#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 312 of 1
this is an identity in any integral domain
hmm, I found that the Frobenius endomorphism is injective more generally in a ring with no nilpotent elements. It's injective iff. there are no elements r with r^p = 0, and clearly there are no nilpotents in a field
well uh no not an identity, i mean, it holds true in any integral domain
(of prime characteristic p)
no you don’t even need that i’m pretty sure
C is an integral domain
Let a be a primitive pth root of unity, let b = 1.
oh
right i see my mistake, i should probably get out of bed and eat something it’s past 2 pm 
without food and drink the hero is no good
(ancient norwegian proverb)
Prove it
It's all fun and games until someone whips out Håvamål
Have a meal
Something that confused me for a sec: a^p =0 implies a = 0 is true in any integral domain, but you need Frobenius to be a homomorphism for this to imply injectivity. Dunno if this was your confusion too
i very embarasssingly must’ve conflated the exponent with a factor and somehow thought the cancellation rule (ax = ay implies x = y in an integral domain) applied, but of course we don’t have any common factor to cancel
Ah, easy mistake to make (especially when you're still in bed
)
Oh ya duh
Well not duh to u duh to me
This makes more sense now lol
I don't think we need N to be finite here
Correct
I don't know why they chose to do that
Oh, no wait I see. There is some fear that we would only prove that gNg^-1 \subseteq N for the case when N is infinite.
But is for every t so why do we consider this case?
Of course, this is sufficient, but perhaps this isn't known
What do you mean
I mean, I know gNg^-1 \subseteq N doesn't imply g in N_G(N), but here gNg^-1 \subseteq N for all g in G, right?
No, we can. This is a nontrivial fact, but it is true.
Nonetheless yes, we can say it in the finite case.
It is easy in the finite case.
But yes here when it is given that gNg^-1 \subset N for all g in G then we can say gNg^-1 \subseteq N implies g in N_G(N)
How?
It's only for every t in the generating set, not every t in G
Suppose $gNg^{-1} \subseteq N$. Then by applying the inverse map, $g^{-1}Ng \subseteq N$. Now conjugating by $g$ we obtain $N \subseteq gNg^{-1}$. So in fact we have the inclusion both ways. QED. [THIS PROOF IS INCORRECT]
Wait hold on, I'm wrong about this step applying the inverse map. I remember they prove this in hungerford
Hence why you need finiteness, otherwise you cannot be sure that t^-1 N t is in N for example
Wow I didn't know about this, thank you for informing me
I was indeed mistaken
There is this theorem in Hungerford
,rotate
,rotate
Oh god this is hell
There we go
I see where this goes wrong now. It does suffice in general if we have a whole group, but I see for a single element it does not suffice, because we cannot assume that a^-1 also normalises N.
You could modify the statement to be
tSt^-1 < N and t^-1 S t < N
Then you can drop the finiteness
So if it is for every t, tSt^-1 \subset N, cannot is it true for all g in G?
Now I got it, thanks jagr
Localization of Z popped up in my number theory homework
The worst possible notation choice 😭
Heh
Really why haha
Oh is it usually Z with a subscript 2 for localization at (2)?
The notation should be $\mathbb Z_{(2)}$. The notation $\mathbb Q_2$ is for the $2$-adics. This is especially annoying since $\mathbb Z_2$ often denotes the $2$-adic integers, and there's \emph{already} such an annoying clash of notation there!
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
i see
Yes Z_2 can mean a million things
- 2-adics 2) the group/ring Z/2Z 3) the localisation of Z at the element 2 i.e. Z[2^-1] etc
- is never used thankfully and 2) is something i would definitely avoid lol
2-adics are so much less important than Z/2Z
I resent them for hogging that notation
I mean, Z/2 is pretty sweet notation. Don't know why Z/2 would need both the notations for itself, kinda greedy ngl
Ye Z/2 is very nice and matches what one says verbally lol
Well, I guess some people say it without the mod but then to me that refers to 2-adics lol
Sad
I don't like Z/2 cause that's not what's happening
It feels incorrect
I guess do you mean you prefer Z/2Z
Like you just omitted a symbol
or the ugly and pedantic Z/(2) lol
Yeah
And even that
I mean I just try to use C_2 nowadays
ig has the disadvantage that additive notation is often more convenient and fits in better ig
but ye for like "pure" group theory stuff it is v cool sure
C_2 = group
Z/2 = Z-module or ring
Simple as that
F_2 - field
Still not over getting called out for using the “non standard” notation C_3 in my analytic number theory class
Lmao
Will upset me until the day I die
i did (a) by computing each sigma^i for 1<=i<=12
found this online, i wonder if there is some initiative way to think why there are total #{n: gcd(12,n)=1} integers such that \sigma^i is 12 cycle
A cycle will generate a finite cyclic group. So then think about which elements of a finite cyclic group can also be generators of the cyclic group
for concreteness you can think about the possible generators of Z/nZ (it's all the same)
can a zero divisor of a ring also have an left inverse?
but a question, a cycle say of length 12 will generate a cyclic group but how do we know all the generators will have same cycle
sorry if it was not clear. Lemme think again
i think i am confused 
If f is a permutation and let f is 12 cycle.
We wish to find i such that f^i is 12 cycle.
How those elements will work which can be generator for <f>
(if not talking about Z/nZ)
Oh oh I see what you mean I think. Ok one thing that would be good to think about is if sigma is the product of an n cycle and an m cycle which don't share any any values in the cycle (so they commute!) then what is the order of sigma?
So like if sigma = (1 2 3)(6 7 8 9)
and also specifically what is the order of an n-cycle
that should help you think about why 12-cycles correspond to generators of the cyclic group
lcm of both
🔥 yup
okay, i will think about it 
$\sigma^i$ is a $12$-cycle $\Rightarrow \langle \sigma^i \rangle = \langle \sigma \rangle \Rightarrow \frac{12}{pgcd(12,i)}= 12$, so you can just check if it works for $i \in {5,7,11}$
It definitely can't have both a left and right inverse. You can have a right zero divisor with a left inverse, for example the right shift operator (x1, x2, ...) |-> (0, x1, x2, ...) in the endomorphism ring of R^infty. I think you can't have a two-sided zero divisor with a left inverse though, not 100% sure
UGOBEL
maybe \gcd
ah right right
i have seen this formula before as well
thank you guys for helping me 
i will again think about it after having some tools 
i also agree with you but i can't prove it
Exercise: if an element has both a left and a right inverse, then the two inverses are equal and is in fact a two sided inverse
Possible hint: multiplication is associative
i've solved this before but i can't solve this one this is what i've got so far
if ab=0 and a is also a zero divisor then ax=0 (xa=0 cannot be true.) also ba is also a zero divisor
Wait, what are you trying to prove here?
We're proving that a two-sided zero divisor can't have a left inverse. I think more specifically we can prove that a left zero divisor can't have left inverse
I think I found a proof, it wasn't that hard
yeah
Well isn't that obvious?
you mean this? Yeah, it was kinda obvious I guess 
Like ab = 0 -> a^-1 ab = 0 -> b=0
let's say a is an element of Ring such that for some x ax=0 and there exists element b such that ab=1.
can ba=1?
it's not two sided
in my text book x is a zero divisor if for some y xy=0 OR yx=0.
@rocky cloak is this example of a right zero divisor with a left inverse correct?
Some non-zero y presumably
very good i actually just got to this
now i have another question
let's say a is an element of Ring such that for some x ax=0 and there exists element b such that ab=1.
is it possible that for some k ka=1?
Gosh i love ring theory so much 😆
isn't that what we just proved to be impossible?
no but we can use that
like this
@rocky cloak you are good with rings how did you learn it which text book did u study?
Have you watched the movie kung-fu panda?
yes why? 😆
Po going to traing with master shifu is the equivalent of what jagr has done
why what did he do?
Jagr lore 🔥
Dude is he Serge Lang or something?
I don't understand why We are distinguishing case 1 from case 2. Can we not show that the maximal subgroup is unique so we have G_2 = H_2 always?
I probably used Basic Abstract Algebra by Bhattacharya, but that would be close to ten years ago now.
Mostly learned by osmosis I guess
A group can have several different maximal subgroups
you mean this site?
https://www.osmosis.org/
No, like putting my head close to a smart person
And in the finite case, if we have G = HxK, H, K simple, then both H and K will be maximal normal?
Hmmm
Knowledge diffuses
anyway thanks everyone for their help specially @rocky cloak
i am so glad that we have a community like this
I'm sure there are people here with strong opinions/good recommendations for books about ring theory. Could always check #book-recommendations
^^
My guess would be you get everything.
Is there any trick, besides just computing?
Does a normal subgroup have to be a union of conjugacy classes?
Of course
Let us set ( \varphi = \tau (\sigma \tau)^2 \tau = (1\ 5)(2\ 4) ) and ( K = \langle \sigma, \varphi \rangle ), which is a subgroup of H
UGOBEL
But idk what to do next
How do you find [H : K] = 6?
Ok
Any prime, in fact
Because ||{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} is a homogeneous space for H with Stab(6) = K||?
You can show that K = Stab(6) yes
But I don't really know what you mean by "homogeneous space"
Are units in a ring considered irreducible ?
Usually no (by convention)
e.g. if A is a UFD then irreducibles are equivalently primes
And (unit) is not a prime ideal ?
Yeah also by convention
i finally got around to write up my pages long elaboration on the step my textbook describes as “this is trivial”

After careful consideration we have determined that it is indeed trivial.
^hahahaha
transitive H-set
i love homogeneous spaces
Why
Thanks ilyt
Class clown mf
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1128937 so quotienting by homotopies is the same as inverting homotopy-equivalences (because universal pairs of homotopic maps are sections of a common retraction which is a homotopy-equivalence; hence making it an isomorphism makes them equal.
But inverting quasi-isomorphisms is not the same as equating maps which are the same on homology.

well you already quotient out by chain homotopy right
the construction of the derived category is that
you quotient out by chain homotopy
and this already gives you that all homotopy equivalences are isomorphisms
but quasi-isomorphisms are a larger class of morphism
like much larger usually
so you also need to invert those to make them fully fledged isomorphisms
in the topological case you only care about homotopy equivalences
so you don't need to localize
i only know them from the very little diff geo i’ve done, in which case a the action on a homogeneous space lets you move local arguments wherever you want 
^meant to reply to this
The difference is that homotopy equivalences already have inverses, but quasi-isomorphisms do not, so you need to introduce new maps.
Yes, but the point it's enough to just invert homotopy-equivalences; homotopic maps are automatically forced to be identified.
Hmm.
Well, they only "already" have inverses if you know that you are going to quotient out homotopies (so that gf is going to become id). If you were trying to invert homotopy-equivalences it wouldn't be clear that those are going to become inverses.
I'm sort of confused
Why wouldn't it be clear?
you by definition have that fg is homotopic to the identity
if you quotient out by homotopy you're making homotopies into equalities
so it's like clear that these become isomorphisms?
Can you prove (without using the explicit argument above) that if f is a homotopy-equivalence with homotopy-inverse g, then fg, gf have to become identities in the localisation at all homotopy-equivalences?
I'm saying, if you invert he's (without intentionally trying to quotient anything), you end up with the exact same result. And this is unexpected (or at least not pure abstract nonsense).
Yeah, it's not an immediate thing. But it should be less surprising.
Today i learned jagr learned group theory 10 years ago
So I could maybe get somewhere in the ballpark to your level of knowledge in 10 years? I hope so, but i dont know if ill even have to time to properly review older material to get caught up to speed. Idk
I just feel like doing math in the school setting feels rushed vs when i was studying it as a hobby last year
I think u do learn more from a raw input sort of thing but i dont really have the time to properly understand everything compared to how i was trying to learn when i did it as a hobby
For real?
@rocky cloak we need ur input big bro
in 10 years you're gonna be big bro, kiand
you're gonna be jagr2809
Omg ur right
Can someone help with part (i) here? I know d1, d2 are associates iff they divide each other
I'm trying to use the first part of the definition but am confused
Jagr is ong the goat though
Respect for boytjie too for sure but Jagr is goat status
seems like part (ii) of the definition would help you get to your 'iff' condition
it’s almost 2 am here in norway, i am not listening to the high one’s advice woops
If K/F is algebraic, does the algebraic closure of F always contain K? Or is it that it contains a subfield isomorphic to K?
In what space does the algebraic closure lie in ..?
Suppose all a_i | c, then d_1, d_2 | c. So c = d_1b, d_2e for some b, e. Hence d_1b = d_2e. Where do I go from there? I can't use inverses to get d_1b = d_2eb^-1 since this is only an integral domain right?
here’s a (very) loose translation of 23.
Foolish men
are awake all night
thoughts everywhere.
When morning comes
they are sleepy and tired
and all is tangled again.
ahem sry i’m way off topic
note that d_1, d_2 are both c's that satisfy the condition of (ii)
and yes, in general inverses dont exist in domains
In the (formally a class) lattice of field extensions
I mean K is a subfield of F no?
I see, ty
Right yeah
So if F is a subfield of it's algebraic closure, then by how set inclusion works, K must be a subfield of F's algebraic closure
F is subfield of K in my example right
But alg closure of F should include K because an element in K is algebraic over F so its in F bar by definition?
i guess who cares about talking about "isomorphic" because its just relabelling so who cares i guess?
i think 'contains a field isomorphic to K' is the right way to go in general
after all the algebraic closure itself is only unique up to iso
the main issue here is that there are multiple ways to add roots of an algebraic equation
but yea in practice like you said its just a matter of relabeling roots so theres not much harm in assuming that the closure of F contains K
The notation K/F means that K is a field extension of F, so F is a subset of K. I prefer the notation F⊆K
a simple way to do this is to take the algebraic closure over K in the first place
I've seen and like the notation K : F
if a field K embeds in L and L embeds in K are they isomorphic?
holy crap thats based
lets go field theory
how difficult is it to prove ?
seems like its not true: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/89718/classes-of-fields-and-cantor-schröder-bernstein
me
It's dangerous to call this a lattice.
The join isn't well-defined (invariant under isomorphisms of field extensions).
For any algebraic extension K/F and any algebraic closure L/F, there exists an embedding K → L over F. So the latter: L includes a subextension which is isomorphic to K (as an extension of F).
Probably not. If thes embeddings are as algebraic extensions of a common subfield E then yes, I think so.
Oh damn
Sorry about that
that is no problem my friend
I stumbled down a nice rabbit hole
Hello, I need a recommendation for abstract álgebra resources.
I left uni several years ago, but I used to have a solid mathematics undergrad background. Can someone point me to the right resources ?
What topic within abstract algebra?
Dummit & Foote is a book I see a lot of people recommend
covers advanced topics aswell but starts from the basics, its like 900 pages so quite a lot of stuff in there
Uhm consider extension e^i(2pi/7) over Q, x^7-1=0 but is reducible, so min poly is x^6+x^5+...+x+1 but this says extension degree is 6?
why do you say its reducible?
I need to brush up on groups Fields and rings, then I need something that pushes further. I’m pretty solid in linear algebra.
Thanks I’ll check it
So the minimal polynomial and the extension both have degree 6. Sounds correct.
I would second the recommendation of Dummit & Foote then. For field theory I would also suggest Milne's notes on field and Galois theory.
oh right yeah im dumb maybe I need to go study more
Well, I don't think studying more fixes not noticing 6 ≠ 6, but taking a break might.
But the basis are 1, e^i2pi/7, e^i2pi2/7, ..., e^i2pi6/7 7 in total?
Thank you so much
from your minimal polynomial you get e^(i2pi*6/7) as a linear combination of all your other powers
x^7-1=(x-1)(x^6+x^5+...+x+1)?
That's the set of 7^th roots of unity, but (perhaps surprisingly) it is not a basis.
Oh sure
Bruh
💀
The sum of all n^th roots of unity is 0, which gives you one linear relation.
In general, the degree can be less than n-1, so there are even more relations.
Well I'm only considering prime power here so I think I'm good
I see by cutting x^p^k-1+...+1 apart into sections of length p then it's irred from eisenstein?
Been trying to understand the line that is underlined in red
what's your doubt here?
that xa^-1 is an element of (aH)(a^-1H)
I feel like that is sorta what the book is getting at, but I havent been able to show this out with individual elements
you know what does it mean by when operation is well defined?
It means you can "trust is" it to true, right?
Maybe you are getting at something more specific?
trust? How can you show some operation is well - defined?
if you have to show some operation is well defined you have to show if a = c and b = d then ab = cd, where ab defined as a operates with b
Ah, I had no idea
so here they assumed that given operation in G/H is well defined
so if x in aH that's means xH = aH, by definition of well defined, (xH)(a^-1H) = (aH)(a^-1H) => xa^-1H = H
Ok, so not realizing that xH = aH is where I specifically was going wrong, I think.
This seems so obvious now 🙃
@crystal vale thanks for the help!
you can also at Dummit and foote, it is exactly same but the idea is why do we need N to be normal to make G/N group with given condition, so both are equivalent
if you define a function that takes as input a group of people and returns a name by: pick a random person in that group and return their name, it is not a well defined function because you dont get the same name every time you use your function, same with multiplication of cosets, you define multiplication of cosets by picking some random elements from coset 1 and coset 2 and multiply them together and then go back to cosets right but theres not reason to believe it is well defined because it could depend on which elements you pick. it turns out it doesnt matter if the subgroup is normal
its like if you feed this name function a group of people that all have the same name it becomes well defined, doesnt matter which random person is picked
Yeah, that totally makes sense. Thanks for the clarification!
Oh cant read 💀
Yes it is nice
Makes one think about which objects in general do not satisfy a CSB type property
It can be tricky to understand everything up front. Often it's easier to understand something when you have a wider context from things you learned later.
Then you just need an excuse to think about things you "already know". Teaching or hanging out at these sort of math forums works.
I guess it's also worth it to spend some time trying to connect new ideas to old ones. Does what you're learning look like anything from e.g. linear algebra? If so, is the result expected unexpected. Helps with remember the new ideas, and also gives deeper understanding of the old ones.
The last sentence there
I know by fundamental theorem that quotient group is the galois group for the subextension over Fp but why is it generated by image of frob p
I guess it makes sense actually
which book is this?
looks like D&F
Dummit and foote
Is a finite degree separable extension Galois?
In dummit foote it says "finite, separable and normal extensions (are galois)"
Oh so the normal extension part is for the splitting field condition sort of thing
You could have an example of a finite separable extension that is not a splitting field, and so not Galois?
Like Q(cube root 2) over Q ?
That is finite so algebraic and separable because every polynomial over Q is separable
But not splitting field
Yep exactly, Q <= Q(cbrt(2)) is finite and separable, but not Galois
S_5 not solvable implies Abel-Ruffini
Does S_6 having a unique automorphism imply anything for polynomials?
if f is irreducible it must be coprime to its derivative Df so f is separable, except for the one case where Df is identically 0?
It appears to say something
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1630600/306319
couldnt find the dfn of a G set anywhere else, but according to nlab its a continuous group action on a discrete topological space, but didnt understand the part that says its a free coproduct completion of G-orbits, from what i read its like a disjoint union of cosets? to put it intuitively?
a G set is just a set X which affords a permutation representation
i.e., a group homomorphism G —> Sym(X), or in other words, a group G acting on a set X
yes this is from the discrete topology kinda makes sense i guess
this group action stuff is very interesting, how rich is something like geometric invariant theory in studying this? (kinda got recd this)
i would presume quite rich as wikipedia describes geometric invariant theory as the study of group actions on algebraic varieties or schemes to construct quotients
yeah it sounds too good to be true haha
since very large finite groups are considered a complete mistery
I'm just starting group theory and learned that the additive group Z is a cyclic group? I'm not sure I understand how that is possible as there seems to be 2 generators needed, 1 and -1. Are inverses considered as a single element in this context?
no?
it's generated by 1
That means you can add and subtract it since inverses exist
generation includes for the operation of taking inverses as well
it's not just the "forward" direction
it inclues the identity too
oh okok thanks guys
think of it as a ring, quite literal, no pun intended
Ye the subgroup generated by an element g is best defined as the smallest subgroup containing g
And indeed that reflects the terminology
when you phrase it that way, you can probably recharacterise that statement in terms of a universal property
For finite groups you can get away with just taking powers as each element has finite order anyway
idk why I never made that connection
it is just the free group on the generating set mod out the presentation of the ambient group anyways
Ye
As a monoid, Z is generated by 2 elements :>
I guess here viewing it as a universal property is slightly awkward but it is definitely a more universal or invariant characterisation
its slightly more awkward since there are existing relations but it sounds doable
Ig here I would be pedantic and say that "G is generated by n elements" doesn't define n well lol
As in you can say Z is generated by n elements for any n >= 1 lol
sounds like someone like cat theory (cool)
But ye
Minimum number of generators
Did you know that Z \ 0 is the free monoid on countably many generators
anyways, could someone sanity check my proof here?
I can't see where I went wrong with it, but I seem to have proven that if aM = M as (finitely generated) modules for any single ideal a in the base ring R, then M is trivial:
the only place where the proof seems sus to me is the "A in M_n(R) is invertible iff det(A) is a unit", but that sounds like a reasonable assumption to make without giving it more thought
tl;dr my proof somehow avoids using the local assumption but still looks correct to me so im confused
So what you're proving is that the determinant of I-aij is 1 modulo m.
But this doesn't imply it's a unit if m is just an arbitrary maximal ideal.
For example 3 is 1 modulo (2) but is not a unit in Z.
So what you have to use is that because A is local, being a unit modulo m means being a unit (or more generally, not being in m means being a unit)
isnt this just proving a_ij not being I, if it were then is the whole thing
or is it more subtle
I mean, the 0-matrix is not the only matrix that isn't invertible
I - aij can be noninvertible without aij being equal to I
N \ 0 is free, -1 makes it unfree 🙂
Z \ 0 ≈ Q^(Q) x C_2
Yep
Or well
Well N^(N)
With the right free monoid structure on Q^(Q)
Is Q^Q a new emoticon?
Ah ye I'm dumb. I was gonna say N \ 0 and then was like eh -1 is f8ne but obviously squares to 1 lmao
Horn-rimmed glasses with the horns at the bottom and pointing to the same side...
Just enlarge your type to include the constant -1 which squares to 1
Then, given that the monoids are commutative im inclined to believe Z \ 0 is free
Wait, so you’re saying that a unique maximal ideal, if it exists, is exactly just the set of all nonunits?
I guess it makes sense
Oh that's a good point
Yes, being local is equivalent to having the nonunits form an ideal
it feels weird, lmao like this is too simple of a characterisation
Just by dfn kinda makes sense bc of 1
so to finish the proof, is just to say that 1 = det(...) can't be in m, therefore det(...) is a unit and the matrix is invertible (by locality)
A ring if local if any of the following equivalent conditions are true:
It has a unique maximal left ideal
It has a unique maximal right ideal
It has a unique maximal two-sided ideal, and the quotient by that ideal is a division ring
The sum of non-units is again a nonunit.
For every x either x is a unit or 1-x is.
ok that tracks
I'd love to see your ref bc hungerford pg 147 has fewer equivalent statements
Which of them are in hungerford?
$\bZ$ is also the pushout(in Grpd) of ${0\leftrightarrows1}\leftarrow{0, 1}\rightarrow{•}$
, pretty interesting
jagr doesn’t subscribe to [x,y] = 0 gang which means jagr is different from Chmonkey
NAT Enthusiast
We may be different, but do we commute?
radical
the gtm version i think
gtm?
Graduate text version
yeah the yellow books
GRADUATE TEXTS IN MATHEMATICS
Okay, but which statements?
it's almost no difference, but i like your version it's a bit more precise, thats why i asked
Alright, I might try to look up a reference tomorrow
Jagr the 🐐
THE GOAT THE GOAT I TELL YOU
I will now stop because words are meaningless if they are often repeated
Could someone help on this? I've tried some arguments but they're not going anywhere I think. My professor gave an argument for when we have a^2 + b^2 = p a prime but 145 isn't prime. I was thinking that maybe the fact 145 isn't prime implies a+bi isn't prime (where it's norm is 145), hence not irreducible, so we can factor then look at the norms of the factors as 29 and 5. But that seems wrong
Use unique factorisation ye
Following the argument my prof. gave and using unique factorization I have something like:
Let a+bi be a Gaussian integer with norm 145. 145 is not prime in the integers, so since the Gaussian integers are a PID, a+bi is not prime and thus not irreducible. Hence a+bi = (c+di)(e+fi) for some Gaussian integers as shown. This is unique, since the Gaussian integers are a UFD. WLOG, let the norm N(c+di) = 29. Then N(e+fi) = 5.
(from here my professor gave an argument like this, but I don't really know what quadratic residues are since I've never taken number theory):
c^2 + d^2 = 29, so c^+d^2 is congruent to 0 mod 29. So there exist q such that cq is congruent to 1 mod 29. Hence q^2c^2 + q^2d^2 is congruent to 0 mod 29, and q^2d^2 is congruent to -1 mod 29. So -1 is a quadratic residue of mod 29.
The last bit is a little overcomplicated: if c^2 + d^2 = 29 then wlog c is not divisible by 29 and then (d/c)^2 = -1 mod 29. But also like idk what proving that -1 is a quadratic residue has to do w the conclusion
I would start by factorising 145 within the Gaussians
And then you can use uniqueness there
To get a complete (finite) list of possibilities
If $[x,y]$ is the commutator of $x,y \in G$($G$ is a group) then I need to prove that:
$$
[ab,c]=(b^{-1}[a,c]b)[b,c]
$$
I tried to expand it, but it looks wrong... any help?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
b^-1a^-1c^-1acbb^-1c^-1bc = b^-1a^-1c^-1abc = [ab, c]
think this works
if you do the commutator the other way I agree it breaks
But the commutator defined as [x,y]=xyx^(-1)y^(-1)
not my problem
yeah then it isn't true
OHH WELL, thanks
hi all
i made it to a summer program (yay!) and will probably be doing a research paper on algebraic number theory
i dont have any idea what the specific topic is, but i think i need to build some prerequisites: specifically, field theory and galois theory
i've just done ring theory and the second semester is field and galois theory in the class im taking right now but i want to get ahead of the game so how unrealistic is it to study chapter 5 in hungerford's abstract algebra in ~6-7 weeks if i work hard
kinda a soft question but i didnt know where to ask it
What is chapter 5?
Hi, I've already done part (a) of this question. I'm struggling with (b), trying to prove that g is in K[X]. If g is in K[X], then we can say that #X(L/K)=[L:K], hence g has correct degree, and we can choose varphi(alpha)=alpha so g(alpha)=0 for some alpha. Could anyone please give me a himt to prove this is in K[X]?
Like, I know I'm supposed to use part (a)
but yeah i'ts not entirely obvious that phi applied to the coefficients is g again
What's the relationship between the roots of a polynomial and its coefficients?
Remember that phi preserves addition and multiplication
i understand how to finish the proof if i show that the image is discrete.
i don't understand how we get that |g+mg_1| < |g_1|/sqrt(2)
if we have a g in B so that p(g) < |g_1|/2, then the element cg_1+g (c in R) projects to g in W. they are of the same norm. now im stuck and i cant follow
do i get to pick any m i want? it doens't matter which m do i pick cuz it still projects into g in R.g_1 right
i think i can show that the norm of g+mg_1 is less than the norm of g if this m has norm less than 1/2
does this work
that is, consider g in B with p(g) (the orthgonal projection onto the orthgonal complement of Rg_1) has norm less than |g_1|/2. consider the element x = g+mg_1. this is in B and has norm <= |g+mg_1| <= |g_1|/2 + |g_1|/2 ?
It's worded kinda confusingly, but I think the point is that
g = rho(g) + xg1 for some real number x.
By adding some integer multiple mg1 we can make |x| <= 1/2.
Then
|g + mg1|^2 = |rho(g)|^2 + x^2 |g1|^2 < |g1|^2 / 4 + |g1|^2 / 4 = |g1|^2 / 2
So g + mg1 has norm less than g1, contradiction
g=rho(g)+xg_1 where rho(g) is the orthgonal projecton onto the orthgonal complement
we may wlog (probably similar to what i said above?) assume |x| <1/2
and then what u typed out follows
yeah got it
tysm king
fields and galois theory
Honestly, 6-7 weeks for Galois theory sounds decent
ok, thank you!
Hello. I need some rudimentary intuition of Borel Subgroups and perhaps from there work towards understanding the definition.
im sorry but where did we use the fact that the graph is a closed (and hence a submanifold)?
ig if i dont have that it is a submanifold it doens't make sense to talk about Lp? (Lp is the induced map in the lie algebra/tangent space at e)
I think that's it.
yeah
so to recap the proof, the idea is that the projection induces a bijection on the tangent spaces and hence by the inverse function theorem they are local diffeos?
but if htye are inveritble local diffeos then they are diffeos?
and hence f is just a copmosition of diffeos which is a diffeo?
@tough raven
I think so. To be really precise, the inverse function theorem tells you that the inverse of Gamma_f → G, namely G → Gamma_f (which is a priori only continuous) is differentiable.
Yes, it splits over K since it has p distinct roots a, a+1, ..., a+p-1 = a-1.
How do I know that a to a+1 extends to an automorphism of K? I saw examples that for K fg over F, you need to always send generators to another root of the min poly over F , but you may not just choose it arbitrarily cause it may not be an automorphism
I have been trying to understand when this works or not
The example was like for the splitting field of x^3-2 over Q. Q(cuberoot(2), p(cuberoot(2)))
Also, since [K = F(a) : Fp] = p, we only can say K is Fp^p because we know there is exactly one finite field of order p^p?
what is an internal direct product?
i think it's a way of saying G is isomorphic to HxK
but it's not actually a set of definite objects
but idk if that's right, i'm guessing
That polynomial x^(p^n)-x over Fp is separable but its not irreducible right
because x = 1 is always a root
For (e), how many elements are Artin-Schreier? Does that just mean how many elements of Fp^p are roots ? Isnt it just p many because its degree p
Yeah, im not totally sure what question e) is asking for
It’s a silly thing
It’s when you find two normal subgroups H,K such that H\cap K = 1 and HK = G
If this is true you get that G ≈ H x K
If we look at (x) (the ideal generated by x) and k[x] as modules over k[x], are they isomorphic k[x]-modules? k is some field
Yes
I wanna prove that: Let $\sigma = (12\cdots m)$ be $m$ cycle. Then $\sigma^i$ is $m$ cycle as well if and only if $\gcd(m,i)=1$.\
Assume $\gcd(i,m)=1$ then notice $\sigma^i(1)=i+1$, $\sigma^i(2)=2i+1$ ans so on upto $\sigma^i(m)=mi+1\equiv 1$. Wlog assume $i\in {1,2,\ldots, m}$. Since gcd is 1 so $i\neq m$. Now $1\leq i\leq m-1$ implies that $ai+1 \not\equiv_m 0$ so $ai+1 \in {1,\ldots, m-1}$. Finally it suffices to $i+1,\ldots, 1$ a4e distinct. If $ai=bi$ then $(a-b)i=0$. Since $i\neq 0$, $a=b$.
Abstract Afzal
Name of book ?
How? The map $x\hookrightarrow k[x]$ doesn't even seem to be surjective
adi
x to which algebraic structure does it belong?
That’s not the map you use
Oh. Do you do it the other way? $k[x]\rightarrow (x)$, with the map being multiplication by $x$? This seems to be surjective with trivial kernel.
adi
Yes
Cool thanks. It's a bit odd that no map from $(x)\rightarrow k[x]$ is forthcoming, though...
adi
Yeah there is, divide by x, it’s just the inverse
Oh! Yeah my bad
Abstract Afzal
(sigma is m cycle), but in the book author says if k+i>m then take mod m
Dummit
Yes 
for the field of 4 elements using {0, 1, a, b}, the valid bases are:
{1,a}; {1,b}; {a,b}*
and no others, right?
* 
Why are these the same field?
I don’t see how root 5 + root 7 is in the second field
Like in general when is it true that like
R[alpha]R[beta] = R[alpha,beta]?
What is Q(sqrt5)Q(sqrt7)
Elements there are products ab with a in first b in second..?
In dummit and foote KH for K and H fields is the smallest field containing both K and H
Always. For additive subgroups H, K of a ring R, HK almost always means the additive subgroup generated by {hk : h ∈ H, k ∈ K}, i.e., {h1 k1 + ... + hn kn : hi ∈ H, ki ∈ K}.
In field theory with subfields it's sometimes extended even further like this (though this only makes a difference when both H and K are transcendental over H ∩ K).
kinda feels like the product of ideals
Can anyone provide any intuition for the definition of a solvable group?
Think of the composition series. A solvable (finite) group has a composition series consisting entirely of cyclic groups.
I agree : )
I think I asked my question poorly, I would like to know why we defined "solvable" to begin with
You are aware of what a solvable extension of fields is, I hope?
We can split up a solvable extension of fields into cyclic extensions
In turn, the Galois group is split up into cyclic subquotients
This correspondence defines solvability on the two sides
Oh, I haven't gotten there yet. I think that's in the next chapter
I'll ask again soon
Spoilers!
Well yeah there you go. The point is that you get cyclic extensions when your field is solvable.
field extension* is solvable
May u always be swift, eeeeeeeeeeee
they're like metacyclic groups but you can make a big sequence instead of a short exact sequence. This means that they are nice.
Why is every algebraic extension a union of finite extensions?
Let E:F be algebraic. Let a in E. You agree that F(a) is a finite extension?
Yeah
Take the union of all such things.
Yea fair enough lol
:0 does this mean that the lattice of algebraic extensions of F is algebraic?
the composite of all quadratic fields is Galois over Q because its the splitting field of a set of separable polynomials over Q?
those being some x^2-a things?
I am looking at Galois theory for infinite field extensions bc i have to do a presentation on it
Can someone help me with this example? Im not totally clear why we can say its the countable direct product of Z2
and what does it mean by "not direct sum!"
I'm also not sure why Gal(L/Q) is uncountable
Because it’s a direct product of counts my many Z/2Z
This is a cardinal arithmetic thing
Yeah im quite unfamiliar with that stuff unfortunately
If it was a direct sum only finitely many of the spots can be nonzero, so in this case it means that you can flip the sign of infinitlely many of the sqrt(p) in a single automorphism
Look at what happens when you take sqrt(p) for p < N, and then take the limit as N -> infinity. You end up taking the limit of (Z/pZ)^{p(N) + 1} where p(N) is the number of primes <= N
Hmm tbh im kind of confused by both of that ngl
In the finite case, are direct sum and direct products the same? But for infinite collections, direct sum means finitely many are nonzero?
Yes
I know that each automorphism must take sqrt(d) to some root of the min poly of sqrt(d) over Q
So there are only two choices for each, positive or negative square root
But im not sure why we know each choice extends to an automorphism
It sounds like u have math to do
Is every element there a finite Q combo of sqrt(d) for some d's?
Within a fixed algebraic extension, yes. This is because an intermediate field is the same as a subalgebra over the base field.
Yes thats what I meant haha
is this an error?
No
This does use the relatively easy but still non-trivial fact that intermediate rings are automatically fields.
Theyre identifying T with the corresponding elements in Q(R, T)
Mfw non-zero element of T even though 0 ∉ T 
yeah T was already defined not to contain 0
So a ring R with F < R < E and F, E fields and E/F algebraic is also a field?
Huh.. I'll think of this a bit
yeah it makes sense actually because some elements of R won't have inverses
some elements of Q(R,T) won't have inverses
you're right
Ohh of course, because let a be an element in R \ {0}
Then F(a) ≈ F[x] / I, so a^-1 is some polynomial of a with coefficients in F, in particular, a^-1 in R, meaning that R is a field
In fact, you can see it as just adding the inverses of the elements in T
(And then making everything well defined as a ring)
Thats why T cant contain 0, you'd just collapse everything to the zero ring
And T being multiplicative too, as if a and b have inverses, then ab must have one too
What the heck kinda book is this
Ive never seen a text tell me “you know what, think about it first for about 15 minutes or so, “
it's kind of funny, there was a true/false question: "the theorem of lagrange is a nice result"
Hahaha
lol
Ya i saw a final exam from my undergrad have a question saying “state the most important theorem learned in class” (points given for good taste)
Something like that lol
True
But orbit stabiliser theorem is better
What class was this lol
Dont remember, i think it was an analysis class though (Gross!!)
(Stinky!!)
(PEEEYEWWW)
😎
Ewwwww
Do you recall what you answered?
They reeeaalllyyy wanna make sure that your given element isnt 0
The book is my spirit animal 
True. They've also required it not to contain zero divisors (which makes not containing 0 redundant unless R = 0 to begin with), so that the map R → Q(R, S) is injective.
I personally think we should just let T be any subset and refrain from this constructive behaviour
Let the universal properties reign

It's the opposite of constructive 
But avoiding zero-divisors simplifies the definition of Q(R, S), which is good the first time one sees localisations.
This is constructive
Yeah thats fair
Classy exercise. But I'm guessing they give full marks to everyone who states any theorem from class(?)
Imagine someone accidentally states a lemma
Then it's up to the personal definition of "theorem" for the teacher
Later ill try to find the exam and show u guys
Okay!!
Lemma is a one-off theorem
Proposition is a theorem we didn't bother proving
Theorem is the reason we wrote this paper
Lemma is a result used in later results
Proposition is a result not used in later results, but is still worth mentioning (e.g. for an example, or context)
Theorem is the reason we wrote this paper
this is my heuristic
imo proposition is stuff like "this construction has all the desired properties"
like quotient ring is associative and distributive and everything
I generally use propositions for fairly basic facts that still need to be proved but aren't necessarily worth calling a theorem, but it's also not for a specific theorem so I wouldn't call it a lemma
e.g. "so and so defined maps are morphisms of closure systems"
yes exactly
homework paper ahh
proposition: L is an inner model of ZFC
false, L is an algebraically closed field
that's fair
unless proving it is an actually worthwhile result and takes more ingenuity than a would be homework problem
For a Galois group acting on the roots of a separable polynomial, each orbit necessarily corresponds to permutations of roots of one irreducible factor right?
So the # of orbits is also like the # of irreducible factors of that polynomial
Also not sure if i needed to say separable there^
Hmm. The automorphism group of any normal algebraic extension permutes conjugates transitively, yes.
A normal extension over F is an extension that is a splitting field for a set of polynomial over F?
Is it redundant to say normal “algebraic” extension then? If you have K/F where K is the splitting field of some set of polynomials over F, would K not already be algebraic?
Nice emote lol
: mathgtmheart:
Probably, but I said algebraic just to be sure.
better than AG
AG just seems so hard
flat étale unramified proper regular
it's not even about anything good tbh tbh
When ur learning that sort of stuff is there even a geometry picture associated to it or like
i think étale is the same as covering map in topology
not to be confused with étalé
yeah a bit
hoping pokemon ZA will be good
Ong i liked Wii U era better
hoping MK9 will be great
Good book
Me too
Yeah you are a good book
switch is a failure after like the first two years
Haha thats such an unpopular opinion but i agree
and even then
SMO < SM3DW
SSBU < SSB4
absolutely
Classic zelda moment where it got such praise the moment it released then everyone turned on it later lol
Like skyward sword
I mean in a sense it's the algebra most close to highschool algebra, as it is at least loosely related to solving equations
Perhaps not post-Grothendiecken AG
Is Galois theory about solving equations
yeah but tbh algebraic curves just dont excite me
honestly silly things like Spec(Z) are kinda more fun to think about
I mean you can always do universal algebraic geometry
Whyd i even ask that
but even then there's such a flood of terms
it's about NOT solving equations 
Galois theory is solving equations when everything is all nice and happy
Imagine trying to solve equations over sets
Or magmas
Universal algebra
👍
Now the question is where universal algebra turns up
lol
I actually stumbled upon it through Latin squares, which has to be the genuinely most "me" thing to ever happen
But I'd argue any time you wanna do something with solving and solvability of equations, lattices and universal algebra show up
Also as a general framework and toolbox to do algebraic structures on
Idfk man why does galois theory exist
lmao
I think something as rudimentary as solving equations but operators aren't necessarily not horrible to work with is a fairly good motivation
-# regardless of whether or not thats why you got interested in the first place
Woah cool text effect
That is quite cool
I wanted to prove some impossibility of a certain algebraic structure of a given cardinality existing (Euler's conjecture for order 6) and needed a framework for studying more universal algebraic structures
can you prove the impossibility of a field of order 1 existing
I did, in fact, not end up proving it
I was too dumb 
Suppose field of order 1 exists
cry
Lets not suppose field of order 1 exists
Well the most harmful thing about the zero ring being a field is that 1 would be prime
Qwq
I was thinking about this for a while. I feel like im close , but i havent yet used rhe fact that l is prime, and im not sure where that comes in
I know that any irreducible degree l poly over Fp must be a factor of x^(p^l)-x
Can I ask, what book is this?
Its my professors homework he wrote
Sometimes he gets stuff from dummit and foote though
Oh got it. Thank you!
this is one of those problems where im like daaamn i feel so close so i been locked in for hours
but i should take a break
The product of two units in Z_n is always a unit, right?
and the product of a unit and a non-unit is never a unit?
The units of a ring form a group under multiplication
So that is true in any ring
thanks 🙏
#「graduate-lounge」 moment
Don't need to, since you will actually do it.
You can write down an answer to this for any degree n. I think the answer simplifies for n a prime. So that might be all it is.
It doesn't matter, since m/2^{n-1} = 2m/2^n i.e., you can always increase the exponent in the denominator by changing the numerator.
Yes, but can you simplify the second one?
That's true. But you can make it simpler if you change variables to m' = 2m and n' = n+1.
m'/(2^n' 3^(n'-2))
if it doesn't matter that means we should have an isomorphism from the field with Z+ to the field with Z
i wonder how to make this isomorphism
... OK, I'm doing something wrong.
Anyway, what I meant is that the set is also {m/6^n : m ∈ ℤ, n ∈ ℤ^+}.
Because m/6^n = 3(2m)/6^(n+1).
ok i see what you mean
You can construct the isomorphism using the very fraction rewriting procedure. For example, map m/2^n to m/2^n for n ∈ ℤ^+ and map m/2^n to 2^{max(n,0)-n} m / 2^{max(n,0)} for n ∈ ℤ.
I mean, neither the algebraic geometries nor coherent conditions on Set are particularly interesting
As the free object on n generators in Set is just { 1, ..., n}, the coordinate "algebras" of a set X are just the finite sets of cardinality smaller than |X|, and the affine varieties are all isomorphic to X^n for some n
and the coherent conditions on Set are all principal, so basically the same as the algebraic geometries
i.e., nothing much to be solved here
🔥
why? it's a beautiful encapsulation of schur-weyl duality. See further: https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/field+with+one+element
Im still somewhat confused as to what properties and phenomena are being generalised as expressions over q with q=1
Unless im misunderstanding
Well for one, the sylow structure. Which is what I care about
Number 2, it turns linear algebra into combinatorics. I.e. GL_n(1) is just S_n, F_1-modules are pointed sets, the F_1 representation ring is the Burnside ring
So on and so forth
The funnest fact is that they’re studying geometry over this object to try and prove the Riemann hypothesis
Thats really cool, alright
I'll let it sink in for a bit
Let that sink in
Might be worth looking further into when I've finally bothered to learn rep theory
there are (p^l-p)/l irreducible polys of degree l over Fp?
alright well googling shows that was indeed the answer, ok cool
I dont know what is different if l was not prime though
Ok, I get why now
So Gal has uncountably many subgroups of order 2, and if the correspondence worked how it normally does, each subgroup of order 2 should correspond to a field L > K > Q with [L : K] = 2?
But [L : K] = 2 would need K to be the composite of all quadratic fields but take away one sqrt(p)?
and there are only countably many ways to do that?
Yeah
I guess p^l - p wouldn't be divisible by l? Fermat moment
This is true, but I think an easier justification is that
Gal(L/Q) = (Z/2)^N is an F2 uncountable F2 vector space, hence has an uncountable number of index 2 subgroups (just picking a basis an projecting onto a basis vector).
But there are only countable many degree 2 subextension of L because L is countable.
Eeeh ok wait
The index of a subgroup should correspond to [E : Q] for a subfield K > E > Q right
Tbh i think there is a lot in that that i do not understand
Hey guys, i have a quick question: I have to get all the possible tuples of (s2,s3,s5) such that these subgroups are a valid sylow-subgroup combination of a group of order 30. So 30=532, that is clear and i also know that these are the possible solutions: s2 is in (1,3,5,15); s3 in (1,2,5,10); s5 in (1,2,3,6). When i consider the equation s2+2s3+4s5+1 (for identity), does this have to be <= than 30 or =?
If $H,K\le G$ and $H\lhd G$ with $H \cap K={e}$. Does it mean that $HK\cong H\times K$/
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
No
Consider G = S_3, H = A_3, K = { 1, (1 2) }
S_3 is noncommutative, while H ≈ C_3 and K ≈ C_2, meaning that H x K is commutative
What you do have though, is that HK is a so-called semidirect product of K by H
Say $H, K\lhd G$. When does $HK\cong H\times K$?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
Always
(If their intersection is trivial)
ohh lol
How can I prove it?
I thought maybe doing something with $\phi:H\times K\to G$ defined by $\phi(h,k)=hk$ and then first isomorphism theorem, but I wasn't sure if it would work.
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
Canonic isomorphism
You need |HK| = |G|
Bro what ?
Take the homomorphism
HK -> HK/H x HK/K
x -> (xH, xK)
Show that it must be injective and surjective (use the fact that conjugation is an automorphism)
Then use the third isomorphism theorem to see that
HK/H ≈ K/(H \cap K) ≈ K
HK/K ≈ H/(H \cap K) ≈ H
Thus finally HK ≈ H x K
Why would H being normal in HK ?
Hypothesis is that both H and K are normal subgroups
.
Ok but we don’t need this hypothesis
Only that H is in the normaliser of K and K in the normaliser of H ig
One thing you can do is to consider the commutator of an element h in H and k in K. Using normality you can show that the commutator is contained in both H and K, hence is trivial.
So in fact HK = HxK iff both H and K are normal in HK
do polynomials over C always have solutions in C?
yeah
C is algebraically closed
which means every polynomial over C has a root in C, which means it has all its roots in C
the fact that C is algebraically closed is called the fundamental theorem of algebra
I guess
1 = 0
Technically is a polynomial equation without solutions in C
fundamental theorem of algebra is for non-constant polynomials
oh yeah degree has to be at least 1
holy moly new person
wassup Ricci ma boi
hi boy
i want to ask a ring theorey question
go ahead

Let $R$ and $ S$ be distinct subrings of $\mathbb{Q}$, each with exactly two prime ideals. Show that $1/ 2$ belongs to at least one of $R$ and $S$.
$Q$ is PID these prime ideals are generated by some prime elements
So 0 is a prime ideal, so these rings have exactly one maximal ideal.
So can look at the intersection of this ideal with Z.
subrings are local rings
These will be yeah
can we take for example localization of Z at 5 and 3 are the local rings as subrings of Q
I mean, those will be an example sure
I can show the upper bound, how to show the lower bound?
lower bound is easy to show
just use the definition of lcm
m divides the quotient so is n it means lcm will also divide
Oh you mean m divides | G : H \cap K | ?
But why will it be true?
I showed that every right coset of H\cap K is the intersection of the right coset of H and the right coset of K
So it will be finite and upper bound by mn
you cant do that with cosets
Why?
does this work?
[G : H cap K] = [G : H] [H : H cap K] = a multiple of m
[G : H cap K] = [G : K] [K : H cap K] = a multiple of n
But we didn't prove it yet
which part?
oh
But I don't want to use that one
We can because that's the same idea used in Basic Algebra by Nathan Jacobson
let me remind it , the solution was using some group action
Okay
Can I ask how? Because K is not normal in G, or you mean just mapping without any algebraic structure?
I forgot if I already asked this but
Everything you want to know about is just about the size of those sets
So just a surjection of sets is enough
What's an example of a ring where you can't construct a maximal ideal and actually need to resort to Zorn?
Yes
I think Q will work with modify multiplication ( you mean the ring which has no maximal ideal ) , right?
So we don't need K to be normal, thanks
sorry unable to remind that
Np
you just use next excersise
But it is in Dummit and foote so I don't think the author wants to use group action here
Okay
for next excersise define a map from $[G:H \cap K] \mapsto [G:H]$ by $h(H \cap K)\mapsto hH$
Ricci 10
CHECK this map is well defined you will your result
Next exercise is [ G : H ] = [ G : K ] [ K : H ]
And I already did it
Ricci 10
It comes from [ G : H \cap K ] = [ G : H ] [ H : H \cap K ]
i was avoiding your jacobson solution
That's not Jacobson's solution
I ses
I see
But when we have a tower, why do we have to do something different?
Are you still struggling ?
Not exactly
But can I get the lower bound without using tower law?
If you really want to know, I guess one can look up why this implies AoC. Then take a family of sets whose product is not provably non-empty without choice and use that to make a ring.
My whole aim was to solve this problem without using any other result from here
If you show this explicitly you are done
Okay then cannot we just prove that tower law?
okay you can
what intersection with Z will give me
You can show that the possible R's or S's are precisely ℤ_(p) for every prime number p.
How do I show that H is a subgroup of G if G = <RxR,+> and H = {(x,y) : y=2x}?
Do you know of the subgroup test?
Of course you can directly just check the group axioms hold (and it is clearly a subset), but if you know the subgroup test you can do this slightly faster
yeah, but I can't really figure out how to use it for that example
Well where are you getting stuck?
I'm not exactly sure what my end result should look like when proving that it is closed to w/r to addition. I define (x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2) to be inside H and add them and get (x_1+x_2,y_1,y_2) but I'm not even sure im thats where im supposed to be going
Well you have a way to relate x and y in H (im also guessing you mean y_1+y_2 there)
should I then make it into (x_1+x_2,2x_1+2x_2)?
I could then turn it into (x_1+x_2,x_1+x_2)(1,2) but idk if im allowed to do that since multiplication is not the operation
or perhaps I want to turn it into (x_1+x_2,2(x_1+x_2)) then define some new variable (which I guess can be n) then I have (n,2n) but im not sure how to conclude that part if that is the correct step
If F is a field, then the units in F[x] are precisely the units in F
this is true right?
thanks 🙏
wait
wouldn't that make it false?
like 2 is nilpotent in Z_4 right?
oh but i have a field
i see
how to show projective simple linear group over Z_5 is simple without iwasava theorem on doubly trasitive group action
You can try to show by using deg(f•g) = deg(f) + deg (g) in Euclidean domain
So can you see any polynomial of degree more than 0 can't be unit
In F[x]
that makes sense
i think i have seen this in commutative algebra by balwant singh
Yeah this is a basic result
is this question should be asked her or in other server
symmetry group of some n-gon (in 2-D) is called Dihedral group right?
If you can flip it over, yes.
Wait.
Yeah, if you can flip the n-gon over, the dihedral group will represent rotations and flips.
oh wait i think i stated incorrectly
symmetry gorup = dihedral only if n=3
S_3 \iso D_6
yes
because 3 is the only n such that n! = 2n
true, for other cases dihedral group is like a subspace of symmetry group (precisely, D_2n is isomoprhic to some subgroup of S_n)
its really awesome, if two subgroups are isomorphic they possesses almost same properties. Then only thing that differs both is the representation of elements.
for n>3
ah yes yes
sorry, wdym by faithfully
no non-identity element has the same action as the identity
that's what a faithful action is
oh
i haven't read actions yet, so can i consider it as D2n (for n<3) would not be well defined (i mean would not exists)?
i mean they're perfectly well defined
⟨x,y | x^n = y^2 = 1, xy = yx^-1⟩ is perfectly understandable for n = 1 or 2
D_1 is just C_2, and D_2 is just K_4
(i will be referring to them as D_n because i think D_2n is silly notation)
yeah indeed it make sense. (i was thinking about 2-gon and 1-gon geometric figures thats why said it isn't defined lol)
Thank you for this 
if you think of them bulging out in the right way you recover these groups
you're welcome :)
no D_2n is goated
why
why would you index a sequence of groups with their orders, rather than with the obvious number each one is associated to
the obvious number associated to it IS its order
dont tell me youre a tau enjoyer too 🤦♂️
it's literally the symmetries of the n-gon
defined with a generator of order 2, and a generator of order n
The D_n notation is better at conveying the natural embedding of the group into S_n
Among other things
there are n! symmetries of a set of size n, but we don't say S_n! for the symmetric group on n elements
every group is a subgroup of a symmetry group 
fr? 
is (Z,+) a subgroup fo some symmetric group?
if p is odd then a group of order p^3 is isomorphic to some symmetric group?