#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 320 of 1
Let V be this fixed 2d subspace.
It's fixed by the identity, and if f and g are such that f(V) = V and g(V) = V, then
f(g(V)) = f(V) = V
And
f^-1 f(V) = f^-1 V
V = f^-1 V
if f fixes W and g fixes Y where W and Y are different 2d space , then fog fixes some 2d space how to show this
It doesn't necessarily, that's like the whole point of the proof
this confuses me about the subgroup , you ar also fixing 2d subspace
The subspace spanned by the two first basis vectors is just one specific 2d subspace.
You can start with a different one if you want, but you can't just change willy nilly
if matrix doesnt fix it , does it mean polynomial is irreducible
No, you're supposed to apply 6.1
Universial Property 
Take H the subgroup that fixes V, then gHg^-1 is the subgroup fixing g(V).
If every matrix fixed some 2d space Union gHg^-1 would be all of G, but it's not
yes i got my solution i was thinking little wrong, trying to insert every fixed 2d subspaces inside same subgroup.
that solves it, i forgot to look at linear algebra part of this question, and conjugation together my bad in this question
This question is very nice, how it connects many things in one single piece,
But ℂ ≠ ℤ/pℤ... and I believe (1) does require algebraic closure of the field (or at least infiniteness, since after all, GL_n(F) is a finite group if F is finite).
oh no, is that mathfrak S for symmetric group I see
Oh, I guess that's exactly the point.
symbolic hate
gordon james proud of him
Gx = Gy => x € Gy and y € Gx by taking g = e
$x \sim y$ iff $\exists g \in G, y = g \cdot x$
UGOBEL
Can somebody explain what is a Field and what f(...) ∈ F[...] means
A field is a commutative ring where all elements ≠ 0 have multiplicative inverses
this is saying take f to be a non-zero polynomial with coefficients in F
Do most people see the definition of a field before or after that of a ring? I learnt what a field is for the first time in my linear algebra class
Often before
I once did S_4s subgroup lattice by hand but S_4 x C_2 is deranged
What is universal algebra and why isn't it as popular as category theory?
Omg
It is essentially because universal algebra is mainly based upon lattice theory. Lattice theory tried to be the foundations for math, but with the rise of bourbaki and category theory, which honestly are much better and cleaner in many aspects, it kinda got obsolete for that purpose
In logic, and some other places (like with quandles in algtop) universal algebra is still used a lot, because its great for that use, but in other cases category theory is simply better
Guess he lived up to his name
Next challenge: draw the full Post's lattice
I see, and it's great for those use cases because there is something about the lattice theory foundation that lends itself quite naturally to these areas?
In logic you very naturally deal with closed sets of things
Classes of models closed under satisfying certain types of axioms, sets of formulas closed under deduction etc
In algebra, too: subgroups generated by .., ideals generated by .., and so on
These are all examples of so-called closure operators, and lattices essentially abstract them and turn them into (finitary) algebraic structures
But closure operators also turn up in Galois theory, and hell, the Nullstellensatz too
Free x
I'm wondering then, what makes category theory better than universal algebra. When we talk about algebraic structures, they're closed wrt their operations, and when we talk about generating algebraic structures, like a free monoid, these are also closed
Closure seems to be a pretty fundamental property
Mhm, and lattice theory certainly has its place, but
- Categories have a natural notion of "context", so different notions of equivalence, morphisms, etc.
- Categories allow for much, much more than just algebraic structures themselves, so they are more useful more often
- Lattices are special types of categories and things like closure become monads, Galois correspondences become adjoint functor pairs, and such
The real advantage closure operators and UA have is that they still work with sets and are logic focused, especially with polynomial terms and the like
I see, thanks for the explanation!
I had a project about Latin square-related stuff and needed a framework to study some algebraic structure that arised
(in particular, this is about pairs of MOLS, but I didn't end up going very far, only explored some special finite field-related case)
then it was indeed a descent further and further into the rabbit hole, and now I do UA for UA's sake, basically
Tbh curious about quandles lol
just like a knot has a fundamental group, it also has a fundamental quandle
Ah OK
and its a strong knot invariant; two knots are the same iff they have the same fundamental quandle
Knot theory is the opposite site of topology to stuff I do tbh aha but nice
which is delightful
what is not delightful, is that quandles are not nice to compute 😢
Oh wow lol
Lol somewhat unsurprising I suppose if it is that strong
But cool
yeah, the quandle axioms and Reidemeister moves correspond in some way, from what I could tell
anyways, as algebraic objects quandles are also simply very rich and intersting and have cool connections with groups with a load of functors and cool constructions
oh and the name obviously
auegh I'm reading this paper and their proofs have absolutely no elaboration
"then X, Y, Z"
I DONT SEE WHY IM A LITTLE SLOW, PLEASE EXPLAIN QWQ
ohhh okay I get it
Is the fundamental quandle just the fundamental group, but viewed as a quandle?
no, because that would mean the the fundamental quandle isnt a faithful invariant
at least, I believe so
when looking at the conjugation quandle you actually lose information of the original group, I'm pretty sure
yeah, for example any abelian group will give you an isomorphic quandle, a projective one (where the binary operation just returns the first entry)
quandles also have a lot to do with colourings of knots
From nlab
Every tame knot in ℝ^3 has a “fundamental quandle”. To define this, one can note that the fundamental group of the knot complement, or knot group, has a presentation (the Wirtinger presentation?) in which the relations only involve conjugation. So, this presentation can also be used as a presentation of a quandle.
So if I'm reading this right, the fundamental quandle is bigger because it's the free quandle modulo these relations, so if we add in the extra relations of being a group we would get the fundamental group
in a sense? for quandles you forget the group structure though
the book I use (Quandles and topological pairs) constructs it differently (from the ground up, rather than top down like nlab)
I'm not sure if they would be the same though, I only started learning them yesterday because I thought they sounded funny, lol
Quandles always reminds me of
https://youtu.be/tTYzGEvLvMc?si=otFu4HLu5HAbN9OH
Provided to YouTube by 143/Reprise
Quando, Quando, Quando (with Nelly Furtado) · Michael Bublé · Nelly Furtado
It's Time
℗ 2005 Reprise Records
Engineer: Alejandro Rodriguez
Engineer: Alejandro Rodriquez
Audio Engineer: Alejandro Rodriquez
Technician: Alex Gibson
Technician: Anthony Kilhoffer
Bass Guitar: Brian Bromberg
Engineer, Techni...
the rise of Bourbaki and category theory

did you know there's absolutely zero mention of category theory in the book I used to learn UA? (Burris and Sankappanavar)
they had personal beef istg
oo that's pleasant, I like it
I can only not unhear "tell me quandle, quandle quandle" now
Comedy shorts gaming here
$$
\langle r,t: r^4=t^2=e \rangle \cong\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_4
$$
$$
\text{or}
$$
$$
\langle r,t: r^4=t^2=e \rangle \cong \text{D}_4
$$
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
Neither, you get the free product of C_4 with C_2
you gotta add relations between r and t
So right now, it is an infinite group?
ye
cool thx
👍
is it necessary for the statement the intersection of two semisimple submodules is semisimple? or could you say that the intersection of a semisimple submodule and a submodule is semisimple or 0?
i think the latter is sufficient since the intersection is a submodule of both of the submodules and a submodule of a semisimple module is semisimple
yeah with the generators and relations as given here rt has infinite order
geometrically, this is the rotational symmetries of the truncated tetraapeirogonal tiling of the hyperbolic plane

this is a tiling of the hyperbolic plane by triangles with interior angles pi/2, pi/4 and 0, so two of the sides are parallell
the corner at the boundary of the disc here is an “ideal point at infinity” through which we may rotate the triangle but we’ll never turn around it (the order is infinite)
common notation for this group is $D(2,4, \infty)$ for the geometric picture or just $\mathbb Z/2 \ast \mathbb Z/4$ for the free product
rødbet-jens
Yes, exactly as you said. In fact, 0 should be considered semisimple, so you don't even need the "or".
oh ok nice thankyou
That or the order-4 apeirogonal tiling or the infinite-order square tiling
can anyone suggest some good excersises on groups and rings
google some exams u find on the internet
Let $\phi:R_1\to R_2$ be a ring isomorphism, such that $R_1$ is a field. Does that mean that $\phi$ is also a field isomorphism?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
yes, because the restriction to the multiplicative group of R1 would be a group isomorphism, and therefore preserve inverses
in general, if u in R is a unit with inverse v, then for any (unital) ring homomorphism f : R -> S, f(v) is the unique multiplicative inverse of f(u), because multiplicative inverses are always unique in monoids
So if I want to prove that $\phi:F\to R$ is a field isomorphism where $F$ is a field, and $R$ is a ring, I need to prove that:
-
$\phi(x+y)=\phi(x)+\phi(y)$
-
$\phi(x\cdot y)=\phi(x)\cdot\phi(y)$
-
$\forall r \in R \exists f\in F$ such that $\phi(f)=r$
-
$\phi$ injective because $F$ is a field
yes?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
thx
you only need that its a surjective ring hom
yeah. I wasn't sure, so I thought the best thing to do is to ask someone 🙂
ofc!
can anyone give me an example of a "nontrivial" unit in a group ring KG (so not kg for k nonzero and g a group element)?
If G = {1, g, g^2, g^3} = C4 and K = F2, then
1 + g + g^2 should be a unit.
Inverse should be
1 + g^2 + g^3
interesting, may i ask how you came up with that
any good book for artin wederburn theorem
Or just 1+g in F_2[C_2] right
Fp[C_(p^n)] = Fp[x]/(x^p^n) where x = 1-g.
And in that ring the units are exactly polynomial with constant coefficient 1. So I just picked one
So in particular F2C4 should have 8 units
oh cool, thanks!!
I believe this is also the smallest example where it works
Any book on representation theory should cover it. I learnt it from James-Liebeck personally
But there’s also not much to learn? It’s just one theorem so you can just Google the proof
F4C2 also works, same size
Society if the group-ring group of units adjunction was an equivalence:
society if any monad was naturally isomorphic to the identity
Or avoiding finite fields
QC2 = QxQ with the two idempotente
(1-g)/2 and (1+g)/2.
So the units are
p(1-g)/2 + q(1+g)/2 for nonzero p and q.
For example 3 + g should be a unit.
Oh yeah that ones a classic
so let G be a finite group and K a field and KG the group ring and V a KG module (nonzero). Does V then have a non zero subset finite that is an FpG module?
if G is infinite then I believe KG doesn't
my bad, G is also finite
any KG-module is an FpG-module, so any cyclic submodule is a quotient of FpG hence finite as both G and Fp are finite
(assuming that Fp is the prime subfield of K)
So I'm not sure I understand what you're asking, but if K has characteristic p, then FpG is a subring of KG, so V is an FpG module by restriction of scalars.
And it will have a finite submodule just by picking a cyclic one
ah that figures, thanks
wait how does the infinite-order square tiling work here?
is that a euclidean motion group? a quotient of the one for the hyperbolic tiling above?
I just proved this, but I didn't use the fact that m is prime, so I'm not sure it's correct.
Assume $E \neq F$. Then there exists $a \in E \setminus F$ such that $a^m = b$. Let $w$ be an n-th root of unity, and let $n = mk$ for some $k$. Then $a, aw^k, aw^{2k}, \dots, aw^{(m-1)k}$ are m distinct roots of $x^m - b$, all of which are in $F(a) \setminus F$, so $[F(a) : F] = m$, therefore $x^m - b$ is irreducible over F.
Is this correct? As far as I can see, this works regardless of whether m is prime
sheddow
You’re still doing galois theory?
hell yea 🔥
exam in a couple of weeks
Oh i see
Good luck! But also dang when did ur semester start?
Thats a long semester
Thanks! It started in january I think 
Same
I feel like the exam is way too early 
I have another class which started in january where the exam is in the beginning of june
ah, nice
Wtf
I bet its gonna be 95% category theory, 4% commutative algebra and 1% normal galois theory 
Lmaoo
I mean ok there was one category theory question thankfully hahaha
I didnt do that one
lol
do you know there are 4 categories
WTF
I thought there were 5
letss goooooooooooo
can you nane ut
💀
I think there's only 2, there's C and C^op
Set
Set but spicy
Law / Eq (category of equational theories / lawvere theories)
Grp
R-Mod as one big category for all commutative rings R
The fact that the roots are in F(a) doesn't mean it has degree m.
For example, say b doesn't have a square root and consider
x^4 - b^2 = (x^2 - b)(x^2 + b)
If you're looking for hints:
- ||Say the minimal polynomial of a has degree d, what's the degree of the minimal polynomial of w^k a?||
- ||What does this tell you about the factorization of x^m - b into irreducibles?||
- ||What's the relationship between d and m?||
I see, thanks! Love you 
the mth root of unity is also inside nth root of unity
can anyone suggest some good resource learn galois group of polynomials
those are the same 
there are actually countably many categories, there's C, C^op, C^op^op, C^op^op^op, ...
just like a square has countably many rotational symmetries!
0, 90, 180, 270, 360, 450, ...
so close - those are NUMBERS not symmetries!
numbers are group actions
category theory has more ops than gangsta rappers
the infinite group C_4 🔥
exactly
nuh uh
nuh uh
they're literally constructed by repeated application of "+1", which is an action of Z on itself
"Hello I would like 'the thing that acts' apples"
I win you lose night night don't let the bed bugs bite
you gaining a number of apples seems like an action on a group to me
🤓
brother is called "trivial lemma" nerd emojing me
if you're talking about finite cardinals might as well call them semigroup actions
BUUURRRRRRPPPPPPPP
domain expansion: BUUURRRRRRPPPPPPPP
the good ending
what type of problems? It is not a small topic
the things that generalize restriction and induction?
yeah
not familiar with those functors
Tambara has seperate induction/coinduction which is nifty
I bet you can name one
wdym?
like they're everywhere you've definitely seen one
I meant I'm not familiar with the abstraction that are the mackey functors / tambara
and the general theory
there's numerous ways you can realise them and I think the direct definition of "pair of functors with associated morphissm" is the least enlightening by far
Are they adjoint?
ah lol
if they were adjoint that would retroactively imply that cohomology and homology were adjoint
which would be WONDERFUL so obviously it's not true
yeah of course
I was talking about categories in different context but
I'm on the edge of my seat with this one captain
What's your opinion on abstract harmonic analysis?
Beutiful
it's beautiful though
or profinite
positive characteristic?
sometimes
I mean
that's just finite with more steps I guess lmao
precisely
if G is profinite and pi: G -> GL(V) is a continuous representation (V finite dimensional)
Does there not exist a normal N with finite index such that pi factors through G/N?
pretty sure this is the case if V is a complex space at the very least
not sure if continuous is required here (?)
ah right so you're saying they're all lifts from finite groups
yeah
I think it is, but I'm not sure I haven't seen this in a bit
and they can of course be chosen as one of the groups in the profinite system
don't leave us hanging bro, what are the 4 categories?
An Indian knows those
yeah - thinking about it the other way, due to the compatability conditions in the limit you can take anything in R(G_i) and extend it to the profinite group by having everything else act trivially
which means that everything else is in the kernel, hence your extenstion is a lift from the quotient
very swag
kinda general question: how do you like problem solve in group theory>
ive been studying it myself
but i also take an actual real analysis + linear algebra class
like in real analysis, i draw it out
for linear algebra, idk it somehow works
but with group theory i kinda just sit there going through possible solution paths until i think of something that works
that's most of higher math, anyways
you can't visualise the stuff normally anymore, so you gotta rely more and more on intuition
I guess eventually you get commutative diagrams
Is that different from what you were doing for real analysis or linalg?
now that i think about it, not really
most of the time i feel like it was pretty easy to figure out what to do just from the problem itself
for me group theory is always harder than all other suject , some times i solve sometimes 90%
I mean, going through the different possible solutions until something works sounds pretty easy.
I guess it might be timeconsuming if there's many things to try, but I don't feel like there usually is...
it can also be an issue of identifying things to try
I like to think of proving things as a chess puzzle, where you have a bunch of possible moves, and you have to find the correct sequence that leads to mate. If you're experienced, you can immediately see the most promising candidate moves, and it's just a matter of calculation, whereas a newbie may not even know where to start looking
plus, if you're a newbie, you sometimes make illegal moves, both in chess and math
Give an example of an infinite group which has a composition series.
1 \to A \to G \to B \to 1
take A and G to be infinite and B to be C2
does that work?
not every A is gonna work for C2 has to be a normal subgroup in A too?
\newcommand*{\GL}{\operatorname{GL}} It depends strongly on the base (topological) field. As you mentioned, this is true over $\bC$ (and IG over any topological subfield $K$ of $\bC$, since $\GL_n(K) \subseteq \GL_n(\bC)$ has the subspace topology(?)). It is false if e.g., $G = \bZ_p$, the base field is $\bQ_p$ and the representation is $a \mapsto \begin{psmallmatrix} 1 & a \ 0 & 1 \end{psmallmatrix}$.
Raghuram
If A doesnt have a composition series then G doesnt have reason to have one either
right
luckily all my representations are either over C or the algebraic closures of Fp
rip Q
I looked on stackoverflow and found this:
A5 \subset A6 \subset A7 \subset ...
The union of which is the group A_\infty, which you can prove to be simple
direct limit thingamabobs
I mean, i guess, but an infinite union is much nicer to work with
And you can use as overarching group S_\infty
wouldn't this result be true for any direct limit of simple groups?
IG there are infinite simple groups (e.g., permutations of ℕ / permutations of ℕ fixing all but finitely many elements; PGL_2(k) for any algebraically closed field k according to Lemma 4.1 of https://www.ma.imperial.ac.uk/~buzzard/maths/research/notes/the_adjoint_functor_theorem.pdf or https://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~efuchs/250A/PSL2Rsimple.pdf), and those obviously have a composition series.
Hmm, yeah probably
Is the topology discrete in the latter case?
cause you can just take the preimages of normal subgroups of the direct limit
Hmm
and get normal subgroups in the smaller ones (so either trivial or the whole group)
then the property of it being directed means that a non-trivial normal group must have full preimage on every part of the system
And so must be full in the original group, by construction
yeah
Damn, thats sweet
This is an extension, not a composition series. But if your looking for an infinite group with a composition series you just need to find an infinite simple group I guess
PSL(2,C) is simple innit
or is it 🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨🤨
I guess the composition factors of any infinite group with a composition series must include some infinite simple group, so we'd find an infinite simple group anyways, truly an <=> moment
I don't know
it is dw
I guess you could allow the defintion of composition series to be infinitely long
Transfinite series 
transfinite induction on composition series
like Z > 2Z > 4Z > 8Z > ...
Every automorphism tower terminates transfinitely
exists phi phi
Seeing
Z > 3Z > 6Z > 12Z > ...
This is a nice example of the Jordan-Hölder theorem not holding in the infinite case :0
i conclude Z < 0
It’s the same group
ok but what is the infinite order square tiling?
bbbut that is a quotient!
Of what?
No it isn’t
one square consist of eight triangles
And?
No
what’s the action of the order two generator here
It's a subgroup not a quotient
It’s a point reflection about the midpoint(?) of an edge
Wait. Are we talking about the tilings themselves or their symmetry groups here?
I was talking about the group of transformations of the tiling
Well then it’s both a subgroup and a quotient, because it’s the same group
Also, this is actually the dual of the truncated tetraapeirogonal tiling
i think i’m just confused by the action and which fundamental domain it admits
each of these have the same symmetry group but only the triangle is a fundamental domain
?
The squares here are not fundamental domains, if that helps
Yes
longboard kayak
these would be equivalnet right?
the construction of both of these from smaller series as mentioned in Schreier Refinement Theorem is a bit wacky
longboard kayak
is this okay ?
look at C[x,y]/I
my solution claim $I=<x+y^2,y+x^2+2xy^2+y^4>=<x,y>$ because $(x+y^2)(x+y^2)-(y+x^2+2xy^2+y^4)=-y\in I$ wo we have $x+y^2-y^2\in I$ and $x\in I$ so $<x,y>=I$ so I is maximal.
Curvature
what was ur plan
altho i don't understand everything, it felt like a neat post
Just looking at the cardinalities shows that they must be composition series
So yes, by Jordan Holder
ah yes the
Says that any two subnormal series with simple factor groups must be equivalent
Insane theorem tbh
hmm, it was before introducing JH
(Also you can see that the factor groups are C2, C2, C2 and C3)
yeah now i can
Looks good
i did that on my own and in the exercise he asks to exhibit comp series for S4
These hints are great btw! The last part was easy, but I struggled a bit with showing that $x^m - b$ splits into irreducibles of equal degree. Here's my proof, I feel like it uses a bit too much machinery, but I learned a lot writing it: $\newline$
Let $a \in E \setminus F$ where $a^m = b$, and let $w$ be an m-th root of unity. Then $a, aw, aw^2, \dots, aw^{m-1}$ are $m$ distinct roots of $x^m - b$, so $F(a) = E$. Now let $f(x)$ be the minimal polynomial of $a$ over $F$, with degree $d$. Since $F \subset F(a)$ is a Galois extension, we have $|Gal(F(a) / F)| = d$. It's easy to see that $Gal(F(a) / F)$ acts freely on the roots of $x^m - b$, since any automorphism sends $a$ to some other root $aw^i$. $\newline$
Now let $aw^j$ be another root of $x^m - b$. Its minimal polynomial is given by $$\prod_{\gamma \in Gal(F(a) / F)} (x - \gamma(aw^j)$$, and since the Galois group acts freely on $aw^j$, this polynomial has degree $|Gal(F(a) / F)| = d$.
sheddow
So there is actually very little machinery needed.
What you need is that the degree of the minimal polynomial of a is the same as the degree of F(a)/F.
And that F(w^k a) = F(a).
Then you just observe that the factors of x^m - b are minimal polynomials of w^k a
Ah nice, that's much easier 
Is it possible to generalize this result? For example if the Galois group of f(x) acts freely on the roots of f(x), is that enough to conclude that f(x) splits into irreducibles of equal degree?
And I guess, following your proof, once you say G acts freely on the roots it follows that d divides m, so you're done
Is there some general method to determine when the commutator of two normal subgroups is equal to their intersection?
Yes, the orbit of an element is just the other roots of its minimal polynomial, so if we're in the seperable case the size of the orbit is the degree of the minimal polynomial.
If the action is free then all orbits have the same size (the order of the group)
Nice, that's so cool
I love that I can finally make use of group actions in Galois theory 🔥
The group action being free seems like kind of a strong condition though
I guess so
is that C[X]* C[Y]*{ -- polynomial in t}
You mean the map is surjective?
It might be... Would need to think about it
i doubt it is surject there is something in third touple{t}
that can we have C[t]=C[X,Y]/<X-Y>
I would guess the answer is something like
|| (a + bx + O(x^2), a + cy + O(y^2), a + (b+c)t + O(t^2))||
HOW IS THAT
Well, that certainly seems to be contained in the image at least
let $f \in \bC[x,y]$ be given by the sum over all $a_{i,j}x^iy^j$, then the image under this map is given by $\left(\sum_{k} a_{k,0}x^k, \sum_{k} a_{0,k}y^k, \sum_k\sum_{i+j = k} a_{i,j}t^k\right)$ I think?
☻ Wew Lads Tbh ☻
so the image of this map is all of C[x] x C[y] followed by some strange graded-tensor subspace looking thing
if I'm correct on that actually being the image of course
whatever it is I'm ~53% sure that the image is iso to C[x, y]/(xy(x^2-xy), xy(y^2-xy))
Can you get something of the form
(1, 0, ?)
53% OR 69%
1+y maybe
That would give you
(1, 1+y, 1+t)
Yeah, I feel like you can't get more than this
Good point, even in my full answer it’s pretty clear that the constant term in all positions has to be a_0,0 lol
I also don’t know how to write it more explicitly
It’s giving total complex
if a+b=p then a and b are relatively prime integers
<a,b>=<d> so we have to show show d=1
0 + p just entered chat
yes p=ds either d=p or d=+-1
and yes a and b are positive given we also need that
d=p forces x+y=1 where a=xp,b=yp
soft question, but why do people call projective limits a type of gluing operation?
couldn't direct limits also be viewed as a gluing operation as in the union of opens can be re phrased as a direct limit
it is identical some where for every n
I think it's just about the context where these come up.
Like if you have two open sets and look at functions defined on them, then gluing functions that agree on the intersection gives you the elements of the pullback.
This is a useful idea that comes up a lot. And comes up in context where we think about gluing things together.
fact so nice he said it twice
Euler's theorem
oh thanks
how u applying it
quite even
?
solve:
a^n + b^m = 1 (mod a)
a^n + b^m = 1 (mod b)
I think this is much simpler
yes so c.r.t right?
yes
I thought of expanding (a + b)^phi(ab) as a^phi(ab) + b^phi(ab).
Freshman's dream (a + b)^n = a^n + b^n :)
Also a + b is invertible mod ab, since gcd(a + b, ab) = 1
clinging
?
I dont think its freshmans dream
in this case it works because ab = 0 mod ab
how many dreams are there , i heard about sophomore's dream
is the division algorithm(in smaller ring) is preserved in bigger ring(same quotient and remainder)
forbenius
what
the thing is that for freshman dream you need (a+b)^p where p is prime
and the extra terms vanish because p | n choose p, in this case the extra terms vanish because ab = 0 mod ab, just that d:
I know that for a Galois extension F <= E, the Galois connection sends normal subgroups of Gal(E / F) to normal intermediate fields. Does the quotient of Gal(E / F) by a normal subgroup correspond to anything in terms of fields?
It's the galois group of that extension
Ah right, thanks 
How can this be true? Take f(x) = x^2 + 1 and g(x) = (x - 1)f(x) over Q for example, they have the same Galois group, but only one of them is irreducible. What am I missing?
The galois group of g is not transitive
because g has degree 3
being "transitive" is not an intrinsic property of the galois group, it's a property of the action of the galois group on the roots
the proof of the theorem is basically that the orbits of the galois group on the roots of f and the irreducible factors of f (up to scalar) are in canonical bijection
hmm, I'm not sure I understand
I thought the Galois group of a polynomial is just the Galois group of its splitting field. f(x) and g(x) have the same splitting field, so don't they have the same Galois group?
they do have the same galois group. But being "transitive" is not something that you can say about a group, only about a group action
S_2 acting in the usual way on a 2 point set is transitive, S_2 acting by permuting the first two elements of a 3 point set and fixing the 3rd point is not transitive.
I see
I would argue the theorem is a bit sloppily stated in that case though. For context, here is the definition of a transitive permutation group in this book:
Yeah but picking a map from H \to S_n is the same as picking a way of letting H act on n points
in the statement of the theorem you're right that they're implicitly thinking about S_{set of roots}
hmm, so when talking about the Galois group of a polynomial, it's clear that it acts on the roots, so blurring the line between the group and the group action is maybe not that unusual
Mathematicians are lazy
btw, can I reformulate the theorem to say that f(x) is irreducible iff the Galois group of f acts transitively on its roots?
Yeah this is somehow where the theory started, by thinking of galois groups as subsets of all permutations of the roots and trying to solve equations using resolvents.
This is a more canonical way of saying it, but you still have to rule out multiple roots
I see, thanks 
maybe: f is irreducible if f is separable and Gal(f) acts transitively on the set of roots.
A fun group theory exercise is to show that if f is irreducible at least on g \in Gal(f) doesn't fix any root.
x^4-x+1 what is the galois group
What have you tried?
the discriminant formula is very big
i want to know sometricks to solve such problems
||G ≠ ∪_g gHg^{-1}||?
that's one way!
there's also a more general technique using a famous counting lemma
Yeah we had some heavy discussions on this more than once
🔥
That's the only reason to react 
I am a theythem of few words
I thought you’re an any pronouns
there are a few nonbinary mathematicians here arent there
well i know at least one other
cuz they have it in their name lol
🔥
What is any pronouns
tbh I don't really feel like a nonbinary, because I frankly dont care but tend to refer to myself differently from time to time
One nice trick is to reduce modulo p and calculate what frobenius is
refer to me using any pronouns you want, idc 👍
I actually want to know the meaning, I don't mean that bro
but the most algorithmic way is to compute the resolvent cubic and the discriminant
that's what "any pronouns" means
he/him/she/they/I/me/you/etc.
Yes discriminant is not comfortable in exam for me
Yeah man
I concur
For cubic it's fine , using cardeno then finding discriminant and check if it is in base field or not for quartic things getting 
for this quartic in particular it's not that hard to calculate the discriminant
Formulas getting bigger and bigger
I wouldn't use the formula I would calculate the resolvent (which is the determinant of a 7x7 matrix which is mostly zeroes)
or you could use euclid's algorithm which is probably fastest
Okay I have yet to see those things
euclid's algorithm is long division
like when you have wanted to divide two numbers you have done eudlid's algorithm
Can you give some references
Yes I know euclid algorithm
okay if you want to find the discriminant you would do long division between f(x) and f'(x) until you end up with a number as a remainder
that number is the discriminant
is this proof correct? it seems way too good to be true
(Proving that N is subnormal in G and H < H means N\cap H subnormal in H)
I guess it mirrors the corresponding fact for normal subgroups nicely
Looks correct.
yippee
I cannot find a definition anywhere in this text (Sturmfels' Algorithms in Invariant Theory)
What does it mean for a Grobner basis to be triangularized?
Googling "triangularized Grobner basis" hasn't helped
why
It’s difficult for me to explain without introducing the concept of the “resultant” of two polynomials although I’m sure there’s an elementary way to explain this algorithm
ops
basically the discriminant of f is the resultant R(f, f’) and one can show that if f = pg + r then R(f, g) = sign * leading coeff(g)^(deg(f)) R(g, r)
then finally if g = A is constant then R(f, g) = A^{deg(f)}
So if p_n is the sequence of polynomials produced by the Euclidean algorithm then the discriminant depends only on the leading terms of the p_n and the final two remainders
This is a pretty fast algorithm to compute the discriminant if the coefficients of the corresponding polynomials are simple
yeah many excersises having coefficint 0 in cubic and quadratic part
Yeah
Well anyway this is O(deg(f)^2) which is as good an algorithm in general as you’re likely to find
And in this case it’s really easy since the Euclidean algorithm is pretty short for small degree polynomials
what is meant by conjugating element? is it mean if a = gbg^-1 then g is conjugating element?
Yeah sure
yeah a is obtained from b by conjugating by g
the "property" is saying that IF you have an element a such that a = gbg^-1 for some g in G and b in G
then you can pick this g to be in H.
yes it implies H is normal
yeah
i think we don't need H to be normal we can directly show G' \subset H
which normal abelian subgroup should i have to think ?
Think about the normal subgroup generated by a
it is intersection of all normal subgroup containing a, right? i have to show it is abelian, does it have structure form?
It does yeah. Maybe think about what kind of elements it would necessarily contain
conjugates of a must be in that subgroup
to begin with, if a is in center we are done so we can assume it is not in center
can i say it is subset of the subgroup generated by conjugates of a?
and that group also normal subgroup
i think then it is equal to the subgroup generated by conjugates of a
and generators are commute, so subgroup is abelian
right?
well you can checl for the quotient since it's the claimed condition means it will be abelian
at least post your solution
don't try to boss around
you always comes in between says something and left .
i did what i did
^^^
then dont post incomplete arguments , at least post something full or initiate something even if its wrong
so that everyone can buid it up
if i say something nicely thats how you react
mods can check deleted texts
calm down, take this sulliness somewhere else.
fight fight fight fight
I wonder why youre not a mod anymore wew
i know if G is finite then every proper subgroup contained in maximal subgroup, is it true when G is infinite group?
guys can someone help me
Prove that if G = H x K is cyclic, then H and K are cyclic.
In mathematics, specifically in group theory, the Prüfer p-group or the p-quasicyclic group or p∞-group, Z(p∞), for a prime number p is the unique p-group in which every element has p different p-th roots.
The Prüfer p-groups are countable abelian groups that are important in the classification of infinite abelian groups: they (along with...
you can see H and K as subgroups of G
thanks
I reached a point where if (a,b) is the generator of G with order nm with gcd(m.n)=1 then the order of a divides mn
but I think it's not a good idea to go there
Do you know anything about subgroups of cyclic groups?
Literally 1984
Yes, these will be cyclic subgroups
Use that fact
and that would be all?
H ~ H x {e_K} which is a subgroup of H x K which is cyclic
Yeah pretty much
The other direction is the more interesting one
ohhh i see
I hadn't thought about that, to be honest.
The exercise only has one implication, I suppose, and it's because it would lack some hypothesis for it to be true, like the orders are coprime or something like that, right?
Yeah thats the trick
C_2 x C_2 isnt cylic, so you need them to be coprime
Well that shows you need something else, not that they need to be coprime, but you get the idea lol
The world if cyclic extensions were always cyclic
She Klein on my group till i cant cycle
🔥 🗣️
Thats hot
Gettin heated in groups-rings-fields 🔥
🫡
oh my science it's just like my heckin non-noetherian doodads
Hi genius people , i have a doubt, $frac{\frac{R[X,Y]}{<X^2+Y^2-1>}}$ and $frac{R[X]}$ are isomorphic?
frac means fraction field
I'm guessing you mean R[X, Y] on the top
Akhi Mishra(Riemman Slayer)
DONE
Genuinley the only reason I know of this group
I know nothing about infinite group theory, but muh Artinian not Noetherian for modules
So this group has no maximal subgroup
Yeah
i think of parametrization circle in rationa function
If H is a maximal subgroup then its conjugates are also the maximal subgroup, right?
It sends it to another maximal group, as conjugation is an automorphism
Olleh
But i dont think it would be the same
Hii
Yeah, take any nontrivial semidirect product C_p \rtimes G
the property of being maximal is preserved under automorphisms, which includes conjugation. As enpeace said
if you want a proof. Assume H is maximal but gHg^-1 is contained in some K < G, then H is contained in g^-1Kg
which is a contradiction
Did you mean a maximal subgroup, or the maximal subgroup, or what
Because depending on what you meant the answer varies
Yes
Is H^2(G_F,F_sep^) the same as H^2_cont(G_F,F_sep^). Wiki says that Br(F) is isomorphic to H^2(G_F,F_sep^*) and I'm confused
Oh shoot wrong channel, ignore this
For Q(pi) why do the elements have this form? Is this just because it is basically Q(x) but you replace x with pi and then now you I guess have to consider inverses of these polynoimals with the variable being pi?
like i would think you have
Q(\pi) = {f(pi) | f(x) in Q[x])
as the set
$\mathbb{Q}(\pi) = {f(\pi) | f(x) \in \mathbb{Q}[x]}$
Brandon7716
so in I guess appealing to this being a field extension then we need inverses of these f(pi) elemetns?
Yes, in general Q(a) contains elements of the form
f(a)/g(a) with g(a) nonzero
i guess that seems reasonable
is there a clear difference in notation between say [] and ()
one problem i had was discussing
$\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{d}]$ but i feel like it would be polynoimals of the the form $f(\sqrt{d})$ where $f(x) \in Z[x]$ but then like just enough to make it form a ring as opposed to a field
Brandon7716
Brandon7716
In general R[a] is the smallest ring containing R and a and R(a) is the smallest field
i think you can write the latter as some polynomials but the higher order terms are already in Q (after degree 1)
okay got it
Equivalently, F[a] is the ring of polynomials in a. If a is algebraic then F[a] = F(a)
Cursed notation idea: you don’t need to specify R
So [a] is the same as Q[a] and (a) is the same as Z(a)
What do they mean by a "new basis of F_q of the form..." is it just that this new basis is equal to the original basis of F_q?
inb4 equivalence classes and ideals
I think it means that B1 ∪ B2 ∪ B3 is also a basis of F_q, not necesarily the same as the one used to construct it.
(Assuming a is an element of a characteristic 0 ring)
Actually wait it's really cursed that this isn't [a] = ℤ[a] and (a) = ℚ(a).
…I got the notation backwards
DW I think this makes it more authentically cursed.
True
Where $S =\frac{R[X,Y]}{\langle X^2+Y^2-1 \rangle}-{0}$ and $D=R[X]-{0}$.
Now in $S^{-1}{\frac{R[X,Y]}{ \langle X^2+Y^2-1 \rangle}}$ we have $x^2+y^2=1$ and $(x^2+y^2)^n=1$ so we have $\phi(x)^2+\phi(y)^2=1$ but left side is a polynomial in $x$ , either $\phi(x)=0 $ or $\phi(y)=0$ because if one of them is non zero then $1= (\phi(x)^2+\phi(y)^2)^n$ for all n, so we have $\ker(\phi)$ is non trivial . Hence no isomorphism. Please tell me if it is correct or not?
please verify anyone, i have deadline till 5:00 pm
Akhi Mishra(Riemman Slayer)
how to define norms in poly nomial rings
use the class equation and do the case of 1, 2, and 3 classes separately
having trouble in (3) case
i did this problem some days ago
please send
what have you tried?
1/|G|+1/m+1/n=1 this is what i got,
.
thanks
But I would like to say don't go to the solution directly
okay
can anyone verify my solution above
Is complex conjugation an automorphism of any normal extension of Q? It's an automorphism of C, and the restriction to an extension Q <= E has image E if the extension is normal. This implies that the Galois group of a polynomial with non-real roots has even order, right?
It is yes, but there are normal extensions that are real. So in the case complex conjugation is just the identity.
A silly example could be just Q itself, but there are other examples
And yeah, if E is not real then G(E/Q) has even order, because it contains complex conjugation
yep, that makes sense
still feels like a useful result, like you can look at x^3 - 2, notice that is irreducible and with non-real roots, then you can immediately conclude that the splitting field has degree 6
Here you can also use the fact that the splitting field contains a square root of the discriminant. So if the discriminant doesn't have a square root in Q you'll get even degree
I haven't really learned about discriminants yet, but isn't the discriminant of x^3 - 2 equal to -108? Does that have a square root in Q(w, 2^(1/3))?
-108 = -3 *6^2
And the third root of unity is
-1/2 ± sqrt(-3)/2
So yeah (2w+1)*6 would be a square root of -108
I see, thanks
I found this too, which I think is related
Yeah, more generally for an irreducible degree n polynomial you can think of the Galois group as a subgroup of Sn from how it permutes the roots, then it's contained in An if and only if the discriminant is a square in F.
actually a useful proposition to remember
For n = 3 the only options for Galois groups is A3 = Z/3 and S3
Interesting
I think I see how this result is pretty powerful; for example if the discriminant is a square then the Galois group is contained in A_n, then if complex conjugation is a non-trivial automorphism then it must transpose an even number of pair of roots, so any polynomial where the discriminant is a square must have 4k non-real roots for some integer k, is that correct?
can you share something similar for quartic
I'm not familiar with any specific result, but you can look at Chapter 4, quartic polynomials in Milne's notes: https://www.jmilne.org/math/CourseNotes/FT.pdf
what are we proving
yeah sorry the screenshot sucks
Let $p$ be a prime and suppose $x^2 \equiv -1 \mod p$ for some integer $x$. Prove that $p \cong 1 \mod 4$.
crazynakedgalois
btw I think I got it, hang on
P has to be odd
Consider the the multiplicative group (Z_p)*
It has order (p-1), if any element has order 4, so 4|p-1
$x^4 \equiv 1 \mod p$, so $x$ has order $4$ and then I got it cus this means $4|p-1$
crazynakedgalois
Yeah thanks
Gamma is a subgroup of GL(n, C). Why do we need that C is an infinite field here?
You need the field to be infinite to identify polynomials and polynomial functions.
Ah yes
A field $\Bbbk$ is infinite iff any of the following hold:
\begin{itemize}
\item[(a)] The obvious map $\Bbbk[x] \to \Bbbk^\Bbbk$ is an injection. The ring on the right is the ring of functions.
\item[(b)] Any $\Bbbk$-vector space is not a finite union of proper subspaces.
\end{itemize}
I wonder if there is a way to show that (a) and (b) are equivalent without passing through the infinitude of the field?
Boyt(ji=-k)e
could be a silly trick where you embed any k-vector space into k^k via the dual space or something
although that only works for finite dim spaces
Ah well I guess I'd be happy with finite dim spaces
Hi I try to prove Let $G$ be an infinite, indecomposable abelian group that is isomorphic to each of its nontrivial quotients. Prove that $G \cong \mathbb{Z}_{p^\infty}$ , any hint ?
Algebraic Geometry Hater N.1mod4
how to prove that t^2 - 5 is irreducible over the field Q(X)
You can just show that it doesn't have any roots
I thought that'd be tricky but by a theorem which name I forgot, any root would have to be in Q[X] and divide 5 which obviously isn't the case, is that correct
I feel I'm overthinking this
This is a form of Gauss' lemma yeah
But since it is degree 2 it's easy just to check no roots
for Q[X] i see why that wouold be but not for Q(X)
oh you said Q(X) whoops
is it true galois group x^4+ax^2+b is contained in D_4
I have a little doubt about interior point and the set of interior point where its differentiable so my doubt is that in a function there will be there can be many points which are interior of the function but it's not differentiable is this possible
D_f^°
It's very easy actually.
You just take an element of Q(X), f(X)/g(X) and plug it into your polynomial. It gives
f(X)^2 = 5g(X)^2
Now just compare for example leading coefficients to see that there are no such elements
Your argument is also correct
ah thank you, that is the kind of argument i was looking for initially, much thanks
How to show that X and 1-Y are irreducible in $\mathbb{R}[X,Y]/<X^2+Y^2-1>$, do we have to use some norm, or is it directly posiible to show this
Curvature
Maybe I'm wrong, but you should start by showing that if G is a divisible group, then G ~ Q or G ~ Prüfer group
What's a good method/intuition for these questions?
How do you know to conjugate A by B and C and not try any others?
Is it a general rule that if you have G=<a,b,c> that [a]={a,b,c}?
i.e. all the generators are in a single conjugacy class?
No, that is special to this case
so how are you supposed to construct them?
bc if you go the definition and try to find M s.t. P M P^-1 = A for some P, then there's a lot of trial and error
surely there is a quicker way of finding conjugacy classes than doing it that way
a subset is a union of conjugacy classes whenever it is it closed under conjugation by generators, so you basically just start with a single element and conjugate it by your generators, and get a new set. Continue this until conjugating by the generators does not add any new elements
Generally speaking there is no quicker way.
Conjugacy classes are not easy to compute
Sadly 😔
So here you would do
Conjugation of A by B: BAB=B(BC)=C where we have used B=B^-1 and AB=BC
Conjugation of A by C: CAC=C(CB)=B for similar reasons
Conjugation of A by AB: ABABA = ABABA = CAAAB = CAB = ABB = A
And similar stuff would hold for conjugation of A by AC
And so that exhausts the possible elements of [A]
And then you move onto AB
Is that all it is?
No, what I mean is that you conjugate A by B and A by C to get the set { A, B, C }. Then conjugate every element in this set by A, B and C and you'll notice you get the set { A, B, C } again, and then you're done
(at least I assume you get that set again, I haven't computed for myself)
And then repeat for AB?
So [AB] consists of A AB A = BA and B AB B = BA and C AB C = CA AB = CB = BA
So [AB]=[AB, BA]=[AB, AC]
Since every element of G has now been placed in a conjugacy class, there is no more work to do
2
Yes, that's it

Just checking I understand all of this...
G simple => Z(G) is trivial (either only identity commutes or everything commutes, the latter means G is abelian)
But Z(G) trivial =/=> G simple
Consider G=Z_4=<a>. This is abelian and a proper subgroup is H=<a^2>, so H is normal.
So Z(G) trivial (in this case G is abelian) does not imply G is simple, because we know G has a proper normal subgroup
Is that all correct?
There are abelian simple groups; cyclic of prime order
Your statement is correct (Z(G) trivial need not imply that G is simple), but your example does not demonstrate this fact (any abelian group has a full, hence nontrivial, center)
If you want an example of the reverse implication not holding, look at symmetric groups
Or do you mean with trivial "either the full group or trivial proper subgroup"
In which case this would be correct
is this a mistake?
Elaborate...
How is H=<a^2> as a subgroup of Z_4 not a counter example?
Also I'm using trivial to mean {e} or G, in the same way every group has two trivial subgroups, {e} and itself
Yes
.
Yes, lol
Yeah, ab = bc doesn't imply b = c. Weird typo, I'm assuming they meant ab = ac implies b = c (ie. left cancellation)
Typically the field axioms include 0 and 1 being distinct. So no
i have another question
Q(sqrt2) injects into R as a field embedding
if Q to R is a field embedding then Q(sqrt2) to R is an extension
Sure
if we consider the extension of (Q to R) to Q(i) to R there is no such extension
That's right
then is there a theorem that states if Q to R then Q(x) is able to be extended when x is in R?
because i noticed sqrt2 in R but i not in R
I mean, if x is in R, then Q(x) is also in R yes
I guess maybe you're asking about the converse?
so from F to E if we have an extension F(x) to E this extn only exists when E/F(x)?
So you can sometimes embed Q(x) into R without x being in R
For example if you pick x to be a complex cube root of 2, then mapping x to the real cube root of 2 gives an embedding of Q(x) into R
i thought there was only one extension of Q to R to Q(cube root2) to R
X^3 - 2 can have 3 nonequivalent roots as it is of order 3
So there are 3 field extensions over Q, all adjoining a different root of X^3-2, which give 3 different embeddings of Q[x]/(x^3-2) = Q(cuberoot{2}) into C
Oh yeah, sorry, you take the canonical isomorphism to Q(cuberoot 2) composed with the inclusion Q(cuberoot 2) -> R
isomorphism from Q[x]/(x^3-2) to Q(cube root 2) then take Q(cube root 2) and include it into itself and send to R?
not sure
Ye
oh sorry you meant inclusion of Q(cuberoot2) into R
Yeah
then there is only one of those
No
I meant from Q(alpha) -> Q[x] / (x^3 - 2) -> Q(cube root 2) -> R
I should've specified better
okay so there are 3 alphas
Yeah
but each of those 3 alphas there is a unique extension of Q to R
But, as jagr said, only one of those is in R
this though?
doesnt that mean all 3 roots of x^3-2 we have an extension of Q(alpha) to R from Q to R?
or only does this work for the case when we take alpha to be the real root
No, extensions are inclusion mappings, not embeddings
no i meant extensions of a field embedding
is that what u are saying?
arent extensions of field embeddings also embeddings
What's an extension of an embedding?
a field embedding that is equal to a smaller embedding when domain restricted
Ah, right yes you're right, this gives 3 different extensions of the inclusion map into R, although the images are the same
yes
You would send it to the real cube root of 2
i see
is gallian wrong here? the exercise was to show that if there is a surjective homomorphism from a finite group G to Z/10Z then G has normal subgroups with indexes 2 and 5
we previously showed that for a homomorphism phi from a finite group G to barG with H subgroup of barG that
shouldnt we have that $|\phi^{-1} ( \langle 2 \rangle ) | = 5|K|$ ?
josemom2
Yeah, they made a typo
phew i thought i was going crazy
No worries
I feel like this is kind of a convoluted proof anyway, and uses that G is finite which isn't necessary.
Like, just compose the map G -> Z/10 with the map Z/10 -> Z/5, that means you have a normal subgroup of index 5.
The definition of index...
first isomorphism theorem if you want
composing gives you a surjection G -> Z/5Z so its kernel has index 5
ah ok
all of these proofs are almost the same, one could cite the correspondence theorem too
how can i show, if char(K) is not 2, then the Quaternion Ring is simple?
Quaternions over an arbitrary ring?
Is it normal to use the notation $J=HG=G \ltimes H$?
Why does $H$ go on the left in the former, but on the right in the latter?
Douglas
HG =GH if H is normal
which it is
so you can say that J = GH and H is going on the right in both
Asteroid
is it known wether or not O(n) is f.g.?
O_2 is not finitely generated since it contains rotations by all angles
i think you can prove that for general n, O(n) is uncountable and so cannot be f.g
it might be tempting to say that O_2 can be viewed as a subgroup of O_n and so O_n cannot be f.g. but it does not need to imply O_n is not f.g. but since O_2 is uncountable you are done anyways
thx
I don't know if it's necessarily the best way, but the way I would attack it:
If you can show that the Jacobson radical is trivial, it must be semisimple.
Since the center is K the only possibilities for a 4d algebra are a division algebra or the 2x2 matrix algebra.
So the only tricky part is showing zero radical.
If you're working in the (a, b) Quaternion algebra and
x + iy + jz + kw
is an element, then multiplying by its conjugate gives
x^2 - ay^2 - bz^2 + abw^2.
If this is nonzero, then the element is a unit.
If it is zero, then we just want to show it's still not in the Jacobson radical.
Multiplying by i, j or k we may assume x is nonzero and dividing by it we may assume x=1.
Then (1 + iy + jz + kw)/2 is idempotent, so cannot be in the Jacobson radical.
redoftwored
suppose $F$ is a field then consider $\alpha$ transcendental over F then is $\overline{\overline{F}(\alpha)}=\overline{F(\alpha)}$?
redoftwored
is this true in general? what if we let F'=$\overline{\overline{F}(\alpha)}$ and we have a nested thing
redoftwored
longboard kayak
sanity check
longboard kayak
sounds?
longboard kayak
a good way to generalise the non-transitivity of normal subgroups
but where is this classification of super-solvability is actually helpful?
ok, by the next exercise finite p-groups are supersolvable(quotient by the cyclic group = <"order p element" \in centre> and induct the process)
but can we get other examples?
Can phi_g be as general as any automorphism of H, or does it have to be an inner automorphism (i.e. conjugation)?
Also how is Aut(H) actually being defined here? Because earlier we assume conjugation is of elements of G by elements of G
But here we're saying that conjugation of h' in H by g in G is an automorphism
And in general G and H are disjoint except for the identity
It seems like this definition doesnt mention the fact that the map g \mapsto \phi_g must be a homomorphism. So no, phi_g cant just be any automorphism
This is thinking about it incorrectly I think
The reason is because G is a subgroup of J=HG=G \ltimes H
And since H is a normal subgroup it is invariant under conjugation by any element of J, in particular elements of G
Well you need that map to be a homomorphism for the multiplication to define a group operation (see group axioms, associativity )
So the one case I can think of off of the top of my head is that solvable groups are not necessarily monomial (all irreducible representations are induced from linear reps of subgroups), but super-solvable groups are.
Usually (and in this case) Aut(H) is the group of isomorphisms from H to itself(this includes the inner automorphisms Inn(H))
They’re using the same notation for different things. Phi_g is not (a priori) conjugation by g
They should really write that phi is a map from G to Aut(H) and then phi_g(h) is just phi(g)(h) if they want to use the given notation for conjugation
hmm, so is this somehow connected to the group acting on the minimal normal subgroups and then if it has got a vector space structure or not!
thinking this of in terms of equations in a bit out of my scope for me atm, tho i think it will not be hard
How do you show that, for all positive integers n except n = 4, (x-1) ... (x-n)+1 is irreducible in Z[x]? I know that if it's -1, then you can use the signs of the leading coefficients to show that it can't be the negative of a square, but here you can't do that with the constant terms, since it's an open problem
Every proper subgroup of invertible upper triangular matrices of order n , is of finite index?
Why are isometries in 2D classified into Reflections, Translations, rotations and glide reflections? Its just a composition of a translation and a reflection, why does it get its own category?
Like why isn't a glide rotation included for example? Or a rotation reflection
this fails for the subgroup of upper triangular matrices of order 2 generated by $\begin{pmatrix}2 & 0\ 0 & 1\end{pmatrix}$, for example, since it is countable
Asteroid
is the index of this subgroup not finite
how to show that
this is real upper triangular matrices right?
yes
so the parent group is uncountably infinte
fine
while the subgroup generated by that matrix is countably infinite
the humble trivial subgroup:
forget to mention non trivial
anyways, .
I knew you meant non-trivial. I just wanted to be annoying
thanks
because glide reflections dont fall into any of the aforementioned categories. a glide rotation is just a rotation about another point, and a rotation reflection is another reflection about a different line
what if the case is complex
A glide rotation is just a rotation, and a rotation reflection is just a glide reflection (or possibly just a reflection)
the same subgroup is still a counter
So to answer the question, they are classified as such because every isometry falls into one of those 4 categories.
(4.36) Prove that there is no nonabelian simple group of order less than 60.
without solvability and burnside
to prove that i have to workout syllow for every composition right???
single prime powers are easy to deal
there are lots of p^a q^b, but would be systematic
and same for pqr
I’d rather not
rotman uses that to then state
umm, algebra is tautology 
Well you can still just show that all groups smaller than 60 are solvable
Directly,
Although I only recommend that for orders where you can’t use sylow
what would i be using ?
Find an appropriate chain of subnormal groups?
no idea what that is but thanks for the input, would try to figure out
I mean if you cover p^a q^b and pqr, then 60 is the smallest number not on that form
yeah
30 and 42 would be other of those pqr but easy to find out a normal subgroup
so for the other composite
just look at the big prime and a bit of calculation
no one but algebraists: this group is not complicated enough to be simple
also in the abelians it has to be the cyclic below 60
for simplicity
also, out of the context, there are some cool composite order of pq for which there exist only a single group Cpq
15,35 and so on and so forth right?
Yeah, should be iff p is not 1 modulo q (p>q)
yeah, alr
There are results that tell you if you have a group, preferably of infinite cardinal, then it can be decomposed into a direct sum or smth else?
There is the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups, invariant factor theorem(generalisation of aforementioned)
Surely there are more general results
I will check about it. We are just working with finite case but we will consider compact then locally compact cases. So just wondering how to deal with non finite case
Thanks
Im not sure what you are referring to, but i wouldnt suspect that such a general question can get you very helpful answers
If the group is Noetherian (or artinian), then it is a finite direct sum of indecomposable groups.
But for example Z^N (the infinite direct product of Z with itself) cannot be written as a direct sum of indecomposables. It can be written as a direct product though (obviously)
Working with unitary finite reflection group. Then we will remove finiteness and add compactness. Its involving group invariance with complex analysis
Interesting, at some point we thought Noetherian stuff could appear
: There does not exist a proper subgroup H of Invertible upper tringular matrix such that $G=\bigcup_{g\in G}g^{-1}Hg$
Akhi Mishra(Riemman Slayer)
is this a question?
this is true for any group G and subgroup H
yes
proper subgroup
Think you need H to have finite index for it to be true in general
thats why i asked that does thre exist a proper subgroup of non finite index of G
There are lots of those
i think to solve this we need some linear algebra and jordan canonical form
That would make sense
seeing this as C[X] module?
Might be helpful to observe that the group U of upper unitriangular matrices is nilpotent. Pretty sure you can argue then that any counterexample group H must contain U
so we should proove any non trivial subgroup contains U
Any nontrivial subgroup whose conjugates cover B, yes
That's my bet
I haven't checked it
How do you show that, for all positive integers n except n = 4, (x-1) ... (x-n)+1 is irreducible in Z[x]? I know that if it's -1, then you can use the signs of the leading coefficients to show that it can't be the negative of a square, but here you can't do that with the constant terms, since it's an open problem to identify all n! + 1 which are also squares
I know that if the polynomial has odd degree or if n is not a multiple of 4 (so its triangular number is odd) then it can’t be a square, but this covers only 1/4 of all cases
its a square of some polynomial
its remaining to show that coefficients are in Z for n=4
I have shown that it is reducible when n = 4, just not sure how to show that it is irreducible in all other cases
this question has been discussed here
And I’m stuck on showing that, when n ≠ 4, this polynomial is never a square
Oh, I couldn’t find it when I used the search function, could you link to it?
The answer exists here at least
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1691272/306319
its walways square though but not in Z
this answers the question for (x-1) ... (x-n)-1 but not (x-1) ... (x-n)+1
I see, so you're only missing showing that it's not the square of an irreducible
Yep
this answers it
Thanks!
why does a - b divide f(a) - f(b) for integer polynomials?
This
Gn-1 is abelian which is easy to see
do i have to now show that it is indeed normal in G?
or there is some other way to arrive at this
oh well those are higher commutator groups and indeed characteristic
thank you!
Yeah this is how I would show that fact
