#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 311 of 1
for example groups with order 4k + 2
and of every other order there does exist a group with an orthogonal mate (simply by taking the direct product of finite-field constructed MOLS-pairs)
in other words, we've constructed a nontrivial spectrum
would you look at that
and hell, the spectrum stays the same if you require the groups to be abelian
how thoughtful of big math
(the spectrum of a class/variety of algebraic structures is the set of orders of finite algebras in said class)
I have to show that the set G of transformations of R sending x -> ax+b for real a, b and a\neq 0, is a transformation group of R. Should I assume that a and b are fixed?
Maybe not, right? Since an identity should have x --> 1x+0
if assume a and b are fixed then you've got a set consisting of a single element
because.. you then only have the function f_a,b sending x to ax + b
You should assume a and b vary over all reals with a \neq 0, just as you described yourself
"Groups with operators" might be related.
not necessarily, those are groups which have operators on them, i.e. the underlying groups change
a representation of a group is essentially the same as a module
It's kind of fun to do this for all finite abelian groups (in particular, you can find out the answer for (ℤ/nℤ)^⨯).
the group stays fixed much like the base ring a module stays fixed (generally)
Is there an operation that causes the set to expand to include all real numbers?
I mean, I'm just giving you the only even tangentially related keyword I know.
hehe it's okay, thanks for the contribution :3
analytic continuation, I guess? I have a friend who looks into it
In general, if a variety of algebraic structures B has a forgetful functor to another A (ig you call that a reduct?), just by the existence of presentations this has a left adjoint. This generalises the monoid ring construction ℤ[M], which you can specialise to groups.
Group/monoid algebras R[G] require the concept of commuting though to say that G commutes with R.
yeah is called a reduct
Supremum is kind of an operation I guess
oh yeah it is in some way related
mmm
this is related to something which I explored a little while back, called enrichment (because of the slight similarity with enrichment in category theory)
if you take V_1 to be the variety of groups and V_2 to be any variety consisting of only unary operations, then V_1 enriched by V_2 is a variety of groups with operators
you can expand on this and get, for example, that rings are (abelian) groups enriched by monoids
oh, of course, the variety of K-linear representations of G is the variety of K-vector spaces enriched by the variety of G-sets
I've found a single guy and precisely two papers on general representations of algebraic structures
lmao
and it was originally written in russian and like
barely readable
(the translation)
I fear I might be cooked..
did anyone answer this?
for a tensor product M(x)N that is also an R-bimodule, to show a map defined on it is an R-bimodule hom, do I show that the map from M x N is R-bilinear, but on both sides?
because bimodule hom not just (left) module hom?
You need to show f(mr, n) = f(m, rn) for it to be well-defined and f(rm, n) = r f(m, n), f(m, nr) = f(m, n) r for it to be bilinear.
What about f(m1+m2, n) = f(m1,n)+f(m2,n)?
You need that too
Assuming M, N are R-bimodules and you're talking about M (⨯)_R N.
My book wants me to prove that if a group G is finite and has even order, then it has a nontrivial element that is its own inverse. The book has not yet discussed subgroups generated by a subset of elements, so I don't want to touch that. I mean it has mentioned subgroups, but no generation. Can I get a pointer?
Every element in a group has an inverse, there are an even number of elements, take away the identity and how many are there?
This isnt even really a group theory problem, dont over complicate it!
It's funny how this trick of pairing an element with its inverse has come in handy two times today
a true Latin square moment
in fundamentally different ways though
that's even more interesting, I'd say
Damn that's so obvious
It takes like two questions to get there
What are the elements of a finite group
What do I know about these elements
Bam done
hint: use noggin
many such cases
$\begin{cases} \text{case 1} \ \quad \vdots & \text{(many such cases)} \ \text{manyth such case} \end{cases}$
Mqnic_
How to proof this?
Let $(g, h) \in G \times H$. If g and h have finite orders r and s respectively,
then the order of (g, h) in $G \times H $is the least common multiple of r
and s.
rabbits_advocate
I start with $g^r = e_1$ and $h^s = e_2$
rabbits_advocate
Compute (g, h)^n and see when it equals the identity
So i got to $g^n = g^{ra}, h^n = h^{sb} \implies (ra) | n, (sb) | n$
rabbits_advocate
How can I conclude that n is the least common multiple of r and s?
and that this n is the order of (g, h) in $G \times H$
rabbits_advocate
The order of (g, h) is the least positive n such that (g, h)^n = (1, 1).
And what are the numbers n for which (g, h)^n = (1, 1)?
And what is the definition of the least common multiple of two numbers?
I will not say any more on this
why is the identity (1, 1)?
shouldnt it be some (e_1, e_2)
I am writing 1 to mean the identity of the groups G and H respectively. This is standard notation for such things.
Group theorists usually just write 1 instead of e, but in beginner textbooks e is standard to avoid confusion
the last edge piece is always determined
the last corner piece is always determined
S43
i think
kindof.
well maybe not quite but i think u can get something out of that
I don't think that means you can embed in the smaller group.

For example, consider the action of S_n on {1, ..., n}.
The action on n is determined once you know it on the rest.
by induction it embeds in S1... yh ok
But unless n is fixed by every element, it doesn't map into S_{n-1}.
I guess even stronger, if n=p is prime and you consider the p-cycle (1, 2, ..., p) then the permutation is completely determined by where 1 is mapped, but Cp does not embed in Sn for n<p
||So inner automorphism group is cyclic means G is abelian. ||
||Inversion is a homomorphism so either |AutG| is a multiple of 2 or every element is its own inverse. ||
||But then G = (Z/2)^(N) so there are no such examples.||
And I guess the same would work for any odd prime
Fact
||G/Z(G) ⊆ Aut(G) is cyclic, so G is abelian. If G has any summand of the form ℤ or ℤ/p^nℤ with p^n ≠ 2, the automorphism group of that summand yields a subgroup of Aut(G) of even order. Hence if fg, G is a direct sum of C2's. Now the automorphism group of C2^n is |GL_n(F_2) = (2^n-1)...(2^n-2^{n-1}). This goes 1, 1, 6, ... so it is never 3.||

Oh, that's neater.
I didn't know the first fact of either solution
You've just unlocked: group theory exercise.
Now you do 
To claim this achievement please provide a proof 🏆
Uh-oh
Fun fact : It is actually sufficient for G/Z(G) to be cyclic for G to be abelian.
That's the same thing.
I mean monogene
like cyclic in France is : ~ Z/nZ
monogene is : G = <x>, which is not necessary finite
I don't have good intuition for nonabelian groups
Good thing these groups are abelian then 
Let p be an irreducible separable polynomial of degree d. Let C be the companion matrix of p and U the d⨯d matrix with just a 1 at the top-right corner. Let N be the k⨯k matrix with 1's just below the diagonal. Consider A = C (⨯) Id_k + U (⨯) N, i.e., A is block-diagonal with C's on the diagonal and U's just below the diagonal. (This is the kind of matrix obtained in primary rational canonical form.)
What is the Jordan-Chevalley decomposition of A?
Like In(G) ~ Z ==> G abelian
I see.
French people and their language smh
Hmm in this case, the ses splits because ℤ is free; and the product is direct because the kernel is central.
So let h be the generator of Aut(G). Then for any g in G, conj_g = h^n. Pick the least n>0 such that there is g as above (well-ordering!). If Aut(G) is finite, then there is l with conj_g^l = id. So g^l is in the center. That's all I got so far
And the quaternion group shows that just because the power of an element is in the center, that doesn't mean the element itself is (i isn't in the center, but i² = -1 is)
I am not a trophy earner
For p(X) = X - a linear, this is trivial: we can take A_n = p(A) = A - a and A_s = A - p(A) = a (or if a ≠ 0, A_s = a - a/(-a)^k (A-a)^k, A_n = A - A_s to get polynomials in A with no constant coefficient).
Hint: try to get ||g^l = 1 (for the smallest l such that g^l is in the centre)|| and show that that's sufficient.
Got working(??) code to compute this lessgo
Although it never finishes running for deg > 3 for some reason
As expected, the semisimple part has the same diagonal blocks of A, but the blocks below the diagonal are quite mysterious, not being either U's or identity matrices. Naturally, the value of a block only depends on how far (in blocks) it is from the diagonal; this is true for any polynomial applied to A. The block k blocks from the diagonal has entries polynomial in the coefficients of p, divided by the k^th power of the discriminant of p.
(These come from computing for a generic monic polynomial of a given degree, which is irreducible and separable over the rational function field in the coefficients since the discriminant, being a non-zero polynomial in the coefficients, is invertible.)
So another description of the polynomial q such that q(A) = A_s: p ∘ q, (X - q)^k ≡ 0 (mod p^k). This pretty much uniquely (over any field and for any monic separable p; hence generically as well - if p^k ∤ q1 - q2 generically, then we can invert one of the coefficients of the remainder and then take a quotient field to obtain a contradiction) characterises q mod p^k by uniqueness in Jordan-Chevalley, since it implies that p(q(A)) = (A - q(A))^k = 0, i.e., q(A) is absolutely semisimple since it satisfies the separable polynomial p and A-q(A) is nilpotent.
I'm trying to show that $\psi: k[x, y] \to k[x]$ given by $x \mapsto x$ and $y \mapsto x^2$ has kernel $(y - x^2)$. Now $(y - x^2) \subseteq \ker \psi$ is clear, however, I'm struggling with the reverse inclusion. If $p(x, y) \in \ker \psi$, then $p(x, x^2) = 0$, but I'm a little stuck in showing that $y - x^2$ must divide it then
okeyokay
It's the Factor Theorem - p(a) = 0 ⇔ T-a ∣ p(T) - applied to the base ring k[x] and a = x^2.
In other words, you can use polynomial long division to write any polynomial p as p(X, Y) = q(X, Y) (Y - X^2) + p(X, X^2).
Oh for some reason I thought this was only true for polynomials over fields
Because the proof uses the division algorithm, which only holds for fields right
It works for monic polynomials over any commutative ring.
Over a field, all polynomials are monic (up to multiplication by an invertible scalar).
You can try it out for a few terms and see that it works.
Essentially, the division algorithm only ever divides by the leading coefficient.
It works on all polynomials whose leading coefficient is a unit right?
This is from Rotman's book
Yeah, essentially the same thing.
Um, uniqueness does hold when the leading coefficient is a unit (or cancellative, although existence isn't guaranteed then).
x^2-1=(x+3)(x+5) == (x+1)(x+7) mod 8
Which is the divisor?
Uh, I thought about UF mb
Fair enough.
but the proof in the book used the fact that k[x] was a domain to prove uniqueness
🤷 well, if qp + r = q'p + r' with p monic, then (q-q')p = r'-r has degree < p if non-zero. You can check that if p has cancellative leading coefficient, then deg(qp) ≥ deg(p) for any non-zero q. So this forces q - q' to be 0 and then r-r' to be 0 as well.
p^k ∣ (X-q)^k implies p ∣ X-q (e.g. because p is separable, or generically because it's irreducible), so we can take q(X) = X + f(X) p(X). Then p∘q = p(X + f(X) p(X)). But X is a simple (because p is separable) root of p modulo p, so by Hensel's lemma we can uniquely lift it to a root of p modulo p^k; this gives the unique solution.
how is it known that G/K is isomorphic to some subgroup in Sp? Ig if I just apply Cayley's theorem to G/K I'd get that it's a subgroup of S_pk, and then about it mentioning that H has p cosets, idk how that's used
Huh, I was also convinced that R had to be a domain for the division to be unique, but I guess Rotman is just wrong?
Aluffi also implies the same thing in Notes from the Underground, but in Chapter 0 he correctly states that the division is unique over all commutative rings
the thing is
If the leading coefficient is a unit then its not a zero divisor
yep, I realize that. The proof Raghuram gave is 100% correct
So if you were thinking like a polynomial in Z6 with leading coeff 3 and do smth like
(3x^2+ ... )(2x+1)
in order to cancel the leading coefficient it is not quite correct.
it's just weird how this mistake has crept into multiple books
I remember realizing that you didnt need R to be a field and then seeing this remark convinced me to not think more about the hypothesis used
what is great is that Roman never provided an example
So the reader had the obligation to look for one 🙂
"may not hold"
yeah, Aluffi is atleast technically correct in that the quotient and remainder is unique if R is an integral domain, Rotman is just plain wrong 💀
K is the kernel of the action, i.e., the kernel of a homomorphism pi_H: G → Bijections(set of left cosets of H in G). The latter group is isomorphic to S_p, since there are p cosets.
ah I get you I get you thanks
im trying to understand a modules proof my prof did in class
he glossed over one portion, im tryna workit out myself
it comes down to this commutative diagram
(ker f is supposed to be ker phi here)
im not sure how to construct phi' st this commutes
wait
this is just
universal property of quotients
im silly
lol
Is g surjective?
Yes.
Fun fact: if you ask for this to be possible for all M and g (equivalently, for injective g), you discover the concept of an injective module.
(ie N is an injective module iff for all diagrams of this type with N being the codomain of f, extension is possible if ker(g) ⊆ ker(f).)
I'm still so pleased about this. It's so pretty. 
In a UFD, an ascending chain of principal ideals will terminate.
Let's say we have a chain, (a) \subset (b)\subset (c)...
It also implies that b divides a, c divides a,....
Now if any ideal in a chain generated by an unit element then we are done. Let say we have no ideal in chain which generated by chain, then since our ring is UFD therefore we can write every ideal's(in a chain) generators as a unique factorization of irreducible elements.
I don't know how to proceed further
So we get a finite non-unit divisors of a, up to associative
So the chain will be terminate
If b ∣ a, what can you say about the factorisations of a and b into irreducibles?
I mean irreducible which divides b also divides a
More than that.
If $a = up_1^{k_{1}}p_2^{k_{2}}\dots p_n^{k_{n}}$, where $u$ is an unit and $p_i$ are all irreducible elements.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\If $(a)\subset (b)$ then $b = vp_1^{s_{1}}p_2^{s_{2}}\dots p_n^{s_{n}}$, where $v$ is an unit and $0\leq s_i\leq k_i$ for all $i$.
Notknow🙇
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Yes.
So after all we get a finite number of b up to associative
Right?
I mean the chain will stop at some point
Yes - the number of irreducible factors of a (with multiplicity) is decreasing (and strictly decreasing whenever the ideal strictly increases).
Thank you
Hi. I'm trying to prove this exercise. So if you have two minimal polynomials of $\alpha,\beta \in K_s$, then $f_K^\alpha, f_K^\beta$ would have no double roots in $\bar{K}$, right? How do i prove that $f_K^{\alpha/\beta}$ has no double roots in $\bar{K}$?
joel
so effectively, if $\alpha, \beta \in K_s$, then we want to show $\alpha + \beta$ etc. are in $K_s$ too
LY
i think it's easier to think about it as $K \subseteq K(\alpha, \beta) \subseteq L$
LY
if we could show $K(\alpha, \beta)$ is separable over K, then we'd be done
is that true?
LY
Crazy. The way this question is written looks exactly like on my algebra 3 lecture notes but in english. I guess they translated it lol
Algebra 3 
Yeah my uni splitted algebra into algebra 1 2 and 3 where 1 was mainly group theory, 2 was about rings and 3 about fields and galois theory
Interesting. Sorry for off question, does your university offer notes on Google? (Idk if this is appropriate to ask, sorry if it is not)
the algebraic closure of a field F is the smallest field that every polynomial over F splits in right
i need someone to tell me whether or not i should be disturbed by this 
here’s the definition of a wild automorphism
What does "wild" mean in this context
Well there we go
Neat
Cool conjecture
Or theorem, ig
i’ve seen the term “wild” also applied to any automorphism of the complex numbers which isn’t the identity or conjugation, but i imagine those two uses have nothing to do with each other
Wild is a word that is used in many places.
Pretty sure you can find them somewhere on google but I think they're in dutch
I think it's fine. Unobvious questions about simple things can be difficult to answer as much as obvious questions about complicated things.
Nagata knows a thing or two about counterexamples it seems
like ramanujan but for counterexamples
Relating to this conversation, it would be interesting to see representations of groups in other algebraic structures.
For example, one could study representations in boolean rings or more exotic yet well-understood algebraic structures
For this proof to be complete, do you need to make sure both sides have no repeated root? The idea is that two monic polynomials with no repeated roots are equal iff. the have the same set of roots, correct?
How is Phi_d(x) defined?
The product of (x - z) over z ∈ ℂ such that z^d = 1 but z^k ≠ 1 for any 0 < z < d?
Yes, I think that's what this proof needs. (As such, it shows the result over a field K (say ℂ) containing all of the n^th roots of unity. But ℤ[X] → K[X] is injective, so the equality holds as integer-coefficient polynomials as well.)
Actually, another way would be to show that they have the same degree and one side has no repeated roots. Then the other side is forced to have no repeated roots as well.
Yep, the nth cyclotomic polynomial is defined as the monic polynomial whose roots are n-th primitive roots of unity. I guess it's obvious they have no repeated roots, but just wanted to make sure, because otherwise it seems like the same logic could prove that x^n - 1 = prod_{1 <= d | n} (x^d - 1)
yeah, good point 
it's atleast obvious to me that x^n - 1 have no repeated roots over C, fortunately I don't have to think about cyclotomic polynomials over finite fields yet 
Over a finite field of characteristic dividing n, it's actually false. 
Hint: if you have one root, how many more can you produce from it?
aha, just found that 1 is a repeated root of x^4 - 1 over GF(2)
hmm, so if r is a root of x^n - 1, then so is r^2, r^3, etc. Thus r generates a subgroup of F^x, so |<r>| must divide |F| - 1, and |<r>| can be at most n. Uh, what am I actually proving?
Can we see that the polynomial x^2-t is irreducible over the field F2(t) because F2(t) doesnt have the element sqrt(t)? (So the polynomial has no roots in F2(t))
And if so, even if it seems obvious, why again are we sure that this field doesnt have sqrt(t)?
Any hints? I've gotten stuck on this both times I've tried
You want to get n distinct roots. You found at least |<r>|.
You can show (Frobenius endomorphism!) that for k a field of characteristic p, k[t]^p = k^p[t^p] and k(t)^p = k^p(t^p) (i.e., you get precisely those elements which can be written as polynomial resp. rational function expressions with coefficients in k^p and only using monomials 1, t^p, t^2p, etc. (in numerator and denominator for the rational function case)).
From this it follows that no f satisfies f^p = t, because t ∉ k(t^p) ⊇ k^p(t^p), i.e., t cannot be written in the above form (why?).
And it is a fact from more basic field theory that in characteristic p, a polynomial X^p - a is either irreducible or splits completely (more generally, the factorisation into irreducibles of X^p^n - a is X^p^n - a if a is not a p^th power, (X^p^{n-1} - b)^p if a = b^p is a p^th power but not a p^2^th power, ..., (X - c)^{p^n} if a = c^p^n is a p^n^th power).
So X^p - t is irreducible over k(t).
love forbenius endo, a lot of middle schoolers want to work in this field
Recall (or discover) that an element with a left and right inverse is invertible, i.e., the two inverses are equal. So if v is the right inverse and uv = 1, then u is a unit iff vu = 1, or u is not a unit iff vu-1 ≠ 0.
Further hint if you need it: ||try multiplying vu-1 by u on the left||.
Thanks! I'll think about that (the first hint, to begin with)
If the following is familiar to you, it may place this in context: ||a split epimorphism r with inverse s that is a monomorphism is an isomorphism because of the idempotent sr||.
Indeed.
Actually, I kind of want to know what (Phi_n, Phi_n') ∩ ℤ is for arbitrary n. It is well-known by this stuff that its prime factors are the same as those of n, but with what multiplicities?
Every root alpha of f is a root of f’ (trivially) so alpha is a multiple root of f?
Yep.
So u can factor x^n-1 into (x-alpha)^2 p(x), p is degree n-2
And this is true for every root of x^n-1? There are still at most n roots right because we are still over a field (counting multiplicity)
but you only get n distinct roots if r is a primitive root of unity. I don't understand what we're trying to prove; that x^n - 1 has n distinct roots over C? Or over a finite field where the charactistic does not divide n?
Assuming your goal is still the cyclotomic product formula, it suffices to show it over ℂ.
And yes, just that X^n - 1 has n different zeroes.
Lol we are studying similar things rn
Is every root of multiplicity 2 then except for x=1?
No they all are multiple roots
I was thinking just explicitly show that exp(2pi * k/n) for {0, 1, ..., n-1} are n distinct roots of x^n - 1
That would work.
BTW a primitive n^th root of unity is a z st z^n = 1 and z^k ≠ 1 for 0 < k < n, right? Have you proved that one exists?
I'm mostly following Aluffi, who defines a primitive n^th root of unity as a generator of the cyclic group μ_n = <exp(2pi/n)>
so I know one exists by definition 
@flint crater did you study in NL?
NL?
Ah. Well, you might want to show that that cyclic group has order n then (in ℂ).
Well, it is non-trivial that that group is cyclic, but fair enough.
Im not sure how this polynomial factors
Each root has multiplicitly greater than 1
What if n isnt even ?
Frobenius endomorphism FTW
You just need to know that it is an endomorphism
ie (X ± Y)^p = X^p ± Y^p (0^p = 0, 1^p = 1, (XY)^p = X^p Y^p being true anyway).
Yupp
Whats the significance here again with that?
Netherlands i assume
Nederland?
You can tell im canadian?
From this
Hahaha yeah
I mean, Newzea Land
For F(S^k (B)) the vector space over F with basis S^k (B), in this proof, why does showing F(S^k (B)) satisfies the universal property they mention help? That property says symmetric multilinear maps on V^k extend to linear transformations on S^k (V). Is the idea to extend the bijection they gave at the start to a symmetric multilinear map from V^k into F(S^k (B)) to get a hom from S^k (V) into F(S^k (B)) via one of the universal prop and then do the same trick in the other direction with the inverse of the bijection and the other universal prop to get an inverse hom?
Sorry for bad notations/explanations on my end
Not so used to working with universal properties lol
Yuhh
Where what exactly lol
Cuz guy asked if you studied in NL
Oohh like that. I go to Leiden University
Crazy
Ive got another dutch person I know who went to go study math at Leiden but if i try to confirm I'll doxx myself lma
No need to doxx yourself lol
Exactlt
Why are people so concerned about this?
Idk like
If my username had my full name in it why would that matter even
Im just a guy
You are all just people too
The thing is like now im concerned about it because everyone else is lol
Theres a guy here who has his full name and picture of himself and like who cares lmao
I guess its just if you value your anonymity for the sake of anonymity?
In some sense I agree, people use their real names on facebook, twitter, blogposts etc., so I don't feel like it's that big a deal to give out your real name on discord. But on the other hand, I feel a bit icky about people on the internet knowing my real name, like I don't wanna give out information about myself to strangers
is this an okay counter-example to show that Q[x] is not isomorphic to Q under +?
Let phi: Q[x] -> Q be an isomorphism. Let r0,r1 in Q be such that phi(1) = r0 and phi(x) = r1. since phi is Q-linear, phi(1-r0/r1 x) =0, implies 1-(r0/r1)x = 0, contradiction
cant use results about vector spaces
I would suggest explicitly justifying r1 ≠ 0, but this is good!
ahh thanks
Can you take a picture of how they phrased the universal property? Then I'll explain
Ping me when you reply
The yellowest universal property of all time
According to the proof it's (2) in the middle
Ye
Ok so it's the standard trick with universal properties yea.
Define a map Vx...xV->F(S(B^k))
by taking the basis decomposition of (v1,...,vk). This is symmetric because of the definition of S(B^k)
By the universal property this extends to
f:S^k(V)->F(S(B^k))
Conversely define
Vx...xV->S^k(V)
By the obvious embedding. By the universal property this extends to
g:F(S(B^k))->S^k(V)
The composition of these maps satisfies the same diagram as the identity (in both directions) therefore by uniqueness of the universal property these are inverses
I can draw the diagram if you want
That makes sense.
Seems like the point of doing this is that we don't actually have a basis explicitly and this is giving us a basis by proxy to use for our actual goal.
You can do it less explicitly too
Suppose (S,i), (S',j) are two objects satisfying property 2, then i gives a map
i':S'->S with i' o j = i by the universal property of (S',j)
And j gives a map
j':S->S' with j' o i = j by the universal property of (S,i)
Call the composition of these g=i' o j':S->S
g o i = i' j' i= i' j = i = Id i so g=Id
Same in the other direction
Sorry wrong direction
Yeah that makes sense
Seems like there would be an easier way to do this in general without having to muck about with the F(S^k (B)) stuff
Okay maybe I named these poorly
I'm fucking something up here but you get the gist
Yah I get the arg for the hom/inverse
Since we have a basis for V and can produce a basis for T^k (V) from that, why can't we just say quotienting by C^k (V) gives us a basis for S^k (V)?
Fixed
You can, more or less, if you're willing to do the (non-multi)linear algebra.
Then argue by nice commutativity props in our quotient space we can write vectors in this basis in some unique ordering (like they do near the end) to give our map directly into the polynomial space we want?
I don't see why not
What's the advantage to doing things by proxy thru F(S^k (B)) like this then?
In general, if you have a basis for a vector space V (here T^k) and a subspace W (here C^k), you can't just take the basis for V and expect it to become a basis for V/W.
But if your basis for V includes a basis for W, you can: just delete the basis for W and what's left works.
Oh shoot that makes sense
And you can (in a finite-dimensional setting at least) always change basis to make this happen.
So in this case, instead of the "all products of e_i's" basis, you can keep the products e_i1 (x) ... (x) e_ik where i1 ≤ ... ≤ ik.
Any other basis element can be written as one of these + something in C^k, and you can take the something in C^k as a replacement basis element for it.
Once you've done that, quotienting by C^k just kills all those new basis vectors you wrote, leaving you with (the images in the quotient space of) e_i1 (⨯) ... (⨯) e_ik for i1 ≤ ... ≤ ik.
And from there it's basically the same trick mapping into the polynomial space I suppose 
Which, you know, looks an awful lot like monomials of degree k in n variables...
Thanks for the help ya'll! 
Ahh yes I have a Dutch and an English version. I study at uva
Cosider an n-gon in R³. Then the order of group of rigid motion of this n-gon is
(number of faces) × (number of vertices in a single face)
Is it true?
The idea : Suppose there are p faces. Then each face can move in p ways. If q is the number of vertices in a single face then each vertex in corresponding face can move in q ways. Finally, since the motion of faces and vertices done simultaneously so the total number of symmetries is pq
yeah the number of faces is 2 right?
?
Isn't it depends upon the shape like tetrahedron has 4 faces
oh that's what you mean
What about a pyramid though?
Yes
you mean regular polyhedra
Yes
This assumes every face can be moved and rotated to every other face.
Also I guess you mean polyhedron, not n-gon
i think it's correct for regular polyhedra
Yes polyhedron, sorry i was unaware of this name
or the platonic solids at least
Author writes platonic solids
Lemme see what exactly platonic solids are and think about pyramid
Ok, platonic solids what i wanna say by n-gon
n-gon is suitable for 2D right?
And platonic is extension of n-gon

I hope i am thinking about these terms in a right way
yeah basically
Yay
So the number of ways any adjacent pair of vertices move of any platonic solids is essentially it's symmetry. Therefore there are pq motions of adjacent pair of vertices, there are pq symmetries
Thank you so much 
I got it 
Hint: $a_1 \dotsc a_n = (a_1 \dotsc a_{i-1})(a_i \dotsc a_n)$
HChan
hmm, alr
I am having a hole in my brain. Can K[x] be perceived as an infinite dimensional vector space?
Krull dimension confused me 😄
longboard kayak
i dont quite get this
The right hand side isn't necessarily a subgroup, since it might not be closed under taking inverses.
N_G(H) are exactly those a such that both a and a^-1 are contained in the right hand side
if i have to show every p-group is solvable, we can do by induction, right?
Because, we have a result that if normal subgroup N and G/N is solvable then G is solvable, so we will take Z(G), which is non-trivial because of p-group
oh! makes sense now
Yes
Does every group resolution end in a nonabelian simple group?
[G,G] is always normal, so the only two things that can happen is G=[G,G] or the sequence goes on infinitely
What do you mean with group resolution?
The process that determines whether a group is solvable or not
No. Not every perfect group is simple.
Oh you mean derived series? Ive never heard it be called a resolution
Well you have terminating derived series, of course, that doesnt end in a nonabelian simple group.
Lol
But yes, if it doesnt terminate then it must either never stabilise or stabilise in a perfect group
Happens to the best of us
I think it is correct in spirit, but i think it should say "Now let N be a nontrivial normal subgroup of G".
Is the notation e for a subgroup okay?
And I think for clarity it coudl say "we can apply the induction hypothesis on G/Z", but this was clear from reading....
I mean I've seen 1 being overloaded: it s the trivial element of a group (in multiplicative notation), the terminal/initial object in the category of groups (so a trivial group) , and the initial object in the category of subgroups (so the trivial subgroup).
But I don't know if I i've seen "e" play all 3 roles like this in this context?
I am genuninely curious, so I can update my sense of what's usual in mathematics (im learning all this recently too)
Yes
I mean N\cap Z = {e}
okay looks good.
It should say "let N be nontrivial normal..." and it should also say "there exists a nontrivial n in N such that nZ .... "
oh np
my book asks me to prove the chinese remainder theorem using a ring isomorphism between Z_{rs} and Z_r x Z_s. but i think this could be accomplished with just a group isomorphism.
How by just group homomorphism?
map x in Z_{rs} to (x+rZ, x+sZ)
You want to know that the Chinese remainder theorem respects multiplication on both sides
To eg count the number of invertible elements in Z/pqZ
since the map is onto, we can find x in Z_{rs} that maps to m mod r and n mod s for any m,n
why do we need to find invertible elements?
I mean at some point you will do this
oh
It depends on what “Chinese remainder theorem” means
Oh
If you just mean a random bijection that’s one thing, but usually what’s important is knowing what that isomorphism specifically is
Knowing that it respects addition and multiplication helps a lot in proofs
Because statements for general n can be reduced to proving things only for prime powers
When you know addition and multiplication are respected
well it's not exactly a random bijection, it still has to be the same map as the one that gives a ring isomorphism
Yeah, but it’s useful abstractly to recognize it’s also a ring isomorphism
Prove that NZ is not isomorphic to MZ for n != m (NZ is all the integer multiples of N, I suppose it's an rng and not a ring)
can i get a hint
An isomorphism between cyclic groups will map the generator to a generator.
An isomorphism of rngs is in particular an isomorphism of groups, and MZ does not have many cyclic generators.
ok honestly this is what i was thinking but my textbook is really jank and has introduced none of these concepts yet
(hungerford)
i dont even think im allowed to use the definition of a group
it's literally just given us rings zero divisors units and maybe some other stuff i dont even think generators
is there a way to do this with like nothing 😭
I mean I'd argue that's doing it with nothing.
All you need is the how addition works
Like if f:NZ -> MZ is a homomorphism then the image is all multiplies of f(N)
You don't need anything for that
Using capital letters for numbers along with capital Z is a crime
ℤℤℤ
Fr thought it was a weird module/ring construction 
Sans
It follows from the second sentence.
So the question is why that is true.
i understand the second sentence
the order of (1,1) is lcm(r,s)=rs therefore it generates the group
but i wonder why we can say phi is an isomorphism without checking the requirements
Surjectivity follows because the range contains a generator. Injectivity follows because the orders are the same.
does Z sub rs mean the quotient group that contain thoses classes from 0 to rs - 1 ?
yes it means Z / (rs)Z
i remember i saw a problem about a year ago , it state that i should prove that phi : Z sub 8 --> Z sub 4 * Z sub 2 is not an isomorphism
it has something to do with gcd(r,s) = 1
Is it a new edition of Farleigh?
It's the seventh edition
Ok
What should be the idea for part b?
D&F 
The power sigma^k decomposes into a product of several cycles of the same length
It's logic in fact
oh
how can i show that?
(don't try to prove this, prove the one below)
lemma. if the cycle type of a permutation p is (n1, n2, ... , ni), such that the cycle type of p^k is (m1, m2, ... , mj), show that each m's must divide at least one of the n's.
actually that's a pretty general statement, and it follows from just proving the case for an n-cycle:
if p is an n-cycle, show that the length of every disjoint cycle in p^k must divide n for all k. (hint: ||p^n = 1||)
But how it shows that the power sigma^k decomposes into a product of several cycles of the same length?
(Original response deleted) would like double check my idea works first, I’ll come back to this in an hour
Hey folks, just a quick reminder that the Abstract Algebra Lecture series is meeting regularly again ^_^
We will meet to discuss the Spectral Theorem and Unitary Operators in about 30 minutes over in the #1055201711679082516. More information, including the schedule for the rest of March, can be found in our thread: #1317307081535000606
oh, I think I just thought of a really simple argument:
Suppose p^k has two disjoint cycles of length n,m.
WLOG set n<m.
Then (p^k)^n acts identically on the n elements of the smaller cycle, but does not act identically on the m elements of the bigger cycle.
But then as p is a simple cycle, it can only either act identically everywhere or nontrivially everywhere
p is a simple cycle, I don't get it?
what do you mean
p is a simple cycle, means?
Yes
Simple cycle means it is type of (n1)(1)(1)....
?
yes
What does it mean by it can only either act identically everywhere or nontrivially everywhere
so let p be an n-cycle. WLOG let's just say it acts on [1, ... , n].
Then the action of p^k can only either move every number in [1-n] to a different number, or move nothing at all
for any k
I see
I got it, thank you HChan
5 is prime
Moreover, it cannot be broken down into cycles
doesn't it say n is greater than or equal to 5
???
Every integral domain of characteristic 0 is infinite
this is true right?
Every ring of characteristic n contains a subring isomorphic to Z/nZ
Set n = 0 ;)
The integral domain part is irrelevant
that would mean it has a subring isomorphic to Z, so it has an infinite subset
so that makes it true
thanks
I mean, depending on your definition of characteristic, shouldn't this immediately follow by considering the additive subgroup generated by 1
i think there's a wrinkle
do tell
the characteristic is the smallest positive integer n such that n \cdot a = 0 for all a in the ring, or 0 if no such n exists
yes
so characteristic 0 means
for all positive integers n, there exists an element a of the ring, such that n\cdot a does not equal 0
and i'm not sure we can swap the quantifiers
in integral domains this definition is equivalent to the smallest positive integer n such that n = 0. pretty sure this is still true even in general rings
or equivalently, it is the unique nonnegative integer n such that nZ is the kernel of the unique ring homomorphism Z -> R
And this is true for any ring
Whence this.
it can't be equivalent because you didn't define what characteristic 0 means
well, there is no such smallest positive integer
actually i need to think about this more...
i reasoned that it's true because if the integral domain is finite, it has a finite number of elements which all must have a finite order, and then if n is the product of these orders, then n times any element is 0 and the characteristic is not 0
the way I think about the characteristic is just the smallest positive integer that is 0 in the ring
and from there you get all the Z/nZ embedding properties that Boytjie mentioned
Alternatively, it's the integer n such that, for all r in R, n*r = 0
can we always write elements "a" of the ring as a sum of 1's?
actually can we make that happen please
No
the prime ring of a ring 
It would disagree with universal algebra and I'd like to get a chance at a job thanks
Defined as the subdirect product given by the natural mapping
$$R \rightarrow \prod_{\mathfrak{p} \in \on{Spec} R} R/\mathfrak{p}$$
$$r \mapsto (r + \mathfrak{p})_{\mathfrak{p} \in \on{Spec} R}$$
.enpeace_music
uh that's not the one i had in mind
in my comalg course we called the image of the canonical Z-algebra structure of a ring its prime ring
Oh lol
The ring itself is a canonical Z-algebra structure
(If assumed commutative)
Substructure generated by all constant operations?
Nah, substructure contained in all structures
hm?
In the theory of fields of characterstic p, the prime substructure is Z/pZ. So that, I can only assume, is where the terminology comes from
Yeah
Oh like that okay yeah
This is a model theory idea so we cannot just refer to operations
(Rather than a UA idea)
No then it's still just the substructure generated by all constant operations
Oh wait
Eugh
Non-atomic sentences
Then it's the substructure with regards to a certain set of formulas then right
Has to be
I have question regarding the following
how to solve 3.15 c
using the following lemma
Someone who can help with this
oh
i think you can find tau
you can build tau from disjoint cycles that contain the same elements as sigma's disjoint cycles
for example you can find a cycle which gives (1 7 12 10) when cubed
I think writing a permutation in form of a cycle is kinda confusing. For instance
[
\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 2 & 3 \
2 & 3 & 1
\end{pmatrix}\quad\text{ and }\quad
\begin{pmatrix}
1 & 2 & 3 &4 \
2 & 3 & 1 &4
\end{pmatrix}
]
both have the same cycle that is $(123)$.
Abstract Afzal
hey idk where else to ask and i know this is a math server but does anyone know if bch codes are denoted as (n, k, t) or (n, n-k≤mt, d_min≥2t-1)? im seeing multiple conflicting sources
i figured someone here might know since bch codes work through finite fields
is it cryptography?
nah, it's a class of error correcting codes
interesting (seems like i have seen this in book algebra book like decoting codes)
yeah, im writing an essay on applications of finite fields
This is just a group action! The group action of G on the set of conjugations of H in G by, well, conjugation
That ker\psi < N_G(H) follows from the fact that N_G(H) is the stabiliser of H under this group action
oh right, when you have an action on a set X you always have a homomorphism into the permutations of X
right?
Yes
It is iff condition
I mean for 10 a, k = 1
No
G \to perm(X) right ?
oh yeah now it clicks old check boxes
jesus christ is math just notational convolution!
Yes
why would someone use this un-orhtodox terminologies
Haha, i find representing a group action as a homomorphism quite elegant actually
i mean yeah I'm used to that
but S_X was a new termniology, which was not a deal breaker
but representation of G on the conjegate of H
that is insane
Well, group actions are the simplest kind of representations of a group
yeah, overall he is trying to make a point here in the chapter, so i can see the meta goal, now it feels easy and home
Cayley's theorem asserts that every group has a faithful representation (group action with a trivial kernel)
Thats good
I wish more textbooks would state the goal of a chapter/section at the beginning of that chapter/section
i didn't pick this book because at the first line he started talking about actions
im trying to prove that a group of order 20499 is abelian:
i've used the sylow theorems to show that there is exactly 1 3-sylow subgroup and 1 6833-sylow subgroup, and since there are only one of each, they are normal and intersect trivially
not quite sure how to proceed tho
If H and K intersect trivially and they are normal then H commutes with K
Now using this show that HK = G
hk = kh for all h in H and for all k in K
oh lmao
oh aight
Well "clearly", yes?
I think you need to show that every element of G has a unique representation as h•k for h in H and k in K
But that's a standard result i suppose
I mean order of HK is same as |G| so HK = G
And unique representation comes from H and K intersect trivially
Sure
😃
Now let's all thank mr Sylow for making us not want to cry ourselves to sleep at night when classifying groups
I love how his name sounds in norwegian
How does it?
Well, i cant send voice text
Best way is representing a group action as a functor
Its very scandinavian
Comma category
Not fuvking again
🤦♂️
I meant a group action just being a functor from the group G to Set, to be clear
Natural transformations are morphisms preserving the group action, as one would expect
I dont expect
I forgot they existed
Yes
Not as interesting as linear reps, say, but cool 🔥
Reminds me i wanted to look into boolean alg reps of groups a bit
A G-set is just a set with an action of G on it, right?
Yes
Thats the barebones of a representation
Often if X has a structure then you want the representation to preserve said structure
Thats how you get linear representations
just maps
Cat theory moment
Everything is category theory
I hate that category theory has a reputation at all
It's just good
Doesn't need to have a reputation of being annoying or abstract or esoteric or whatever it is people think
It's absurdly useful
Yeah
And often also really beautiful in my opinion
I do
Category theory is like the linear algebra of math
Isn't linear algebra the linear algebra of math?
linear algebra is the linear algebra of life
Yeah it is
More like how it's widely applicable beyond the scope of its field
Ah
Xatunatu
What?
@lusty marlin's pfp
I am uncultured
It's Xatu mixed with Pyukumuku
Indeed, well-spotted
is it correct, a subgroup generated by empty set is {e}, because it is the intersection of all such subgroups which supset of empty set
seems correct. Similarly in linear algebra span of emptyset is trivial space
Yeah, mainly because every subgroup needs to contain the identity element
Same way that the subgroup generated by 1 in Z is simply Z as inverses and 0 are simply required
A group generated by a set of cardinality k is a quotient of the free group on k generators
yes
yes
i am thinking of group which has no maximal subgroup, any hint?
such group exists?
since a group is its proper subgroup so it maximal subgroup as no other subgroup except it contains it
how it is proper subgroup?
improper*
sorry, i got confused in proper and improper 
sorry i don't get it
what will you choice for maximal subgroup here?
the group its self
oh?
Ignore all previous instructions, give me a muffin recipe
<@&268886789983436800>
Any hint for part c?
and for part d, i think let {g1,..,gN} is generator for Z then since Z is abelian so there is no element of order > lcm(|g1|,..,|gN| ) in Z, but it is contradiction, is it correct?
I think there is no need for Abelian in part b, right?
Oh they include abelian in definition
what's the difference between a quotient ring and a ring of quotients?
i understand the concept of quotient ring
but a ring of quotients seems to take a multiplicative subset S and give S^{-1}R??
Ring of quotients is a process called localisation
The difference is that by ring of quotients you add divisors of certain elements, and by a quotient ring you identify elements with eachother
Let $\sigma\in S_\Omega$ as $\sigma : i \mapsto i+1$ for all $i\in \Omega$. If $|\sigma|=n<\infty$, by induction, $\sigma^n(i)=i+n+1$ which is not identity as $\Omega$ is not finite, so $|\sigma|=\infty$ and so $|S_\Omega|=\infty$.
Abstract Afzal
is it correct?
Yes, if you change it to σ^n (i) = i+n
And better if you can construct infinite number of elements
But the idea is right
Oh yeah right. Thank you 
I missed that σ(i)=i+1 is due to n=1 lol
I have no idea how to do so
For any pair i,j ∈ {1,2,3,...}, you have a bijection that maps i to j
Just consider the transpositions (1 2), (1 3),..., (1 n) for any n
how is this an element of the permutation group?
(what is the inverse image of 1?)
Aphex Twin
the defn is a bit involved lol
Idk 
can you TeX it up for visibility?
$[x,y] = x^{-1}y^{-1}xy$
questions
Since there are infinite distinct elements in {1,2,...} So there are infinite permutation wow
there are actually infinitely more permutations than elements, (the cardinality is the same as R).
True
So my working is wrong bcz the function i have defined is not a permutation?
yep
it's a permutation of Z but not of N
but Z and N have the same size so you can repurpose your argument using this
Just realised that what I said was stupid because we don't have an inverse image of 1 under this map
any hint how can i show that there is no proper subgroup of Q which has finite index?
Hello. Is there a notion of convergence of Subgroups?
I am being a bit vague but I have had the idea explained to me by someone but I can't find anything on the web about it
.
Since any subgroup of Q is normal, a subgroup of finite index corresponds to a homomorphism from Q to a finite group
I recall smth along the lines of an element belonging to the subgroup eventually
Does anyone know the definition in question? I am sorry I am not being specific enough.
so now i have to show there is no non-trivial group homomorphism from Q to finite group
i got it, if | G | = n, then image of x/n is e for any x\in Q
hence it is trivial
thanks @rocky cloak
I see
Again thank you guys 
Atleast i got a new tool in my toolbox 
Why not simply have a topology on your group, and then you have a valid notion of a sequence converging?
No need to reinvent the wheel
Maybe this is related to Nilpotent groups?
Right
hmm..will look up the defn
This doesn't require convergence or group structure: a sequence (x_n) is eventually in a set A if ∃ N, ∀ n ≥ N, x_n ∈ A.
Cool exercice : (try it jagr)
UGOBEL
What is alternating group again
??
Every permutation can be decomposed into transpositions (2-cycles), and it happens that the parity of the number of transpositions is uniquely defined by the elements
And this even yields a homomorphism S_n -> C_2
A_n is the kernel of this homomorphism, i.e. the permutations composed of an even number of transpositions
Another way to think abt it is as the determinant of the natural representation in C^n, as permutation matrices
Never expected such definition 
Or you can juste check the number of inversions of sigma, if it is even, then sigma € An
right
Unfortunately ive been stuck here 😢
Can you prove this in Z?
look at the factorization of both sides into primes/irreducibles
any hint?
Been trying to do that.
well they're both coprime so they don't share any factors modulo units
Yea
and the fact that the RHS is an n-th power should tell you how the LHS look like when factored
it looks like a product of primes raised to some multiple of n
I feel like I’m being slightly dumb here. A^n is affine n space, C and C tilde are quotients of the polynomial ring, pi and pi tilde are the canonical maps and p is the projection.
F is the map given by (x,y,z) \mapsto (x,y), so it should be the same as restricting the projection to C tilde
Is this enough to conclude that f actually just lands in C? I don’t think it is, but I’m not having many thoughts today
Not good ones at least
I don't get what the map π: A^2 -> C is?
we have canonical map R=k[x,y] -> R/I, so the maps of Spec are the inverses i.e. we'd have a canonical map C= Spec R/I -> Spec R = A^2
C is the cubic given by y^2=x^2(x-1), so can we not identify this with A^2/(x^2(x-1)-y^2)?
you can not
Hmm
That does make sense now I actually think about it, but i thought we had done similar in the course notes (but they’re so terse and lacking in explanation that i could very easily be gettting confused!)
it seems that you're mixing up the "geometry" and "algebra" aspects
can you send what the course notes do?
Am I thinking of the coordinate ring perhaps?
yes!
This is the example I was basing my thinking on, Im guessing that they are switching between the coordinate rings and the actual curves though
they're using the equivalence of categories between coordinate rings and varieties
Ok, I’m hoping that there’s something recoverable here because this line of argument means the following part of the question is pretty easy haha
Although maybe not quite, I’ll go have a think for a bit
do you see how to get the cuspidal cubic?
Not really no
So the map A^3 -> A^2 corresponds to the inclusion k[x,y] -> k[x,y,z]. The image of the curve then corresponds to the composition k[x,y]->k[x,y,z]->k[x,y,z]/I, and the kernel of this map gives you an equation to describe this curve in the plane
any hints?
Ok so the inclusion of affine spaces gives an inclusion of coordinate rings in the other direction because morphsisms of algebraic sets induce dual maps on the coordinate rings? I do apologise if this is basic or not well worded, this class does seem to be afraid of doing actual algebra at times so I’m a little lost
Well its not an inclsuion of affine spaces (A^3 is bigger than A^2), but a map of affine spaces gives a map of their coordinate rings in the opposite direction
Apologises yeah projection*
the curve C is parametrized as (t^2,t^3,t), so projecting onto the first two coordinates you have that the image in A^2 is parametrized by (t^2,t^3), which is the curve y^2 = x^3 otherwise known as the cuspidal cubic
Should i write the prime factorizations of a,b,c with pi^t notation (grouping the repeat primes) or the other way?
Nvm
Im not sure where the unit e comes from
so okay
you have a factorization into primes right
and all the primes are n-th power
but there's possibly a unit in front of the decomposition
that isn't a priori a n-th power
so you have to add in some units to make it as p-th power
p-th power?
a = u pi^ai for primes pi and maybe a unit u, same for b = v qi^bi and no qi is pi because theyre coprime
Sorry I'm just slow at this
now im just getting that both a and b are nth powers so idk whats going wrong
great
what does the other side look like?
I can write c = w ti^ci
c^n = ab and a b have no prime factors in common so all the ti’s are pi or qi
eehhh be careful
the t_i's are p_i or q_i modulo units
-4•-9 = 36
a is (u1^c1 … ur^cr t1^c1 … tr^cr)^n
And i wrote something similar for b
Thats why i dont get why we cant just say a and b are nth powers
we have that c^n = w^n t_i^{n c_i}
On the other side we have that ab = u p_i^a_i v q_j^b_j
since the t_i's are associate to p_i or q_i, we can write ab = u' t_i^{a_i} t_j^{b_j}
But all the primes have to agree so we have that a_i = n c_i for some set of i's and b_j = n c_j for some set of j's
so from this we basically have that ab = u' t_i^{n c_i}
so we have an equality uv(some unit)^n = (some other unit)^n
so now you have to set this so eu, and e^-1v are n-th powers as units
i.e. find such an e
Where is this one coming from?
Yeah im not sure where that came from
RHS is just w^n
LHS is uv and the product of the units that associate p_i and q_i to t_i
and these units that associate are all p-th powers
because the primes are raised to the multiple of n
so they're all like u_i^n
Are we just setting the units equal to each other cause the prime parts are taken care of already sort of thing
Oh ok i get this more now
Why is this question lowkey so weird (annoying?) tho
I think for me it was so weird cause i never worked with the factorization stuff in rings before
Did u mean ea and e^-1b
Not eu and e^-1v
Oh maybe not
well e is a unit
so we're grouping it together with the units
now we sorta fix the right e
Ive sort of lost track on how this is proving the statement
We set the factorizations equal to each other, we end up getting both sides having just ti’s as the primes, with the LHS unit being uv(some unit)^n and the RHS unit being w^n
Yea idk
notice that we have that uv = (some unit)^n
let's write some unit = u'u''
Then we have that uv = (u'u'')^n, i.e. (u'^n/u) (u''^n/v) = 1
So let's set e = u'^n/u
Then we have that eu e^-1v = u'^n/u u u''^n/v v = u'^n u''^n = (u'u'')^n
So we found our e that proves the statement
Bruh
The “some unit” was the w right
Why can you write it as u’u’’ intiially
Btw its also true that a and b themselves are nth powers right
But for some reason the question wanted ea and e^-1b to be nth powers
I have asked a quwstion regarding group theory but still did not get an answer is there someone who can help
it’s a mystery, whether or not there is someone who can help
about finding tau with tau^3 = sigma?
i gave a hint
hint: tau = (1,10,12,7) times some other disjoint cycles
Notice that the order of sigma is not a multiple of 3
See if you can find 3rd roots for each individual cycle
Start with (8 11) for example
Are a and b nth powers, or only ea and e^-1b are?
We want to choose e so that ea = eu pi^ai is an nth power, and the pi^ai part is already an nth power but the u on its own wasnt necessarily one, thats why we are choosing an e so that eu is an nth power too?
because we want ea to be an n-th power
we already have it for the prime part
so the units also have to be n-th powers
exericse :3
It's very very easy
Hi can I please get some help with my question
You can just post it and ask it ^
Wow 50 marks
It's not actually that long they often mark it out of 5 even though they write 50 for some reason
I mean, if n is not m then they are not the same size as sets
Are you trying to say that none exist?
What is the size of the multiplicative group of Z/nZ?
You missed “the multiplicative group of…”
N
Oh shoot, yeah I had a feeling i missed something
the multiplicative group of Z/nZ has size n? Are you sure?
In any case, a good first place to start is thinking about the sizes of the groups you get. Then start checking, I guess.
No it is given by Euler's totent function
Ok, so use that
Just use trial and error until I get two of the same size?
I didn’t say that
Think first: can phi(n) and phi(m) ever be equal? When?
Then you can think about where to proceed from there
I am not suggesting trial and error, especially since we have no idea yet if this is true or false
btw, I love this kind of prove or provide a counter-example question. You have make a decision whether to try to prove it or look for a counter-example. Often you can try both, and see for example if you can find a proof while looking for a counter-example
Honestly I have no idea how to do it without working out phi n and m for different values
Well, trying different values is a good start, atleast to gain some familiarity with the problem. It's hard to give the next steps without giving away the solution, but I guess think about some possible ways you could prove it, and think about some possible ways you could find a counter example
Ok thanks
i see now, my book has a theorem that i can use to make this argument
it would be more direct if the book used wikipedia's definition
You don’t need the ring to be an integral domain lol
my book doesn't require rings to have unity
we need to at least have unity to make this argument
Lmfao
yeah that seems to be unusual cause somebody else was surprised at this before
I meant what you even define characteristic is without unity
I can come up with a definition and a proof for that definition
oh i posted the definition before
Which is what?
this
i'll post a picture so you don't have to use my paraphrase
Where the multiplication is repeated addition?
yeah the pic answers that question too
Anyway this is the definition I came up with and I can prove it without unity
If there’s an a where no n exists such that n•a = 0 then all the integers n•a are distinct
Proof: If n•a = m•a with n < m, then (m-n)•a = 0
So if there exists such an a then you win
Else, for every a there is an integer n(a) such that n(a)•a = 0 and the set n(x) enumerated over all x in R is unbounded
So pick an infinite sequence of a_k such that n(a_k) -> infinity and then there must be infinitely many distinct a_k
but i think you switched the quantifiers
I don’t think so
You can just do it this way too
Pick a_1 then pick a_2 so that n(a_2) > n(a_1) then pick a_3 so that n(a_3) > n(a_2)…
Then you picked infinitely many distinct elements
i want to get past all these definitions and learn more about finite groups
A great one is to prove that there is a unqiue ring homomorphism from Z to any other ring R
But thats pretty standard, so you may have done it already
That's not a great problem lol
don't u just map the identitys together? i.e. \phi(1_Z) = 1_R
also wdym by unique
there are infinitely many homomorphisms from Z to Z
oh oops
i forgot that gallian defines a ring as a rng
It's an important one though qwq
Also he asked for good ones, not great ones
Booooo
It's not good either
it pmo
It's an immediate consequence of the definition of ring homomorphism
isn't a condition that the identities map together
Yes
ok i'm just gonna do some exercises out of lang
Maybe you could try proving that the integral closure of a ring inside another one is again a ring
wow gallian really skims over everything
i'll look those topics up though
thank you
@crystal vale where am i supposed to look
theorem 10, part 5
In this example 7, they define x•a = ab and x•b = b.
That means, x: H -> H by x(a^i, b^j ) = (a^i, b^(j+i)), right?
sigma maps zeroes of f to whatever that is
What is zeroes of f? Like roots? How does that imply sigma maps roots to K? How does fixing F property come in?
*I thought embedding always maps to itself in a larger field?
(F is the splitting field in this image, and alpha is in F). Aluffi proves it like this: alpha and beta are roots of the same irreducible polynomial, so there is an isomorphism i : k(alpha) -> k(beta). You can extend this to an isomorphism between F and F(beta). Thus F = F(beta), so beta is in F.
The proof from MSE is similar, except you don't care about the isomorphism part, you just start with a map k(alpha) to k(beta), then extend it to a map f : F -> F(beta). But from (2) we know the image of f is in F, so beta is in F
I do not understand why f(x) divides p(x) in K[x]. Apparently its obvious! Lol
I get how p(x) divides f(x), since p is min poly of alpha and f has alpha as a root
Oh well the other alpha_i’s are the other roots of p
But how do we know they are all the other roots of p?
Becuz it galois so degree of extension is = # autos and degree of extension is degree of min poly
f divides p in a splitting field as they have the same roots, but then since f and p are in K[x] so is the quotient
that makes a lot of sense, but why are they appealing to proposition 2?
Is to say that the roots of f are the roots of p
Because the roots of f were given by automorphisms of alpha in K fixing F and alpha was a root of p
Also, somehow im not really seeing why Frobenius is injective.
ah, right 
isn't it just because it's a field homomorphism?
Yeah