#groups-rings-fields
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is this because of Sym($\Omega$)
redoftwored
its isomorphic to a subgroup of Sym(Z). consider the action of Z on itself
not isomoprhic?
then how is it possible
{1,-1,i,-i} how this could be subgroup of symmetric group
every group is isomorphic to a subgroup of its own symmetry group, because left multiplication is a bijection, and the left multiplication action is faithful
wait, maybe symmetric group of itself 
so it follows from first isomorphism theorem
idk what i am talking about 
ACTIONS, not again 
probably i can argue about this result once i read ch1 of D&F. Idk about actions, faithful
ngl this is quite intuitive if you think about it, we basically defined groups this way, exactly so that they represent “symmetries”
for {1, -1, i, -1} it is isomorphic to a subgroup of the symmetric group by taking like S_4 for example and picking a 4 cycle and generating a subgroup with that right? then that subgroup of S_4 is cyclic of order 4?
@sturdy spear
oh i see.
yeah it will be isomorphic but can it be subgroup of some symmetric group?
cyclic group generated by an element of order 4 in S_n is a subgroup of S_n which is a symmetric group
so it is a subgroup of a symmetric group
oh
i think i should study this clearfuly
does this make sense?
i think i have made some mistake it should be
,, \langle cis (2\pi/n)\rangle
Abstract Afzal
since any k will work so taking k=1 is better
it is subgroup of S4
isomorphic to subgroup of S4
Yes
yes
ah yeah it would be better, Author didn't use it so didn't i

Every group G, whether finite or infinite, is isomorphic to a subgroup of the symmetric group
S(G). In the case where G is finite, it is interesting to ask what is the smallest integer m such that
G is isomorphic to a subgroup of Sm
Try it with V4 and A5 👀
is it possible?
(idk about A5)
S2 has 2!=2 elements and S3 has 3!=6 elements, so there is no integer m for which Sm has 4 elements
Yeah
iirc this is some funny thing for people who don't want to mention euler's formula lol
And for Z/pZ with p prime ?
again same issue?
n! is not prime for all n \neq 2 ( Z/2Z \iso S2)
And Z/p^nZ ?
p^n is odd for all prime p>2 and n! is even for all n
it seems much harder to think how it is possible 
Ah yes
Let me find some examples about these groups (V4, Z/pZ, and Z/p^nZ)
I was thinking incorrectly
mfw i get banned from Twitter for talking about complex numbers
By G^k=1, are we saying that the lower central series terminates, or are we saying that G^k = {g^k, g in G} = {1}? Or will it turn out that these things are the same/related
(G^{i-1}, G) is the commutator subgroup generated by G and G^{i-1}
The lower central series should terminate at 1 yeah.
It has nothing to do with {g^k}
Thanks, and to show this I've shown that that the ith term of the derived series is a subset of the ith term of the lower central series by induction, so if the kth term of the lower central series is 1, then the kth term of the derived series must be 1 also (it can't be empty), then I applied the criterion of derived series terminates iff G is solvable.
Hey folks, just a quick reminder that the Abstract Algebra Lecture series is meeting regularly again ^_^
We will meet to discuss the Spectral Theorem (new and improved!) in about 10 minutes over in the #1055201711679082516. More information can be found in our thread: #1317307081535000606
Could someone tell me if I did this correctly or incorrectly? I need to prove that H is a subgroup of G where G =<F(R),+>, H ={f∈F(R) : if is periodic of period π}
Here is what I did :
(i) Suppose f,g∈H; then f(x) = f(x+πk) and g(x) = g(x+πk) for any k∈Z, so f+g = f+g. This f+g∈H
(ii) If f∈H, then f(x) = f(x+πk). Thus, -f = -f(x) = -[f(x)] = -[f(x+πk), so -f∈H.
okay am i just stupid or isn't that what the RCF is already?? like is this supposed to be a "hey, whoa i betcha didn't expect the answer to BE the RCF!!!!" or am i missing a bigger subtlety here
or am i fucking up the definition of the RCF and in general its just a direct sum of "acts by mult by x" matrices
the way it says "find the RCF" makes it seem like it shouldn't be a direct sum, because otherwise how would we know how it factors
ex. k=Q and f(x)=(x-2)(x-3). isnt the RCF just diag(2,3)?
I'm not sure to understand your question are you able to find the matrix associated to psi in the standard basis in the first place ?
yeah that's ezpz
and its in the form of the RCF
my questions is more like... are we SURE that that's the actual RCF of the matrix
arent there cases where the RCF would be a direct sum of matrices of that form
So you're saying for this example that matrix of psi in the standard basis is the diagonal matrix diag(2 ,3) ?
no def not
but the matrix for that case would be similar to diag(2,3)
so like... wouldnt that be the RCF?
In that case yes, because the rational Canonical Form is just a decomposition of your space into minimal cyclic subspace. If the matrix is diagonalizable then any eigen vector is a cyclic space of dimension 1.
okay yeah right. so then the matrix for psi isnt necessarly the RCF? if f is irreducible, then it should be right?
or... idk im not sure
like i think the point of the exercise is for psi to be the RCF, but it seems like that's not always the case
my friend emailed the prof and asked if f needed to be irred and the prof said this
a field with characteristic 0 contains the rationals, right?
because you can add unity n times and take its inverse
(1+1+...+1)^-1
and it acts like 1/n
but you need characteristic 0 to be able to take the inverse
Yes. Any ring R admits a unique map Z -> R, and if R is a field of characteristic 0 then all the positive integers are invertible so it extends uniquely to a map Q -> R
indeed people would usually just write n and 1/n
wait a min my prof just said diag(2,3) is not in rational canonical form... am i an idiot
If "rational canonical form" means decomposing into the minimal number of cyclic subspaces according to invariant factors, then it's rational canonical form would be
[0, -6; 1, 5]
thanks 🙏
Do indeterminates "commute" in polynomials R[x,y] even if R is not commutative?
because they want me to rewrite an element of (Q[x])[y] as an element of (Q[y])[x]
and i think i need to swap x and y
everything here is commutative
oh yeah
but the book says it should work for any ring
but you're right i probably don't have to worry about it since the problem is just using Q
This is true irregardless of whether x and y commutes.
But probably you're supposed to assume they do
in this case, is it because the invariant factors are just f(x)?
because it's the minimal polynomial?
The invariant factor is (x-2)(x-3) yeah.
I wouldn't say it's "because" it's the minimal polynomial, but it also is the minimal polynomial
Yes
The noncommutative version is often written R<x,y>
My apologies @toxic zephyr I got the definition of rational canonical form mixed up. So the problem just follow from observing that the matrix associated to psy in the standard basis is precisely the companion matrix of f. Thus the cyclic subspace associated to 1 in k[x]/f is the whole space.
how should i show something is a subring?
- closed under addition and multiplication
- contains the additive identity
- contains additive inverses
like that?
thanks 🙏
to find the all homomorphism from S3 to S3, is it fine if i just choose the image of (12) is a and (123) is b such that 2 divides | a | and 3 divides | b |, and follows the generator relations
i don't know what does it mean by follow the generator relation, yes (12)(123) = (123)^-1(12) is a relation here
so does i need to take a and b such that ab = b^-1a?
if yes then how can i gurantee that given mapping is homomorphism?
Does anyone have a problem set book for ring theory? I’m finding it hard to nail down concepts simply through reading
Do you know about group presentations?
Yes
Well, outside of the orders the generators will still be related by the internal structure of the group
If F1 and F2 is a field then there are only 4 ideals in F1 × F2, right?
So if a = (12), b = (123), then a,b will have the nontrivial relationship that baba=1, for example
And if you choose image of the generators randomly, the image may or may not actually satisfy those nontrivial relationships, even though they have to
So that’s what it’s talking about by generator relations
Yes
Yes
A presentation of S_3 is
<a, b | a^2 = b^3 = abab = 1 >
So you only need to determine every pair of elements A, B in S_3 such that A^2 = B^3 = ABAB = 1
And that uniquely determines the homomorphism, if I'm not wrong
For example, A = B = 1 works, this gives you the trivial homomorphism
Yes
Is it correct?
The idea is if S is an idea in F1 × F2 then the set of x such that (x,y) in S makes an ideal in F1, right?
I kind of doubt its that nice
Maybe if the fields have different characteristic
But for example, consider the ideal ( <1, 2> ) of QxQ
the it is Q \times Q
because if you multiply by (1,1/2) you will get (1,1)
Ah right I was thinking of the Q-module lol
Yeah you're right
If there is any element in the ideal that doesnt have a 0 in either entry then you can normalise it to (1, 1)
yes
Nice
but can i ask how it is enough to verify these condition what about to verify f(ab) = f(a)f(b) ?
But he is not looking for the automorphisms
Let f € Hom(S3,S3), then what can be ker f ?
I know?
As i said, taking A=1, B=1 gives the mapping x -> 1
Thats not an automorphism
That follows from the universal mapping property of the free group
Determining h(a) and h(b) gives a unique homomorphism
v : F(2) -> S_3
such that v(a) = h(a), v(b) = h(b)
Then S_3 ≈ F(2) / < a^2, b^3, abab >
(< > denotes the normal subgroup closure)
So we only need that
v(a)^2 = v(b)^3 = v(a)v(b)v(a)v(b) = 1
For v to factor through that quotient, in other words, give a homomorphism from S_3 to S_3
So this amounts to choosing A, B in S_3 such that A^2 = B^3 = ABAB = 1
You're welcome!
Group presentations are very goated 🔥
Ah yeah, D&F mentioned that it isn't easy to conclude results from presentation of a group. Moreover, there are techniques (i think he said this) but they will be introduced in upcoming sections 
Theyre great for problems like this, if the generating set and relations are known
It makes finding homomorphism an algorithmic task basically
And theyre great for high-level proofs
We're lucky that S_n is well-studied, of course
And S_3 is even dihedral
I see 
I haven't encountered any such thing yet. But did some presentation of dihedral group problems
How are we concluding that Aut(U) is isomorphic to Z/(n)? Also the "cyclotomic field of order n over F" is the splitting field of x^n-1.
wait i am being so silly, this is obvious
just needed to think a bit about what an automorphism of a cyclic group looks like
we are not concluding that Aut(U) is isomorphic to Z/(n). it is isomorphic to the group of units of Z/(n)
That may just be because of the fact that youre giving an explicit quotient of a free group
So you can use the universal mapping property (for any function f : X -> G there is a unique group homomorphism v : F(X) -> G such that v(x) = f(x) )
Every sigma in An is an even product of transpositions, and the product of two transpositions is a 3-cycle by a), then An is generating by thé 3-cycles
How can I show if there is a map S_n to Z/2Z and if any transposition maps to 0 then mapping is trivial, I don't want to use here the concept of A_n and first isomorphism theorem of group?
S_n is generated by the transpositions
Yeah that was my mistake here
I mean if there is a transposition which maps to 1 then it is trivial
Not anh
I didn't know this result
It is trivial by first isomorphism theorem
But I don't want to use that
Which result?
This
I assume
But yeah, kernel has to of size (n!)/2, which can only be A_n. But if any single transposition gets mapped to 1, then the kernel has to be at least the subgroup generated by A_n and the transposition, which is S_n
Yes but it uses the fact the first isomorphism theorem
Consider realizing Sn as permutation matrices and taking the determinant
I don't want to use the concept here A_n
I know
How?
Sn can permute the n basis vectors of C^n
Yes
Given that you're working with transpositions you'll probably just reinvent the concept of A_n
Lmao
Yes but my professor says that we don't want to consider the first isomorphism theorem
But I guess it makes sense - any two transpositions are conjugate
But all transportations are conjugate
Let $f, g \in S_n$ be transpositions, conjugated by $h$ (i.e. $hgh^{-1}=f$). What happens when $g \mapsto 0$?
PKThoron
I thought you wanted a map from Sn to Z/2, but this has nothing to do with Z/2 really
Yes
Then all transposition maps to 1
Then f also maps to 0
Why?
Because "if a map from Sn maps transpositions to 0 it maps everything to 0" has nothing to do with Z/2
Actually I misinterpreted this
I mean if f is a group homomorphism S_n -> Z/2Z such that there is one transposition such that it maps to 0 then all transposition maps to 0
Okay, but then bringing in An or the first isomorphism theorem or anything you know about maps Sn -> Z/2 is just a big distraction
Because it has nothing to do with Z/2
Why?
Look here for example
Yes but Z/2Z is abelian so image of conjuagte is exactly the image of that element
Doesnt have anything to do with Z/2Z being abelian
Just Check if (a b) —> 1 is a homomorphism
You have to use that Sn is generating by the transpositions in fact, Hope your professor allows it !
If it works, Then Hom(Sn,Z/2Z) ~ Z/2Z
I mean Z^2 is generated by 2 things but that doesn't mean that if one maps to 0, so does the other
No, just that I don't get the generator argument
Any two transpositions are conjugate, so the image of all transpositions are the same under any homomorphism from S_n to an abelian group.
That is true
OK, two people already said that 😅
But in this case you can make a much stronger statement
If you have any homomorphism h : S_n -> G sending any transposition to 1, then h must be trivial
Wait, why for any group? 😮
Conjugates map to conjugates, and a conjugate of 1 is 1.
Oh duhhhh
yeah but (1,0) isn't conjugate to (0,1)
It can probably also be derived from the coxeter relations
@crystal vale are you convinced
(If im not mistaken that every S_n is a coxeter group)
If G is abelian, then Hom(Sn,G) ~ Z/2Z
Yall are smahties
Hom(S_n, G) ≈ Hom(S_n/A_n, G) ≈ Hom_Z(Z_2, G)
Fact I'm dumb
Haha its alright
Again, take G = (Z/2Z)^k
That means that Hom(Z/2Z, G) is at least of size k
Due to the k injections
Yes I got the point, thanks
Me when Hom is hard to compute in general
I have no idea from where I have to start? Should I assume i) is not true and showing ii) is true?
No?
Pick any two abelian groups
Take H = Z/2Z, G = Z/3Z
Z/nZ, Z, Q, R, R^n
Hom(H, G) = 1
Wait R is awkward
Hom(Q, Q^n)
Ok ok mb
This oughta be Q^n cause you can send 1 anywhere
Q as group is also not very nice to work with i think
Hom(Z, G) ≈ G
Because Z is the free abelian group on one generator
I enjoy how the injective hull of an abelian group is some product over maps to Q/Z
Just like the Stone-Čech compactification is some product over maps to I
That's just cool
Often times some closure is fairly nice
For example, the closure into a variety is always some subalgebra of a direct product of the generators of that variety
In fact, that is why every reduced finitely generated k-algebra is an algebra k[X] for some affine variety X
"the largest [compact space containing a dense image] of it"
And just like SČC, the injective hull needs choice
As does the projective cover I think
Hehehe this does not >:3c
objectively better then
You can compare it to reducing a ring by taking the nilradical
Or abelianising a group by dividing by the commutator subgroup
Etc
(In fact, those are all the same procedure)
Projective covers usually don't exist.
But I guess in most situation where they do it reduces to picking a basis of a vector space.
Oh
Whoa the fact that every module has a flat cover was only proven in 2001
I don't get it
Hi, how would one go about showing something like this?
$L/K$ field extension, $S\subseteq L$ and $\sigma,\tau:L\rightarrow L'$ homomorphisms.
If $\sigma|K=\tau|K$ and $\sigma(s)=\tau(s):\forall s\in S$
then it follows that $\sigma|{K(S)}=\tau|{K(S)}$
bergi
So without loss of generality we can assume that given transposition is (1 k) and p-cycle is g = ( 1 2 3 ... p) so by using the fact that p is prime g^(k-1) is p-cycle such that ( 1 k ...) so now it is standard such that ( 1 k) , ( 1 k ...) generates S_p, right?
refer conrad notes
there are i think two cases i know if (|K||,|G/N|)=1 THEN (I) HOLDS
If A is a ring and for every x in A there is m,n coprime such that x^m and x^n are in Z(A) then A is commutative
Cant we just use Bezout Identity?
We can use Bezout i guess only if we know x invertible
This is my attempt so far:
If f - g is divisible by x - y, then I should be able to write it as a(x - y) Q(x, y) where a is a constant and Q(x, y) is some arbitrary polynomial (quotient) in terms of x and y
Oh this is the hint my professor gave:
Update. So I did what was suggested - but I don’t know how to make my proof for part b by induction. I’ve showed my non induction proof and my beginnings of an induction proof
in a field of char p when do you have a^p = a
Idk why im asking that I just kept on thinking that was a thing but idk why
oh in the field of p elements you have a^p = a for all a in Fp
so for any field of char p the prime subfield has a^p = a
i see, damn its interesting
If H is a sylow p-group of G and g ∈ G ∖ H is some other element is gHg^{-1} a sylow p-group of G also?
yes because gHg^-1 is a subgroup and it has order |H|
and it works all g in G
Right yeah
Hey y'all, I've been stuck on this question for a little while. Hoping someone could give me a hand:
Let $f: G \rightarrow G'$ be a group homomorphism and $S \subseteq G$ st $<f(S)> = G' $ and $T = {a | <a> = ker(f)}$. Prove that $<S \cup T> = G$
theaveragejoe6029
All elements not in the kernel can be obtained as a product of something in S and something in T.
I mean, from T you can get all of the kernel I believe.
And from S you can get at least one instance of every non identity value.
the problem is a slight reformulation of the first isomorphism theorem.
Hint 1: ||If f: G -> G' is a group homomorphism, then if a,b are such that f(a) = f(b) then a,b can only differ up to an element in the kernel of f||
Hint 2: ||Since f is defined on the entirety of G, then if you want to understand how any element in G looks like under f, then you only need a "representative" set that covers everything that f can become||
I’ll be honest y’all, I’m still lost.
Is there any easy way to show the centre of M_n(R) is exactly the scalar matrices, I know they are using E_ij matrices but I don't get it much
so let's say that I have ker(f), and I have a g in G.
Suppose that I have some other g' in G, where I also know that f(g) = f(g').
Then, it follows that g' is in fact generated by ker(f) and g, because g, g' can only differ up to an element in the kernel
How do we know that g,g’ can only differ up to an element in the kernel? Are you suggesting that for some a in ker(f), gc=g’?
suppose f(g) = f(h).
Then f(gh^-1) = f(g)f(h^-1) = f(g)f(h)^-1 = 1
i.e. gh^-1 in ker f
this is an alternative way of viewing the first isomorphism theorem, if you know about that yet
Yeah yeah, nah I get that ofc
But how does that imply that they differ by one element in the kernel tho?
that element is just gh^-1 ...?
Oh wait my bad.
either you understand that or you don't, it's kind of confusing for me for you understand one but not the other
Okay, I see now. I just misunderstood what you were trying to say.
Ah, I think I’ve got it. It was just that one little bit about generating the kernel that I needed. Thanks bro.
I mean, it's hard to imagine an easier method than
compute
Eij M and M Eij
and see what needs to be true for them to be equal
Eij M gives the ith row is jth row of M and all other entries 0 and M Eij gives jth column is ith column of A and all other entries 0
For example
Eii M kills everything but the ith row and M Eii kills everything but the ith column.
They only overlap at the diagonal, so M must be a diagonal matrix
I have to visualise now
Yes it will be diagonal
Now I have to show every diagonal entries are equal
Now E12 M = M E12 gives M11 = M22
I got it
Thanks Jagr
If I have to find all group homomorphism from Z to Z/nZ then there are n homomorphism right? Because it is uniquely determined by image of 1
more generally, there is a (natrual) bijection between the elements of any group G and the set Hom(Z,G)
Yes, g ->f_g, where f_g is in Hom(Z,G) such that f(1) = g
I love my free object on one generator
lmao reminds me of the time someone here reminded me that Z[x] is generated by 1 element and I went "oohh"
Lmao
There's also a natural bijection between R and Hom(Z[x], R) (if R is commutative)
forgetful functors are representable yeah
And, hear me out, a natural bijection between Hom({*}, X) and X
actually what's the nec & sufficient condition needed for the forgetful functor to be representable
a good question, that I will look into another time
No clue lmao
But the bijection A^n with Hom(F_V(n), A) is really important imo, as it motivates and simply proves (at least if you define everything slightly differently) the prime spectrum and Nullstellensatz lol
oh, mind explaining a little more?
The Hom-functor preserves all limits, so that's a necessary condition at least.
And in situations where the adjoint functor theorem applies that should be sufficient as well
I'll take the case of k-algebras for an algebraically closed field k.
Traditionally, affine varieties are defined as certain subsets of points, which we can see as k-algebra homomorphisms h : k[t1, ..., tn] -> k
It's often more easy to reason about ideals (congruences) than the actual homomorphisms, so what the idea is that we "approximate" these points using their kernels, call that obtained set of ideals S for now. Similarly, we define closed sets on S, for an affine variety X as the set of kernels of the points in X (again, points are regarded as homomorphisms).
It turns out that due to the niceness of rings, this gives you a topological space which is isomorphic to the Zariski topology as locales.
Then you can say something about the possible kernels of homomorphisms from k[t1, ..., tn] to k, given that k is an algebraically closed field, and it turns out that S is precisely the prime spectrum of k[t1, ..., tn]
For the Nullstellensatz, this is a more general phenomenon relating to similarly defined "prime" spectra, something I am researching rn as a small project, but it boils down to essentially just some fairly trivial order theory. The only thing about rings is simply that prime and radical ideals are so easily describable.
Hope this is somewhat followable haha
oh I know the statement of Nullstellensatz, I just wanna know what you meant by that
what's the bijection here specifically? whats the ambient category
what is V(n) as well
Ah, yeah
V is a variety, also called equational class, of algebraic structures
F_V(n) is the free algebra on n generators
The ambient category is V, the category of T-algebras for a finitary algebraic theory T, essentially
Hom(F_V(n), A) can fairly trivially be given a structure such that it too is a member of V
(As it then is, in fact, isomorphic to A^n)
You can think of it like the evaluation of a polynomial
Like how you have a word for groups
xyzxy^2
Which you can evaluate in a group by choosing x, y, z as elements in the group
Every homomorphism from the free algebra on n generators to an algebra A must correspond 1-1 to some choice of n elements of A, so that gives you your bijection
but then, if we're talking about the forgetful functors being representable shouldn't you say that the bijection is between A^n and Hom(A, A^n)? I can accept that it's equivalent, but i don't understand why you're presenting it in that form
Hom(A, A^n) is not equivalent to Hom(F_V(n), A)
Like for example, if V is the variety of sets, then one has cardinality |A|^{n * |A|}, and the other |A|^n, as the free set on n generators is just a set with n elements
oh, wait I think I understand what you're saying now. I think I got confused from the context of the previous conversation
F_V(n) should be isomorphic to A^n as well, but I'm assuming that this isomorphism is not natrual
Ah its alright haha, I maybe should've been more clear too
Nope
Again, take the variety of sets
oh, iso as vector spaces but not as algebras?
Nono
.
Algebra in that sense
Thats why this viewpoint is so powerful as it generalised (classical, for now) algebraic geometry to any algebraic structure
Non-zero-divisors of a ring are called regular
Where does regular come from? Like what is the origin?
My guess would be that it comes from regular sequence which comes from regular ring and
The origin of the term regular ring lies in the fact that an affine variety is nonsingular (that is every point is regular) if and only if its ring of regular functions is regular.
but then why are those called regular points or regular functions / rings 💀
I would guess to contrast from singularities.
Like singularities are special, an uncommon in contrast with the regular points
sometimes we just needed an adjective
If I'm given two group presentations and told that they're both finite, can I decide whether they're the same group
That seems very related to the word problem
if they're finite groups, this is decidable
if they're finitely presented then you can show that this problem is undecidable (in fact the word problem is undecidable)
@minor fulcrum
I think Rotman's group theory text has some stuff about this
I did in fact mean finite groups
yea I know what you meant, I just was adding on that a slight modification quickly turns undecidable
the brute force obvious algorithm is to write out the multiplication table for both groups
and then start trying bijections
more efficient algos surely exist but idk them off the top of my head
but it is at least decidable
Well, it's only given that they're finite, you're not told the size.
Sure, but a reasonable definition of "given" is that you are given a way to enumerate all the elements and how many elements there are
The question could be for an algorithm that returns the correct answer when given presentations of finite groups but has arbitrary behaviour (correct, wrong or non-halting) when one of the groups isn't finite.
That's how I usually interpret "given an assumption" for an algorithm.
yea, so "arbitrary behavior" means that I don't care what happens for non-finite groups
statement is vacuously true, not even going to think about it
Yes, but in my formulation, no-one gives the algorithm the size of the group.
1000% Derek Holt's text would be a good reference as well
Or more precisely, a finite list of words such that every element is equal to one of them. Once such a list is obtained for both groups, I agree that your algorithm works.
I think it's reasonable to assume you're given such a list
Hmm, you actually also need to be given the multiplication table, because there might not be a way to reduce the products to something in the list.
But yeah, you can assume that. I'm unsure if the original asker did though.
How would you do it without brute force given a multiplication table)
?
I think it's a pretty unreasonable assumption.
What would even be the point of having a presentation if you're just given everything about the group in some unrelated way
I am writing a paper for an Algebra II class right now, and am having a hard time figuring out how to show that there are multiplicative inverses for $\sum^{\infty}{i=0}{a{i}p^{i}}$ I have shown everything else is true therefore I have established this as a ring. Do any of you have ideas on how to approach this?
(also, how do you type an equation here?)
no, you're just given the presentation
$ around and equation
Fearne
What are a_i and p?
The inverse only exists if a0 is nonzero.
Anyway, what I would do is set up the equation for an inverse (write another element times it = 1) and show by induction that the equation has a solution
Shoot, they are elements of the integers where p is a prime
(I'm assuming you're talking about the p-adic integers)
yeah
Thank you so much, that helped a ton ^w^
I read about metric space but i forget it almost
What is the best way to memorize things for long time?
it says maximal but not principal
not prime, different thing
it should be a prime ideal iff your base ring is an int domain
can someone motivate the idea of Group Actions in an accessible manner?
groups are a way of encoding symmetry in nature.
However, often times even if an object is symmetric, it's hard to concretely describe how that symmetry interacts with that object in actuality.
so, that is the goal of group actions, to allow for things that embody a certain symmetry to interact with said symmetry
for an example, the rubik's cube is very symmetric, and the set of all permutations form a group.
On the group side of things, the law of composition is function composition.
However, physically, it doesn't make sense to "compose" two scrambles together; so instead we need a way of describing how the law of composition works for the rubiks cube:
object - rubiks cube (this is just a set of 26 smaller cubes arranged in space, there is no way of "composing" scrambles together)
group - group of permutations
action - face rotations (which tells us how the symmetry is encoded in the blocks of the cube)
the sum of ideals is an ideal, you can check that quickly
Why (x)(y)=(xy)
Is your ring commutative?
@thorn jay yes
Then (x) = { r • x | r in R }
And
(x)(y) = { a • b | a in (x), b in (y) }
So you can see that a = r • x and b = s • y for some r, s in R
And then, if you multiply them, your ring being commutative:
ab = rs • xy is in (xy)
So (x)(y) is contained in (xy)
The converse is just choosing the right value of a and b
A good exercise would be to generalize this
so you can find a counterexample for the other direction for a noncommutative ring
"Finitely generated"
Life is a prison
Why even live if your rings aren't noetheiran
So true
Imagine not caring about the fact that your rings are not finitely generated as rings though
imagine caring about rings
Imagine caring
imagine
hiii i’m here to care
is this even true for rings with infinitely many generators?
probably is
but whatever, all rings worth thinking about are Noetherian
No
_ _
oh wait yea it should be true for infinitely many generators, same arguments go through cause all sums in question are finite
Yeah
my point still stands
I suppose that the class of commutative rings is generated by Noetherian rings
i have faith that the ring-flowers will bloom
Every Z[x_1, ..., x_n] is Noetherian, by induction, so take the direct limit of the ascending filtration
Z[x1] -> Z[x1, x2] -> Z[x1, x2, x3] -> ...
To get the ring Z[X] where X is countably infinite, which does indeed generate the class of commutative rings
Yay
I cant wait until the flowers start to bloom ngl
Real life picture in the math discord 😧
i touch grass
Bloom by Radiohead. Good song 😊
😵💫🤯
Radiohead is great
Dont listen to them often though
Personally more into shoegaze and all it's subgenres not gonna lie
Do you know Deafheaven? They’re black metal and shoegaze mix
If you dont like heavier stuff you wont like it but I love their album Sunbather
I know them but not the biggest fan
They have a couple cool stuffs but idk, doesnt really do it for me
Thats fair
Cant be the heaviness; I'm an avid enjoyer of Electric Wizard
Funeralopolissss
The wizaarddd 🗣️
Actually i should check out more of their stuff
I should listen to more shoegaze
Yesssss
The album "Margaritas Podridas" be Margaritas Podridas is great, has a lot of punk and noise rock influences too. If you want similar stuff to that but more dream pop, check out Señior Kino, it's the same singer.
Also Whirr is great for more heavy stuff, and if you wanna go more into the grunge direction, I'd recommend Superheaven.
I'll stop here because if I wrote out all my recommendations we'd be here for a while
Ah, maybe for dreampop, Film School is great
These are just starting off points, of course, most streaming services will give you fairly good recommendations similar to them
Interesting, I haven’t heard of any of them before
Recently I’ve been getting into aphex twin
Groups rings and fields
We're talking about math rock i swear

Tbh the problem is all the server ppl i know hangout here
When i go to discussion page im like who tf are these ppl
Hell yeah
Im hyped to move to a bigger city where more cool shows happen
I randomly stumbled into a drum n bass show once and realized i fw it
Are you into jump up dnb, or more dark/atmospheric stuff
Im not sure, ive only recently started to get into edm genres
Cuz there's a big diff between the stuff i usually listen to and what's played on festivals
Haha
I know i fw aphex twin for sure
You'll like VISION stuff
They're a record label for like experimental dnb
Founded by Noisia
Groningen represent 🔥 🔥 🔥
I feel like the discord police will get us soon
Oh shiiiii
Isn't his proof of (c) flawed?
He says "if g1 H = g2 H, then psi(g1 H)=psi(g2 H)", but this is not injectivity is it? This is trivially true of all functions
The proof is correct.
That is indeed not injectivity, but well definedness. Just like they say
Please could you check my own proof of injectivity?
To show that $\psi$ is injective, we can show that $\ker{\psi}={e_K}$, where $e_K = e_1 H$, the identity element of $G_1 / H = G_1 / \ker\phi$.
Clearly $\psi(e_K)=\phi(e_1)=e_2$, so $e_K \in \ker \psi$ as claimed.
Now consider $gH$ where $g\not\in \ker\phi$. Then $\psi(gH)=\phi(g)\neq e_2$. So $g\not\in \ker\phi \iff g\not\in e_1 H=e_K$ implies $gH \not\in \ker\psi$
Thus $e_K$ is the only element of $\ker\psi$
Douglas
Looks good, assuming you have established this have that ker = {e} iff injective
Im stuck on this, i know that since b is purely inseparable we have b^(p^n) is in F for some n
Im trying to show that a or b is in F(a+b)
char p fields
Notice that (a+b)^p^n = a^p^n + b^p^n
Now ask yourself what is the minimal polynomial of a over F(a^p^n)
Guys I am learning maths for an exam in my country ....i came here in search of resources but couldn't find any ....I am not a math major ....I am practically a math noob but I need math to ace the exam ....so since it's about groups rings and fields ...I think this is about abstract algebra ....can some of you help me with lecture videos you have or notes something a beginner can learn to solve in abstract algebra ...I have searched youtube and everywhere can't find things that I can understand.....like I need to know the fundamental of the fundamentals so if someone knows to do it kindly guide me in the right direction it's a big thing to ask being a complete stranger but no harm in asking right .
Thank you 🙏
Does your course follow a book or have a more specified curriculum?
It has a defined syllabus of the topics what I have to study books aren't mentioned
I guess picking up an abstract algebra book would make sense then.
I think Dummit & Foote is one. Fraleigh is the one used at my uni. Otherwise I guess just look at the contents of some and see if there's one that covers your syllabus.
Or ask your professor if there is a book they would recommend.
Kinda weird to have a course with no recommended resources
Thats the thing it's not a course ...it's an standalone exam for job ....so it has only syllabus and no recommended books
Will start with your book suggestions as of now
Exam for a job covering abstract algebra, colour me intrigued
And it's not only about abstract algebra I have to cover real complex analysis linear and modern algebra calculus differential fuilds and dynamics ...it's like I have to study undergrad in maths .....
It's kinda big deal of an exam in my country
I have mentioned only few here ....I should have a mastery over various topics a math undergrad would have
So only running clueless and seeking help where ever I can
And you where the 1st one to respond thank you for that
ive still been stuck on this
lost in the weeds of everything rn
lol
Well the minimal polynomial must divide
x^p^n - a^p^n
since a is a root of that.
But it must also be seperable
the degree of the min poly has to be a multiple of p
This poly is separable
It is not, it's purely inseperable
oh shoot yeah
so its x-a^(p^n)
so a^(p^n) = a so a^p^n + b^p^n = a+c = d where c in F and d in F(a+b) so a = d-c is in F(a+b)
this is weird. im going to have to think about all these concepts more
a^p^n = a is a bit strong
But F(a) = F(a^p^n) would be right
Fake, no one cares about algebra besides algebraists
But a solves x-a^p^n?
No....?
Tbh ive probably really lost it at this point
One sec
Is x-a^p^n not the min poly of a over F(a^p^n)?
Only if a = a^p^n
a is a root of
x^p^n - a^p^n = (x - a)^p^n
So the minimal polynomial is a seperable polynomial that divides this
The only such polynomial is
x - a
Oh, so we’re saying [F(a) : F(a^p^n)] is 1?
Yup
That was like . Weird
hello, i need help w this question, n>=2, show that every ideal of Z/nZ is principal
What can you say about subgroups of Z/nZ?
their forms: dZ/nZ where d is a divisor of n
i really dont know
exactly
but now you are done
lol
:)
Exactly
And every ideal is in particular a subgroup
Here in fact this means the subgroups are precisely the ideals
(This is also clear ish anyway as if x is in a subgroup H and k an element of Z/nZ, then kx is just x + ... + x (k times) and hence also in H. So H is N ideal)
oh ok thank you 
What does N stand for here (third bullet)? Did the author accidentally make a mistake?
natural numbers
"Number field" :(
I see, so it was a mistake. Thank you
The first paragraph has horribly written english
Lmao
Well "horribly" might be a hyperbole
"A well-defined ODE must the following features"
Also, "mathematical expression on the right hand side"? ?? Thats just 0
Fair enough. Surprisingly, it comes from the website of a university in Bath
I'm looking for an introduction to ODEs for a mathematician, not a physicist 🥲
Personal nitpick is the term "mathematical expression" but ig im just nitpicky
Lmaoo
It does seem that way
Also, what is "Eq"
I just, aeugh, find something else 
That whole first bullet is a mess
I'll look for something else
(Joking)
anyway, I won't flood this channel with unrelated stuff anymore. I was just wondering if the author might've meant some exotic field
Thank you for the help 🙏
Sorry for my small rant abt it
Idk theyre all so small
But they add up, and just overall produce a very low quality work thats clearly not polished or proofread
Making it frankly not worth my time at all
If a is separable over F, why is every element of F(a) separable over F?
F char p
Because otherwise any finite extension of char 0 field is separable extension right … because irreducible polynomials must be coprime to their derivative
Unless I am mistaken, this is a bit nontrivial. The way I would do this is to phrase separability in terms of embeddings into e.g. an algebraic closure: let [K:F]_s = Hom_F(K, F bar) and you can show K/F is separable iff [K:F] = [K:F]_s, and moreover the latter satisfies a form of tower law. Then in your case, if b is an element of F(a), you can cut up as F(a, b)/F(b)/F and applying the tower laws you see that F(b)/F is separable.
But yeah iirc this does need more field theory than one might expect
Yeah googling again, this may also be one of the quickest ways lol
Oh dang
This is essentially a more Galois-theoretic-ish approach though lol
And I guess it is unsurprising as like this is a useful lemma when doing Galois theory
Im already unsure on what that first line of math means
I was trying to do q5. It seems like something of what ur saying is related to q7 there
Bruhhh
Isn't q5 assuming that the separable elements form a field
Like is that smth you're expected to already kmow
Lol
I think this corollary answers your question?
It's all cool, dw
Yeah this is more or less my proof lol
There is another funny approach. You can define Galois extensions as splitting fields of separable polynomials and then show that those are all separable rather explicitly lol
And then you just embed F(a) in a Galois extension
But somewhere in there you will have basically done what I said
14.28 using separability degrees are multiplicative ?
I havent thought about that yet
That is q6 in my hw
Ye my point was like separability degree is nice in terms of maps to alg closure ig but that is ur q7
Anyway I think since q5 just assumes that separable elements form a field you can just use that fact aha
But like still a good question
I'm really struggling to show that given a cyclic group G of order n, there is a unique subgroup of order d for each divisor d of n
I've shown existence, I'm just not sure how to prove uniqueness
It is easier psychologically if you think about Z/nZ
What are the elements of order dividing d?
I can't figure it out
I don't know how to find which elements have order that divide d in general, I wouldn't even know where to start, what can we say about the order of elements in Z/nZ in general?
So you want elements that are zero after multiplying by d, and try to phrase in terms of Z
yes, I have done Lagrange, let me recall it and I'll think for a moment
Actually this isn't even lagrange, ignore lol
hmm I'm struggling to see how Lagrange could be helpful here. it tells us that the order of a subgroup divides the order of the group
But yes ths
So like if b is an integer and db is 0 in Z/nZ, what can you say about b
wait are we focusing on additive Z/nZ for now?
Yes (otherwise not a group ahyway)
But it is easier psychologically, and equivalent to any other cyclic group of order n
ok right I'm following now. it could only be a multiplicative group if n were prime?
Well it never is - you have to chuck away 0 regardless of n
(Unless n = 1 I guess lol)
oh right. we would call this like the group of units modulo n
of course 0 is never coprime with n
ok sorry for the aside
Np it's like probably good to check lol
if db = 0 then the order of b must divide d?
Sure, but I was basically going from the 2nd to the first
If db = 0 mod n, what can you say about b (as an integer)
it must be a divisor of n also?
I'm not sure what you're getting at at all I'm sorry. maybe I don't understand something really fundamental here
Well it's that if db = 0 mod n, you can write db = an right for some a
so b = a (n/d)
So b is a multiple of n/d
That's the important thing
Now can you guess what the unique subgroup is?
In fact you presumably already know one example and this argument shows it is the only one lol
I don't think I do. I've actually already gotten effectively this far and didn't know what to do from here
I mean I have an idea, it's like every n/dth element or something?
ok so the group must be generated by a(n/d) for some a, right? now we should show that it's actually the same regardless of the choice of a
Well for some choices of a you won't get a group of order d, e.g. if a = d. But we have shown every element of order dividing d is an element of the subgroup generated by n/d
Now check how big that subgroup is
the subgroup generated by n/d has order n/d right?
Yea
Why R belongs to m
R is the intersection of all maximal ideals
So every element in R is in every maximal ideal, so its in m
Not quite
oh wait no no, it has order d
have we shown that H has order d if and only if H is generated by n/d
Yes, so like
Say H is a subgroup of order d. Then every element of H has order divisible by d (Lagrange - this is where it is useful lol) and hence is in the subgroup K generated by n/d
So H is contained in K
But H and K have the same cardinality
So H = K
ah okay that makes sense. would it be equivalent to suppose that H and H' (subgroups of G) both have order d, which implies they're both generated by n/d, so they're the same?
Yes
😮💨 thank you so much for your patience. I don't think I'm usually this bad at understanding algebra but it's just not happening today I guess
Algebra is hard
Shit happens, algebra is a little silly goober sometimes
and hence is in the subgroup K generated by n/d
why?
Well we did that above
oh
if dx is a multiple of n then x is a multiple of n/d
It gets easier when you make everything universal, trust me bro
Man i thought u were srs for a sec
/srs or /j
Uh, well depends on how you look at it i guess
Idunno what that is
Once you overcome the abstraction of UA, it becomes easier to think about the other algebras
I was talking to potato too
Yeah that is interesting though
Cause category theory kind of is like that too isnt it
But then again, with stuff like ring theory, the questions you ask are fundamentally different
Funnily enough, classical algebraic geometry is actually at heart really close to UA, so naturally you've got universal algebraic geometry :P
Criminally underdeveloped and undergeneralised
Interesting, I've not heard of this
Its so cool
Is there any research being done in UA
I wonder if any school actually has a UA research group
I made a small generalisation akin to prime spectra and you recover the construction of free algebras
Nice
And I want to look into something like localisation (so you can look down the lattice, rather than up using quotients) and perhaps use sheaves to get a duality between HSP(K) and affine K-schemes or whatever
Bro said he only knows ua^
I think like a lot of the original stuff for algebra seems better with things like monads and category theory etc but I'm sure UA has links to e.g. logic /model theory that are important
Category theory is more general yes
What is a monad
UA explicitly focuses more on the logic side of algebra
But mixing it with category theory, like the category of equational classes to define Mal'cev conditions, direct limit constructions etc yields great results
So imo a balance is necessary
The structure of equations basically
Also all the induced lattice structures everywhere
Monads can sort of be thought of giving one way to express notion of "Ds are Cs with extra structure". E.g. the groups are algebras for a monad in Set
Bruh
Every finitary monad is an equational class
As in, universal algebra is the study of finitary monads over Set
Just like how group theory is the study of group objects in Set
The interest for me in monads is that basically if you can recognise a category D as algebras for a monad in C then that can tell you a lot about D lol
And C may be way simpler
Did you know the category of compact Haussdorf spaces is monadic over Set?
Alright hold on
😂
ITS NOT FINITARY SO I WILL NOT ACCEPT IT AS ONE OF US
I like the funny corollary that this means that a continuous bijection between compact Hausdorff spaces is a homeo
Very overkill and not general enough but funny
You guys know a lot of math
I wish i had more time to think about it and not rush through everything
It was more fun as a hobby last year
This also holds just for Haussdorf spaces right?
The optimal I believe is: a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space is a homeomorphism
I like thinking abt it
Me too but i feel like i could think about it better when it was a hobby
Right now its all too fast for me
Basically you want to show that the map is a closed map (sends closed to closed) and you do this by 1) closed subspaces of a compact space are compact 2) continuous maps send compact to compact 3) compact subsets of Hausdorff spaces are closed
Thats fair
Which is a really cute proof aha
And then for compact Hausdorff spaces like compact = closed so it is more symmetric etc
There are literally like 500 things i want to review
Compact lattice element in P(X) under inclusion?
Same
And learn lol
Or compact in op(X) under inclusion
op(X) being the open sets
Wait no
Ugh i cant read
I should try to sleep again
Nooo
Its 01:42 qwq
Felt
U know a lot
To me ppl like u jagr and boytjie are like bruh
Potato, are your peers also that knowledgeable?
I had the bright idea of wanting to learn algebraic groups before algebraic geometry
So im learning algebraic geometry
Then i started learning universal algebraic geometry
Then i needed topology
Then i wanted suddenly algebraic topology
??????
Is my brain broken?
Vague concepts and the fundamental group
Honestly it does seem really cool
I know the definitions but thats kinda where it ends yk
Idk lol
Imagine having to draw them in latex tho
Algebra is like satisfying but rigid
Lol bruh
Idk, i somehow see them as pretty pictures
Yeah i ask cause the phd students at my school are knowledgeable for sure but i dont think like u
I think I have quite broad interests but like obviously will less deep knowledge in other bits so idk
So true
Yeah talking to real algebra experts is crazy
Thank youu
My galois theory prof is like that
My algebra prof in first term not really in the same way
In my mind I am not even like an algebraist rly lol idk like jagr and boytjie are more so
And wew
Ive got a friend who stubbornly insists that i am a logician
Jagr will always be the 🐐 to me
Thats so awesome!!
What am I
The cheeky bastard
It was probably ngroupoid then
Yeah
UA is also a more natural context to study finiteness conditions in
Knew it
In my opinion
I mean tbf he had a point but he got too upset about it
Chmommon Chmonkey W
(Finitely generated things being compact elements of the lattice)
Ong i been living on this server for like >1 year
Thats crazy
I actually joined in sept 2023 but i got kicked once 😂
Wew was so much more active back then
What happened 😔
I think i was particularly bored one night and was trolling
I dont remember how bad it was tbh
I apologized and asked wew to let me back in
@delicate orchid do u remember that? 😂
I dont remember i think i just needed an invite link actually
Like i wasnt banned just kicked?
Anyway
This server is like extremely valuable to me now
I take it for granted tbh
Same and totally not because of the postgraduate role i somehow got i feel like an impostor
Its human nature
Smt i wanna learn abt
Potato could inform us
"... sufficiently many applications of the suspension of disbelief functor" 
Lol this is an area I am more familiar with ig
I would ask what is it but there is prolly so much background knowledge im still not that aware of
Yeah lol
Could you explain what it is to someone at my level
I stg weed makes me go to the math rabbit holes
Ong if anyone feels like explaining math to me im down
I mean imma head to bed soon now but
Sorry I was washing up lol
Uh so tbh you can think of this from many different angles lol but basically you can think of algebraic geometry as being about commutative rings and gluing them, whilst derived algebraic geometry generalises these to more "homotopical" things. One easy example of these more homotopical things would be (over a field of char 0) using (connective) cdgas, which are basically chain complexes with a multiplication and a very common objects in other areas of maths
But anyway there are many advantages to considering such things. One is that you can deal with non-smooth things better
Another is that deformation theory works a lot better in some respects - this is roughly studying ways to "infinitesimally thicken" a space (or deform some other object) and when you have more flexible rings you can deform stuff in more ways lol
Another is that there is spectral algebraic geometry (which may be viewed as a type of DAG but often there is a distinction) which is particularly useful for studying stuff arising in homotopy theory, basically because homotopy theory already studies generalised rings and it's cool to study them via some modification of algebraic geometry
I care for my job man
homotopy groups of spheres are too complicated so let's just study what they stabilize to after higher enough suspension, then they are still too complicated
Task failed successfully
Ah alright
Lol have you seen the Adams SS calculations
People who do motivic homotopy stuff are mentally ill lmao
Unfortunately yes
I tried to read some papers of Zhouli Xu and that stuff is impenetrable 
I don’t think I’ve seen a single use for stable homotopy groups of spheres above like idk \pi_7
Other than like exotic spheres or whatever
But yeah I guess a rough idea is that instead of just studying spaces you can also study these guys called spectra (forming a category Sp) which are super related but also more "algebraic". The nice thing is there is a good notion of "algebra" within Sp - for example you can study commutative rings inside Sp and their categories of modules. This truly generalises usual algebra stuff because you can view "ordinary" commutative rings as things in Sp
but yeah because Sp is more algebraic it is much more pleasant to work there for many things lol
wait, comm rings are topological spectra??
Option a is incorrect, right? Because it is finite Boolean ring so every non-identity element has order 2 so its additive structure has order of 2^n, and it is the same as the cardinality of the ring so its cardinality cannot be 100 because 100 ≠ 2^n for every n in N.
But you have seen a use for π₇?
Yep, that sounds correct 👍 can you post your answers to b, c and d too? I wanna see if I got them right 
I am trying
yeah absolutely
Tell us unc!
I'd say
(B) ||False, if positive characteristic the additive group has too many torsion elements while in characteristic 0 there are too few.||
(C) ||2x is irreducible over Q, but reducible over Z. True for monic polynomials though||
(D) ||True if and only if R is an integral domain||
How to think for option b? I know F cannot be finite and I am thinking about some property in additive structure F which is not in multiplicative structure
\pi_7(S)=Z/240Z is explained by the octonionic Hopf fibration and is the source of the 8-fold Bott periodicity for topological K-theory KO
Probably helpful to split into the case where F has characteristic 0 and characteristic p
ah, I remember that periodicity because my prof wrote an infinity sign instead of 8, and then corrected it saying "well, as a mathematician you don't have to write the number 8 often anyway"
it is also related to 7-dimensional Chern-Simons theory and dual heteroic string theory among other things in physics
in some talk, he did excitedly talk about how pi_90(S^136) has been figured out
Nice, B was the only one I wasn't sure about 
I guess \pi_11(S)=Z/504Z shows up for a similar reason in physics
but that's kind of where things top out
c is correct and d is incorrect, right?
c is almost correct. think about the leading term
Oh I need monic polynomial for that other wise it is not true
2x + 1 is irreducible in Q[x], right? And also it is irreducible in Z[x] so not all non-monic polynomial irreducible polynomial in Q[x] implies it is reducible in Z[x], I have to find one counter example
what about ||2x+2||
Oh yes
A polynomial is irreducible over Z iff it's irreducible over Q and the coefficients are relatively prime
Oh yes primitive polynomial
I was forgot it
And we can generalize this to a ring of fractions
If I take the field of fraction Z_2(x), can I say 2 is a characteristic of it ?
Z/2Z(x)
It is yes.
1 + 1 is still 0
Okay I am just verifying that there is an infinite field which has characteristics p
Yes, Fp(x) is a good example of that.
Also the algebraic closure of Fp is also infinite.
I see
because there are infinitely many irreducible polynomials in Fp[x]
That's one way to see it.
You can also quite explicitly for any finite field construct a polynomial without roots. So an algebraically closed field is never finite
What exactly is the thinking here?
That if ab is order 6, then <ab> is a subgroup of order 6 and hence G=<ab>=Z_6?
Yeah
Counting argument
okie
Sup Groupies
Without roots in the field?
Create separable polynomial of degree higher than # elements in field?
That would also be a strategy I suppose, though seems more difficult
Or just consider (x-a1)(x-a2)…(x-an) + 1 where you range an over every single element in the finite field
Lol so you can view abelian groups as spectra. The recipe sends an abelian group A to the spectrum HA (often just called A still lol), which represents singular/ordinary cohomology with coefficients in A
and then you get a similar thing with commutative rings
Whats that?
Gauss lemma?
And the coefficients are rel prime? WhyV
If they have some common factor
then you can just pull it out and reduce it in Z[x]
Basically if you can factor a poly nontrivially over Q then you get a nonttivial factorisation over Z. The reverse isn't generally true because Q[x] has more units than Z[x] (namely Q^x instead of just {+-1}) but once your polys are primitive that disappears
Do u guys get annoyed if i start asking a lot of questions like this
Ive kind of had a realization that i should just endlessly ask questions if i dont know things
I mean like^^ obv work thru things myself but i mean like, not being scared to ask basic questions anymore
Ive gotten better at not caring l
Oh cause a constant times polynomial over Z is a reducible poly over Z? Lol
Nice, character growth arc.
Yeah! Im happy its happening
In lectures i just ask away bruh
In first term i was so hesitant lol
Silly undergrad mentality
I think it depends. If someone mentions a concept or something and you just ask what that is I think nobody should be irritated.
I only get a little irritated if someone asks for help on a hw problem or something and it’s like, something that you can solve by just trying the obvious things. It looks like you aren’t even trying, and that’s not a good habit to be in lol
Yeah for sure, I agree
For first point - because u can pull out the lcm of the denominators?
Oh wait uh
