#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Β· Page 310 of 1
Is the galois group of Q-bar over Q known
I mean we understand a lot of it's structure
idk what exactly you mean by known
Can it be decomposed as some product or free product of finite groups for example, and if so, which finite groups
Does it perhaps admit simplicial structure; are there rules for writing down how it's generated
Every normal extension is the splitting field of some family of polynomials. If by splitting field you mean of a single polynomial, then any infinite normal extension will do
I guess this is basically the field of algebraic number theory
how so? I can imagine a little but not familiar with algebraic number theory at all
Possibly helpful discussion
https://mathoverflow.net/q/2791/157483
There's definitely elements of infinite order in Gal(Q-bar / Q)
I see, so we can consider Q-bar as the splitting field of the set of all polynomials?
Oh huh
Yes that's right. Any normal extension is the splitting field of the set of polynomials that split in it
In char 0 every algebraic extension is primitive, so any splitting field of finite degree is a splitting field of a single polynomial, right?
Any finite algebraic extension is primitive yes
Thanks 
More generally, any finite seperable extension is primitive.
And a field is called perfect if any finite extension is seperable.
Any field of characteristic 0 is perfect, and any finite field is perfect
I see
I don't believe in the existence of infinite fields of positive characteristic, so what you're saying is that every field is perfect? 
Bruh
Idk I find this amusing as someone who mostly works with positive characteristic fields
Infinite fields of positive characteristic is a scam invented by Big Algebra to sell you irreducible non-separable polynomials
Can you do p-adic stuff in char q
It's past 11pm, I shouldn't be asking potentially difficult questions in fields I'm not familiar with
It'd be like someone telling me they dont believe in operations with an arity higher than three

I don't rly know what this would mean
Whats up Fellow Mathletes π
The only arities I believe in are 0, 1, 2 and n
What is this "three" you speak of?
the arity found in the Mal'cev condition for permutable congruences
I donβt believe in 3-categories
1? Fine. 2? Fine. $\infty$? Sure.
NAT Enthusiast
Actually a prof I know is specifically working w 3 categories aha
I believe it is basically cause you often study n-categories in conformal field theory in connection to n-manifolds
So yeah then specialise that
But the n here is more (oo, n)
What is an n-category?
Are left R-modules closed under scaling by elements of the ring?
Is that what this is saying?
Are you familiar with group actions?
Where the action is a homomorphism between a group G and the automorphism group of the object that G is acting on
The basic example is that of G-sets, where a group acts on a set
In the case of R-modules we have a ring acting on an abelian group. So there is more structure here, but the principle or idea of an action remains the same
iirc my professor said something about modules are abelian groups in disguised or something
or abelian groups are modules in disguise
I mean they're nice and they commute
Z-modules refer to vectors with Z entries right?
Vectors are elements of a vector space, Z-modules are not vector spaces because Z is not a field
oh that's a problem (no good)
Sure. But let's walk through it. What is the actual action here?
multiplication (or scaling) by elements of the ring
I'm assuming that's what they mean by R x M to M
Your input is R*M and output is M
Right, and if I have the group {e, a, b}, what would be an alternative way to express a*a*a*b*b using the language of a Z-module?
any combination would work right? Since Z-module is an abelian group, I can commute the multiplication of the elements
so b*b*a*a*a would be one way
Yeah, but how could we express this using the language of modules?
doesn't matter if I put the scalar on the left or right, it yields the same result?
Yeah
wait so that means in Z-module
the left and right modules are equivalent
oh duh because Z is a commutative ring
Are you implying that if my ring happens to be a field, then my modules are vector spaces?
I'm thinking contrapositive here
Yes, that is what a vector space is
If Z is a field, then Z-modules are vector spaces
Modules are generalized vector spaces
Here, what I was pointing towards was 3a*2b
ohh lol
We have the scalars from Z
oh cause the vector entires would be 3a, 2b
And the action is just multiplication
Well, if this is a vector space, then a and b are vectors
So 3a and 2b are also vectors, just scaled
And 3a*2b is also a vector
(I should have used + instead of *, my bad)
oh ok
Thank you!
I think I understand modules a little better now
Also in general
The ring that we are working with in modules
Are we taking elements from that ring to be our scalars?
That's right
Try viewing a vector space, like R^2 as a field action. Where the scalars are from R, which is a field, and the vectors are from (R^2, +), an abelian group
When we are taking scalars from R (I'm assuming you mean set of real numbers here), we don't take 0 right? Since 0 doesn't have an inverse
That might help in understanding, because all k-vector spaces are k-modules
oh wait do you mean the rotational group?
We do take 0
R^2?
The additive identity does not have a multiplicative inverse in a field
If we're talking the set of real numbers and being a field, shouldn't we throw away 0?
or I'm confusing myself
No, fields have both 0 and 1
And 0 in a field does not have a multiplicative inverse
oh im confusing about 0 being a unit
R (the set of real numbers), with addition and multiplication, is an example of a field
I agree there
By R^2 I mean the Cartesian plane, analogous to R meaning the number line
When you are saying vectors from (R^2, +), are you talking about vectors with 2 entries?
That's right
oh ok
dang fields are nice
Yeah
ok now I understand a little more about modules, I'm going to get back to my homework. Thank you again! @ripe crest
This is my work
I'm not sure if I'm doing this correctly. I can't help but feel I'm missing something. Do I need to check for linear independence?
The idea is right but your calculations are off.
Firstly, each entry is not a multiple of k (although I think that's just a typo). Secondly, when you write ai = a + nk, the n has to depend on i, so it should be ai = a + ni k for some a, n_1, ..., n_n β β€. Then your next equation becomes (a_1, ..., a_n) = a (1, ..., 1) + (n_1 k, ..., n_n k).
From there, maybe you should try to guess what the correct basis is.
a correct basis*
Can anyone introduce a good book and video to learn modern algebra?
There's a lecture on here! But I don't know how far it is advanced
What do u mean a lecture π
Check the events on this server
they're pretty far in, they were doing group actions last time I checked ~1 month ago
Dummit and Foote is a great book for me but I remember it being kind of scary when I first looked at it , before i learned more algebra
Micheal Penn has a great video series on his second channel Math Major
You'll have to get exercises elsewhere (as he only gives a couple) but the content itself is good
I see! Thank you! (and yes that was a typo lol)
Okay, thanks for all the reply
How can I show that Q(sqrt(2) + sqrt(2)i) = Q(sqrt(2), i)? The <= inclusion is obvious, but I don't quite see the other direction
Square it
A common trick is to consider inverses.
What I mean by square it is to square sqrt(2)+sqrt(2)i
hmm, so squaring gives 4i, which shows that i is in Q(sqrt(2) + sqrt(2)i). How do I show that sqrt(2) is in Q(sqrt(2) + sqrt(2)i)?
This is why I suggest doing 1/ lol
Because it shows you have sqrt(2)(1-i)
Then it is easy to get sqrt(2) and i
ah, I see
nice, thanks 
Hey folks, just a quick reminder that the Abstract Algebra Lecture series is meeting regularly again ^_^
We will meet to discuss Adjoints and the Spectral Theorem in about 15 minutes over in the β β #1055201711679082516. More information can be found in our thread: β β #1317307081535000606
To find the splitting field of x^4 + 1 over Q, I can show that every root can be written in terms of i and sqrt(2), so the splitting field is Q(sqrt(2), i). To show that this has degree 4, do I need to show that x^4 + 1 is irreducible, or is there a quicker way?
it's much easier than that tbf
You can just add a single primitive 8th root of unity c
roots of unity
in every algebra book I'm reading they don't show up until way after the meat of the Galois theory, so I haven't gotten that far yet
I see, just [Q(sqrt(2), i) : Q] = [Q(sqrt(2), i) : Q(sqrt(2))] [Q(sqrt(2)) : Q] = 2 \cdot 2. Thanks 
np
how is a vector field considered a field
It's a field of vectors
Field in the sense of a field of grass
Not field in the sense of simple commutative ring
so the math people just called it a field for shits and giggles basically
I'd sooner apply that to the algebraic fields
Yeah i have no clue where that name comes from
Different people name things differently. It wasn't some kind of conspiracy.
In real life, the same word can refer to many different things. This is just normal.
nah that was intentional their all a bunch of trolls
You do need to show that the splitting field contains i and sqrt(2) as well (which is not difficult once ||you realise that the roots are the primitive 8th roots of unity (Β±1Β±i)/sqrt(2)||).
Does any finitely generated field extension have a maximum subextension which possesses a separating transcendence basis?
I guess it's strongly related to the fact that the 8th cyclotomic polynomial is x^4 + 1? I think I'm gonna follow Aluffi's suggestion and spend some quality time learning about them 
Aluffi actually does cyclotomic polynomials before Galois theory, as opposed to Artin, so I should probably just learn about them now
if F and L are extensions of a field K, B is a transcendence basis of F\cap L, and I extend it to bases A u B and B u C for F and L, then how can I show that A u B u C is algebraically independent over K?
Give an example illustrating that not every nontrivial abelian group is the internal direct product of two proper nontrivial subgroups.
huh?
do the elements of a group need to be ordered tuples in order for the group to be an internal direct product?
No, but there must be subgroups H, K of your group G such that G\cong H x K. And the elements of H x K are tuples.
hmm
So like Z6 is the internal direct product of its cyclic subgroups <2> and <3>
but Z9 is not the internal direct product of two proper nontrivial subgroups
is that right?
this is right
this is not right
but Z3 x Z3 is not isomorphic to Z9
oh mb ignore me. i didnt realize 3 is a common divisor of 3 and 3
Weird phrasing for "give an example of an abelian group that is not isomorphic to a nontrivial direct product"
Lol
say we have an R module M, and R is a PID (i.e. an integral domain) and an R mod homomorphism phi from M to R (considering R as an R module, obviously). since R is an ID, then it's obvious that Tor(M) is a subset of ker(phi) right? like i can prove it in two lines, but if I just say it, then is would it be enough obvious to a reader as to not require proof?
further, would the generalization of this fact be that if we have phi: M to N and N is torsion free, then Tor(M) is a subset of ker(phi)?
Yes, that's correct. (If you do end up needing to give a proof, any module homomorphism maps the r-torsion {m : rm = 0} to the r-torsion for any r β R, and for the codomain the r-torsion is 0 for all non-zero r β R.)
an abelian group of order 72 = 2^3 * 3^2 has exactly one subgroup of order 8 and may have 1, 2, or 7 subgroups of order 4

no i'm wrong
Do you know that this is true?
it may have 1,3, or 7 subgroups of order 4
BTW, any abelian group of any order p1^a1 ... pk^ak has exactly one subgroup of order p1^a1.
that makes sense
And the number of subgroups of order p1^(less than a1) is the same as the number of such subgroups of the subgroup of order p1^a1.
(By Sylow's Second Theorem, all of them are conjugate, but the group is abelian, so there are no non-identity conjugations.)
nice
Let $G$ be a finite group such that if we take any two subgroups $H,K$ of $G$ then one of them $ H \subset K $ or $K\subset H$ holds.
Then $G$ is a cyclic group.
\vspace{1.5cm}
Proof: $G$ has a finite order, let $p,q$ be two distinct prime divisor of $ | G |$, then by Sylow there exists $p$-sylow subgroup $H$ and $q$-sylow subgroup $K$, since $H\cap K ={e}$ hence its violates the given condition.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\Therefore $| G | = p^n$ for some $n\in N$.
\vspace{0.5cm}
$\textbf{ Claim: If there exist a subgroup of order $p^k$ then it is unique}$.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\Let $H$ and $K$ have the same cardinality, then by given condition let $H\subset K$, since both have same cardinality therefore $H = K$.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\Now I will prove that $G$ is cyclic by induction.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\For $ n = 1$ it is true.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\Now let it is true fo all group which has order $< | G |$.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\Since $|G| = p^n$, so its $Z(G) \neq {e}$. So now let group $G' = G/Z(G)$.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\So now we can apply our induction hypothesis to $G'$, just we have to prove that same $\textbf{Claim}$ for $G'$.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\I think we can prove that by canonical mapping $G\rightarrow G/Z(G)$.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\So now we have $G'$ is cyclic therefore $G$ is abelian.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\Now use the fundamental theorem of Abelian group, if it is not cyclic then I can construct subgroup $H,K$ in its isomorphic group such that $H\cap K = {e}$, so it will violates the given condition.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\Therefore it must be cyclic. Hence G is cyclic.
Notknowπ
Compile Error! Click the
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Is it correct?
How should I list all subgroups of GL(3,2)βPSL(2,7) and order them in the form of a lattice of subgroups?
delete the command
oh boy for long long time i wanted to prove this but i got no motivation
may i ask where did you get the motivation to do it ?
order 168 groups π
Finite groups or any groups?
are you going to prove it for finite or infinite or what
Idk I'm just thinking
Okay well here's a hint
Might be overkill but you can use Goursats lemma
alr, i will try to learn
Easier hint
Notice that since N,H and K are all normal in H x K with pairwise trivial intersection
The you just have to show N commutes with everything in H and everything in K
This is an easier result to get
And it holds more generally
If A and B are normal subgroups with trivial intersection, then they commute
i fear that is not what has been asked
i got what you are saying tho
alr I am tired, will try later
If N commutes with everything in H and everything in K, then it will be in the center of HxK, hence abelian
i don't get it
sure, i will try to get bak to it after finishing the set
nothing serious but the input command of the latex is length which is why i told you to conside it to delete, which doesnt affect the generated latex
okay
Very annoyed. You can shorten this proof substantially if you assume |G| is odd but of course p = 2 ruins it all
"subgroup lattice is a totally ordered set <=> the lattice is a line <=> G is C_{p^k}". Most of the work is in showing that G has to be a p-group, then you just check the subgroup lattice of (C_p)^2, so your p-group has to be rank 1. For odd primes we get that G is cyclic immediately but for p = 2 we have to manually check the generalised quaternion groups - which can be done inductively by just checking Q_8 but it's still annoying
actually i found the shorter proof
let x \neq e, if G = <x> then we are done. If it is not then there is y in G but y \not\in <x>, then <x> \subset <y>. Continue the procedure, this will stop at some point because | G | is finite, Hence G = <z> for some z \in G.
oh that's very neat
yes
you'll have to say a bit more I think, like why <x> must be a subset of <y> (it's obvious but still needs stating)
because by property of G, <x> \subset <y> or <y> \subset <x>, but since y not in <x> therefore later will not hold
I wonder if you can somehow translate this into UA
"If the subalgebra lattice is a line then must be finitely generated" seems doable at least
UA?
Universal Algebra
i don't know
I imagine something similar works immediately for Artinian rings with this property => local
sorry, noetherian
The only thing we really can use is that the lattice must be algebraic
Well, in the general case
it's really just "if there's only one ascending chain that terminates, the maximal element is unique"
because... there's only one chain lol
Well, say your lattice is uncountable
Then there are plenty chains :P (indexed by N that is)
all objects are finite
and that still isn't really true, I'm imagining an unbounded half closed interval, it still has a unique maximal element even though as a poset it's uncountable
Alright, for a totally ordered set (X, <) there is an algebraic structure A such that Sub A β (X, <) iff every element in (X, <) is compact
Yee so true
man what are yall even talking about
I got no idea what this guy is talking about
Then take the natural numbers + infinity ordered in the usual way, and consider the chain
0 < 1 < 2 < 3 < ...
The sup of this chain is \infty, but doesn't terminate.
Now by a theorem from Birkhoff there is an algebraic structure A such that it's subalgebra lattice is isomorphic to the above totally ordered set. Hence there is a nonterminating chain of subalgebras
A_0 < A_1 < A_2 < ...
Of which the direct limit is A. This means that A cannot be finitely generated, hence in general we do not have that
Sub A totally ordered => A finitely generated
Nice!
Well, not nice
But fun proof
Now the next question is: when is it true that Sub A totally ordered => A finitely generated
Ive also got no idea what im talking about dw
am i going in right path?
Alright, this would immediately mean that A is noetherian
A sublattice of a totally order lattice is totally ordered, naturally
So this would mean that Sub A totally ordered => Sub A finite
As any infinite totally ordered lattice contains a non-terminating chain
I really do cuz i got it completely wrong

I forgot one crucial detail which is that this is completely wrong
Smh
And this too
in c), you write that a reflection fixes two vertices, but that's only true for odd n unless I'm mistaken. Other than that, it looks good π
Okay this example should still work as I'm like 80% sure the natural numbers + infinity form an algebraic poset
i like the symmetry of the fano plane
Oh yeah, (iirc if n is even then it fixes two vertices, consider square and triangle).
I will correct it, thank you so much 
(Sorry for late reply got busy in some urgent work, but it's algebra time now
)
Show that a finite abelian group is not cyclic if and only if it contains a subgroup isomorphic to Z_p X Z_p for some prime p
i feel like it's helpful to write notes showing which statements imply which other statements
then you can fit them together like a puzzle
it was helpful here
Nice
It is also fun to prove the following: a finite abelian group G is cyclic iff for every divisor d of #G (the order of the group), there is exactly one cyclic subgroup of size d
oh i noticed cyclic groups seem to have only 1 subgroup of each order
Yeah, exactly. This is clearest if you it as Z/nZ for example and think what the subgroup of order d is
alr
oh, it's just a funny way of saying the annihilator.
im assuming this terminology comes from somewhere else?
Cuz itβs the smallest exponent that kills shit
(Idk maybe Β―_(γ)_/Β―)
Let G, H, and K be finitely generated abelian groups. Show that if GxK is isomorphic to HxK, then G is isomorphic to H
how do i do this?
Can i ask, Is it Rotman?
Does anyone know of a counterexample to this when either the finitely generated or abelian conditions are removed?
Sorry if it's obvious but I can't think of any off the top of my head
Something like K =prod Z^i where i is some index in an infinite set, and G=Z and H=0 should work I think
Is the structure theorem for finitely generated abelian groups available?
Ah, nice
Thanks
And a counterexample using finitely generated non-abelian groups?
no clue
Hmm ok
It's tricky but possible
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/349960/306319
Appears to be a small typo as H is a semidirect product of C1023 with Z
Thanks
one direction is easy but how can i show if Z^n/ im phi is finite then phi is injective?
i know how we can extend phi to Q-vector space Q^n to Q^n
Let k be an algebraically closed field. Every subfield of k(X) is k(p(X)) for some rational function p. Are all of these distinct from each other? When is k(q(X)) β k(p(X))?
Every subextension of k(X)/k, rather.
OK, k(q) β k(p) iff q β k(p) iff q = f(p) for some rational function f, obviously.
Hi, I am stuck on the first part of this question. I know that any number in $F_p$ is a root of $X^p-X$, since, by Fermat's little theorem, we have $a^p=a \mod p$. So for any $a \in F_p^*$, it is clear to me that $X^p-X-a$ has no zeros. But then, how do we conclude that this polynomial is irreducible? This polynomial could have a more complicated factorisation than just a linear one, right? So what is the idea?
joel
The frobenius map is given by $F: \overline{F_p} \longrightarrow \overline{F_p}$, where $x\mapsto x^p$. So would $F(x)=x^p=x \in F_p$?
joel
The idea is as given in the hint.
How does the Frobenius automorphism act on a root of this polynomial. More specifically how many conjugates will a root have?
I mean, if $x$ is a zero, then $x^p=x+a$, right?
joel
My TA said something like, if $x$ is a root, then $x+1$ is also a root. Because $(x+1)^p=x^p+1^p=x+1+a$
joel
So this means that if we know one root, then we know all of the $p$ roots, right? But still, how do we move on from here?
joel
So do you know that a polynomial has coefficients in Fp if and only if it is fixed by the Frobenius automorphism?
Or formulated another way, that x and x^p have the same minimal polynomial
What is "it is fixed"? Like the roots of the polynomial are fixed by the Frob automorphism?
This makes me confused, like isn't $a^p=a$ for any $a\in F_p$?
joel
or am i saying something stupid
Yes exactly, and this is if and only if a is in Fp
So if you have a polynomial, say
(x - a)(x - b)
then applying the automorphism to the coefficients gives
(x - a^p)(x - b^p)
Like, in this case, the roots would not have to be in $F_p$ right?
joel
The only way for this to be the same polynomial is if
{a^p, b^p} = {a, b}
because if they would be in F_p, then the roots would just be fixed under F_p
yes\
this makes sense
I mean, the roots can be in Fp, but then it's trivial
Alright, so then back to the original problem.
If x is a root of your polynomial, then the minimal polynomial of x has coefficients in Fp.
How many roots could it have?
"If x is a root of your polynomial, then the minimal polynomial of x has coefficients in Fp." Why is this the case
That's just the definition of minimal polynomial
Or you mean, the minimal polynomial over the field F_p? Because then yea sure
Yes okay i thought there was something else going on... that's why i got confused
My point is just we can apply the reasoning from before
I'm thinking p?
Like, that's an upper bound
I don't think it's the lowest upper bound haha
So we established that the Frobenius map would need to permute the roots
And x is one of the roots
So what must the other roots be at least
Well, F(x), F^2(x), etc
x^p, x^p^2, x^p^3 right?
Well, I'm thinking x does not necessarily lie in F_p, so can we say that much about it?
Well, we can say quite a lot about it.
In fact you already did earlier
So the roots are
x, x+a, x+2a, ...
I was thinking about permuting the roots and the frobenius automorphism
yes
Which is how many?
Like our last root would be x+(p-1)a right? Since x+pa=x again
So it would be exactly p roots?
Yup, so the minimal polynomial of x has degree p
Since p definitely does not divide a
... So X^p-X-a IS the minimal polynomial
thank you!!
Artin Dchreier
Big D energy
Hi can someone explain the difference between the a cyclic group and cyclic subgroup I don't understand the difference since they are both groups that can be generated by some single element in them
A cyclic subgroup of a group is a subgroup which is cyclic
The confusion you have is mysterious to me
If you know what a subgroup is, there should be no confusion
Ok I understand now
I was reading the definition incorrectly
thanks for clarifying
@rocky cloak And for $F_q$, we have $q=p^n$ right? Which means that $x^{p^n}-x-na=0$ if $x$ is a root of $X^p-X-a$.
joel
No, no n.
Is this even useful? I'm trying to find the irreducible factors. They must all have degree p?
A zero x of X^{p^n}-X-a satisfies x^{p^n} - x - a = 0 by definition.
Yes
The irreducible factors will all have degree p yeah, by the same argument as before
No, it's either irreducible or splits.
Over F_q.
So $x^p=x+a$. So $x^{p^n}=(x^{p})^{p^{n-1}}=(x+a)^{p^{n-1}}=x+na$
joel
By induction
a β F_p?
Is it possible to write a more explicit form?
OK, sorry. I think I have misunderstood what you are trying to do, so ignore my previous comments.
It is true that this polynomial is either irreducible or splits into linear factors, over any field containing F_q, though.
Why?
I mean, isn't that just that it's either reducible or irreducible? Like, that's obvious?
Oo wait
linear factors
hmm
Like x^q = x + a, so any root will have exactly p conjugates
So you split it into factors of degree p
Why not q conjugates? Because we are working in $F_p$?
joel
pa = 0
yes
It doesn't really matter if you take a from Fp or Fq
But like, would $X^q-X-a=(X^p-X-a)^n$?
joel
Feels like sophomores dream haha
No, it has all distinct roots
So $X^q-X-a = (X^p-X-a)(X^p-X-2a)\dots$?
joel
I think i'm stupid haha
That doesn't seem right either no
One thing to notice if that you add any element of Fq you still get a root
Fraleigh
yes
Cool
So once you have one irreducible factor, that should give you all the other ones
So like, $X^q = X+a$ implies $X^q = X+b$, for any $b\in F_q$?
joel
No, that would just be saying a=b
This makes me feel like it's the product over all elements
So $(x+a)^q=x+a+a=x+2a$, meaning $x^q+a^q=x^q+a=x+2a$, so $x^q=x+a$. Thus $x+a$ is a root
joel
And x+a also has p conjugates
hey does anyone know if theres a formula to work out the conjugacy class size, like in this one for example
like is there a formula that would give me 6
Isn't this just 1 times 3!
Yeah, so in the case where n is relatively prime to p, then
X^p - X - a/n
should be one of the factors, like you said before.
Then the other factors would be
X^p - X + b^p - b + a/n
where b runs over representatives for Fq/Fp.
When n is a multiple of p you may have to do something else clever.
but what about for different cycle types like (1,2)(3,4)
Wait, why is it a/n, not an?
It's just thinking about the number of ways to make such a cycle.
There are 4! ways to assign values to
(a,b)(c,d)
swapping a, b gives the same result, same for c and d and same for swapping (a,b) with (c,d) so that's 4!/8 = 3
Like, i did this?
n * a/n = a
Precisely: if K is any field containing F_q and p any polynomial over K such that all monomials in p have degree a power of p, then for any root x of p, x + F_q is the full set of roots of p. So if p has one root, it splits.
... which doesn't imply what I said.
For a cyclic group G of order n, and some d that divides n, how many elements in G have order d? Im doing an undergraduate study, and this information will help!
phi(d)
ty
Well I would start by decomposing G,H,K into products of cyclic groups via the theorem, and then compare the factors of GxK and HxK. Kind of like if we have a * b * d = a * b * c numbers, we expect c and d to be equal.
also make sure you read carefully the statement of the theorem
It's just like you wrote before.
If x^p = x + a/n
then
x^p^n = x + na/n = x + a
are you referring to the uniqueness of the factors?
if the factors of G and H were not the same, then the facors of GxK and HxK would not be the same, and GxK would not be isomorphic to HxK
maybe
And the goal is to find other conditions such that x^p^n = x+a right? Because then we've found other irreducible factors. And for that, we use the Frob automorphism?
Like, would x+a work?
I think so, yes?
Like, if you find an irreducible polynomial where the roots satisfy x^q = x + a, then that will divide x^q - x - a
Yes
But aren't we trying to find all of the irr factors of this? Or is this not the question?
yes what you wrote is true, but you essentially turned the statement into its contrapositive, but maybe you can prove it easier that way i.e. fill in the gaps easier?
i seem to have the habit of changing things to the contrapositive 
uhm
yeah i'm not sure how to fill in the gaps without doing that
So, you know that any abelian group can be written as $G\cong \mathbb{Z}/p_1^{n_1}\mathbb{Z} \times \dots \times \mathbb{Z}/p_k^{n_k}\mathbb{Z}$?
yes
joel
Clearly, if G,H,K are abelian, then the direct product are also abelian right?
yes
Well, then $G\times K$ would be $\mathbb{Z}/q_1^{n_1}\mathbb{Z} \times \dots \times \mathbb{Z}/q_k^{m_k}\mathbb{Z}$ and $H \times K$ would be $\mathbb{Z}/r_1^{l_1}\mathbb{Z} \times \dots \times \mathbb{Z}/r_k^{l_k}\mathbb{Z}$
joel
doesn't change the proof, but before I go to sleep I should mention that there should be some Z^n there since the problem asks for finitely generated
the factors are the same?
yeah it should have Z^n
Well, up to the chinese remainder theorem, yes
huh?
Once you have one irreducible factor you can easily find all, because they're related by shifting the roots by elements of Fq
Yes this is what i was thinking
Like, for example, $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/3\mathbb{Z} \cong \mathbb{Z}/6\mathbb{Z}$
joel
what i'm saying is, that once you have this product, then you could write everything as "compact" as possible, so just use CRT
and then yes, you can conclude that their factors are the same. Because otherwise, they would not be isomorphic.
combining them helps us?
Well, for the sake of argument, it is nice to do this. What we want to do is say $n_1=l_1,n_2=l_2,\dots, n_k = l_k$ and $q_1=r_1,\dots,q_k=r_k$
joel
We can say this, but not directly, because for example, if on one hand we have $G$ is $Z/2Z \times Z/3Z$, and $H$ is $Z/6Z$, well, then $k=2$ for $G$, and $k=1$ for $H$, you know?
joel
So because of the chinese remainder theorem, this is clear
Because of what was stated before
Have you seen the chinese remainder theorem for groups?
no
aha
Basically, if $gcd(x,y)=1$, then $\mathbb{Z}/x\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/y\mathbb{Z} \cong \mathbb{Z}/xy\mathbb{Z}$.
joel
yes
How can u argue that the frobenius homomorphism Fp^n -> Fp^n is an automorphism using some
Vector space argument ?
I think it was mentioned in lecture today but i missed it
So, what i'm trying to say is, whenever any two prime's gcd is 1, then just put them together
or prime power rather
So, if $gcd(p^n,q^m)=1$, then rewrite this direct product according to the Chinese remainder theorem, and you'll get that all the primes with the powers are the same
joel
Well, it's injective, and Fp^n is finite
An injective hom of vector spaces of same dimension must be surjective?
Yes, that's true. But also any injective function on a finite set is a bijection
f: A --> B, injective, and |A|=|B| is finite, then f is a bijection
An automorphism of a field must always fix its prime subfield right
Well it must send 1 to 1, and 1 generates the prime subfield
Yea
Oh its injective becuz its a field hom yes lol
you can count it from the cycle and the fact that same cycle types are conjugates
You cant have a field hom between finite fields F1->F2 where charF1 is bigger than charF2 because then it wont be injective
Can u have charF1 smaller than charF2
You can't have any homomorphism between fields of different characteristic (why?).
You can only have a ring homomorphism R1 -> R2 if the characteristic of R2 divides that of R1
Yeah and that comes from the group hom properties of order of elements
@rocky cloak So we'd have $X^q-X-a=(X^p-X-a/n)((X+1)^p-(X+1)-a/n)\dots$? This doesn't seem right to me, but on the other hand, these are all the roots right??
joel
Like, for X^p=X+a, then X+1 also a root
(X+1)^p - (X+1) is just X^p - X
So you've just written the same factor twice
.
damnit why did i not read this properly
... π¦
These representatives could look like {1,p+1,2p+1,...}, right?
This is pretty basic but the characteristic of a ring being n implies na = 0 for all a, but it doesnt mean that a has additive order n right
Just that the order of a divides n
Yes
I mean, 1 = p+1, so these are all the same.
Unless you're using p to mean something else
Unless n is prime, in which case that does imply that a = 0 or the order is n.
Then, what would these representatives look like?
I mean they'll look like elements in Fq, so I guess it depends on your construction of that
Like if you have Fq = Fp(a), then Fq = (Z/p)^n spanned by 1, a, ..., a^n-1
Then a natural choice for representatives for Fq/Fp could be the span of a, a^2, ..., a^n-1
(just removing the basis v vector that dspans Fp)
So you can extend F_p by one element and then that would generate F_q?
well, apparently
is the case a not coprime to n similar, or completely different?
I was thinking, maybe just choose gcd(a,n)=k and then k must show up in the answer
There exists such an element yeah, in fact there exists an element that generates the multiplicative group of Fq even.
How would you write the set of representatives for F_q/F_p?
Since it is cyclic right?
Yup
Like, what notation would you use to denote this?
Or just, let A be a set of representatives for F_q/F_p, and then write X^q-X-a as the product over that
I would have never been able to come up with this by myself though...
this exercise is kinda crazy
I don't know how not being co-prime would be a a problem? @rocky cloak
Like, what is the difference between a,n being coprime or not coprime?
do subrings require multiplicative identity?
im going through hungerford right now and there's some stuff about like "the ring 3Z of all multiples of 3" but to me that's not a ring cause theres no mulitplicative identity
im js bamboozled
I'm sorry
Yes. Definitely
they do need a multiplicative identity
I thought you meant inverse
But yes 1 has to be in there
i mean i was thinking that you wouldnt use it so you could have non trivial ideals as subrings
so when all these texts talk about 3Z (not Z3) how is that even a ring if it doesnt have multiplicative identity
Rings are sometimes defined without identity(sometimes these are called rngs, no identity)
If the book in question defines a ring explicitly, make sure to read that rq to check.
yea it says ring has identity
i may be bugging idk ill ask my prof
all this notational disagreement is so annoying why cant we js come to a consensus
I have a feeling Z/3Z is meant...
If n=0 mod p you can't divide by it
Got feedback on a homework today that the marker was confused by my nonstandard notation saying the two groups of order 6 and S_3 and C_6, theyβve never seen C_6 and I should have wrote Z/6Z 
Like brother I agree theyβre isomorphic but thatβs a ring, how have you never seen C_n denote a cyclic group
yea me too
That is very silly lol
Z/6Z is also standard notation for the group but ye
@elfin wraith :/
flashback to my first course in abstract algebra which wrote Zn for Z/nZ
I mean it'd sure be nice to have that notation for the Very Common cyclic groups instead of the Very Niche p-adic integers
I'd use 3Z in referral to the ideal of Z generated by 3, which is a rng
Yeah I know a lot of people use that, I wouldnβt question it if I saw it, but like C_n or Z_n (not black board) are equally as common lol
And to my mind better, one is by definition the cyclic group on n elements, the other is equivalence classes of integers
Theyβre clearly isomorphic, but I wouldnβt define it to be the later
I suppose it depends
When working with abelian groups/modules I'll tend to the Z_n or Z/nZ
but when working with groups I'll tend to use C_n
Sure I mean that just cause you said Z/nZ is a ring lol
Though Z_n and Z/nZ are just different notations (though Z_n is occasionally given a hacky definition)
Z_n is worse anyway lol given that the p-adics exist
Dang I wish there was a way to notate the cyclic group of order n in such a way that makes the generator "1" naturally and doesn't clash with any other notation whatsoever !
Imagine talking about the group ring Z[Z_n]
Then you can write amazing things like
$(ag)^n = a^nng$
jagr2808
Now that's when you write C_n tbh
Hey speaking of notation
Q_8 has 8 elements
D_8 has 8 elements
and they're extensions of the same groups
beat that
No, bad Boytjie
But for real I like that Q_4n and D_4n have the same # of elements and fit into SESs with the same start and end
So... take that!!!
I get to die on this shitty hill
i tried my best to explain to a fellow student the other day why he shouldnβt think of Z/nZ = {0, 1, β¦, n-1} as a subset of Zβ¦ i gave up after a while
I'm down with renaming the Quaternion groups if that makes you feel better

No, good Boytjie
Dic
I got called out by someone for learning algebra from Micheal Penn when they saw me using e as identity qwq
Good Wikipedia
Idk what to say, using e as the identity in intro group theory courses is way older than penn
More than anything it is a mark of beginners
I'm not sure I've seen an intro book that uses anything else
who is micheal penn
Mm, that makes sense
Maybe I'm misremembering
YouTuber that solves tricky integrals or something
I learned group theory using his abstract algebra series
Integrals aren't too bad
But man am I glad they don't come up in what I'm interested in
This begs the question though, why in every intro book? Is it simply tradition?
You want to talk about examples both of additive groups and multiplicative groups.
If you for example introduce 1 as the symbol for identity you create confusion with what is the identity in (Z, +) for example.
So then it's nice to have a seperate symbol other than 0 or 1.
So e for Einheit(?) or idEntity (π)
Yeah, I would assume they took it from German "Einheitselement"
I don't know about looks, but dutch sure sounds silly
It's like soft german, interleaved with someone gurgling in the back of their throat a bit
Not as silly as danish though, of course
Maybe piglatin
Pig Latin (Igpay Atinlay) is a language game, argot, or cant in which words in English are altered, usually by adding a fabricated suffix or by moving the onset or initial consonant or consonant cluster of a word to the end of the word and adding a vocalic syllable (usually -ay or /eΙͺ/) to create such a suffix. For example, "Wikipedia" would bec...
bro has not read captain underpants
Damn, a lost childhood
ya i think when u learn new math its easy to forget the minds of younger math students and the level of abstraction they think at
i.e why beginner books emphasize "e" for identity instead of just 1
It really is that simple of a reason, lol
yea lol
Well yes of course itβs also a group, but idk I assume the canonical structure on Z/nZ is a ring, of course itβs immediately obvious from context and whatever, but in either case, itβs a silly object to take as the definition and Iβll die on that pedantic hill
this is why you donβt make analysists mark a homework on characters and why I shouldnβt have taken analytic number theory
Could be doing Galois theory instead but no Iβm pissing about with logarithms 
I honestly cant believe it, but the linear algebra is genuinely making me confused here
Especially 14.5
Im imagining the first equation starts as sum of aixi = 0 then u apply sigma 1 to it
0 for Abelian groups ofc
Yeah but thats just cuz theyre modules
Im just confused on what we are taking these equations over
What are the xiβs? In F? In K?
I dont know how to think about that system of equations
Huh never thought about it that way
I thought + and 0 for Abelian groups and β’ and 1 for general groups was entirely arbitrary
That makes sense though
A German suggested to me that the typical name "s" for the reflection generating the dihedral group along with a rotation stands for "spiegelung," which is a cute idea. If only r stood for rotation in German (it does not).
"Spiegeling" and "rotatie" if we're gonna do a nice anglicisme
This equation taken over F must mean xiβs are 0 becuz alpha i are lin ind
I assumed it was r for rotation and s for being next to r
I suppose rotatie isnt really an anglicisme
Speiling and rotasjon, clearly Norwegian
Ok i think i get it now. We think of these system of equations as like something from the K-vector spaces K^(n+1) -> K^n β¦ then it must have a solution because linear algebra matrix thing
But then we can say these solution must not all be from F becuz thats when it contradicts F-linear independence
Ha I like this
Clearly Abel came up with it 
I see no other possible explanation
This is probably why, but I suppose it's not really possible to get a definitive etymological confirmation
It was while I was giving a talk, I just casually mentioned that r is nice because it stands for rotation, but I lamented that s didn't really stand for reflection β that's when Spiegelung was mentioned
do people actually use Β«speilingΒ» ? :o iβve only heard Β«refleksjonΒ»
Just start giving your talks in denglisch, shoehorn it in
Oh ja hier we see the dihedralgrouppen
Can you tell I speak kein Deutch?
https://matematikkradet.no/ordliste/
List "spelling" as the main translation
But the anglisism is strong in this country ofc
mhm
And yet they chose to use the American spellings smh
If it makes you feel better, Norwegian left its mark on English, mostly in Aberdeen, lots of Doric words have a lot of Norwegian influence
Depending on where you draw the distinction between Norwegian and old Norse, I'd say there is a lot of influence on English.
such a long proof π that's the kind of proof I would skip on first reading (and maybe second and third reading)
Honestly just do all your lectures in anglo-saxon.
Why does it specify if f(x) is separable over F. I thought separability of polynomial didnt depend on base field but im prolly wrong
Doesnt separable polynomial means it splits into distinct factors in its splitting field
Could be they define f to be separable over F if it is a product of irreducible seperable polynomials.
That would make it an if and only if at least
It says a polynomial is separable over F if it has no repeated roots
(In its splitting field)
Alright, then the "over F" part does nothing
Yeah
@rocky cloak I've been trying and trying to find an irreducible factorisation in the case n = 0 mod p. I have yet to come up with an expression... I feel kinda dumb haha
But anyway, thanks so much for your help!!!!!
I very much appreciate it!!!
π
Yeah, I'm not so sure myself.
The coefficients won't be in Fp for any of them, so will be kinda annoying I guess
I'm not sure you have to actually explicitly write these out for the exercise...
but why does X^q-X-a split into irreducible factors, all of degree p again?
@rocky cloak
Like, suppose we have a root of $X^p-X-a$, then we know all $p$ roots.
joel
Because each root has p conjugates
x, x+a, x+2a, ...
joel
like, again if $\alpha$ is a root, then $\alpha+a$, etc
joel
is there notation for something like,
in a finitely-generated abelian group G, the number of copies of each cyclic group of prime power order when you write G as a direct product of such groups?
like Betti number but including the finite factors?
i'm looking for a clean way to make this argument
is the order of 12 in $\mathbb{Z}_{12}$ 0 or 1?
why would it be 1?
the order of 12 in Z is infinite
z_12
it's 1
the class represented by 12 in Z_12 is the same as the class represented by 0
i don't know how to type it in latex
0 has order 1 so 12 has order 1
you need to put the _12 outside the mathbb
And put it as _{12} so it recognizes that both digits have to go in the subscript
rabbits_advocate
Thanks
is there a simple way to create a "standalone" module with a given structure theorem decomp (for a PID R)?
ex. M'=Z^2+Z/(2)+Z/(6)
like can we define some non-vector-like Z module M that is isomorphic to that? maybe like a polynomial type thingy?
how about F(x)^2+F(x)/(x-2)+F(x)/(x^2-4)?
(+ meaning oplus direct sum)
wdym "non vector like"
This is assuming p β€ n, right?
like the structure theorem decomp is like a vector with entries for each component. can we do something where there are no entries
I think this is hard to do unless you decide what does and doesn't count as a "vector-like" example to you.
errrr for finitely generated modules over a PID we can't
Because the structure theorem guarantees such a decomposition
ex. like instead of R2, we can do R[x]/(x^2)
now they're just 2nd degree polynomials, no entries
Fg modules over a PID do come up often in various places and those will probabl y not be "vector-like". But whether it can end up with any possible structure decomposition depends on the example.
R[x]/(x^2) is isomorphic to R (+) R as an R-module
yeah exactly so that's an example of what I'm sort of talking about
but that is vector like....
but how do you mix in some torsion with that?
well over a field there's never any torsion
Hmm, I see. How about R[X]/(X^n, a_n, a_{n-1} X, ..., a_1 X^{n-1}), where your module is M = R/(a_n) (+) R/(a_{n-1}) (+) ... (+) R/(a_1), with a_1 β£ ... β£ a_n (we allow a_n = 0)?
but if you look at something like Z, then you can have something like Z^r (+) torsion
so for the example I gave, do something like
Z[x]/(x^2,6,2x)? or did I mess up the construction
For example, β€[X]/(X^4, 0, 0 X^1, 6 X^2, 2 X^3).
oh I see
(The 0's are just to illustrate how it goes in general.)
so the
0 corresponds to Z
0x corresponds to Z
(that ends the free part, now onto the torsion)
6x^2 for Z/(6)
2x^3 for Z/(2)
and then Z^4 because the module has 4 components?
then we have
a0+a1x+a2x^2+a3x^3
Another way to say it would be M = β€/0β€ (+) β€/0β€ (+) β€/6β€ (+) β€/2β€ (+) β€/1β€ (+) β€/1β€ (+) ...
And then you read off 0X^0, 0X, 6X^2, 2X^3, 1X^4, 1X^5, 1X^6, ... as the generators
and remove redundancies.
That's what you said.
oops
no nvm I see. multiplying by 6 would eliminate both torsion components but not 2, that would only eliminate one (the x^3 part).
okay that makes sense
but what about the F[x] example? that seems a bit more complicated
maybe like F[x1,...,x4]? or something? not sure
would it be
$$F(x)^2\oplus F(x)/(x-2)\oplus F(x)/(x^2-4)$$
$$\cong
F[x,y]/(y^4,0,0y,(x^2-4)y^2,(x-2)y^3)$$
?
Which one?
My example does work for any PID.
F[x, y]/that, I guess.
Ah, no.
You need the factors in descending order by divisibility for this to work.
ohh right like how we had 6x^2,2x^3
Try to figure out why it has to go that way.
eigentaylor (STfFGMOaPID)
okay yeah I understand this better now. this is what I got when I tried to generalize it
so like I get what each a(i)X^(n-i) means. but like... does the X^n have some connection to the module besides just "make sure there are only n degrees of freedom"? like what goes wrong if we don't include it?
or I guess since we're defining the isomorphism via the unit for the ith component mapping to x^(i-1), then it's to make the map surjective?
Yes, it's just to limit to n factors.
okay thank you! you were very helpful
hi i just have a general question. my teacher was talking about big problems in math
"Does there exist a lattice order on the field of complex numbers β that is compatible with the field operations?"
does any1 know the answer to this? im pretty sure this was how my professor phrased it
I know at the very least you cannot have an order which has every two elements comparable, as if so if i < 0 you have i^2 > 0 but this is -1 which is < 0, and if i > 0 then i^2 > 0 but again a contradiction
Iβm not sure if you can somehow adapt this to say something about a lattice
why do we taking finitely generated projective module, isn't every finitely generated module over k is vector space hnece it is free?
Sanity check, it's not true in general that if a group G has subgroups H and K, and if N is a normal subgroup of K, then HN is a normal subgroup of HK right? We need H to be normal too?
It's a free k-module, but not necessarily a free (or even projective) k[x...]-module.
No. For example, if K = G and N β H this says that if N β H β G with N normal in G, then H is normal in G.
fantastic thanks
I'll give you the proof I had in mind, but with integers. I think it should generalize to the group problem. Main thing is that I will be avoiding using division because we don't have that in the decomposition of groups.
Let a,b,d be positive integers. We are also given that ad=ab. Consider a factorization of ab and ad and a,b,d each into prime powers. Since the factorizations are essentially unique, it must be that the product of the factorizations of a and d must equal to the factorization of ad (might need to combine some prime factors). Similarly for a and b. By assumptions, we have that ad=ab, so the factorizations of the products of a and b and the factorizations of the products of a and d must be equal. And after accounting for the prime factors of a, it must be that b=d (need to elaborate more on this part, and you should do it by writing out general general decompositions, but doing some examples might help, say a=2^3, b= 2^2 * 3^3 =c).
i got it, but if every finitely generated module M over k has FR, right? Then why we don't do induction ?
They do do induction.
but they are taking projective module
i am saying if i show that every finitely generated module over K[x1,..,xn] has FR then we are done for projective too
thanks
i wrote an answer earlier today
you can ping me on reply btw and i actually prefer that
okay 
Because they want to conclude that it's stably free.
I don't know how they show projective + FR => stably free, but it's certainly not true for any module with FR.
i got it, thank you
a non-identity element sigma of S_n must move some element a to b
if n >= 3 there must be a third element c
we can check if sigma commutes with (b, c)
elements inside the transposition have to be necessarily fixed by the candidate ?
oh the candidate can interchange (do or undo) the transposition elements too ig
sigma commuting with a transposition tau means
sigma tau = tau sigma
yeah they could fix or interchange the elements of the transposition
hmm then if we try to turn any big map into transposition it can take form of (12)(23)
and if two such transpotion shows up
we are done
nothing can commute with them
except the trivial shit
does the argument sound
idk what to do for A4
think of the polynomial \to \pm1 ?
what if it's (12)(23)(34)(56)
then it will commute with (56)
actually we don't need to show that nothing commutes with it, only that some permutation doesn't commute with it
clearly the rubiks cube group can be embedded into S48. can it be embedded into any smaller symmetric group? i cant find actually anything about this online
for this one, is he asking for a single monic polynomial of degree 3 in Q whose roots are the ones he gave, or does he want a different one for each root he gave?
I can figure out a degree 3 monic polynomial in Q for each root individually, but not one with both of those values as roots
Guys do you have in mind and R-module, where r(x)m = 0 but both r and m are not 0
Z (x) Z/2Z, r = 2, m = 1 but this is a little silly
just pick anything with R-torsion
This is exactly the easy example I wanslooking for
Could also do
Z/3 (x) Z/2
if you want everything to be 0
I thought that one was TOO silly
Lol
I have to find two elements in A_5 such that they are not conjugate in A5 but are conjugate in S5.
Is there any way other than computation ?
You could try conjugating random things in A5 with elements in S5\A5
This may not be much better but: A5 is a union of conjugacy classes of S5. Consider one such conjugacy class C = orbit(x), S5 acts on it (by conjugation, of course). If you restrict this action to A5, you get the conjugation action of A5. So the orbits of C under the action of A5 give the splitting of the single S5-conjugacy class C into A5-conjugacy classes. Now, if G_x = Stab(x) = {y β S5 : y commutes with x} is the centraliser of x, then it is not too difficult to see that A5 β x = A5 G_x β x is equal to S5 iff A5 G_x = S5. (In general the A5-orbits of C are in bijection with the double coset space A5 \ S5 / G_x.)
So for each conjugacy class of S5 contained in A5, you pick some element x and need to check whether A5 Z = S5 where Z = centraliser(x); by cardinality considerations, this is equivalent to [Z : A5 β© Z] = [S5 : A5] i.e. 2. (The only other possibility is [Z : A5 β© Z] = 1 β Z β A5; so the conjugacy class splits into two iff Z β A5.)
This analysis works for the conjugacy classes of any normal subgroup of any group.
I just realized something really interesting
We can think of incrementation as the most basic operation. Addition can be thought of as repeated incrementation. Multiplication can be thought of as repeated addition. Exponentiation can be thought of as repeated multiplication.
Each of these operations has an inverse. They are, respectively, decrementation, subtraction, division, and taking roots.
The set of positive integers is closed under incrementation. But it is not closed under the inverse-- under decrementation. In order to create a set that is also closed under decrementation, we have to expand the set to include 0.
This new set is closed under addition, but again, it is not closed under the inverse operation-- subtraction. In order to make it closed under subtraction, we have to include the negative integers.
This new set is closed under multiplication, but not under inverse multiplication, i.e., division. To make it closed under division (excepting division by 0), we must expand the set again to include all rational numbers.
This new set is closed under exponentiation, but not under the inverse. To make it closed under the root operation, we have to expand it to include all imaginary (or complex?) rational and radical numbers.
Each new operation has to expand the set in order for its inverse to also be universally applicable within the set.
Slight gripe that decrementing 0 yields -1 so closure under decrementing is already closure under additive inverses
But yeah, true
You have this tower of algebraic completions
semiring without zero -> semiring -> ring -> field -> algebraically closed field
Called algebraic because every step is extending your structure to meet some algebraic requirement
Why is logarithmic closure not discussed
Then, if you want to get to the real numbers, you notice that at the step "field" (rational numbers) you have a notion of distance, namely the absolute value, giving a metric space. As this works nicely with addition and multiplication and whatnot, you can complete this metric space (filling all the holes) and get another field out of it, yielding the real numbers
And then you can do the same algebraic closure to get the complex numbers
Logarithmic closure is fairly messy
I believe
Well any real >1 can be taken as the base for a logarithm which then generates all others(usually e)
So you only need to iterate log2's (say) on the rationals, then do the field closure, hence repeat etc.
speaking of fields, I've heard that the algebraic closure of the p-adics is C, ie. the same as for the reals, but are the p-adics actually isomorphic to the reals as a field? I know the metric is very different, but what field theoretic difference is there between the reals and the p-adics?
They are very far from being isomorphic to the reals
For p odd, the p-adics contain (p-1)st roots of unity for example
Yeah I realized shortly after I sent it that I made a big error in my wording π
What's that react to say, sheddow?
If you need clarification, I am talking about primitive such roots of course
I don't mean to convey confusion, it's just interesting 
But yeah basically, each time you add the inverse, the set of possible outputs of the operation is a superset of the possible inputs
what about the 3-adics vs the reals? They both contain 2nd roots of unity, right?
And I didn't mention the 2-adics :P
I cannot, off the top of my head, give you an example of a strictly non-real algebraic element in the 2- and 3-adics
But you can construct these things via Hensel's lemma
I see 
Upwards closure
My beloved
I'm guessing p-adics are mostly used in analytic number theory? I haven't really seen them used elsewhere so far
Algebraic number theory, really
And they're important in various bits of rep theory
They're surprisingly broad, I'd say
Interesting 
How are they used there?
ANT gives us tools that relate local fields, their number rings, and finite fields of characteristic p
So it gives us a way to pass between fields of char 0 and fields of char p, really
This was used by Brauer to produce a character theory of finite groups in characteristic p
This was the first real instance of this
In some sense it is more natural to see representations of groups as lying in the algebraic closure of the p-adics than over Q, and certainly not the reals or complex numbers (ew)
See also: Navarro's conjecture
Aka the GaloisβMcKay conjecture, whatever you want to call it
My favourite disagreement on naming is "Burnside's lemma" and "The lemma that is not Burnside's"
Is there an underlying reason for this? Or is it really "it works because it works"
This remains unclear
Because i know that linear reps of (finite) groups in complex vector spaces are nice, because of the algebraic closure and char 0 of the complex numbers
I suppose the alg closure of the p-adics also have these nice properties but simply more of them?
Well ok let's be clear here: the niceness is just because of algebraic closure and being char 0 -- there are plenty of other such things
But when we're actually constructing the characters, right
We see them as being in some algebraic extension of Q
Right? For example it is usual to take some symbol x in the character table and give its minimal polynomial over Q
When we're constructing these Brauer characters β whatever these are β it's natural then to see them as living in an algebraic extension of Q_p
Now there are... complicated relationships between these Brauer characters and ordinary characters
So in some sense we would like to be able to see them as living over the same field
This is broad and vague, I know
I think I get it
Explicitly, for p = 2, X^2 + X + 1 has a simple zero in β€/2β€ hence in β€_2 β β_2 but no zero in β. For p odd, take any negative representative a of a non-zero quadratic residue modulo p - for example, a = 1-p - then X^2 - a has a simple zero in β€/pβ€ hence in β€_p β β_p but no zero in β.
Nice, thanks Raghuram
I wonder if this can be extended - say, to find a monic polynomial irreducible over β which has a root in finitely many given completions and is irreducible in finitely many other given completions.
In fairness, you only need to adjoin all roots of unity to β, neither the full algebraic closure nor any transcendental elements.
I wonder if this is connected to Kronecker-Weber.
I noticed that you can approach representation theory of groups fully using universal algebra, as a representation and morphisms of representations can be fully faithfully described not unlike modules.
And in general for a variety of algebras V of type T you can get the variety of V-representations of G simply by adjoining unary operations f_g to the type which act as T-endomorphisms
Can anyon point to resources about this? I'm sure it's been done using category theory at least lol
hell, this can be done for any algebraic structure which has an underlying group where the group operations act as endomorphisms on the reduct
do finite fields have odd # of elements?
other than that one
Finite fields always have p^n elements, where n is a positive integer, and p is prime. So the only case when a finite field has an even number of elements, is when p=2.
Alright thanks
There are infinitely many (non-isomorphic) finite fields with an even number of elements.
exactly countably many of them in fact!
Indeed
But this is not so impressive, because there are only countably many isoclasses of finite rings anyway.
And you know very well this is a general statement
:P
I am indeed one who should know that yes
it being true for any variety of algebraic structures
a far more interesting question being "what finite orders actually occur in this variety"
the only nontrivial ones (either the full set of integers or just 1) I can think of are vector spaces over finite fields and boolean algebras
tbh
And of course one of those examples encapsulates the other
in a sense I guess
if we take the product of all nonzero elements in a finite field, is it equal to 1?
boolean algebras <-> boolean rings -> F_2-vector spaces
yes, because the additive group is abelian
wait, no that only works in even ordered groups
Not sure how that follows, enpeace
Think about this. I can pair up all the elements with inverses, so that:
$$ \prod_{x \in F\setminus{0}} x = \prod_{x \in F\setminus{0},\ x = x^{-1}} x $$
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
Therefore you can reduce your question somewhat, right?
You may want to know that the group F\{0} is cyclic for all finite fields F, and you should have your answer.
ok
This response does not fill me with hope
your response fills me with hope
Great
Hold on. What ordered groups are finite?
even-ordered groups
groups of even order
Great
but then I, quickly corrected myself
to groups of odd order
I do not have my mind in the game today
Let's see what the discuss is about π
Lol
The idea is that ||we only need to look at the product of all elements of order 2, right? Which in an integral domain is 1 and -1, so the product of all non-zero elements is just -1?||
Indeed. This is also known as Wilson's theorem.
Well, maybe not exactly the same as Wilson's theorem, but the proof is the same
ah, I'm familiar with that from number theory, but never seen it in the context of rings before 
I've seen it in the context of complete mappings and mutually orthogonal latin squares
that doesn't count, you see everything in the context of latin squares
at least, the notion of multiplying every element
π
everything is connected..
I read in "the" Latin square book
not kidding
it's very dense, so mainly good for references
Yes and this generalises to all finite fields, of course, since the group of units is cyclic ||there is exactly one element of order 2, if there are any at all.||
yeah okay, this proves that an abelian group has an orthogonal mate iff it has not exactly one element of order 2
