#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 319 of 1
But I don't know it involves 2 complex pairs. I just am at the situation that the product of the 2 linear factors forming a quadratic is not reducible over Q
so end_R(R)= R^op
As a left module, yes
What about division algorithm in C[x,y
yeah, the standard argument to show this is irreducible is to shift x |-> x + 1 then use Eistenstein
What about it?
Does it work
Kind of, you can always divide by monic polynomials
But I guess, works to do what exactly, is the question
Holy Groebner Basis
How it works
How to do the division
the ring $C[X,Y,Z,W]/<XY-ZW>$ is integral domain?
Curvature
we may never know
my hint is to have a think about if <XY-ZW> is a prime ideal or not
i doesnt look like prime ideal but , not able to argue
Why not?
I don't think I've seen a more prime looking ideal in my life
The humble (x)
it is in the prime of it's life... the humble ideal.....
I guess change of variables Y -> Y+X, then Eisenstein at the ideal (Y, Z) would do the trick
Or just Eisenstein directly at the ideal (Z) should work
that's clean yeah do that
you havent seen a life of 7th year phd student
PhDs last that long 
i can show you some profiles
7 years in combinotorial topology
this all after bachelors? That is a lot of school
no after msc
nothing just to realizer this is all shit
I AM doinG it at prime ideal $<Y,Z,W>$ and getting $X^2+YX-ZW \in C[Y,Z,W,][X]$
Curvature
ZW is in the square of that ideal though
I was trying to do for polynomial in one variable
I don't know what you mean by that
i was trying to get a prime ideal P and a polynomial R[X]
Yeah, so thinking of it as C[Y, Z, W][X] is a good idea, then you just need to pick a prime P
You’re a 7th year phd student?
NO
OKAY
so <Y,Z> is working now
That would do
I am a 17 year phd student
in india its impossible
whats ur area
Anything is possible if you set your mind to it
no the system will not let you do it
Just gotta work around the system, change your name a few times
well we also need some good mentors who tells us a right path
here people will be preparing for entrance exams only at every stage
but that 7th year phd guy now knows almost every subject in pure maths
let p be a prime, and Zp denote the group of integers mod p. show that for each positive integer n there are at most n solutions of x^n = 1 (mod p) in Zp. don't know any field theory to work with, this was an exercise in the automorphisms section
that = is congruence
If this was in the automorphism section you might know that the automorphism group of Zp is cyclic?
yess i do
And you know that the automorphisms are given by multiplication by an element x.
So x^n = 1 is just asking how many automorphisms have order dividing n
how to show prime ideals are gen by at most 2 elements in C[X,Y]
using only rings
this question was in my algebra ppr sem 1
NO
Hii can anyone help me with question no 19
Can confirm im the phd
Our Algebra teacher has given us questions like these which will be given on our Finals. He is super strict and hard to approach. And the worst part is that we can nowhere find the solutions over the internet
What is the only zero divisior is 0 then result holds in that case
You need a non-absorbing zero divisor
Yea im definitely interested to see the solution to that one. I also want to think on it more myself
You have n+1 elements in that case , so we can assume there is atleast one non zero zero divisior
Because you'll do "something something for zero divisor z, zR is a set of zero divisors"
And then its a combinatorial argument, probably
I suck at combinatorics
Adding a zero divisior to non zero divisior just remains inside the set of non zero divisior
Noncommutative ring
We haven't studied combinatorics
I am using excercise 18
Well it is just set theory
That requires the other to be nilpotent
And the ring to be commutative
Let's do it for commutative first
That's how we solve problems first looking at special cases
I guess, but explicitly using exercise 18, something you cant use in general seems counterproductive
Id say
Nothing is counterproductive ,
By combinatorics they just mean basic counting, you dont really need to study that per se (I do though, im so bad at counting arguments)
"Basic" i fucking suck at any kind of it 
EIGHT!!! FUCK
I might give that problem a try though, ive not see that and it seems nice, and if I need to look at anymore "alggeo" today ill go insane
Solve it with alggeo
What is alggeo
Algebraic geometry
I was jesting, though
Algebraic geometry usually deals with commutative rings anyways
😭🙏
Got it
(Unless you're a chad doing noncommutative geometry)
I also say "alggeo" because the course is ostensibly algebraic geometry, but I dont think it deserves to be called so

I pray to be, just need to actually get into a masters at some point
How so?
We dont even do topology
Our course has both involved
The teacher never differentiated while teaching
Well, we often do, but "secretly" which just makes things 100x more confusing. Its not terrible for a first course, but eh, its not great either
"Nonzero zero divisor" both left/right? Either left or right?
That sucks
Either left or right
Oki
I think im instantly less interested if it can be a one sided zero divisor that seems more annoying than I have time for right now
maybe not, lemme see
I knoww
He is an ass, comes to class just to do revision for himself and doesnt care of we understood or not. He is the reason I failed my Group Theory paper last semester and now barely surviving this Ring theory
Ah wait, if x is a not right left zero divisor of R, then the right monoid action of R on R
x -> xr
Must be injective, and xr is a zero divisor for all r, so
|R| = |xR| <= n
But of course n < |R|, so |R| = n, which obviously cant be true
Hence every zero divisor must be left and right
Wait thats actually a really cool fact
We had this fact in class
And the proof was same using a map
Yeah i say "monoid action" but thats math jargon for "this mapping which happens to be a monoid action" lmao
Wait lemme see the notes
Sorry I think I must be missing an assumption youre making somewhere because this isnt true in general
something something matrices
It uses the fact there are a finite amount of zero divisors
Yep yep now I agree
:33
Ok, im going to give myself until half past to try this problem then I need to do actual work
Why xr is zero divisor there
, u assumeed
Consider the group action by R^+ on R, so on a zero divisor z:
z -> r • z
By orbit-stabiliser:
|Rz| = |R| / |r in R where r•z = 0|
=> |R| = |Rz| • |r in R where r•z = 0|
But both sets on the RHS are sets of zero divisors + 0, so
|R| <= (n+1)^2
As desired
Let y be nonzero such that yx = 0, then yxr = 0. Hence xr is a zero divisor
Thats incredibly nice
very slick
Thanks alot
Didnt even need the fact that every zero divisor must be both left and right
I need to think of orbit stabiliser more often, it shows up in nice places so randomly
Fair play, I did not see that approach at all and im not sure I would have
Group approach came in mind, but I m in bed
I do too!!
I was thinking about the fact that
r • x = r' • x <=> (r - r') • x = 0
And that gave the enlightenment to use orbit-stabiliser
Can anyone come to my question
So given a prime P you can take the intersection with C[X], then there's two cases
The intersection of (X - a) or 0.
In the first case you have C[X, Y]/(X-a) = C[Y] is a PID, so you just need one more element in addition to (X-a).
In the other case I'm not sure if you're allowed to use localization, but localizing at C[X]\{0} means it corresponds to an ideal in C(X)[Y] which is a PID
There’s an easier solution jagr
I'm sure there is
If you are a height 0 prime, then you are just (0)
Very convoluted
If you’re height 1, because you’re a UFD you’re generated by 1 element
Proof: Let f be in P, and then consider the irreducible factorization f = Prod f_i^n_i
By primality some f_i is in P, but (f_i) is a prime ideal contained in P
So if P is height 1, then P = (f_i) is principal
Now if you’re height 2, take a height 1 prime contained in P, this is principal
So look at (f) < P, then mod out by (f)
oh, ChmonkaS
I wanted to immediately say this is a PID and so you are generated by 1 more element
Anyway, I say this was gonna be simpler only because you avoid localization
Why stabilizer stabilizer was those r where r.z=0
I'd argue it's very straight forward.
You have something in C[X, Y] and you reduce it first to C[X] then add in Y.
What do you even mean by adding here
You first consider P\cap C[X] then P
Anyway, to avoid localization:
Consider a polynomial in P of smallest Y-degree. Then since polynomials in X is assumed not in P you can freely multiply by powers of them. Then you can do polynomial division as normal (treating X-polynomials basically like a unit)
In a UFD, any prime ideal is generated by irreducibles, say by k of them, and killing one irreducible at a time, we get a chain of prime ideals with k inclusions, so k ≤ Krulddim = 2?
Hmm, this assumes if R is a UFD and p, q, r are distinct irreducibles, then R/(p) is a UFD and the images of q, r are distinct irreducibles.
... which is false by algebraic geometry examples (such as ℂ[X, Y]/(Y^2 - X^2(X+1)) not being integrally closed).
thats not the stabiliser, but is the same size as the stabiliser
Again by orbit-stabiliser
Yeah exactly
I think doing induction based on the # of variables as Jagr suggested is the correct approach
but how do i count that?? by isomorphism to Up, multiplicative group of integers modulo p, then this must be asking me how many elements in Up have order dividing n.
Well, it's a more general thing.
You know that Up is cyclic, so it's isomorphic to Z/(p-1).
But in general for a cyclic group, how many elements are there of various orders
Maybe think first about the case where n divides p-1.
How many elements in Z/(p-1) satisfies nd = 0?
What does the double arrow mean ? Is it the action of the function pointwise ?
Double headed arrow usually means surjective function (or maybe just epimorphism).
I'm not sure what you're asking in your second question
Oh I was asking if it denoted what has happening to each of the elements individually. I've seen the arrow notation but not it written like that
But my misunderstanding is cleared up thanks !
you're thinking of $\mapsto$, as in:
$f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$
$x \mapsto x^2$
that_one_gal9
If K is a field of characteristic other than 2 and h ∈ K[T] is square-free and non-constant i.e. not in K, is K[T][sqrt(h)] necssarily an integrally closed domain?
t^(1/4) is not in the field of fractions of ℚ[t^1/2], though.
So K(T, sqrth) = K(T)[sqrt h].
a + bsqrth is integral over K[T, sqrth] then so is a - bsqrt h, just by applying the Galois automorphism.
Therefore 2a is integral, and since 1/2 is in K a is integral. And since a is invariant under the Galois action is integral over K[T], hence in K[T].
This leaves the case of bsqrth. You would need to somehow argue that b is in K[T]...
b^2 h is in K(T) and integral, so is in K[T]
Then I guess use that it's a ufd and h square free
Ah, I see. It just comes down to 2 being invertible in K[T].
Since I tried my hand at being general anyway:
Let A be an integrally closed domain with field of fractions K. Let K(alpha) be a quadratic extension with alpha^2 = a alpha + b. Let z = x + y alpha ∈ K(alpha). Then z^2 - (2x+ay) z + (x^2 + axy - by^2) = 0. So if y ≠ 0 so that z ∉ K, z is integral iff 2x + ay, x^2 + axy - by^2 ∈ A. (In fact if y = 0 the condition implies x^2 ∈ A ⇒ x ∈ A, so the equivalence is true even if y = 0.)
Now suppose a = 0 i.e. we adjoined a square root (we can do this WLOG in characteristic not 2). Then the condition simplifies to 2x, x^2 - by^2 ∈ A. (This should look familiar: indeed, the polynomial we found above is the characteristic polynomial of multiplication by z, so in general (for a quadratic extension) we got z is integral ⇔ tr(z), N(z) are integral). This implies that 4by^2 ∈ A.
If additionally we assume that A is a UFD and make b square-free, then we can conclude that 2y ∈ A. So (in characteristic not 2) equivalently, 2x, 2y ∈ A and (2x)^2 - b (2y)^2 ∈ 4A which is some homogeneous quadratic equation in A/4A. So the integral closure is
{(x+y sqrt(b))/2 : x, y ∈ A, (x, y) mod 4 is a solution to x^2 - b y^2 = 0}.
It seems difficult to say more for a general A, unless we know A/4A well. (For example, if 2 is invertible, we just get A + A sqrt(b). If A = ℤ, we can brute-force solutions for each b.)
Should see what happens in characteristic 2 some time.
Also, is true for any finite extension of the field of fractions that z is integral ⇔ its characteristic polynomial has integral coefficients?
A very intresting question is asked in my class we have to use there exist irreducible polynomial of degree 3 over Z_P and we cant use field theory
we can use group theory
Ahh that makes sense i get it now 👍
this seems related to a problem i did before
Define $\phi:\mathbb{Z}_p\to\mathbb{Z}_p$ by $\phi(n)=n^3-n+1$\
$\phi(1)=\phi(-1)$ so $\phi$ is not one-to-one and hence not onto\
Let $a\in\mathbb{Z}_p$ not in the image of $\phi$\
Then $x^3-x+1-a$ does not have a zero, otherwise $a\in\phi[\mathbb{Z}_p]$
Axe
this fails if p=2
same poly works for p=2
🇵🇱 uuybnuuy
So, what are you asking
It’s true if one of A or B is normal
So, find a counterexample with 2 subgroups that aren’t normal
it holds when AB=BA
||try to look in Q8
||
quaternions
you have already found the inverse just say this
and then try to look in S3
you would be hopeless in Q8, ||AB=BA for all subgroups A,B in Q8||, that would lead you to a nice result i hope
this is almost tangent to your query tho
there is a counterexample in S3
ofc, the involutions
i did the finite version in previous problem, however no idea how to pull this out
Let $G$ be a finite group with representations $\rho, \sigma$. Let $\varphi : \rho \to \sigma$ be a linear (not necessarily equivariant) map. Then it is well-known that the map $\tilde \varphi = \sum_{g \in G} g \varphi g^{-1}$ produced by averaging is equivariant. My question is whether this would ever be $0$ for non-trivial $\varphi$, and if so please kindly provide an example
n1lp0tence
if n divides p-1, there is an element of order n, let it be a. another element having order n, generates the same cyclic subgroup as a, meaning it's the number of integers less than n and prime to n. φ(n) elements have order n.
any element having order dividing n, must also be a divisor of p-1. so it's the sum of all φ(m) where m divides n. does that sound right? what about n not dividing p-1? then there is no element of order n, so no element of order dividing n and hence there are 0 elements satisfying nd = 0. how do i show that the sum of all φ(m) where m divides n is atmost n?
ok lol just found out that the sum is n
Define group action of group G, on cosets of H by left multiplication and the kernel because index is finite it has proper non trivial proper kernel , this kernel contains H and and
$\bigcup_{g\in G}gHg^{-1}\subset K$
And K is proper in G
Curvature
The kernel of the group action on G/H is
$\bigcap_g gHg^{-1}$
It doesn't usually contain H
jagr2808
Ohk i think i missed something
The kernel is also called the core of H
Yes it's inside H
Im pretty sure $f = 4(x^3+y^3+z^3)$ works for this, but im unsure how to justify the irreducibility of $f$, it certainly feels irreducible, but im unsure how to actually prove that. I know that we also also write every irreducible singular cubic in one of two forms, so maybe thats the better approach but im not sure. This also might be more appropriate for #algebraic-geometry but I thought id ask here since its really the irredcuibility im getting hung up on
Nope
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
In the exam for this question they did say you dont need to justify it (and thank god its a 15 part problem, with another 2 questions after it) but I still think I should know how to do this, beyond just it feeling irreducible. I guess since F_7 is small enough I could feasibly brute force it but that sounds hellish
How the set of all functions from R to R (set of real numbers) with compact support is a ring without identity??
Just add and multiply pointwise
Can you please explain it..
(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) defines an addition of functions
(f*g)(x) = f(x)*g(x) defines multiplication
isn't it also a ring under composition?
I guess assume f can be factored, then evacuate at y=z=1. Then you get a factorization of x^3 + 2 over F7, but it's irreducible (it has no roots)
Composition doesn't distribute over addition
Is there a general way forward as far as showing irreducibility over multivariate polynomial rings, or do we just, in general, need to work a little more directly like that? This question kinda made me realise ive never really looked at irreducibility outside of "obvious" cases
ah, I guess that's only true for endomorphisms, not for functions in general?
Thats fair, a little too commutative
But I guess, use Eisenstein / reduce to fewer variables would be good tricks
Yeah that seems like a very sensible way forward. Most of the cases ive seen have had a single term depend on a varible so you assume you can write your function f(x,y,z,w) as (wg(x,y,z)+h(x,y,z))p(x,y,z) and get a contradiction, so i suppose assume it is and reduce varibles until you can use a nice single varible test or hit a contradiction before then
Is R^+ the additive group of R? Then Rz = { r + z | r in R } right? But why is this a set of zero divisors? How do you conclude the last line?
Yeah i need to properly formulate it gahshsgs
Ill get back to you on it
Nice, as long as there's group actions involved, I'm interested 
Yippwe
I guess it's not really a group action. It's just the homomorphism of R-modules
There is probably an algorithrm factorisation into irreducibles in multivariate polynomial rings over ℤ. The techniques used in that would occasionally be helpful for manual calculations as well.
I had a quick look to see if sage could do it and apparently it cannot, obviously doesnt mean no algorithm exists (and not even that sage cant do it, the docs are awful) but it does make me slightly less hopeful
Well I say hopeful, its not particularly important to me that one does exist, but I guess it would be nice
Someone else who finds Sage discoverability terrible 🍻
Ah yeah
Left R-modules
But only the abelian groups are needed, really
I.e. the counting argument comes from Langrange
(Which is an instance of orbit-stabiliser ig lol)
I guess it's first isomorphism theorem for G-sets
:0 of course
hmm, I'm still not following
you consider phi(r) = rz as a homomorphism of R-modules? How do you proceed?
Yeah I shouldn't say that they're terrible, the information is there somewhere but best of luck finding it lol
By langrange
|zR| = |R| / |ker phi|
=> |R| = |ker phi| • |zR|
But both ker phi and zR consist of nonzero zero divisors and 0, so
|ker phi|, |zR| <= n+1
By the hypothesis, and the result follows
I see, nice 
But how I will find that there is no identity of this ring?
Because f(x) = 1 does not have compact support
Say f is an identity. Then for each x there exists a compactly supported function with g(x) nonzero.
Then f(x)g(x) = g(x) implies f(x) = 1. But if f(x) = 1 for all x it's not compactly supported
If you just mod out by the core of H it reduces to the finite case.
DAMN FELT THE SAME
i can send more nightmare dreams
But presumably like you consider how ||G acts on X_n||
Oh yeah thats cool
deadly
yes
the solution is just to mimick the burnside theorem proof
It is asked to use galois theory here but coudnt get it (how?)
and yes n is not 4
Sure
why dont you post it for others
Oh I mean I haven't written down anything tbh, only on mobile lol
May think about it later heh
sorry i thought you solved it
By?
||conjugation I presume||
Just spent close to an hour working out why this question asked me to work out what group this one element set was, only to realise I copied the question down wrong 
which que
Computing the group of torsion points of some elliptic curve over Q, but I missed a constant in the equation of the curve and just ended up getting no points that could even potentially be torsion points and kinda trivialised the problem, turns out theres an additional 3 points it could be if you do it correctly
forgot group law for elliptic because it just came up from no where
Sage docs are utter ass
I should put my money where my mouth is
and start contributing to improve them
That assumes you can learn enough to know what's there so you can write about it in the docs. Kudos if you do.
I mean mainly what I find lacking is examples
the examples they give of some usage of commands is very esoteric
and its worse the more "niche" the function is, you spend an afternoon looking for the page then you get one or two examples which are so dense and poorly explained you spend the rest of your day working out how it works. I think most of my issues with sage are skill issues on my part, but im glad to know its not entirely that
Thank god someone said this, I had sort of assumed that I was just incapable of making good use of them
Also the search function is completely useless, and it's hard to understand how things are structured. Say if I'm reading about polynomials (https://doc.sagemath.org/html/en/tutorial/tour_polynomial.html) and I want to learn more about the PolynomialRing constructor. There are no links to that function from that page, and if I try to search for it: https://doc.sagemath.org/html/en/reference/search.html?q=polynomialring A long list of completely useless results... 
maybe the easiest way to find stuff is to scroll through this list: https://doc.sagemath.org/html/en/reference/py-modindex.html
maybe AI search time 
Thank god its written in plain english python otherwise it would be actually unusable
protip: use find and grep in the html/en doc tree to narrow your search
I think this works:
Note that $f_n(x) = 1$ precisely whenever $x \in S := {1, 2, \dots, n}$. Suppose for contradiction that $f_n(x) = g_n(x) \cdot h_n(x)$. For any $k \in S$ we must have $g_n(k) = h_n(k) \in {\pm 1}$ in order to satisfy $f_n(k) = 1$. Define $S_1 := {k \in S : g_n(k) = 1}$ and $S_{-1} := {k \in S : g_n(k) = -1}$.
Suppose $n$ is odd, so that either $S_1$ or $S_{-1}$ must contain more than $\frac{n}{2}$ elements. Without loss of generality, we assume that $#S_1 > \frac{n}{2}$. It follows that $g_n(x) - 1$ and $h_n(x) - 1$ both have more than $\frac{n}{2}$ roots, so that $\deg(f_n) = \deg(g_n) + \deg(h_n) \geq \frac{n}{2} + \frac{n}{2} = n$. This is a contradiction, so we conclude that $f_n$ is irreducible for any odd $n$.
Am not sure how to deal with the case where $n$ is even rn.
Catch23
Hate it though, very inelegant. Did you think of anything nicer?
If n is even then observe it is square of some poly
what does sigma B actually mean here it kinda just shows up in the books im looking at and it doesnt seem to be defined that well
is it just sigma acting on B only
That’s the restriction of a map lol
B is a subset of E so you can take an automorphism of E and restrict its domain to B
@amber maple
The only content of this is that the image of B is equal to B, this says that sigma restricted to B actually also gives you an automorphism of B
checks out
the proofs in this book are a little... lazy, so its annoying to follow
less rigorous than i like :(
I mean I can prove this to you lol
B is generated by the roots alpha_i of f(x), and because sigma fixes E this means f(sigma(alpha_i)) = 0 so all sigma(alpha_i) = alpha_j(i)
This means generators of B get sent into B, so all of B maps into B via sigma
But B is a finite extension of E so if you have E < sigma(B) < B and both B and sigma(B) have the same degree over E the two are equal
Tadah
let G be a finite group with a proper normal subgroup N that is not contained in the centre of G. Prove that G has a proper subgroup H with | H | > \sqrt | G |.
take n in N which is not in Z(G), then by orbit Stabilizer theorem, we have | G | = | cl(n)| | C(n) |, since N is normal subgroup therefore | cl(n) | < | N | , and n not in Z(G) implies C(n) is proper subgroup of G, so we have | G | < |N| |C(n) |, now take subgroup which has maximum order among them, so we get H, such that | G | < |H|^2.
is it correct?
everything looks right except I'm not sure how you get the inequality to be strict
because | cl(n) | < |N|
I don't immediately see why equality isn't possible
n not in Z(G) and e not in cl(n)
8 a part, we can deduce that f(p/q) = f(1)^{p\q}.
So f is uniquely determined by f(1), so we have infinitely many homomorphisms.
Is it correct?
yes, that’s correct
Okay thank you
8, b part
Let f:Q -> Z be a group homomorphism, then f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y).
Now it implies f(1) = qf(1/q) for all q in Z{0}.
Since the image is in Z, so it implies q divides f(1) for all q in Z{0}, which is not possible if f(1) ≠ 0.
So f(1) must be 0.
And we can conclude that qf(p/q) = pf(1), so qf(p/q) = 0 implies f(p/q) = 0 ( q≠0 ).
Hence there is only one group homomorphism Q to Z.
that is also correct
nice
Okay Thank you
There is a mistake f is not uniquely determined by f(1)
If f(1)=1 then what is f(1/3)
The point is f(1) cannot be any non-zero value
if it is some non zero then there is a loop
I proved this
See this
It is 1/3 but it is not possible because f(1/3) must be in Z
thats correct infact it was one of my interview question,
i was talkin about part (a)
I see
the idea you have here can be summarised by the following observation -
as rings, Q is torsion, but Z is free. Hence there can only be the trivial ring homomorphism
(note. Q is not a torsion group. see below, but the argument can be modified to work in group theory context)
and indeed, that is what you essentially show in your argument, that the image of a torsion group must always be torsion
Then f(1/3) = f(1)^1/3, so now you have to choice to take which root
Therefore f is not uniquely determined by f(1)
infact every subgroup of Z is cyclic but Q isnt
only possibility for the image to be cyclic is trivial
How so?
But the finitely generated subgroup of Q is cylic
I am making a mistake here
same oberservation, you method does proove f_n(x)=(g_n(x))^2 as g_n(x)-h_n(x) has n roots so use identity theorem and get g_n=h_n over reals
yes then what
you have to map whole Q
Ah thats pretty neat
still irreducibility is not proven
so advanced huh 

I don't think torsion group is the word you're looking for
oh yeah you're right, poor choice of wording
Divisible group, right?
I heared torsion part, torsion module , what is torsion group
exactly what you expect it to mean
it seems it means every element of that group is of finite order
Yeah
now $g_n(x)$ has half the degree as $f_n$ and implies $g_n(i)=+1$ or$-1$ for $1\leq i\leq n$ let $n=2k$ if any of +1 or -1 cant be attained more that k times so you can assume both are attained k times exactly
Curvature
Yeah you’re right. Am not sure how to derive contradiction from f_n = g_n^2.
WE get f(x)-f(y)=2 for some x and y integers with choices 1 to n
and we will get f(x)+f(y)=0
For any x,y integers 1 to n, we have f(x) = f(y) = 1, so that f(x) - f(y) = 0 and f(x) + f(y) = 2. Moreover, with g(x), g(y) = +/-1, we get the same result: f(x) = f(y) = g(x)^2 = g(y)^2 = 1.
So I think you’ve flipped the two, but even still I’m not sure how this leads to contradiction?
🇵🇱 uuybnuuy
Are you sure the question doesn't specify k to be an integer?
ϕ: Z[X] → Z[X] that maps x to 1 is a ring homomorphism but ϕ(x) =1 ≠ x × ϕ (1)=x
So it has to be k ∈ Z
And then R is to be interpreted as a Z-algebra for this to make sense
But at least then 1. is true
Can you write down the full exapisn of polynomials f(x)-f(y)=2, contradiction follows immediately
Even from a UA standpoint those are the same
Wouldn't they only be polynomially equivalent
The isomorphism of equational theories is literally just an extension of the nullary operations by k := 1 + ... + 1 (k times, with a minus if k < 0)
I.e. the most "the same" two equational theories can be without being exactly the same
Yeye
Or unary ig who cares, just add a •x

Me when the category is isomorphic to the undercategory under the initial object
But where do you get f(x)-f(y)=2 from?
there are some integer x and y such that f(x)=1 and f(y)=-1
How do you know that f(y) = -1 has integer solutions?
sorry for mixing up the notations
i should say we have some i and j such that g_n(i)-g_n(j)=2
Okay okay I agree w/ that. For some integers i,j we have g_n(i) - g_n(j) = 2 and g_n(i) + g_n(j) = 0. Now how do you say the contradiction follows?
$g_n(i)-g_n(j)=\sum a_k(i^k-j^k)$
Curvature
you just have to write it and see the right side, i-j divides it
i will be intrested if this can be solved using eisestine critrion or some other criteria
I put + because I don't know what type of operation it is, but the ideal one is that one
$g_n(i)-g_n(j)=\sum a_k(i^k-j^k)=2$
Curvature
i-j divides 2
Yes I see the contradiction but how do you get $g_n(i) - g_n(j) = \sum a_k(i^k - j^k)$?
Catch23
$g_n(x) =\sum a_k x^k$
Curvature
i assume there exist a solution using some other trick
maybe eisestine
we can use the tht there exist a prime between n and 2n always
Does that hold for any n? Didn’t know tjat
Ye thats true lmao
moment when two people talk about cat theory 
yes
"Bertrand's Postulate", which now has various proofs
(I think the first proof used a good amount of analytic number theory but there's a much more elementary one due to Erdős for example)
I see i see
is there an explicit construction for the following : given a complex number z such that Re(z)>0, and Im(z) != 0, can i find P in R[X] with positive or zero coefficients such that (X^2-2Re(z)X+|z|^2) P(X) has positive or zero coefficients ?
Maybe try $X^2-2Re(z)X+|z|^2=(X-z)(X-\overline{z})$
joel
If you mean multiplication, just take P(X) = 0. Then the product is clearly zero haha
I'm not sure i understand....
@vestal stream
How do I show that the set of algebraic numbers is a field?
I think you can use tower law for fields and properties of field extensions
to show a,b in F makes a+b in F etc
sorry could you explain this a little more
Oh I just mean to show its a field, you need to show its closed under addition, multiplication, division etc. In this case that means you need to show a+b, a/b etc is algebraic. You can do this by looking at field extensions
Because we know finite field extensions are algebraic
yall, i just wanna make sure im not tripping
is Ext^1(P), where P is projective
always trivial?
by Yonedas
since if we characterize it via extensions, theres only one extension up to yoneda equivalence, because any extension splits by projectivity
when a \in xH and a \in yH (left cosets in G, a \in G), how to explain correctly xH = yH? i see x and y has dependency between them (x = y*(composition of elements of H)). y*h'*h generates every element in yH. by dependency with x, it generates xH.
How would I show that pi + sqrt2 is transcendental over Q?
You have to use pi is trancesdental
Yes but how exactly
I showed using pi is transcendental that pi is also transcendental over Q(sqrt(2)) but I don't see how for this one
What is the degree of Q(π+√2): Q(√2)
Sums, products, and reciprocals of algebraic numbers are algebraic
Sorry I'm not sure, would it be the degree of the minimal polynomial of pi+sqrt(2)?
That's what I'm trying to prove though in this case otherwise the problem is trivial right
or at least I don't think I can assume that here
If the extension is algebraic so every element is algebraic π+√2 is also algebraic as Arki said π+√2 - √2 is also algebraic
is the reduction map $SL_2(\mathbb{Z})\to SL_2(\mathbb{Z}/N\mathbb{Z})$ is surjective ? for $N\geq 2$
Curvature
Yes
Ye i see that now, is it also a homomorphism? I suppose so because x -> x/N is a ring hom too?
Yes
$\text{Aut}(Q_8) \cong \text{PGL}(2,3) = \text{GL}(2,3)/{\pm I} \cong S_4$
longboard kayak
got this on wiki page
how to argue for the isomorphism for the expreme left and right
i can see i,j,k are inter permutable upto sign
ahhh
$\text{Inn}(Q_8) \cong Q_8/Z(Q_8) \cong V_4$
longboard kayak
how to show that the Out is S3
also can we argue from the "geometry" ?
Q8 acting on the 3dimensional real space {\pmi, \pmj, \pmk}?
yes it is well defined
i have takken this question from the book neil koblitz modular forms, there are other similar type of questions in that book
Ah thats why I'm ending up with an integer equation
Lol
My idea was to look at the morphism of exact sequences
0 -> SL_2(Z) -> GL_2(Z) -> C_2 -> 0
0 -> SL_2(R) -> GL_2(R) -> R* -> 0
And by assuming the desired surjection to force an injection of C_2 into R*, and if R = Z/NZ with phi(N) is odd that would be a contradiction
The way to force an injection is for the kernel of the map between the GL_2's to contain only special linear matrices
This is probably not the right way to tackle it though lol
You'd need to show the impossibility of the integer equation
n^2(ad - bc) + n(a + d) + 2 = 0
(If phi(n) is odd)
you are claimin map is not surjective?
If the map is surjective and this has no solutions and phi(n) is odd, then we get a contradiction
I guess one way would be to show that an outer automorphism is determined by how it permutes the three subgroups of order 4
actual answer is yes but
Oh thats cool
Nvm then, cool proof that this then must always have a solution if phi(n) is odd
since the actual ans is yes, contradiction is not right approach we have to construct some matrix with required image
I know
But because we know the answer is true, this gives a proof that if phi(n) is odd, the above equation must have a solution, as if it didnt, the map couldnt be surjective
{\pm1, \pmi(j,k)} right?
honestly forgot the definition of Out to make the connection
Out is Aut/Inn
one thing is poking me
if we let k be unchanged and interchange i with j
does it not affect the algebra
That will not be an automorphism
k has to be replaced by -k
Yup, then you're all good
ohh ig this thing gets under the carpet if we quotient out by the Inn
and we only get to see permutation of 3 objects which is not fully automorphism
$1 \to V_4 \to \text{Aut}(Q_8) \to S_3 \to 1$
Yeah, the automorphisms are like permuting i, j and k, except they kinda change signs randomly
longboard kayak
is it spliting?
And the action of the inner automorphisms is exactly changing those signs
I would very much doubt it, but I haven't checked
i mean if you try to reverse construct the Aut is there one option left for us?
ahh ok let me see how S3 can act on aut of V4
i think AutV4 too is S3
without any knowledge whatsoever i feel like these objects would nicer to study if i know representation
Any objects are nicer study using representations 
idk, maybe you guys are genius, but my stupid brain always wants nice things, speaking of which, i always used to think that B in a subgroup of G in the case of
$1 \to A \to G \to B \to 1$
Q8 broke my dream
I love nonsplit extensions
Wait till you hear about Z/4
crazy thing is i knew the concept of semi direct product/ nontrivial action, still my brain made me convinced that B has to be indeed in G
i mean c'mon
Semidirect product is precisely when B is naturally (via a section of the projection) in G
$1 \to C_2 \hookrightarrow \ Q_8 \twoheadrightarrow V_4 \to 1$
longboard kayak
so this is NOT a semidirect product?
That's correct. There aren't many maps V4 -> Q8
oh at the definition of semidrect product it is mentioned both has to be subgroup
hmm, i see
so not all the extentions have to be semidirect product?
Also C2 is in the center, so the only way for it to be semidirect is if it is direct
ohyeah
I think you can probably argue that most of them are not
Especially if you're dealing with p-groups
so the core misconception for me was that i used to think all the extensions are some semidirect product
i tried classifying order 8 groups with that approach
now i can see the bug
it's so rewarding to do mistakes in algebra
My Google-fu tells me that Aut(Q8) is indeed the semidirect product of its inner and outer groups and that it's isomorphic to S4
The first proof was given by Chebyshev and it's completely elementary (and short). See Theorem 2.4 in Montgomery's multiplicative number theory book and the discussion that follows
got lucky, btw what is google-fu ?
google f*** u
Google-fu is one of the ancient Chinese martial Arts, first developed for use in combat, but later finetuned for the purpose of finding information online.
Oh sure lol nice
I will look thanks
assume m=n then |G|=1+2m shows m divides 1 hence m=1 this gives G is Z_3 now assume (WLOG)m>n so |G|-m=1+n but m divides left side so is right side and m divides 1+n this forces 1+n=m so |G|=2+2n similarly |G|-2n=2 gives n divides 2 hence n is either 1 and 2 (NOW YOU CAN COMPLETE IT)
m divides 1 + n how it implies 1 + n = m?
if n=1 (NOT possible)(AS GROUP OF ORDER 4 IS ABELIAN) and n=2 gives |G|=1+3+2
m>n and divides 1+n implies m<= 1+n
order of conjugacy class divides order of group is main thing to use
yes Orbit Stabilizer theorem
please share this pdf
so essentially you got two constraints right?
all of them adds to the group order
why dont you do that
and if you multiply three of them individually with respective index of centralisers you get the group order
wdym?
yes
as the number here is small im thinking of manually working all those out
if i take Z/2Z \times Z/2Z\times..., then this is not PID but every prime ideal is maximal in this ring, correct?
Same holds true for any commutative artinian ring (so in particular finite rings)
i will prove it for Artinian ring, yes in finite ring every prime ideal is maximal ideal but i didn't work much in finite ring so now i want non PID finite ring, maybe we can take non-integral ring Z/6Z, but finite ring which is integral but not PID
so we can say quotient of PID is not PID because since it must be integral domain but Z/6Z is not
I have an interview in the upcoming month for int phD in mathematics. And I am very serious about this interview so if anyone wants to take my mock interview, he/she will be welcome. Let me know if you are interested.
If this message shouldn't belong here I will delete it.
yep i meant multiplication, P has to be different than 0 though
You interested?
Yep
Thank you ❤️
True that! He is working hard here all the time
I wish I could work hard during my days
What is the meaning of this, how to relate it
I thought you troll me
everyone is nice , the influence of worst situations can make them bad(for instance)
I’m trying to solve exercise E5 here and I’m confused as to why they tell us to use part 4 since m=ord(a) and n=ord(b) are not necessarily coprime in this case.
I decided to go this direction, but in this work, I’m confused as to how to derive a contradiction since there’s no guarantee that xd is a multiple of m and yd a multiple of n
How would I do this problem? I saw solutions to similar problems online where they square then cube sqrt(3)-sqrt(5) but I don't see how this helps
$\sqrt(3)+\sqrt(5)\in Q(\sqrt(3),\sqrt(5))$ so $\sqrt(3)+\sqrt(5)+\sqrt(3)-\sqrt(5)=2\sqrt(3)\in Q(\sqrt(3),\sqrt(5))$
Curvature
similarly root(5) is inside Q(\sqrt(3),\sqrt(5))
The trick is to find i and j such that the orders of a^i and b^j become coprime, while retaining the same lcm.
It might be easiest if you think about how you can determine the lcm from the prime factorizations
.
So just to check are we essentially showing that we can manipulate sqrt(3)-sqrt(5) into sqrt(3) and sqrt(5) respectively to show inclusion?
and the other way is trivial
yes
ok thank you
using fields proprty only
an alternate method is to observe that its a subfield of the 2nd field but its minimal polynomial can't have degree 2
Show sqrt(3)+sqrt(5) in there by calculation of 1/(sqrt(3)-sqrt(5))
true
yeah that must be 4 nice
goop theowe
hi jagr how are u doing today
Such is the season of the rainy spring
I've also been so distracted by this girl I've been seeing. I've only dated her for a month but its been so much so far
Felt kind of guilty i couldnt do much on my thesis stuff this past week i have a meeting with supervisor today lol
same but in 2020-2021
4 year dry spell? get back on the scene!
no i am mature now
imp phase of my life
mature means no female companionship?
Yeah pretty much
yeah,
hahahaha
wow
I am also ill
Or done with dating, cause you got married and stuff....(?)
that time i could solved group theory but didnt
Its spreading through mathcord
I always knew this place had a negative impact on my health
i have end sems of sem 1
The good ending
i feel like gohan here
Ain’t nobody seen yo shows!!! We’re fifty seven y/o here
Im just uncultured tbh
I still find this a bit confusing
watchin ramayan
Dragon ball Z, more like dra-Gen X, immaright?
Dragon de-
ts ain’t it unc 💔
The hours before meeting your supervisor is the time you learn the most
Hahaha
Your thesis was about smt combinatorics right
yh
Thats cool, hats off, i probably could never lol
It might be easier to look at examples with few primes.
Like say a has order 12 and b has order 18. For which i and j do a^i and b^j have coprime orders? Can any of these combine to make an element of order 36?
This is the last question. I've shown I is a prime ideal, and I believe I is a maximal ideal. To show this I need to show there's a homomorphism between Z[x]/I and (I think) Z_3, with kernel I to use the first iso. theorem and show Z[x]/I is a field. I just don't know how to choose the homomorphism
Homomorphism out of Z[x] are particularly nice. They can be fully described by where x is mapped, and you can map x anywhere you like.
oh and I also need to show that it's not principal (I already showed I = <3,x>)
The ideal?
yes
I guess think about when you can write 3 as a multiple of some other polynomial, and same for x
can I map it literally to like, [x] mod 3?
yea but you have to fix a value for it
Well you have to map it to something that is an element of Z_3 (or just whatever codomain you have)
p(x) goes to p(0) mod 3 the kerner is clearly now (3,x)=I
this ideal is maximal
third isomrphism theorem
Z[X]/<X,3>=( Z[X]/<X>)/(<X,3>/<X>)=Z/3Z
I see, thank you
yes
I've stayed up all night doing this he sent out an email last night at 5pm saying it was due today instead of Thursday
horrible prof
cant feel the pain
p(x) goes to p(0) mod 3 and first iso is sufficient
Why do we say vector space over F, or a k-vector space. Or an algebra over k, or a k-algebra, or an algebra with a base field k.
In my view, if I have a group, ie a groupoid with a single object, and I have it act on, let's say a set, then the action is a functor from Grp to Set.
So I think of it as the group acting on the set.
If I have a k-vector space, then I have a k-action on an abelian group. So I think of k acting over the group.
Why not say it's a vector space under (the) k(-action)
If I'm being more accurate he's always allowed one rewrite of a homework after grading if turned in on an earlier deadline, but he rescinded that the night before despite implying we would have a chance to turn it in later if we didn't want to do the rewrite
which is unfortunate since this was the one time I was actually going to give up the rewrite and spend more time on it before handing it in
and he implied in class we would be able to do that last week lol
this one can be used if you proove that the ideal is <3,X> which you said that you prooved
I have one example X=(Z_p)^n and G=Z_n act on X pushing the indices forward by j wjere j is in Z_n
Active tag
what do u mean by that
I dont know exactly what hes doing, but based on the books and stuff ive seen him ask about its minimally combinatorial (in the sense that you can get by on just algebra) its all pretty nice
You got an active tag
Herzog and Hibis Monomial ideals or Miller and Strumfels combinatorial comalg are both nice
oh i m new so i dont know about these things
In c part, I think we can use that R is Bezout so p/q = ad/bd, where d = gcd(p,q), right?
What are you trying to highlight with this example?
this is an example of action
That's not what I was asking
My question was one of terminology
Saying something is a vector space over a field vs a vector space under a field
take <a,b>=d so then ax+by=d so we must have a=dp and b=dq so px+qy=1 and a/b=p/q
I guess the true answer is probably that notation and language isn't really planned out ahead of time.
But a difference between the group case and the vector space care might be in how the subject is used and thought about.
All though it's an equivalent formulation, a vector space isn't often thought about as an abelian group that k acts on. One is not interested in different ways k can act on the group or how different ks acts on it.
Instead one fixes a field k, and then works over that specific context.
Yes
hey just a small question about names of theorems
We covered a simple corollary of the Orbit-Stabilizer Theorem in our lecture. If i translate the name, we called it the "class equation". Its the fact that:
$$|G|=|Z(G)|+ \sum_{r \in R} \frac{|G|}{|Z_G(r)|}$$
For some Group $G$, its center $Z(G)$ and the centralisers $Z_G(r)$ of the elements of a set $R$ containing one element of each conjugacy class.
I dont have a problem with this statement, i just wonder what its called? I feel like it doesnt have alot of applications, given that all it really states is that all the elements whose conjugacy classes have 1 element are found in the center, which is pretty obvious. Like i said, we called it the "class equation", but i have not found any english name online
Super Matroid
Is that really how it's generally done? I've mainly only experienced talking about specific vector spaces, so fixing both k and G.
So are you saying, for vector spaces, k is fixed but the group it acts upon usually isn't?
I think it's used in burnside's lemma? Tho seems like you can just prove it via orbit-stabilizer
yea i felt like that would be the case
there are two groups of order 8 with same class equation
Well, consider for example linear algebra.
It's a subject all about vector spaces, and linear maps between them and so on.
Exactly what the field is usually plays little role, you just have some fixed field and you're comparing vector spaces over that field.
Similarly for studying algebras. You talk about quotients and homomorphisms of k-algebras.
Contrast with for example the representation theory of a group. Here the representation theory is saying things about the group, and you compare the representation theory of different groups.
Exactly what the field is plays little role, [...]
That's true, given that we can only have morphisms between vector spaces with the same underlying field. So that does need to be fixed.
Good point
As for the representation theory stuff, that's also a good point. We use the group action to reveal more information about the underlying group itself
It's called the class equation in english too, and it seems Aluffi disagrees with you wrt. its applications 
Whereas for vector spaces, we don't do that
well we did finish the lecture with proving it, so we might do some applications tomorrow
looking in the script, yea those are some nice results. Group of order p^2 for p prime is abelian. Thats a cool one
Yes
1 application there are p^2+p-1 conjugacy class of non abelian group of order p^3
.\
Isn't the class equation also used in proving the existence of Sylow p-subgroups?
Either p | #Z(G) or there exists some g_i such that p doesn't divide |G : C_G(g_i)| i.e. C_G(g_i) is a strictly smaller subgroup of order a multiple of p^alpha due to the class equation, in either case you can proceed with induction
yes you can say
newton died a virgin. choose now; be a great mathematician and maidenless, or legacyless with maidens..
as far as I know it's just called the class equation
that's what it's been called in every algebra book i've read
What does Burnside mean by "simple group of odd order" here? Isn't Z/pZ for p prime simple? I'm assuming he uses a different definition?
What
It means a simple group, which has odd order
Oh I see
Yeah non-cyclic prime
It’s kinda buried in there I guess, Burnside’s theorem is that all odd order groups are solvable, so as long as it isn’t cyclic prime it can’t be simple
Wait no that’s Feit-Thompson sorry
lol, I don't think Burnside was so stupid that he would conjecture that there are no simple groups of odd order, but I think he's talking about non-abelian groups specifically
yeah, it's probably related to Feit-Thompson, that was where I found it
Yeah I mean to go from non-abelian simple groups of odd order don’t exist to the only odd order simple groups are Z/pZ is easy.
Like you just have to show among abelian groups only Z/pZ is simple of odd order, and then you can apply the classification
yep, that makes sense 
Here is his book btw: https://babel.hathitrust.org/cgi/pt?id=uc1.b4062919&seq=535 in case anyone else wants to read a 114 year old book on group theory 
Damn 114 years old
recall Lagrange's theorem
Depending on the book / teacher, they might not actually write the little line underneath. So it could mean a subset (proper or otherwise)
is this the same question as before? because Z/nZ is the additive group of integers
If 0 were in the group, would all the group axioms hold? Think about the inverse under multiplication
(Assuming we are talking about groups and not rings)
why does a stable subfield implies galois? that is, if we have F-L-K and L is stable then L/K is galois.
our definition of galois we've been using is
- there is some K automorphism that moves any given element outside of K
- the fixed field of AutK(F) is precisely K (i.e. K''=K)
i got that L is stable
but like... i dont see how that does it
this is equivalent to subgroup that fixes L is normal
well the subgroup that fixes $\sigma(L)$ is $\sigma H \sigma^{-1}$ and we want $\sigma(L)=L$ so we need $\sigma H \sigma^{-1}=H$ as H fixes L
Curvature
oh shit i missed that. yeah i see that now it's direct
i came up with a whole explanation
F/K galois means that F-E-K has F/E galois but E/K galois iff Fix(E) is normal...
yes
thanks
i don't get this part
okay say a1f1 +...+ a_nf_n = 1, then a_1c_1 +...+ a_nc_n = 1 so how do i show atleast one of them is unit, i know x is not unit then 1 + x is unit in A
iff
i got it
hey does anyone know if the correspondence theorem for ring homomorphism still holds for non commutative rings?
possibly without identity
You mean the correspondence between ideals containing I and ideals in R/I?
Then yes; it is a theorem in universal algebra and thus holds in any algebraic structure (even for structures which do not have ideal-like subobjects)
So for example, for sets, ideals are replaced by equivalence relations.
If you have an equivalence relation R on X, then the equivalence relations containing R correspond exactly to the equivalence relations on the quotient set X/R
For an arbitrary algebraic structure A, the role of ideals is played by special equivalence relations called congruences. We go from ideals to congruences in the following way:
given a congruence C on a ring R, the corresponding ideal is the equivalence class 0/C
conversely, if I is an ideal then we construct the equivalence relation
x ~_I y <=> x-y in I
yeh that's what i meant, and thankyou i didn't know that the correspondence theorem was so general
Its really cool :)
Other generalised things are for example the first isomorphism theorem and the third isomorphism theorem (R/I)/(J/I) ≈ R/J
is that like from the universal mapping property?
No, thats something else
That has to do with free algebras, just like how the polynomial ring has the universal mapping property for commutative rings, you can have free algebras consisting of more general polynomial-like objects which have the universal mapping property for other class of algebras.
These, categorically, are the objects given by the free functor with an adjunction with Set, but logically tell you exactly what axioms some class of algebras satisfies
i haven't even learned free algebras yet, but is it something like free groups, where the free algebra gives you some generators for a ring and then you impose some relation
but anyways thks this is ensightful
Oh i mean algebra as in general algebraic structure
The curse of being a universal algebraist lmao
Thats basically it yes
oh ok i guess i understand a little bit then lol

i hate algebra( SAYING THIS )
I think there is a typo, but it’s unclear whether they mean Z_12 or (mod 11). In the former case, this is actually a function, but in the latter case this is not well-defined. So I suppose they meant to write Z_12
doesnt f(x) = 3x (mod 12) make sense? its image is (0,3,6,9) which are in Z_11 right?
unless it isnt well-defined
Thats what Boytjie said
3 * 8 = 24 = 2 mod 11 ≠ 0 mod 11
also anyone know what this notation means when it says HA, is it a left coset? hA with h in H? idk where this came from
i thought it would be like 3 * 8 = 24 = 0 (mod 12) so it just maps to 0 in Z_11
Z_11 is mod 11
Not mod 12
Z_11 contains only the elements 0, ..., 10
i mean like you take (f(x) (mod 12)) (mod 11)
Mhm, it would be the composition
Z_8 -> 3Z_12 -> Z_11
Which is well-defined as 3Z_12 = { 0, 3, 6, 9 }
What it should be is what this tells you
In what context is this
soluble?? Shouldn't that be solvable?
england vs us
Its basically the same
we say soluble here apparently
Wait, in Dutch both translate to the same thing lol
Oh hai Jelle
Hi
i get the proof i just am having a hard time interpreting what G_{r}N/N actually is and i dont know what to look up to find it
Oh, btw if A and B are subgroups of G then AB is the set containing all elements of the form ab with a in A and b in B
Do you know lattice theory?
if A or B is normal in G, then this is a subgroup
no
Right, okay
What it basically does is use three facts:
- If N is a normal subgroup, and H < G a subgroup, then HN = H•N = { hn | h in H, n in N} is a subgoup of G
- If H1 < H2 are subgroups of G, then H1•N < H2•N, and if H1 is normal in H2 then H1•N is normal in H2•N
- If H1 < H2 are subgroups containing N, then H1/N < H2/N
< here is the inclusion relation (subgroup ordering)
Then take a subnormal series with abelian quotients of G:
1 = G_0 < G_1 < ... < G_r = G (1)
And "multiply by N" to get another series
N = 1•N < G1•N < G2•N < ... < G_r•N = G•N = G (2)
And then quotient by N to get a final subnormal series in G/N, with notably the same factor groups as (2):
N/N = 1 < G1•N/N < G2•N/N < ... < G•N / N
You can see this as the "most obvious" way to construct a subnormal series in G/N
It isnt
Well "it is" in some sense, but a quotient is only properly defined when the subgroup contains N
can g_1n form elements in some g_i or something
So you take Gi•N, which is the smallest subgroup containing both Gi and N
You can see here that only if N is contained in G_i we get a factor group naturally isomorphic to G_i+1/G_i
So it does matter
The theorem
(H/N)/(M/N) ≈ H/M
only works if N < M < H
this math shit gets serious 🙏
this is essentialy the second isomorphism theorem. G_1N/N = G_1/(N intersect G_1). The intersection is required exactly because N might not be contained in G_1

society if I didn't have to care about ts bullshit and they were just equal instead of iso 🌈🌈🌈🌈🌈🌈🌈
SOCIETY WOULD BE GAY?????
this kinda makes sense
precisely
Omg my typa society
i dont get how G_1/N would be outside of G_1 to begin with
no, N is
to require the intersection
how can you quotient by something which isn't a subgroup
yeah I went and added parens lol
lmao
G_1/N intersect G_1 is always empty
Dedekind group implied
{} type shit
what is brother talkin bout 😂 get yo Q_8 lookin ahhhh outta town 😂
Classification of dedekind groups is absolutely insane
it's just Q_8 direct a bunch of abelian bulllshit
I know
group theory is just like if doing algebra with a,b in R was slightly wrong
that ain't that bad!
It aint that bad but its just so fucking arbitrary lmao
Its doing algebra in the group of units
its not analysis so i take it
well it is slightly strange that in essence the only non-abelian dedekind group is Q_8 but direct producting would be the only way to combine them
Algebra hater
any semidirect or heaven forbid non-trivial cocycle would introduce a shit ton of non-normal stuff
I'd call it the join
subgroup product
But thats not really the context of it, might be too lattice theory-pilled
I guess
One has to be normal though else i dont accept it
I reject its existence
Hi Mathemagicians 💫 🫶
I’m good. Ate breakfast 🍳
Other timezone.. thats good
🇧🇷?
Shoot and miss. I'll have to practice my psychic powers
Lol
found it on mse
Lmao
enough to send someone icu
So it's brr, not br
Crossed homomorphisms, is this homological algebra? I'm doing Galois theory, I didn't ask for this 
Bhattacharya, Basic Abstract Algebra
Not sure if I like it, it has loads of examples and exercises with solutions, but it also has weird conventions and lots of crappy proofs
as i asked this question((3) of the attached) page before and there are two methods(one answered by some genius here and one using field theory, there is one more answer using cauchy theorem) to proove (3) but we need to use 6.1 to proove (3)
Hey can you tell me which book this is from ?
its not a book
some assignment
(1) and (2) jare just linear algebra
I cannot for the life of me parse this
Sorry
why man
he sometimes uses extra word in hurry
i dont know
its bihari
maybe i have grammer problems but i believe i know enough english to deliever my thoughts
call me sans undertale the way my pronouns are er/er/er/er/er/er
wouldnt that be freddy fast bear
that's hor
many such cases
abstract nonsense
Is k[x, y]/(x - 1) not isomorphic to k[x, y]/(x - y)? k[x, y]/(x - y) is isomorphic to k[x], I know that
Wait no... k[x, y] is isomorphic to k[y] which is isomorphic to k[x]
No to what
nvm
So they're not isomorphic or they are
It would be great if they weren't isomorphic if that influences your decision 😊
This is all just first iso theorem
Is my reasoning correct
A polynomial ring in 2 variables is not isomorphic to a polynomial ring in 1 variable, so im not sure where youre going there
Oops I meant the quotient is
k[x, y]/(x - 1) is isomorphic to k[y] right?
Via evaluation at 1
.
A good excercise in first iso to check
x -> x-1 is a ring automorphism, so k[x,y]/<x-1> is isomorphic to k[x,y]/<x>
or the evaluation homo + 1st iso also works
evaluation is how i seen it but yeah, that works too
Both are isomorphic to k[y] (as k[y]-algebras, i.e., the isomorphism is the identity on k[y]), the first by the subsitution x = 1 and the second by the substitution x = y. The second one is also isomorphic to k[x] as a k[x]-algebra by the substitution y = x.
Both r same
Universal property says its all the same idea
this question is weird
Why , it is weird
It's amazing question
An algebra hater will love this
This is the purpose , that's why (3) is there because it can be done using 6.1
but will an algebra lover hate it?
no
i am algebra hater so sharing my feelings
LOVES TO HATE AND HATES TO LOVE(CONTRADICTION)
I'm currently undecided, if I can't solve it then I'm an algebra hater
but I'm struggling to see how you can use 6.1. Have you had any progress on it?
yes you have to see every cubic polynomial is characteristic polynomial of some 3 order matrix so we have to look at GL(3.Z_p)
we have to choose a subgroup now(a clever choice) and then use 6.1
holy crush
how do you relate irreducibility to the concept?
thats why its clever choice
I'm not really interested in solving it this way, but I'm intrigued in the solution
can you just give it, spoiled?
i dont have solution yet
i have these ideas but it will take much time to solve nowdays quite busy
no see jorder matrix
?
a matrix with 3 order nilpotent block
yes but the polynomial being irreducible translates to the minimal = characteristic, no?
a Jordan matrix is such example
yes opposite is not true
yes
Thinking about the matrix in rational canonical form, either its minimal polynomial is irreducible of degree 3, or it leaves some 2 dimensional subspace invariant.
Then up to conjugation it leaves the span of the two first basis vectors invariant.
Then apply 6.1 to the subgroup of matrices that leave that space invariant
yes we have to show that set which leave two dimensional subspace invariant form subgroup to complete solution
Well that part is clear
If f(V) = V and g(V) = V, then f(g(V)) = V
i did as above the only part remaining was to proove that it is subgroup
Then I guess you're done
in that part i was confused i was think what if there is some other matrix stabilizing some other 2 dim invariant subspace
i thought same but some extra thought came in my mind
I mean, what then. That doesn't affect anything...
if two matrixes stabilizing two different subspaces of dim 2, how composition will behave ,
this was coming in mind,
Okay, but like, it doesn't have anything to do with the problem right?
The subgroup of matrices that fix the span of the two first basis vectors is a subgroup, so then we can apply the result
