonable to me
subrings share identity also feels reasonable.. hmm not sure
There are differing conventions afaik
what you then do is define a "rng" which does not require a multiplicative identity at all
a funny example, if we take nxn matrices, then we can say that the subset of matrices with identical entries everywhere is a subring if we use this alternate definition (here multiplicative identity will be the matrix with 1/n entry everywhere)
So R x {0} is a subrng of R x R, but not a subring
but that is not what i am saying
i am saying they can have different identities
i am not exactly defining a subrng, since i require identity, just not the same identity. but you said subrng does not ask for identity at all. so its between subrng and subring?
"subrng which is a ring"
yes
Then the intersection of subrings need not be a subring for example
You can take like {0,3} inside Z/6Z
ohh i see we want this propert
makes sense
sure thank
I could also be mistaken but I don’t really think subrings are that interesting, at least not in the same way we care about subgroups in group theory
Modules are the more interesting objects when you look at rings
looking for a tutor to help me with my final exam review
so in this example, under my definition, the intesection of this subring and the subring of multiples of identity will be empty, which is not a ring
oh no wait it will be trivial ring
Consider for example ZxZ with the "subrings"
R1 = Zx0
R2 = {(a, b) : a = b mod 2}
The intersection is 2Zx0
R2 is 2Zx2Z U (2Z+1)x(2Z+1), yeah? their intersection is as you describe, but 2Zx0 is not a "subring" because no multiplicative identity
cool
groups are werid
makes sense why subrngs dont ask for 1 (no 1 here)
weird*
the fact you can embed the lattice of normal subgroups into that of regular subgroups leads to all sorts of strange constructions like subnormal series which you simply dont see anywhere else in algebra (modules dont count, theyre groups)
whats a regular subgroup?
just a subgroup
oh xd
Is $\sqrt{(x, y)} \subset k[x, y]$ prime for the following reason? If $fg \in \sqrt{(x, y)}$, then $(fg)^r \in (x, y)$ for some $r \in \mathbb{Z}^+$. Suppose that neither $f$ nor $g$ is in $\sqrt{(x, y)}$. Then $f$ and $g$ must be constant, which contradicts the fact that $(fg)^r \in (x, y)$.
okeyokay
(x, y) is itself prime, so the radical of (x, y) is simply (x, y), so prime :)
( (x, y) is prime as k[x, y]/(x, y) is isomorphic to k)
Oh ya
this is probably the wrong channel (because i don't know what this really is), but where/when does one typically learn "Sylvester's Criterion"
smth about positive definiteness
I’m not aware of it but positive definiteness would lead me to believe linear algebra
Knowing the content of the statement should probably give you a hint
yeah i dont know why i didnt look it up- pretty obviously linear algebra since it uses matrices
but do you know when one learns what positive definiteness is?
i saw it used as the solution to some problem, but ive taken a linear algebra class and never heard of it