#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 314 of 1
Ohh
So i start with a poly over Z, if i can factor it over Q I can factor it over Z
Thats what Gauss lemma says?
Yeah tbh ill just go review the statement
Does every finitely generated group can be presented by 2 generators ?
no, there are easy counterexamples
Which do you have in mind?
I guess you can do smth silly like going to abelian groups e.g. if G can be generated by two elements then there's a surjection F2 -> G lol, and if you take G abelian then this map factors to give a surjection Z^2 -> G which is impossible for G = Z^n, n > 2, say
Z^3?
I think nonabelian examples are a little trickier cause you can't just use this trick
Am I wrong?
Nah I mean yours is a special case of what I just said aha
ok good thought I was going crazy lol
I guess there are other trivial things like (Z/2)^3 lol
Sure sure
Which may be the smallest example
It is yea
I mean the only other candidate would be S_3 which is generated by two elements ofc
I often think I'm annoying for just talking here lmao, because I still get some things wrong
Hey it's not like you confidently assert things that are incorrect haha...
Oh i do
Lmao
Thats the problem
But at least I accept my mistakes
Instead of the usual reaction of mathematicians it seems
(This was me in another server)
Im an idiot who knows math
complete buffoon ong
I dunno what any of that is
He's a logical redstone youtuber
But he made a math vid once for SoME, and then i joined
I also met my current gf there 
Haha nice
So back to this q5, if I can assume here that the set of separable over F elements of E is a subfield of E then..
Write [F(a) : F] = [F(a) : F(a)s]*[F(a)s : F]
If a is inseparable over F, then min poly of a has degree p^n m , so p^n divides [F(a) : F(a)s]*F(a)s : F], but [F(a)s : F] has no factor of p because its a separable extension, so p^n divides [F(a) : F(a)s], so we can say for sure that the inseparable and separable degrees over F is the same as the inseparable and separable degrees of the min poly of a over F?
like, was that all necessary?
I dont know why its italicized
F is char p
u were thinking of the generators of the homology of the torus
surely
Totally
you need to add \ before some special characters it is called an escape character to stop weird shit from happening to avoid bold letters or italics
Or just use latex
based
For q6, the minimal polynomial of a in Es over Ks divides the minimum polynomial of a over F, and that one has distinct roots so the poly over Ks must have distinct roots too
Is that how that one goes?
[F(a)s:F] can be a multiple of p
theres nothing stopping that
I thought the derivative of the poly would be 0 though in char p
the derivative of x^p + x is 1 for exmaple
Oh shoot
Can I have a hint for where im going wrong?
I'm not sure what you mean.
Where you're going wrong is assuming [F(a)s:F] can't be a multiple of p when it can
I mean like, am I approaching the problem the right way?
Probably.
I'm not completely sure what kind of answer is expected here.
Like you can say something about ||the number of district roots||
or that ||the polynomial can be factored as f(x^p^k) for some seperable f.||
But in the second thing u said, how do i know that the degree of the separable part is the same as [E : F]s
So yes the degree of p is degree of separable part times the p^k part
But how do i know thats the same as [F(a) : F(a)s] times the other
So a^p^k is seperable hence
F(a^p^k) is a seperable extension.
Any element in F(a) has x^p^k in F(a^p^k), so can only be seperable if they're already in F(a^p^k). Hence those are all the seperable elements
a^p^k is separable because its the root of a separable polynomial
We dont necessarily know that psep is the min poly of a^p^k do we?
I mean, its not hard to show, but I guess it doesnt really matter
Does anyone have an intuition for nonseparable polynomials
Like what they're there for and why they're interesting
Just checking, but: if G is a group generated by a set S and k a commutative ring, then the kG-linear map kG^{(+)S} → kG, defined on the basis S by s ↦ s-1 for s in S, is injective iff G is freely generated by S, right?
And if G is not freely generated, say it has a presentation by some relations R, is the kernel generated by something indexed by R? (Maybe the relations need to generate ker(Free(S) → G) as a subgroup and not just as a normal subgroup?)
I don't know how characteristics help here?
I just know the basics of field theory so if it uses some more than it then I have to learn it
I feel like I never see true/false questions like this anymore
So [E : F]s is the degree of psep?
psep is an irreducible poly over F with a^p^k as a root so its the min poly
so [E : F]s is the same as [F(a^p^k) : F] which is deg psep
Hm I don't actually understand that last line
The only seperable polynomial that divides
x^p^n - b^p^n is (x-b)
Yes
You wanna?
sure
Check DM
It doesn't.
Only thing you need is that a degree n polynomial has at most n roots.
The way characteristic helps is that the characteristic 0 case and characteristic p case are very different, so you probably want to tackle them differently
Man this is weird but ok
because thats purely inseparable
The characteristic 0 case is very easy. Start by for example confirming for yourself that Q,+ is not isomorphic to Q^*
Yes it is not
And why is it not?
Also R,+ and R^* is isomorphic
I mean yes they are not
And why, what's the key difference?
Because 2x = -1 has a solution in Q,+ but x^2 = -1 has no solution
I mean I can prove, wait
So that doesn't quite make sense, -1 is not like a group theory thing here
But maybe you can try to convince yourself that C,+ is not isomorphic to C^*
Let f : Q -> Q^* is an isomorphism then there is f(x) = -1, now we can write f(x/2 + x/2) = -1 and f(x/2 + x/2) = f(x/2)^2.
That means f(x/2)^2 = -1, which is not possible in Q^*
Is it correct?
Similarly for R and R^*
Okay yes, this is correct
Yes that's what I meant
Here we can define the mapping x -> a^x, a>0
But key difference
A very related idea is that if ||f(x) = -1, then f(2x) = 1||
So f(2x) = 1, then?
Yes yes
You mean if F has odd characteristics then there is no field such that F, + is isomorphic to its multiplicative field structure
I am going to prove it
Yeah, like that same argument works to prove that
Yes -1 and 1 are different in odd characteristics
Yes same exactly
Now we have to consider the case when characteristic p = 2.
hello, need to prove that I2 is maximal
You mean 2A + xZ[x] is maximal in Z[x] ?
Try to find the quotient ring by this ideal
i need to prove that the quotient ring is a field? how do i do that, is P is an element of A\I2, i need to prove that P has a multiplicative inverse?
Yes
you know if R is an integral domain and if M is maximal ideal then R/M is a field?
That is iff condition
You don't need to be find here
Can you map A to F, such that its kernel is I2?
And first guess what will be your F here?
Can you guess the structure of A/I2 ?
But isn't work in all fields which have characteristics is not 2 ?
Yeah 0 or odd covers every characteristic expect 2
Its always char 2
So now we only need to consider 2
Its those boolean algebras i tell you
Oh
No I mean first guess the structure of A/I2
Yeah, you can think if this as first quotienting by <x> and then quotienting by <m>
Yeah
you mean its elements? Like all of the possible remainders are the integers
Yeah! Do you know what ring Z[x] / <x> is isomorphic to?
Char 2 implies that the ring is Boolean? I don't think so
Oh Boolean algebras
I was being overly stereotypical
What is that?
Like a true racist
I don't get it
Yes
Mhm, so then you quotient out by <m> and you get?
Z/2?
Z/2Z is a field because 2 is prime
Yis
ok thank you
Yw!
So if there is isomorphism between F and F^, char F = 2, then for every x in F^, x^2 = 1
ie (x-1)^2 = 0
Whats F^?
Oh
Lmao
That is, x = 1 because F is an integral domain, so it is not possible
Right?
Thanks, jagr, Raghuram, .enpeace_music
Dunno what i did but yw
Lmao^^
I just got that aura ig
Your presence alone is thankworthy
Damn
thanks enpeace 🙏
What about me? Do I deserve a thanks? 🥰
Of course :3
Thank you for posting questions and just being you
Wow this got randomly wholesome

hello, question 2
^ resolved in a different channel
as a remark, you'll see this descending chain condition referred to as the domain being "Artinian"
similar to how for the ascending chain condition, which you've surely seen, is also referred to as "Noetherian"
let f(x)=x^3+17x+36. Mod the coefficients by 5 and let g(x)=x^3+2x+1. Since g(x) is of degree 3 with no zeros in the field Z_5, it's irreducible, and thus f(x) is irreducible over Q
is this right?
oh yeah i also need to mention the degrees of f(x) and g(x) are the same
IG you should invoke Gauss's Lemma at the end to pass from irreducibility over ℤ to over ℚ. Otherwise, this looks correct.
May I ask which textbook are you using?
a_n and b are coprime by construction
Why coptime
If irreducibles are the same as primes in a domain, is it a UFD?
It's a ring
x_i + y_i = 1, xi in ai, yi in a_n, is the same as saying ai and an are coprime, which is the same as saying that xi = 1- yi, which is the same as saying xi = 1 mod (a_n). So, we're saying the product of the x_i (which is in b) is such that \prod xi = 1 mod (a_n), so there exists an element y' in a_n such that prod xi + y' = 1, hence these ideals are coprime
I think not, because you still need (finite) factorisations into irreducibles to exist (although your hypothesis does guarantee uniqueness). A counterexample is given by the ring of holomorphic functions on a connected open subset U of ℂ. Any irreducible is (up to invertible elements) z-z0 for some z0 ∈ U and is prime because it generates the kernel of evaluation at z0. But a holomorphic function with infinitely many zeroes cannot be a finite product of (z-z0)'s and an invertible.
Yes
Oh sorry yes lol
Given existence of factorisations this is true
Thanks Raghuram
Note this is true under relatively mild hypotheses like the ring having no infinitely ascending chains of principal ideals
TBF that's basically assuming what you want to prove.
Lol I mean existence of some factorisation feels a lot weaker
Like for example this applies to all rings of integers
Well, sure, they're Noetherian.
As long as you stay in the Noetherian plains, you can take these things for granted.
IDK why I said "plains", I just wanted to sound flowery.
Funny, I'd assume this to be true but I suppose thats true iff any join of a chain of principal ideals is again principal
Yeah there are fun things like uh
if you take the direct limit of Z[t] -> Z[t^1/2] -> Z[t^1/4] -> ...
And consider the ideals like (t^1/2^n)
Lol
Very french of you.
shoutout the champ
Grothendiecken, even
This is why we consider mainly Noetherian rings...
Down with noetherian hypotheses
Do you know how much niceness conditions it takes to get the theorem
R is noetherian iff R/I and I are
?
Though rn stuff actually is noetherian which is a nice
None lol
Though actually
I meant for general algebraic structures
What do you mean by I being Noetherian
Oh lol
Idk what Noetherian means for other structures tbh
The same
Ascending chain condition is lattice-theoretic so naturally translates into the language of congruences
I guess just idk this notion of algebraic structure well lmao
Nah thats okay
Just think of ideals/normal subgroups except take away all the niceness
And then you get congruence relations 
Wow potato you don’t know something? NGMI, tbh
#notmypotato
thanks
Anyhow, one sufficient condition is, a class of algebras containing its free algebras must satisfy:
- have a nullary operation 0
- congruences are fully determined by the 0 blocks
- congruences are 0-permutable, that is 0/R•S = 0/S•R where • denoted relational product
- congruences must 3-permute. That is, R • S • R = S • R • S
i need to take a complex analysis course again
lol plains
Im on a plain 🔥 🗣️
yuhhh kurt
i can't complain
Glad to see we are all somewhat cultured here
not me i’ve no idea what y’all are talking about 💅🏼
hello, I need help understanding the following expression.
Polynomials can have as many roots as their degree.
On the left, it's a degree |G| polynomial, and every element of G is a root, so that must be every root of that polynomial
On the right, it's the same except already factored
Is G a ring?
Group probably
Because g^|G| = 1 for any g in a finite group G
Im assuming this is in some group ring
To do with representations perhaps?
Yes, G it is a finite group.
My confusion comes from:
I could see the left side has roots of unity, in the form of e^2πi/n , but the right side "g" it is supposed to be the elements of the finite multiplicative group. I do not see how they are the same, left seems to be in the complex numbers and the right not. What I am missing?
Like a finite subgroup of the multiplicative group of a field? Are you trying to prove that G is cyclic or something?
Like what is the context. Is G a subgroup of the multiplicative group of complex numbers?
And if not why are thinking of the polynomial as over the complex numbers?
Hello, can anyone explain why two polynomials Q1 and Q2 in a quotient field F[X]/(P) where P is irreducible have the same roots if they are congruent to each others modulo P? this seems true and very obvious but i struggle to demonstrate it
What do you mean exactly. Are they polynomials with coefficients in F[X]/P or polynomials in F[X], and are you considering roots in F or F[X]/P ?
polynomials with coefficients in F[X] and roots in the field F[X]/(P), for context, i arrived to the final question of a lengthy homework to prove that Q(X)=X5-X+1 has no roots in K=F5/(P) and it seems like a good idea to simplify X5 using P(X)=X2+X+1
Well if two polynomials are equal modulo P, then evaluating them at something will always give the same answer modulo P
Ifyou evaluate
f(x) + Pg(x)
at a you get
f(a) + Pg(a) = f(a) mod P
Sorry I have not replied. I am driving. Give me a few minutes to reply to you fully.
Hmm, i have not considered that, for some reason i reluctantly switch between treating the elements of K\F as constant values or as classes because of the X-inception, this is my first time tackling with such ideas, im still processing that P(X)=X2+X+1 has no roots in F5 but has two roots in K\F that are class of X and class of -X-1, its a bit alien lol
we could be in Z[G][x]
that's the only option I see
We could be, but then the statement would be false
Well the issue is that ZG is not an integral domain
finding when the group algebra is an integral domain can't be that hard right :trollface:
it's just G is torsion free right
It definitely isn't when G has torsion, but idk if being torsion free is enough...
Might be, idk
you FELL for the troll https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kaplansky's_conjectures
The mathematician Irving Kaplansky is notable for proposing numerous conjectures in several branches of mathematics, including a list of ten conjectures on Hopf algebras. They are usually known as Kaplansky's conjectures.
Ah well, then I think "might be, idk" is the correct answer
very interesting problem
of course such a simple fucking question is unsolved
Are you on discord while driving? 💀
Brah
you aren't?
Why do we distinguish between a splitting field and a normal field?
Or rather, are there any relatively simple examples of an overfield that is one but not the other?
Also the "normal closure". These all feel like the same thing to me
I'm gonna fuck around and find out
yea basically i live in a small city rn and im so bored with it
im kinda hyped atm cause classes are almost done and i can be in toronto for a bit, a lot more going on there
wag wan shawty
I'm marved.....
some trono slang im assuming
no way marved is toronto slang too
it means hungry
bruh
bumping my question past the toronto slang discourse
A normal field is the splitting field of a set of polynomials
is that the definition

This is Wew Lads Tbh^
that is HIS emote
like wtf is that guy
Ive always found it so funny
A field extension F:G is normal iff no element in F is transcendent over G?
I guess normality is trying to mimic the conditions we get when working over finite fields - as soon as an extension of a finite field contains a root of a poly f, then it contains all the roots, whereas this isn't true in other cases. x^3-2 in Q[x] and Q(cbrt(2)) i guess
Oh that
not necesssarily I don't think, if E/F has one root of f(x) in F[x] then it has all of them
Yeah yeah
Please would someone check my proof that $\Phi$ is injective?
Suppose $\Phi(A_1 \omega(z_1))=\Phi(A_2 \omega(z_2))$.
It follows that $\Phi(A_1 \omega(z_1)) \Phi(A_2 \omega(z_2))^{-1} = (1, I)$, which is equivalent to $\Phi(A_1 \omega(z_1)) \Phi((A_2 \omega(z_2))^{-1}) = (1,I)$.
$(A_2 \omega(z_2))^{-1} = \omega(z_2)^{-1} A_2 ^{-1}$.
Using the above fact and the fact that $\Phi$ is a homomorphism, we get $$ \Phi(A_1 \omega(z_1) \omega(z_2)^{-1} A_2 ^{-1})=(1,I)$$
Because $\omega(z)$ is diagonal, it is in the centre, i.e. it commutes with everything.
Thus $$\Phi(A_1 A_2 ^{-1} \omega(z_1) \omega(z_2)^{-1})=(1,I)$$
Since $\omega$ is a homomorphism, we can re-write this as $$\Phi(A_1 A_2 ^{-1} \omega(z_1 z_2 ^{-1}))=(1,I)$$
This is equivalent to $(z_1 z_2^{-1}, A_1 A_2 ^{-1})=(1,I)$, and so $z_1 z_2^{-1} = 1$ and $A_1 A_2^{-1}=I$.
Therefore $z_1=z_2$ and $A_1=A_2$, i.e. $\Phi$ is injective.
Douglas
Being a normal extension is equivalent to being the splitting field of some family of polynomials.
But the point is kinda different. Like the point of the splitting field is usually that some specific polynomials split
It's levy aka GothamChess
He's a chess commentator. ...And I guess also a meme...
I recall normal FEs being equivalent to normality of subgroups of the galois group, but I don't know if that can be formulated without a tower of FEs D:E:F
I guess another way to draw a clearer distinction is to look at the galois correspondence
hm
What is the "point" of a normal extension?
I suspect that it's "the theory works nicely"
Corresponds to normal subgroups in the Galois correspondence.
Fixed by any automorphism of any field it embeds into
hmmm
How to do cube roots in TeX
$\sqrt[3]{x}$
jagr2808
Consider $\bQ \subset \bQ(\sqrt[3]{2}) \subset \bQ(\sqrt[3]{2}, \sqrt[3]{2} \cdot \zeta_3, \sqrt[3]{2} \cdot \zeta_3^2)$. The first extension isn't normal, so $\mathrm{Gal}{\bQ}(\bQ(\sqrt[3]{2})) \ (\cong S_2)$ isn't a normal subgroup of $\mathrm{Gal}{\bQ}(\bQ(\sqrt[3]{2}, \sqrt[3]{2} \cdot \zeta_3, \sqrt[3]{2} \cdot \zeta_3^2)) \ (\cong S_3)$. And $\sqrt[3]{2} \mapsto \sqrt[3]{2} \cdot \zeta_3$ is an automorphism of the latter field that fixes $\bQ$ but not the middle field.
Just show that the kernel is 0
PKThoron
Thanks for the example, very neat. I will steal it
Thanks I stole it myself
Gal(R/Q) is trivial, while Gal(Q-bar/Q) is uncountable, right?
And I mean, proving surjectivity is just proving the existence of a set theoretic section idk
Does R even have nontrivial automorphismsv
?*
in this case it is legitimately easier
it's a diagonal matrix acting by conjugation
No, the only automorphism of R is the identity AFAIK
oh yeah? watch THIS
Mm alright
Im watching
[nervous gulp]
I’m watching too
Let R be the field with four elements. Then it has an automorphism of order 2.
What do you mean "R the field of four elements" 
Sorry
I had to
?
What's Gal(C/Q) btw? I know Gal(C/R) and Gal(R/Q), but I'm guessing there's no way to combine those to figure out Gal(C/Q)?
it's AT LEAST C_2
No way
way
You don't usually say "Galois group" for transcendental extensions.
and at most?
[nervous gulp]
For various reasons, one of which is that AFAIK the correspondence doesn't work anymore.
No Galois correspondence? 
so what we really mean is Aut_Q(C)
Which is isomorphic to Aut(C)
She fix my Q till I Aut
Which is enormous
Note that any automorphism of ℂ fixes ℚ, so this is just Aut(ℂ). This is "well-known" to be very uncountable (more precisely, its cardinality is equal to |ℂ|^|ℂ|); you can probably find a proof on mathse.
ah, right 
I can imagine its such a group thats so big its not even fun anymore
so, infinite?
Does it even admit some nice topological structure?
You and i agree
However, infinite groups with some topology on them are fine
profinite at a stretch
Math is just us coping with the fact we're not finitists
pretty sure it is c2
When algebraic groups
Those are cool
field and galois theory is still hard. does it get any cooler in the infinite case
If you restrict to automorphisms which are continuous, yes.
It gets even harder
An element of Aut(Q-bar) is not necessarily an element of Aut(C), right? Is the converse true? You can restrict an automorphism of C to Q-bar, and since Q-bar is normal is the image of the restriction Q-bar?
The normality implies that Aut(C) preserves Qbar, yes, so you get a group homomorphism Aut(C) → Aut(Qbar). Note that this group homomorphism is not injective, so you should be careful thinking of an element of Aut(C) as "being" an element of Aut(Qbar).
I see, thanks 
i was just wondering if the quaternions are a group algebra ℝQ_8, but i guess not, because that would be like 8 dimensional
right?
Indeed
dang
But if you quotient identifying -1 in Q with -1 in R, you get H (iirc)
In general if k is a subfield of C then kG is pretty much never a division ring
I have been Not Having Fun™️ on the server recently so have been avoiding it
Oh dang really? Why?
Who's to say
😭
I thinkkkkkk it mightttttt be when.... G is Abelian and k contains only those roots of unity coprime to |G|?
Something like this
You missed the wholesome moment from yesterday
What happened?
We had a moment of gratitude
pat pat make sure to take the breaks you need
We were thanking each other
AA
Okay, noted
This is just wrong isn't it
RC_3?
Yeah
Nah
But the example of RQ_8 is interesting because it contains the quaternions as a block
I have trouble imagining RG as a divison ring at all lmao
It's essentially never one, right
It will have as many blocks as it has irreps over k (in the case of char 0 at least)
So
there u go
Yeah ok actually I just explained it to myself
the only case is G=1
Rubber duckie method
Let $f \in \mathbb{Z}$ be a monic polynomial such that $f(0)$ is prime. Then $f$ has at most 3 different roots in $\mathbb{Q}$.
Because $f$ is prime at 0, its tail term must be prime. Since we can factor each root of $f$ out, the roots must divide the tail term, and the only roots that can do that are 1,-1 and -p.
Is this proof correct?
Kroros
For no finite non-trivial group, I think - (g-1)(g^{ord(g)-1} + ... + 1) = 0 and all that.
Oh that's a nice one
I was thinking in terms of rep theory
But that works more straightforwardly
Huh, that's interesting. So there are always at least two irreps in the non-modular case.
I guess that is like, the central character of the trivial rep?
Yeah
Yeah this is actually not too hard to understand if you know a little bit about the Schur index lol
Like, all that happens in the case when k is not algebraically closed is that some reps get 'combined' in a certain way, according to Galois conjugacy
Aaaaah when will I read about it
Oh dw it's not big deal
You gave me Isaacs as a book reco right?
Yup! It's the go-to
But the trivial character will always be in its own Galois orbit... distinct from everything
And it's not hard at all to argue that a group always has at least two irreps unless it's trivial lol
There's got to be more than that, right? Because real and quaternionic.
Basically just a cardinality argument
Yes that's right! The Schur index measures that difference
Or IG if you just want to know how they combine, the distinction doesn't matter.
$\bZ\bN = \bZ[x]$?
PKThoron
And $\bZ\bZ = \bZ[x, x^{-1}]$
PKThoron
I assume furthermore that $\bZ M$ has zero divisors iff $M$ has torsion
PKThoron
@delicate orchid got another one
:omegalul:
<_<
we view i in H as the same as i in C so that C is a subset of H?
because there's a problem that says this
well
nevermind
i think the statement must be right
i finished the part of hungerford concerned with field extensions
and i also skimmed and read through the ruler and compass construction part
how important are ruler and compass constructions for like
galois theory and later field thoery
im guessing not a lot but just making sure
Compass and ruler construction have basically no bearing on Galois theory, but it is a very famous application of Galois theory.
Many of the ancient Euclidean problems involving compass and ruler construction could only be solved after the advent of Galois theory.
wait what kind of compass and ruler construction
hungerford covered the impossibility of trisecting 60 degrees and duplicating a unit cube without using galois theory at all
it was just field theory
Well trisecting the angle, doubling the cube and squaring the circle where all solved at the time of the advent of Galois theory, but it is true that you don't have to build the full theory first to solve it.
However Galois theory gives a very comprehensible description of what sort of constructions are possible (c.f. constructable numbers)
ok thank you so much !
if R/I is a quotient ring, a,b in R, then does ab+I = 0+I imply ab = 0, or just that ab is in I?
I'm being asked whether R with ideal I having no zero divisors implies R/I has none
the latter
take like C[x,y]/(xy) or smt
You should think of the ideal as defining what in R becomes the zero element in R/I
That is, a + I is the zero element iff a is in I.
C.f. the fact in a quotient group, we have gN = N iff g is in N.
okay thank you
I never intended for this....
Oppenheimer:
How tf is this not a theorem
Lol
Yeah I mean lots of friends in my office care about this
If I'm not mistaken lol
(Ggt gang)
Nerd underscore face
Say you got a finite dimensional algebra A and A has finite injective dimension as a left module.
Does it have finite injective dimension as a right module? Surely yes....?
Gorenstein symmetry conjecture solved 🎉
Okay okay, say you have a rigid module T of finite projective dimension, such that there is an exact sequence
0 -> A -> T^0 -> T^1 -> ...
Can the sequence be chosen to be finite?
(T^i in add T)
Say there exists an injective resolution
0 -> A -> I^0 -> I^1 -> ...
such that each I^i is projective-injective. Is A self-injective?
Anyone know some reference text or pdf about Chinese remainder theorem but in the context of rings and ideals? I have only seen it just for say over Z and dealing with x mod p1 ,.... x mod pn and getting some solution.
like a genearlization of the theorem
i guess i found something on the wiki but maybe there are some better resources
d&f must have one
Why the last sentence is true
CRT is a really nice theorem
Because we’re assuming the result is true for all collections of n-1 prime ideals. So we can take an x_i that’s not in all of the p_j except for one
What does the one mean
Can u understand this proof
Like you have n primes. If you disregard one of them you have n-1 primes, hence can apply the induction hypothesis
So you do that for each i and get these elements xi
.
Let $K_n$ and $L_n$ be the set of abelian groups and general groups, respectively, of order $\leq n$. What's the behavior of $\frac{|K_n|}{|L_n|}$ as $n \to \infty$?
PKThoron
Well note if n is prime then this is 1
Oh interesting
No wait
It's cumulative
So for n=11 you'd be counting the groups of order <11 as well
I’m p sure this becomes 0
Yeah but how fast?
Fast enough
Order less than or equal to
Ah then it'll go to zero very quickly by considering groups of order 2^k I believe
Mhm
You can show there are tons I think for nonabelian

It’s funny too
I think most (not making precise statement) finite groups
Have order 2^n
if a group G is generated by S={a1 ... an} and we define a function f:S->G, then i think there is not necessarily a homomorphism phi:G->G with phi(s)=f(s) for all s in S
yeah because there could be too many generators

Indeed that's why I mention these heh
That’s not the issue
the issue is that you don’t respect relations of G
Lmao
Such a phi exists iff f(ai) • f(aj) = f(ai • aj) i believe
Take something like Z^2/{(a,-a)}
hmm
This is generated by (1,0) and (0,1)’s residue classes
Because then it factors through the natural map induced by the free group generated by S
But any group homomorphism phi:G -> G needs to send (1,0) and (0,1) to things which cancel each other out
Because (1,0) - (0,1) = e inside this group
And this condition means the f:{(1,0),(0,1)} -> G which induce a homomorphism are limited
Now I wonder
This doesn’t make sense because f isn’t defined on ai•aj
f is only defined on {ai}
The condition you need is to respect all the relations, but for non-abelian this is actually still not enough
f* from the free group then
Because when you write a presentation <S|R> you define it as the free product on S modded out by the normal closure of R
i thought they meant f(ai)f(aj)=f(ai aj) for all ai, aj in S
so it would be defined on aj
This doesn’t make sense, f’s domains doesn’t include ai aj
huh?
f is defined on S = {a1,a2,…,}
yeah
Yeah, i meant that the induced map
f* : F_Grp (S) -> G
Needs to preserve the relations defining G from S
This doesn’t need to include ai aj
i thought i and j are just indeces
Take $N = \bN \setminus {2^n | n \in \bN}$ (so let's toss out the powers of 2). For each $n \in \bN$, what is the least $m_n \in N$ such that $|G_{2^n}| \leq |G_{m_n}|$, where $G_k$ is the set of groups exactly of order $k$?
What is ai aj?
Is that not the product of ai and aj?
PKThoron
Yes this is what I’ve been saying
So when do the non-powers of 2 finally catch up to the powers of 2 in terms of group multitude?
so i need to know about presentations if i want to show that a homomorphism phi exists for some given f
Yes
thanks 🙏
how can i show that an irreducible polynomial of degree n exists over F_p^n[x]?
Probably to tame elements of the form rgr'g'
(rg)(r'g') should be rr' gg' by definition right?
yeah the elements of G should be in the centre of the group ring
honest answer is, it doesn't need to be commutative but it's difficult enough to deal with as is
The elements of R
no
centre 🔥 not center 🤮
the elements of G. If the elements of R were in the centre then your ring would just be commutative
If the elements of G lie in the center of the group ring then G must be commutative no?
good point
you know what I mean though
elements of G commute with the elements of R
as Axe said, by defnition of multiplication
or think of them as functions G -> R if you want
Let's do group rings of a noncom ring over an abelian group
What if we remove the associativity condition though
Quasigroup rings
Sure, you wouldnt get a ring anymore
But you'd get a ringlike structure
Good enough 👍
you can linearlise pretty much anything you want
:0 can I linearise my dad back into my life?
there should be a childrens math tv show with superheros that go like "Lets Linearise It!"
i couldnt think of any construction but i just need to prove existence
So Wikipedia doesn't specify that the ring needs to be com
And you can indeed smush together a noncom ring and group
but i still want RG to be a ring
Thats called a semigroup 🙏

algebraic! 
Linear, even!
SUppose I have two systems of groups G_i, H_i, that I wish to take projective limits of. Is there a characterization in terms of the systems for when projlim G_i and projlim H_i are isomorphic?
I don't know the answer for sure, but I'm pretty sure you could first consider the case where one of the inverse systems is a subsystem of the other. (For example Z/p^kZ where k ranges over all the naturals vs. only some of them.)
Let's call such things "good embeddings" of inverse systems if the induced map of inverse limits is an isomorphism.
And only then, for the general case, ask whether you can find "good" embeddings of G_i and H_j (notice the different índices now) into a common larger inverse system.
Hmm that's a good idea
I'd bet that's an exact characterization in the profinite case
Lemma 2.6 of https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/pro-object#AsFormalCofilteredLimits should also be relevant.
My ignorance of category theory in any real depth is going to be the end of me.
Thanks! In my case the index posets are not necessarily the same so I can't use functoriality
We'd need a denseness type assuption for the morphisms to gurintee one isn't a quotient of the other
ie Hom_pro(G, H) = \varprojlim_j Hom_pro(G, H_j) and every homomorphism from G to H_j (regarded as a "discrete" pro-group) factors through some G_i, so Hom_pro(G, H_j) = \varinjlim_i Hom(G_i, H_j).
Category theory is the ultimate
They don't need to be the same there either.
IG this should be close to a correct concrete condition: there exist monotone functions j: I → J and i: J → I (where G_i for i ∈ I and H_j for j ∈ J) and homomorphisms f_j: G_i(j) → H_j ∀ j ∈ J, g_i: H_j(i) → G_i ∀ i ∈ I, such that ∀ j ∈ J, f_j ∘ g_i(j): H_j(i(j)) → H_j is the map of the inverse system and similarly for g_i ∘ f_j(i) for all i ∈ I.
Yooo algebros
Who up who up
Enpeace where u at
You guys are familiar faces I hope one day i dont get on here and everyone is gone
A group G acts on a set X. A set S containing exactly one element from each orbit is a
1️⃣ System of representatives
2️⃣ Complete system of representatives
3️⃣ Set of representatives
4️⃣ Complete set of representatives
5️⃣ Transversal
6️⃣ Cross-section
7️⃣ other
Bruh these quizzes are funny
it's not a quiz, it's a poll, it's me trying to figure out what the convention is
cuz all (most?) of these are correct answers
A right inverse of the quotient map X -> X/G.
Because the data of S is actually a map X/G -> X.
What do you call the group of isometries of a circle?
1️⃣ O(2)
2️⃣ ΓU(1)
3️⃣ something else
I genuinely read 2 as closure system
My brain is rotting
I'm confused on why is d. considered false
Yeah lmao
I think Cayley's theorem is often stated in a highly misleading way.
One shouldn't say that G is a subgroup of Aut(G), but rather of Aut(U(G)), where U : Grp -> Set is the forgetful functor.
I assume that is what is meant by S_G though right?
Otherwise that is bad notation
But it seems perhaps it just is bad notation lol
Indeed
People say Aut(G)?
Just use Sym(G)
Aut to me is way more common and I've only seen Sym for like sets tbh lol
Ive never seen anyone use Aut for a permuation group
Unfortunately, when I took my first algebra course, my professor (not an algebraist) said Aut(G), and I spent like three days trying to find the embedding of V_4 into Aut(V_4).
"discriminant is a square in K"
ok, that means the square root of the discriminant is in K?
ty
Who even states it as G being a subgroup of Aut(G) lol
Well, we are taking G here to be a set
Burris and Sankappanavar's notation is just always superior tbh
Bold for the algebra, regular for the underlying set
G < Sym(G)
Lmao
I mean, if your group is centerless then its true ;3
Hell, you also have an embedding
Aut G -> Aut Aut G
whats wrong with the first way?
Because Aut(G) usually denotes the group of group automorphisms of G
And it is not true in general that G is isomorphic to a subgroup of this group
left multiplication is a group automorphism tho right? so you get a homomorphism G -> Aut(G) by left multiplication
conugation is a group automorphism
left multiplication is not a group automorphism
a gah ≠ agh hmm
singular vs uncountable expression of frustration
me when I have to explain the nuances of expressions of frustration
That joke is unfair to mathematicians. You know, mathematicians would axiomatically define a class of objects that are black on one side, then label them with Greek or Latin (or, more recently, German or French) adjectives depending on whether the black-on-one-side object in question bleats, has wool, etc., and study how these properties relate to one another.
the book gives an answer for (d)?
my edition only gives answers for a,c,e,g,i
lol
Two questions: the elements of Q(ζ) can be written as a + bζ + cζ^2 + dζ^3 where a, b, c, d in Q, right? I feel like ζ^4 should also be involved, but Q(ζ) has only degree 4 over Q
Secondly, for gamma_2 for example, the automorphism is uniquely determined by sending ζ to ζ^2, but it's not literally the map x |-> x^2, correct? I think it would send a + bζ + cζ^2 + dζ^3 to a + bζ^2 + cζ^4 + dζ^6 = a + dζ + bζ^2 + cζ^4, but not 100% sure
z^4 = -(1 + z + z^2 + z^3)
And yes, not every x is mapped to x^2, that would not be a homomorphism
Ah, I was confused by how to get rid of the ζ^4, but I didn't use noggin long enough
thanks 
in Z adjoint isqrt(3), are the units 1 and -1? I got this from the norm a^2 + 3b^2 = 1 if and only if a+bisqrt(3) is a unit, and the only time this occurs is if a is 1 or -1
Yep, that seems correct 👍
ty
Hey folks, just a quick reminder that the Abstract Algebra Lecture series is meeting regularly again ^_^
We will meet to discuss bilinear forms in about 15 minutes over in the #1055201711679082516. More information can be found in our thread: #1317307081535000606
Is it more common to see * or $\circ$ for an arbitrary operation? I prefer $\circ$ since my brain thinks multiplication when it sees *
babonk
Juxtaposition or $\cdot$ is pretty common.
Thinking multiplication is probably a good mental image for an arbitrary operation anyway
jagr2808
$a \times b \otimes c \oplus d \odot e \bullet f$
PKThoron
Oh or good old $*$, probably a top choice
PKThoron
$a\star b$
jagr2808
$a\boxtimes b$
jagr2808
Exterior tensor product
just write groups additively (yes even the nonabelian ones) 🗿
real
Is the definition of irreducibility for monomial ideals equivalent to the general definition of irreducibility? By this, I mean if I is a monomial ideal, then the definition of irreducibility for monomial ideals requires that I can not be written as the intersection of two strictly larger monomial ideals while the general definition of irreducibility requires that I can not be written as the intersection of two strictly larger ideals. Are these two notions equivalent?
In Z[sqrt(-5)]
(3) = (3, 1+sqrt(-5))\cap(3, 1-sqrt(-5))
(true or false):
any subfield of R can be ordered in only one way
I think it's false because i think {a+b sqrt(2) | a,b in Q} is a field with the automorphism a + b sqrt(2) -> a - b sqrt(2) which induces a different ordering
I am not sure if I follow, this shows $(3)$ is not irreducible in $Z[\sqrt{-5}]$ but $Z[\sqrt{-5}]$ is not a polynomial ring. Let say we are working over the ring $S = \mathbb{K}[x_1, \dots, x_n]$ where $\mathbb{K}$ is a field.
sheaf
The polynomial ring is a ufd, so there it should be true
...I think at least
Yes. If an element is irreducible it is prime, so then if it contains an intersection it contains one of the ideals
do you mind writing what the analogue for the example is in a polynomial ring?
What do you mean?
The analogue of what?
I don't understand what this example is showing
Ah wait, I was thinking principal ideal, not monomial ideal
Got some wires crossed there
Anyway, it should be there yeah
https://mathoverflow.net/q/162739/157483
What's an irreducible ideal?
One that is not the intersection of bigger ideals
Yep at the back of the book
All odd numbered exercises that don't ask for definitions or proofs have answers
I am not too familiar with graded rings, the second answer says the the result for N^n-grading (which corresponds to monomial ideals) is well known but the reference uses some module theory I don't know. Is there a more elementary proof for this case.
I mean, the first answer is an elementary proof
Oops that's only N-graded
The proof shows (0) is graded-irreducible implies it is irreducible. Perhaps I am missing something but I don't see how this immediately generalizes to arbitrary graded ideals.
If you have some ideal you can always take the quotient to reduce to the case of the (0) ideal
Is there a field whose additive group and multiplicative group are isomorphic
Can't have many roots of 1, right?
Has to be nonzero char at least
Because a 0 char field, has an additive group without torsion (else you'd either have divisors)
I mean, if it's of characteristic p, then its multiplicative group can't have elements of order p, right?
But additively every nonzero element has order p.
Then given that -1 * -1 = 1, there would be a + a = 0
=> 2 • a = 0
=> 2 = 0 as a cannot be 0
So the field must have char 2
But if F has characteristic 2, then no element of F has order 2 multiplicatively.
Because the only square root of 1 is 1, in characteristic 2.
The best thing we'll get is that there's a group homomorphism from F to F^*, namely exp, when F is like R or C, me thinks.
Mhm
Local isomorphisms, even, when you consider them with their usual Lie group structure.
Alas, impossible in characteristic p.

Ah of course, thanks
James
For showing I is an ideal in T, I take a/b, c/d in I and get:
$a = 5a', b=5b'$ so $\frac{5a'}{b} - \frac{5c'}{d} = \frac{5(a'd - c'b)}{bd}$
Bottlecap Desu~(Bottlecap Gang)
But how do I show that the gcd of the numerator and denominator is 1 here?
you could argue that if you kept dividing out gcd's the process will eventually stop
but imo it's "kind of obvious"
in the same way that "Q formally consists of simplified fractions" is sometimes omitted in saying that it just consists of fractions
I guess I don't really see how it's obvious but I realize it might be hard to explain
This must be a typo right? How is Z_2[x]/<x^2+1> a field if (x+1)(x+1) = x^2+2x+1 = x^2+1 = 0 mod x^2+1 so it cant be a field
You don't have to show that 5(a'd - c'b) and bd are coprime - I don't think that's true in general. You only need to reduce it to a fraction where the numerator and denominator are coprime, you can do that by dividing by the GCD
Yeah its a typo
Guess I'll have to figure out what the prof meant. I wonder if it was x^2+x+1
Maybe the question setter meant Z2 or Z2[x]/<x² + x + 1>
likely that

oh ofc this makes more sense
But tbh, I don't know why they specify that the numerator and denominator must be coprime, it doesn't really matter since we can always reduce fractions anyways
thank you both I was kind of missing the point of the condition as just reducing the fractions
Hmm, I guess requiring gcd of 1 is to make the set condition unambiguous, without it you would have 1/2 in T but 5/10 not in T
Gotta go to bed now tho, it's 4 AM 💀
Does this question actually make sense? I think there is a typo in here but Im kinda uncertain:
Show that the set of all g ∈ G such that i_g : G → G is the identity inner automorphism i_e is a normal subgroup of a group G.
if i_g means conjugation under g then it makes sense. the set of all g such that gxg^-1 = x for all x in G. that subgroup is the center of G
Ah i see! Thanks for the clarification
Heya, how can i show that $x \in A$ is invertible iff $x+J(A)$ is invertible in $A/J(A)$, with $J(A)$ the jacobson radical?
mak601
Say x + J is invertible. That means there exists a y with 1 - yx in J.
One characterization of J gives that 1 - (1-yx) = yx is invertible say with inverse z. So zyx = 1
If I define a map of Fp(a) (a algebraic) to itself by sending a to some other root of a polynomial over F that a satisfies, is that map actually an automorphism?
I am asking because I didn't send a to another root of the minimal polynomial, just to some other polynomial so it might be a different irreducible factor
like u need to send a to other roots of the irreducible factors of polynomials that a satisfy right
Let a not in Fp, and consider its min polynomial f. Now 1 is a root of f(x)(x-1) so this can’t be true
I ask because of (b)
We have a, and we know a+1 also satisfies that polynomial. From that alone, can we really conclude that it extends to an automorphism?
I was thinking, what if a+1 is not a root of the same irreducible factor
Okay so
I think this is more nuanced
K = Fp[x]/(x^p - x - a) under the isomorphism sending x to alpha
You can define a map Fp[x] -> Fp[x]/(x^p - x - a) sending x to x+1, and this kills x^p - x - a
So it extends to a map on the quotient
So you get the map K -> K sending alpha to alpha + 1
It’s an automorphism because either you can see that the map alpha -> alpha - 1 is also defined the same way
Or just see that doing this map p-times in a row results in id
Hmm this is weird
Isnt this true assuming x^p-x-a is irreducible
But we can't yet assume that right
Ok
Call this polynomial we mod out by f
Then f(1), f(2),… can’t be zero
Until f(p)
Cuz otherwise a = -n^p + n which is in F
Err
Okay this is more complicated than it needs to be
We just assumed f has no roots in F
So fixing alpha, alpha + 1, alpha + 2,… enumerates the roots
So let alpha’s irreducible factor in f be called g
Clearly g isn’t linear
Else f has a root in F
Yeah
So g has at least two roots, which need to be of the form alpha, alpha+k
Cuz I wrote down every root of f
Oh because f has distinct p roots a+i
So alpha -> alpha+k is an automorphism of K
But because p is prime, we can obtain via composition every map alpha -> alpha + n for n in {0,1,…,p-1}
Remembering that we’re in char p
And also obviously each of these automorphisms are different cuz if not you get alpha + n = alpha + m, so m = n which is a contradiction
So I just cooked up p distinct automorphisms of K
Which would for example, force deg g = p
I think I get the gist of it but I will need a moment to think it through
The crux of it is this
You wanted to show alpha -> alpha + 1 is an automropjism
To then generate every automorphism alpha -> alpha + k
(This is saying 1 is a generator of Z/pZ*)
right
But actually because p is prime, any alpha -> alpha + n will generate all those automorphisms
Because everything generates (Z/pZ)*
yeah
Why do we need this last part rn
Cuz it demonstrates p different automorpjsims of K
Oh cause this
Forcing the degree of the min poly of alpha to be at least p
yeah thats for the later part of the Q right
Yeah
But then like, who cares, cuz any of these automorphisms handles b)
I worded it that way cuz I wanted to drive home the fact that all of these automorphsims are functionally the same
ok this is an important point then right
Yeah, I don’t see easily how to immediately guarantee alpha + 1 is another root
But I could get it for some alpha + k which was enough
Yeah, I wonder if my prof is expecting this kind of answer or not. I mean maybe
at first glance it seemed like it was just a simple thing
Thanks though that was informative
So: Given F(a) with a algebraic over F, a map sending a to another root of the minimal polynomial of a over F necessarily induces an automorphism of F(a)
just want to cement it
(B) immediately mentions the Galois group of K. A priori, we dont know that K is Galois extension of F do we?
But, we know there at least p distinct automorphisms of K, and the degree of K over F is at most p, so from that we know the extension is Galois and can also conclude degree of K over F is p
what is the purpose of verifying (a) and (b) in this proof?
this is from dummit and foote
the theorem^
v is the R-module homomorphism which produces the maximal element (v(N)) of all images of N under homomorphisms
a_1 is the generator of v(N) in R. R is a PID.
Well can we see the rest of the proof?
What was said before?
i think i get the purpose now
its not that we have to check a and b any time we want to put an element v in a basis for some module M but rather that these verifications are needed only to justify the induction step
which comes after this part of the proof
so i just had to read a bit more
How do I show my field extension is the minimal field extension so that it forms a splitting field
Like I showed I wanted some polynomial to split over my field
So I verified it has all the roots of the polynima of degree 3 and contains the field coefficients but I'm not sure how to show it is necessary minimal. I mean it is a degree 3 extension so I must be?
if F is a field and F^x denotes the multiplicative group, what could this notation mean
$F^{\times 2}$
CoolShot
i really have no idea
The multiplicative group disjoint union'd with itself
Haha
Get it, "times two"
Ill see myself out
i think i remember seeing this as the multiplicative subgroup of squares
The splitting field is the field extension generated by all the roots of the polynomial
So if your extension was generated by the roots of your polynomial then its the splitting field
Well I was given a field which was some quotient field which I know to be isomorphic to F(a) where a is a root of the polynomial. It happens to also contain all 3 roots. So I can't say like like I am unsure if I can or can't say it was by definition generated so as to be minimal
F(a) is by definition the smallest field containing F and a
Because there was some theorem about quotienting by an irreducible polynomial then that quotient field is isomorphic to the field extension of your original field with any root of that polynomial
The splitting field must necessarily contain F(a)
Yes
Yeah
Thats not really relevant here though
Okay.. it was just weird it happened to contain all the doors even though it was generated by 1
Well I guess maybe because of closer
Yeah that was why
Hm?
Closure***
Because my field was z_2 coefficients and I had x as a root, so I also got x^2 and x2+x (which happened to be the other roots). I guess it was because it's a degree 3 polynomial which was irreducible so it cant have an extension smaller than 3? I'll a little fuzzy on this idea/topic
Yeah adjoining a root of that degree 3 irreducible polynomial will generate a degree 3 extension over the base field
That extension doesn’t always contain the other roots of the polynomial but it could
The degree of the splitting field of a polynomial of degree n over the base field is at most n!
Only n! 
Yeah its worth thinking about why its that
Suppose $f$ is a polynomial in one variable over a field $K$. Is the minimal polynomial of $x$ over $K(f)$ the polyomial $m(y) = f(y)-f$ ? If so how do you see this? If not how do you compute the degree $[K(x):K(f)]$ ?
stable compass needle
K(f)?
Yea i mean the subfield of K(x) generated by f lol
i should have been more clear lole
I think the question as stated is unclear
i see should have phrased this question in a more repsonsible manner
lol
Let $K$ be a field and $f \in K[x]$. Then $f$ generates a subfield $K(f)$ of $K(x) = \operatorname{Frac} K[x]$. I want to determine the degree $[K(x):K(f)]$ and I would like to know the minimal polynomial of $x$ over $K(f)$. I think its supposed to be the polynomial $m=f(X)-f \in K(f)[X]$.
stable compass needle
Imagine a polynomial
an x^n + an-1 x^n-1 + ... + a0 = 0
with ai in K(f).
By clearing denominators you can assume ai in K[f], so this is an equation in K[x].
Let d be the degree of f, and assume n < d.
The degree of ai x^i is i modulo d (unless ai = 0), so all the terms have distinct degrees. Hence the degree of the equation is just the max of the degree of each term. But then the equation can't be 0, contradiction. So the degree of x is at least d.
Since m has degree d it must be the minimal polynomial of x
That is great I will go over it tomorrow
Thank you !
Im glad its true
Does a faithful transitive group action of G on A induce an isomorphism between G and Aut(A)? The faithfulness ensures injectivity atleast, but I'm not sure transitivity implies that it's surjective
Cn acts faithfully and transitively on {1, ..., n} but is not Sn
I see, thanks
Is there an adjective that implies a group action is surjective?
boring
(/j)
often group actions are interesting because they preserve a certain structure of the objects
if your group action is surjective then it preserves no structure besides being a bijection
on {1,…,n}, that the action is n-transitive i guess is the term you’re looking for
or i might be misunderstanding something
I think that is what I'm looking for, thanks 👍 atleast on for set automorphisms on {1, ..., n} that works, but I for automorphisms in another category I think there might not be enough automorphisms for a group action to be n-transitive, even though it is surjective
i’m not sure if i understand what you’re asking for in asking for the action to be surjective
hmm, but take a group G where all automorphisms are inner, then isn't the conjugation action of G on G surjective? Might be misunderstanding you, not sure if this counts as preserving no structure
I mean I want the group action to be surjective as a map G -> Aut(A)
right
these might be stupid question btw, I just realized I didn't 100% understand group actions, so I had to brush up on them 
in the context of A just being a set, so Aut A = S_A is just the bijevtio bijections of A, the action of G on A being free is equivalent to the map G to Aut A being injective, so asking for surjectivity as well is the same as simple asking that G is Aut A
I should sleep
if A is in some more specific category than Set there’s probably more interesting things to say
Yep, if the group action is both free and surjective then that's pretty boring, but I could imagine a case where it's surjective but not injective, for example if there's a big group acting on a smaller object
Aut(A) in what category?
any I guess, I'm just talking about group actions in general
If it is in the category of sets then a surjective group action is rather boring, in my opinion
A group action is a homomorphism f : G -> Aut_C(X) where X is an object in a (locally small) category C
So a surjective group action is one where f is surjective
yep, we're on the same page 
Right
But in the category of groups, whether or not the group action by conjugation is surjective is interesting
Although I must say that we care more about it being injective than surjective
So i suppose free/faithful group actions are simply more interesting :3
I see
I haven't used group actions that much, so I can't think of an example where it being surjective is important
i guess a stupid example is Aut A x Z/2 -> Aut A given by simply forgetting the Z/2 part 
but I can imagine free/faithful ones are more interesting
lol, good example 
In mathematics, a group G is said to be complete if every automorphism of G is inner, and it is centerless; that is, it has a trivial outer automorphism group and trivial center.
Equivalently, a group is complete if the conjugation map, G → Aut(G) (sending an element g to conjugation by g), is an isomorphism: injectivity implies that only conj...

