#groups-rings-fields
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Thanks
When i have the time i really want to just go through like all the exercises in dummit and foote for this. It has always bugged me that i havent really understood it properly
Well, if it's over a field, then m(x)n is only 0 if m or n is 0 anyway
There are a few kernels of the concept you might need:
\
Bilinear maps from $M \times N$ are linear maps from $M \otimes N$.
\
In fact, there's a bilinear map $h: M \times N \to M \otimes N$ that induces a bijection of maps $h^*: \rm{Bil}(M \times N, P) \to \rm{Hom}(M \otimes N, P$ for all $P$, which is natural in everything ever because category theory.
\
$M \otimes N$ consists of linear combinations of pure tensors $m \otimes n$. If we're in Vect$_k$, then you can write down a cool basis if you have bases for M and N, and the dimension of the tensor product will be the product of dimensions (as opposed to the sum, like it would be for direct sums or [cartesian] products).
\
The construction of $M \otimes N$ will take every $m \otimes n$ as a basis element and generously quotient out relations that you want. It's highly worth going through this, especially if you don't have too much experience with generator-quotient constructions.
\
For noncommutative rings and modules over them it gets a bit icky I believe.
PKThoron
Christ my texxing skills 😄
Suppose we have a non-commutative ring R, is it true that if I = I^2 is an idempotent left ideal which is finitely generated, then I is a direct summand of R?
I know this is true for commutative rings, the proof is rather intuitive
we can use transform I^2 = I and a set of finite generators x = [x1,...,xn] to construct a matrix A over I^(nxn) such that Ax = x
hence (1-A)x = 0, so multiplying by the adjoint we get that det(1-A)x = 0
This is true. Idk why I assumed field lol
Consider the ring of upper triangular matrices
[k, k; 0, k]
and let I be the ideal
[k, k; 0, 0]
Then I is idempotent, but is not a direct summand as a left module.
Somewhat interestingly I is actually a direct summand as right module (I is a twosided ideal).
sorry if thats inappropriate but thanks for everyone who helped me with various questions the last week, passed my exam and couldn't have done it without so much free patience and help
yooo congrats dude!!
Consider the R-bilinear map (m, n) ↦ m (⨯) n. Clearly if it takes (m, n) to 0, m (⨯) n = 0.
For vector spaces over a field, yes. For modules over a (commutative) ring, no. You need maps into all modules for it to be true. This isn't because of the tensor product in any way, but just because modules may not be "determined" by linear maps from M to R.
For example, any ℤ-linear map f: ℚ → ℤ is 0 (simply because f(1) is divisible by every positive integer n, hence 0), so if R = ℤ and M (⨯) N is isomorphic to ℚ (for example, because M = N = ℚ), m (⨯) n will be killed by all bilinear maps to ℤ, even though it need not be 0.
Indeed agreed
Ngl I kinda assumed we were limiting to maps into the ground ring as I thought otherwise it was much easier
Let $V$ be a vector space over a field $K$ and $k$ a positive integer.
For $\omega \colon V^{k-1} \to K$ alternating multilinear, define
\begin{equation*}
\iota_{\omega} \colon \bigwedge^k V \to V \colon v_1 \wedge \dots \wedge v_k \mapsto \begin{multlined}[t] \omega(v_1, \dots, v_{k-1}) v_k + \dots \\ + (-1)^{k-1} \omega(v_2, \dots, v_k) v_1. \end{multlined}
\end{equation*}
For any subspace $W \subset V$, for $\eta \in \bigwedge^k W$ we have $\iota_{\omega}(\eta) \in W$ for any $\omega$.
Is the converse true: if $\eta \in \bigwedge^k V$ and
\begin{equation*}
W \coloneq \{ \iota_{\omega}(\eta) \,\vert\, \omega \text{ alternating $(k-1)$-multilinear on $V$} \},
\end{equation*}
must $\eta$ lie in $\bigwedge^k W$?
Raghuram
I guess pick a basis
e1, e2, ..., em, ..., en
Such that e1, ..., em is a basis for W.
Then a basis for Wedge^k V is e(i1)^...^e(ik) (i1 < i2 < ... ik)
Say eta is not in Wedga^k W. Then eta is supported on
e(i1)^e(i2)^...^e(j)^...^e(ik) where e(j) is not in W. Then pick w such that w(e1)^w(e2)^...^w(e(ik)) = 1 and 0 for on other basis vectors. Then
i_w(eta) = ± e(j)
(sign depending on j)
\begin{align*}
\iota_{\omega} \colon \bigwedge^k V &\to V\v_1 \wedge \dots \wedge v_k &\mapsto \omega(v_1, \dots, v_{k-1}) v_k - \omega(v_1, \dots, v_{k-2},v_k)v_{k-1}+ \cdots + (-1)^{k-1}\omega(v_2, \dots, v_k) v_1
\end{align*}
Trivial Lemma
To show M->N is a R-bimodule homomorphism, we need to check that its a homomorphism through the left R-action and then also a hom through the right R-action?
Is the tensor product A(x)A taken over F? It needs to be taken over F for A(x)A to be an F-algebra right?
yeah I'm pretty sure one should tensor over F
Also, i have no idea what an A-bilinear splitting means.
not totally sure either
I would guess that you need A-linearity on the left and on the right
namely, Delta(abc) = a Delta(b) c, where A tensor A is an A-bimodule in the obvious way
while there's a pause, maybe I'll ask about this lang exercise
for (a), there must be a typo here because the dimension of the matrices does not agree with the degree of the characteristic polynomial, no? I guess I should replace GL_2(C) with GL_6(C)?
It means that Delta is A-bilinear, as @ dfoiler said.
Yeah, probably.
Maybe M_6(C)..
What does the “splitting” mean?
A short exact sequence 0 -> M -> N -> P -> 0 is said to split if there is a map P -> M such that P -> M -> P is the identity; the map P -> M is called a splitting.
Now the multiplication map mu: A (x) A -> A is surjective and A-bilinear, so if we call the kernel I, there is a short exact sequence 0 -> I -> A (x) A -> A -> 0 of A-bimodules. By definition, A is separable if and only if this short exact sequence splits and in this case, Delta is the splitting.
fwiw in a splitting sequence, $N \cong M \oplus P$
PKThoron
Did u mean a map P->N?
Let $R$ be a commutative ring, $V$ an $R$-module, and $v$ a linearly independent element of $V$.
For every $k$, there is an $R$-linear map $\varphi_v \colon \bigwedge^k V \to \bigwedge^{k+1} V \colon v_1 \wedge \dots v_k \mapsto v \wedge v_1 \wedge \dots \wedge v_k$.
Is the chain complex of $R$-modules
\begin{equation*}
0 \to R = \bigwedge^0 V \xrightarrow{\varphi_0} \bigwedge^1 V \xrightarrow{\varphi_1} \dots
\end{equation*}
exact?
It is not too difficult to check that, denoting $W \coloneq V/Rv$, $\ker(\bigwedge^k V \to \bigwedge^k W) = \operatorname{im}(\varphi_{k-1})$, so this comes down to showing that the map induced by $\varphi_k$, also denoted by $\varphi_k \colon \bigwedge^k W \to \bigwedge^{k+1} V \colon w_1 \wedge \dots \wedge w_k \to v \wedge w_1 \wedge \dots \wedge w_k$ (which is well-defined because it vanishes if any $w_i \in Rv$) is injective.
It isn't really necessary to assume that Rv admits a complementary submodule instead of taking W = V/Rv to formulate the question, but maybe it helps prove this. 🤷
No, wait: I know how to do this when it splits, and I'm curious if it's true when it doesn't.
What happens if R=Z and V=Q?
Then the sequences just looks like
0 -> Z -> Q -> 0
right?
Right.
Even just V = Z, but picking the element to be 2 instead of 1 should cause trouble
How can I show that dim R[x, y]/(x^2 + y^2) is infinite
Well I guess 1, x, x^2, x^3, x^4... can still somehow be considered basis elements in some way
Oh yeah I guess I could just assume that there is a finite basis p_1(x, y), ..., p_N(x, y), but then x^M cannot be a linear combination of these elements where M is the maximum of the degrees which appear in the p_i
is it known how many subgroups there are of S_n?
I know how many normal subgroups there are. 
More seriously, at least as many as there as isomorphism classes of groups of order n, so a lot (but perhaps compared to n!, only a lot, not a lot).
some info on this https://oeis.org/A005432
Same for An 😎
If $R$ is a ring and we have $3k=0$ for $k\in R$, can we conclude that $k=0$?
VirtualCode
Or rather, when can we conclude that k=0?
If the ring has char 3, then k ≠ 0, but if the ring does not char 3 and if it is an integral domain then we can say k = 0.
Also in Z/nZ where n is not divisible by 3
In general thats a nonsufficient requirement for the characteristic
Interesting
n^2 compared to n! Is so slow,
Also gives a very weak upper bound to the number of groups of order n lmao
the bound is not n^2, it's c^n^2
what have you taken before that's non-advanced?
I think abstract algebra is pretty legit IF you have experience with axioms and proofs
if you like it, yes
groups, rings and fields are all not too difficult to work with, but they do leave the comfort of the real numbers that you experience in early analysis/calculus and linear algebra
dunno if this applies to every algebra course but:
mine was motivated by the question of: can polynomials of degree 5 or higher be solved?
oh it's fine then
go ahead and take algebra imo
yeah that's true, although not 100% true
rings will very much look like the integers
and fields will very much look like the rationals, reals and complex numbers
groups leave common intuition quite a bit, but at the same time it's not too hard to get an intuition for them (especially since many groups turn out to be groups of numbers after all)
also this server has frequent abstract algebra lectures tho i'm not sure where they're at right now
here
I didn't learn algebra by a book, just by a great lecture so I can't help there
Dummit and Foote
Fraleigh or Gallian are good options if you want something a bit more beginner friendly
Highschool algebra isn't even classified as "real" math, because you're not really formally proving anything.
But yes, if you do any math beyond highschool, then "algebra" will mean "abstract algebra".
In that sense highschool algebra isnt algebra, and just referred to as "algebraic manipulation"
When you have A and B R-algebras, the tensor product A(X)B over R is also an R-algebra. How is R mapped into A(X)B?
r |-> r (x) 1 = 1 (x) r.
that is using the fact that A and B are R-algebras , for the multiplication there right
Ok
what is it that makes the multipliation on simple tensors (a(x)b)(c(x)d) = (ac) (x) (bd) well defined here?
Ohh normally you dont even have multiplication in M or N for some M(x)N because usually they are just modules
Well this can be defined via the universal property like
(A (x) B) (x) (A (x) B) = (A (x) A) (x) (B (x) B) -> A (x) B
yeah I misread, it's it's log(#subgroups) = n^2
that makes more sense
Yeah lmao it does
are simple groups exactly the groups with no abelian quotients?
it must be, right?
given that [G,G] is always normal and G/[G,G] is always abelian
so the fundamental group of the poincaré homology sphere is simple 
[G, G] can be simply G
yeah, ik, by "no abelian quotients" I kinda swept the trivial group under the rug
but if G = [G,G], is it simple?
Dont think so
No
Take the Cartesian product of two non-Abelian groups
You mean two perfect groups
Yes, yeah, realized that was too much.
But yes, for example the direct product of A_5 with A_5 has trivial abelianisation but isnt simple
ah ok
A_5 always in the chamber
So based
In mathematics, the binary icosahedral group 2I or ⟨2,3,5⟩ is a certain nonabelian group of order 120.
It is an extension of the icosahedral group I or (2,3,5) of order 60 by the cyclic group of order 2, and is the preimage of the icosahedral group under the 2:1 covering homomorphism
Spin
(
3
...
apparently this is the funda group of the poincaré homology sphere
So Cp are abelian simple groups. And you can have non-simple groups without abelian quotients
Hey folks, just a quick reminder that the Abstract Algebra Lecture series is meeting regularly again ^_^
We will meet to discuss inner product spaces in about 15 minutes over in the #1055201711679082516. More information can be found in our thread: #1317307081535000606
Why in the construction of tensor product we want the relation (m,rn) = (mr, n) to be satisfied
because for any bilinear map, f(m,rn) = r·f(m,n) = f(rm,n)
Thanks
What intuition should I have for the alternating group? I know its definition, I know its properties, but I don't get what it means for a permutation to be even.
Any permutation can be decomposed into a series of swaps
It turns out that the parity of the number of these swaps (called transpositions) does not depend on the specific decomposition
This means that one can divide permutations into those which you get after an even number of swaps, and those which you get after an odd number of swaps, and there's something fundamentally different about them too
If you only track the parity of the permutation, then it behaves exactly like how it would for numbers
This means that the even permutations form a subgroup, which is even normal
Yeah I know how it's defined
if this makes sense I understand the what but not the why
Let P is a permutation function on a set S. For a pair (i,j) of elements in S such that i < j , if P(i) > P(j), then the permutation is said to invert the order of (i,j). The number of such pairs is known as the parity of the permutation. If permutation inverts even number of such pairs it is an even permutation else it is an odd permutation.
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/361822/odd-even-permutations
I am loving Dummit and Foote Abstract Algebra book
Going through it slow since employed
And every now and then I get stuck on a problem for a couple of weeks
But they are always actually achievable tbh, and really force you to develop different lines of thought
So, how you can think of this is as follows: if you have two rows of n dots and connect them according to the permutation, then the number of pairwise crossings of lines determines if the permutation is even
Yeah
I can identify even permutations, I don't think that's helping much. Thank you though
I've seen it critically used in one place at least
May not be useful as intuition what they ate
Are
But
One perspective could be to think about permutation matrices.
Even permutations are exactly those with determinant 1 and odd are those with determinant -1.
So even permutations are orientation preservering, while odd ones are orientation reversing
This is also kind of like associativity of multiplication
In the sense that if we take R tensor R, this condition is literally associativity
Thanks - found this, which is what I was looking for I think
Orientation preservation is a good way of thinking about it
Anyone notice that chat gpt is actually pretty good at helping with math now
If u disagree i feel like u kinda in denial lowkey
Sorry i wanted to say it here cuz my algebra homies r here
I can’t say it’s something I regularly try
But I imagine it massively depends on what you define as help and what specific things you ask about
Its great at reproducing what it sees on the internet into logically sounding sentences
That is the general idea
Try it, its a lot better these days than when i was playing around with it for math like a year ago
Make sure to press the “Reason” button
Question
I thought that a (commutative) ring with no proper ideals must be a field. What's a local ring? Is that for the non-commutative case and chatgpt is being dumb
I’m gonna test it on a question I’ve tested it on before and see if it answers any better
It still got it wrong
Question was “is there a fiber bundle p:E to B where the fiber of E is not T_4(normal Hausdorf), but E itself is?”
It's much better since I last used it
It took me a long time to find a nitpick, that it didn't explain well where the open cover came from and that it doesn't need contradiction
Definitely a huge improvement since a year ago when it couldn't do basic vector algebra
Is that chatgpt? A simple commutative ring is always a field, so I guess it's technically correct that it's either a field or a local ring 🙃 and a simple ring is local, so it's doubly correct
Chatgpt be like: an even number is either divisible by 2 or by 1 
Simple rings are not in general local.
The only simple local rings are fields
And this doesn't seem like it's pretty good at helping with math
What is a simple ring?
A ring without any nontrivial quotient rings
Or equivalently one without any non-zero proper two-sided ideals
nxn-matrix rings over division rings
Those are all the Noetherian ones
Another could be, let V be a countable dimensional vector space, let R = End(V) and let I be the ideal of R of endomorphisms with finite dimensional image.
Then R/I is simple
I really wish they did more noncom algebra in uni
"Cocountable endonorphisms"
Then there's the weyl algebra (ring of differential operators on the polynomial ring)
That's all the examples I know
Well, you can modify the End(V) example for other infinite cardinals, but other than that
Oh, I see. I was thinking that if (0) is the only ideal then it is maximal, but I guess that's only true in the commutative case
A ring is local if any of the following equivalent conditions are satisfied
It has a unique maximal left ideal
It has a unique maximal right ideal
The set of non-units forms an ideal
If you mod out the Jacobson radical you get a field
You can have only one two-sided ideal while still having plenty of maximal left ideals
For example the 2x2-matrix ring over an infinite field has infinitely many maximal left ideals
aha, that makes sense 
If you take a polynomial (say over Q), and then in its splitting field factor it completely, can that polynomial still be considered a polynomial over Q (even tho some linear factors x-a might not have a in Q) since if you multiply all the split factors together you’d get back what you started with?
I suppose yeah, in the same way that $\sqrt{2} \cdot \sqrt{2} \in \mathbb{Q}$
PKThoron
Is a real polynomial that splits over C still a polynomial in R?
Yea i guess so^
okay so im learning about galois fields ahead because of some essay, and i don't have much previous knowledge on algebraic structures so i may sound stupid ☠️ but can someone explain to me why we even need irreducible polynomials to construct a galois field? from what ive seen the elements of any gf(p^k) are all just all polynomials up to degree k-1 with coefficients in gf(p), i dont really get the role of the irreducible polynomials.
I mean, the polynomial never changes
Not sure if this is what you're asking, but for a field F and a polynomial p(x) in F[x], F[x]/(p(x)) is a field if and only if p(x) is irreducible. So to construct GF(p^k) we must quotient by an irreducible polynomial in GF(p)
yeah that's pretty clear, however the elements of GF(p^k) are the same no matter what irr. polynomial we use and we can find them by simply listing all polynomials up to degree k-1 with coeff. in GF(p) so i kind of feel like i am missing something
Yeah, in some sense the elements of GF(p^k) are the same, because it's always a k-dimensional vector space over GF(p). But the irreducible polynomial tells you exactly how to multiply elements of GF(p^k). Like, the elements of GF(p^k) are not just polynomials of degree less than k, because that's not closed under multiplication; the elements are cosets of the irreducible polynomial p(x)
OHHHHH you're right
i forgot about multiplication being mod p(x), thank you a lot!!
You need to choose a polynomial of degree k to tell you how to multiply polynomials of degree up to k-1. You'll only end up with a field if the polynomial you choose is irreducible.
For example, think about the construction of ℂ from ℝ. The elements of ℂ are polynomials in i of degree up to 1, but when you multiply two of them you'll get terms with i^2. To reduce this back to degree up to 1, you need to pick a relation i^2 = ai + b to use to reduce it. The reduction will end up being polynomial long division by the polynomial in i, i^2 - ai - b, so you will have constructed the ring ℝ[i]/(i^2 - ai - b). The abstract algebra reveals that this is a field iff the quadratic polynomial is irreducible.
Of course, for ℂ and ℝ, the standard choice is a = 0, b = -1, so that the polynomial is i^2 + 1.
(Example: if you used i^2 = 1 to reduce, because i^2 - 1 = (i+1)(i-1) is not irreducible, (i+1)(i-1) would reduce to 0 even though neither factor reduces to 0, so the cancellative law would fail in the ring you came up with.)
thanks for the explanation!!
W explanation
Aight I am smoll baby in this world, but I must understand. I feel like I partly kinda sorta understand fields. I am currently grappling with groups. What is a center of a group???????
the center of a group is the set of all elements of the group that commute with everything in the group
you can check that it is always a subgroup, and in fact a normal subgroup
even better, if you know some more group theory, then G/Z(G) is isomorphic to Inn(G)
So is the center a subgroup?
convince yourself that the things I said are true
no
it's always a subgroup yes
if the group is Abelian then the center is the whole group
uhhh
Baby 👶
Abelian means the group operation is commutative
Okay cool, so it can move around
ab=ba yeah
Okay cool
the center is just like, the largest subgroup where you can do this
sometimes that's the whole group, sometimes it's the opposite
well, the largest subgroup that commutes with everything else* but yeah
its a common enough misconception that I had to point it out, this does not rule out there being bigger commutative subgroups
yes
So if it is commutative the whole group is the subgroup
yeah trivially
So what's the purpose of the center? Is it more useful in the non-Abelian?
well one reason to care is this is sort of the universal way to extract an Abelian group from any group
Ohhh
so if you know the center of any group, then you can commute the items in the center
I mean sure
one result you prove early on in group theory is if G/Z(G) is cyclic then G is Abelian
so that puts some constraints on how exactly the center can sit inside the group and how things can commute
I dunno what the cyclic means
if we're talking about finite groups think Z/nZ (integers mod n)
I got finite groups
something something 5/8ths
when i first came across that result it seemed like a deep structure theorem but no the proof is really boring
the only cyclic group that is not finite is Z itself
cyclic just means generated by a single element
Like identity?
no?
What's generated by a single element mean?
look up what a group presentation is
Aight
lmao that might be a bit too much
generators and relations is not that much lol
{g} generates a group G if every element h of G is equal to g^n for some integer n, where g^0 is the identity and g^(n+1)=g(g^n), g^(n-1)=g^-1(g^n), and g^-1 is the inverse of g.
gimme a moment to process that
Okay so like 1 is a generator is Z or R because all values can be made by 1*anything
And in the presentation, Z = <a|> just tells you what the generator is and then relations are the rules applied to the generator
Is there a name for a subgroup G of H such that N_H(G)/C_H(G)=Out(G)?
1 is not a generator of R, not all real numbers are formed by repeated addition and subtraction of 1.
If we're looking at them as additive groups, then only the integers can be generated by 1
You don't have access to scalar multiplication with real nums
Yep
Well it's actually not totally different, there's an easy bijection between R and (R+)*!
(Aka just the positive invertible reals)
let $G = G_{0} \supset G_{1} \supset \cdots \supset G_{m}$ be an abelian tower. let $i \in {0\cdots m-1}$. I will insert a group $G '{i}$ between $G{i}$ and $G_{i+1}$ such that $G_{i} '/G_{i+1}$ becomes cyclic. Take any non identity element $xG_{i+1} \in G {i}/G{i+1}$ and consider the cyclic subgroup generated by $xG_{i+1}$. this corresponds to a normal subgroup $G '{i}$ containing $G{i+1}$. Insert $G '{i}$ in between $G {i}$ and $G{i+1}$. doing this for all $i$, we have a refinement $G = G{0} \supset G '{1} \supset G{1} \cdots \supset G '{m} \supset G{m}$. note that the size of each quotient has decreased. adding more quotients if necessary, we bring down the size of each quotient to be low enough to apply induction on the size of the quotients to get a cyclic refinement. is this proof good enough for the first part? the second part follows anyways
fastrack_and_backtrack
hmm, no i feel like something is really off here the proof isnt sitting right
i could have just refined the tower so that the size of each quotient went below a certain threshold and still applied induction. the generating a cyclic subgroup part seems like a waste
The proof looks great, not sure what puts you off.
The reason to generate cyclic groups is so that you get cyclic groups, which is what the proposition says
i wrote down what came to my mind immediately, but later on my concern was with the fact that $G_{i+1}/G '{i}$ may not be cyclic, so all im doing is refining the tower till all the quotients go below a certain size and then applying induction. so i could have just added in any random intermediate normal subgroup $G '{i}$ instead of one whose quotient $ G '{i}/G{i+1}$ is cyclic
fastrack_and_backtrack
that is what i thought too, maybe im missing something
I mean you can, but then the proof becomes more complicated right. Because then you need an extra step that to show that the result is cyclic
But yeah, you can argue that
inductively refining gives you a refinement where the quotients are simple, and simple abelian groups are cyclic
nonetheless, the proof given in the book is much neater cleaner 😅
wait a second how do they make the assumption that G is abelian?
You can just consider Gi+1/Gi seperately
This is also just exactly the same proof you wrote earlier
ah of course. with this information its pretty much the same proof
its still more compactly written
Well just because they've hidden some of the details in "it clearly suffices"
Please help. My homework problem ask me to prove that the prime-power decomposition of group T (subgroup containing all number of order p^n and the identity) is isomorphic the the direct product of cylic factor of order of some power of prime p
That seems interesting, where does it come up?
What is Out(G)?
Well, first of all, N_H(G) / C_H(G) comes from the homomorphism
f : N_H(G) -> Aut G
sending an element in the normaliser to the automorphism corresponding to conjugation by that element.
G < N_H(G)
So
Inn G < im f < Aut G
So if Out G ≈ im f there's also not really some semidirect product you can make from it so I'm confused where you got it from tbh
Hey Im unable to understand how to prove this
Let $G$ be a group and $H$ a subgroup. Then
$(G:H)(H:1)=(G:1)$
where number of cosets of H in G is the first term and the order of H is the second.
I saw a proof that proves that G is the disjoint union. But Im not able to think of it intuitively, as in Im not able to see how this would work
TensorBlaze
So [G:H] is just the order of G/H (the set of cosets of H in G). So provide a bijection G/H x H/1 <-> G/1 and you're done.
Hint: first choose a set of representatives for G/H as this will make defining the bijection easier.
For $p$ a prime in the P.I.D. $R$ and $N$ an $R$-module prove that the $p$-primary component of $N$ is a submodule of $N$ and prove that $N$ is the direct sum of its $p$-primary components (there need not be finitely many of them).
Jelle
I don't really understand the question, shouldn't there only be finitely many p-primary components, since they are based on the factorization of a, where (a) = Ann(N)? Or do they mean that the other p-primary components are just 0 if the prime doesn't appear in the factorization of a (i.e. has exponent 0)?
they also only defined p-primary components on torsion modules, but I suppose that non-torsion modules have Ann(N) = 0, which kinda makes sense
(D&F btw)
Ann(N) can be (0).
Even if N is torsion
Oh, true. Unless N is finitely generated right?
That's right
How are p-primary components defined when Ann(N) = (0) though?
oh, wait they did specify non-zero annihilator in the definition of p-primary components
but not in the exercise
I would define the p-primary component of N to be all elements n such that the radical of Ann(n) is p.
Not that you need to include 0-primary components for the exercise to be true in that case
To take an example if
N = R/p (+) R/p^2 (+) R/p^3 (+) ...
Then N is p-primary with annihilator 0
I don't know how they define it in D&F
This MSE seems to suggest that N was meant to be a torsion module in the exercise
This is where they defined it, but the theorem seems the same as the exercise though
Maybe the exercise is supposed to keep N torsion, but drop the assumption that the annihilator is nonzero....
Hmm, I guess I'll just skip it. I understand their proof of the theorem at least
Section 12.1 of d/f was so ahh
Yeah, I gave up trying to completely 'understand' some of the proofs. I can read them and I can follow the steps, but can't really picture the full proof in my head
Ong same
Did that section last term
i did it but i remain unsatisfied
not to sound like a dunce or anything, but i feel i want to apply what i learnt about cosets a little more
ig thats a personal opinion
What have you learned about cosets then?
well cosests are disjoint, so i wanted to use that in my proof. i learnt that for $z \in H,\ zH=H$, and its applicability in proving this. I realised that when we form a union of two representations with a coset in the subgroup H, denoted K, we can form an equation of two different subgroup-cosets and the representations of K and H. I wanted to see how zH = H is applied here (for H and K). I feel i may be getting a little lost, and that the implicit argument is actually bijection.
TensorBlaze
so something along the lines of
Let G be a group and H, K its subgroup, and $K\subset H$. Our representation for H is $x_i$, and for K is $y_i$. it seems trivial to say that
[\bigcup_{i,j} x_iy_i K = G]
Using this I wanted to see if I could form an equation between two of these and prove that it is a disjoint union
TensorBlaze
Yes. Use the property of representatives.
I.e., write down what it means for x_i to be representatives for the cosets of H and likewise for y_i and see what you get
Apply it to that situation
okay cool ill try that
Number 15... iterated cosets... the last thing you want in your coset representatives is some subgroup's transversal. But as it turns out... that might be what you geeEEttt..
Get out of my head get out of my head get out of my head get out of my head
Marry me
maybe later original gangster
Is there a name for / anything interesting about ideals whose radical is prime?
it is true that any module is the direct limit of its finitely generated sub modules?
wait nm
it is true
Yeah, because every element generates a cyclic submodule, so the direct limit should contain every element, i.e. be the whole submodule
It's close to being a primary ideal at least
It is
But, that property is, i think, not retained under preimages
Because that is true iff nil R is prime and S < R => nil S is prime
Which is not true, im pretty sure
The radical being prime you mean?
If s^n is in f^-1(I), then f(s)^n is in I, so rad(f^-1(I)) = f^-1(rad(I)), and primes are preserved under preimage
Ah okay, i was thinking too generally
I've seen somewhere that the nilradical being prime is equivalent to the spectrum with the zariski topology being irreducible
But i dont reckon there's much more to it
Indeed minimal primes correspond to irreducible components
And it is more or less immediate that nilradical prime <=> there exists a minimum prime (I.e. unique minimal prime)
Oh yeah that was it
But also like quotienting out by the nilradical induces a homeomorphism
So you can reduce to reduced things ig
To deduce the irreducible simply reduce to the reduced case
(The generalisation is that a scheme is "integral" iff it is irreducible and reduced)
I see
That makes sense
Damn, imagine schemes for arbitrary coherent systems on a variety of algebras V
Would this be something like a minimum degree division argument, suppose that there were some element g in k[x]/(f) with deg g >= n, let g be an element with minimal degree such that g is not in (f), then we can divide by f using the division algorithm and show that the remainder polynomial is actually of minimal degree not in (f)
Nvm that doesn't work
I don't really see why this is true - it suffices to show that $x^r \in (f)$ for all $r \geq n$. Now, $x^r = f(x) g(x) + r(x)$ . If $r = 0$ then we are done, otherwise $\deg r < f(x)$. But I don't know where to go from here
okeyokay
You dont need to show that every element of k[x] is reachable
Every element in k[x]/(f) can be written as some polynomial of order less than n + (f)
Because that is essentially what quotienting by (f) does; it reduces the order of the polynomial until it is less than that of f in some way
I see
Maybe something like let $g \in k[x] / (f)$, if $g \in (f)$, we are done, otherwise $g = fq + r$ with $\deg r < \deg f = n$. Since $g + (f) = r + (f)$ and $r$ is a polynomial of degree less than $n$, we are done (at least for the spanning part)
okeyokay
This is for g in k[x], not g in k[x]/(f), but yes
Oh yeah
Then, for it being a basis, we can suppose that
(a_0 + a_1 x + ... + a_n-1 x^n-1) + (f) = 0
For some combination of coefficients a_i
Call the polynomial
a_0 + a_1 x + ... + a_n-1 x^n-1
p, for convenience. What does this say about p? Why is this only possible if p=0, looking at the orders of p and f?
Yea, because a polynomial of higher degree cannot divide a polynomial of lower degree (unless that polynomial is zero)
Exactly
So p must be zero hence basis etc
got it, thank you!
How do i find all ring homomorphisms from Z to Z?
think where certain specific elements must go
Ok lets say f is a ring homomorphism. I know f(0) = 0 and f(1) = 1. Both the zero map and the identity map preserve these properties. How do i prove that these are all ring homomorphisms?
these aren't all of them
Zero map doesnt
Zero map has f(1) = 0 ≠ 1
What element(s) is Z generated by?
1?
You can also think of all the group homomorphisms
So if you know where 1 goes, youve uniquely determined the map
Then you get an extra constraint from being a ring map lol
Generating sets my beloved and most abused
This is the main game of maths right lol
I am playing jod
Reduce the infinite to the finite
And solve the finite by passing to the infinite

Not finitely generated?
W-we'll just use a filtration its all good
Lol
kappa generated for some kappa less than the cardinality hopefully
E.g. Q oh wait
Hey at least Q is nicely described by a universal property
Everything has a nice universal property
everything ur willing to talk about 
For example if A is a ring then A is universal for maps into A
Yeah yeah but thats after you've constructed A
I take this example from Kevin Buzzard
What is big math hiding from us
Universal for maps in the mapping space to that map
It is a nice exercise to think about unity-preserving ring homomorphisms from ℤ to any ring with unity R.
If I say G is closed under an associative product, then that operation is closure?
I showed that if G is a finite set closed under an associative product and that both cancellation laws hold in G. Then G is a group.
Now I have to construct a counterexample when G is infinite set.
Any hint?
think formal words
Indubitably. Perchance. Forthcoming.
I don't get it
what are the cancellation laws? more importantly do they say that the inverse must exist, or only if they exist
If ab = ac then b = c and if ca = ba then c = b
oh okay, so this guarantees that multiplication must be injective
however, injectivity only implies bijectivity when the set is finite
because when you consider multiplying the entire set by some element, and you keep chasing the "next" element, then eventually you have to end up in a loop, and therefore there is an inverse
however this fails for infinite sets. so can you figure out a way of defining multiplication, such that the "next" element "escapes to infinity", without ever being stuck in a loop?
What are empty words?
can you just think about this for a moment
Natural number N with operation multiplication
sure, that works
Thanks HChan
Hell, even with addition, no?
The empty word is the neutral element of free groups/monoids
With multiplication
How can I show if H and K are subgroups of G and H \subset K with H has a finite index in G then K has a finite index?
do you know the isomorphism theorems?
lemma: if H <= K <= G, then [G:H] = [G:K] [K:H]
try and prove that
(note that this works even if H, K are not normal)
Yes
they don't necessarily work here because normality is not assumed
edit: see reply, that also works, longer proof but it works
You can always find a normal subgroup of a subgroup of finite index which itself has finite index
that’s a nice exercise for you!
I see then [K : H ] is finite and then [G : K ] is finite
By doing some group action, right?
Let H be the subgroup which has a finite index then we make a group action G -> S, where S is the set of all left cosets of H.
It induced the group homomorphism G -> Sym(S), now G/ker is finite because S is finite.
And ker \subset H.
But how does it help me ?
Well if you have an easy time proving that [G:H] = [G:K][K:H] then it doesn’t help you at all
but if you assume H is normal then K/H is a subgroup of a finite group and [G/H:K/H] = [G:K]
i think it’s better to do this HChan’s way if you see how to do it
because that formula is useful more generally
I got it thank you
probably the simplest thing to show is that G/H naturally surjects onto G/K
Yes gh -> gk
And by isomorphism we have (G/H )/ (K/H) isomorphic to G/K
I proved this, is there any other way to do this question?
This is not Ai generated I used Ai for only latex
Well, a more abstract way of stating the two hypotheses is that $f(x) = x^3$ is an automorphism of $G$. You can probably use that.
Cufflink
Automorphism maps centre to centre, is that useful here?
I mean phi(Z(G)) = Z(G) if phi is automorphism
Is there any weaker condition for this? If phi is surjective not injective then I think phi(Z(G)) \subset Z(G)
Is the "3 not dividing the order" condition even needed?
Yes
There are non-abelian groups where every element has order 3, so in particular
(ab)^3 = a^3 b^3 = 1
Ah yeah I see
Hello, i'm working on a project and i'm trying to find square roots in finite fields. it happens to be doable with fields with a prime number of elements, but is there a way to find them in fields with p^n elements ?
Do you know about the structure of (F_p^n)*?
Kinda yes
You're telling me it just works with any group?
(F_p^n)* is cyclic
Anyway, I think it mostly depends on how the finite field is given to you
Indeed
In this case i get it from extensions of Fp
Using polynomials
So i want to get roots of polynomials
Okay, so you just have Fp[x]/(f(x)) and you want to compute square roots from that.
I'm wondering if Newtons methode would actually work well
Maybe not...
I don't know it
Nice pfp btw
Love bulbasaur
I know that for F_p, there's tonelli shanks algorithm, i wonder if there's a similar algorithm for F_p^n
The analogues thing of just picking random elements of F_p^n and checking if they are primitive generators should work
So factor p^n - 1 = 2^e m
pick random g(x)
Compute g(x)^[2^(e-1)m] mod f(x) to check if it equals -1. Should happen 50% of the time.
Then g(x)^m should generate the 2-sylow subgroup.
Yeah, it should be pretty much exactly the same.
Except the last line i didn't quite understand but maybe i can figure it out
Ok ty for your help
It's exactly this, just replace random number with random polynomial
I'm having trouble understanding a proof in Artin M's algebra. I've highlighted in yellow the line I don't fully understand.
It doesn't quite make sense to me why multiplication by g_i means that the g_iH will be a partition of the coset g_iH. I do understand that because multiplication by g_i is an invertible operation, a bijective map will exist between g_iH and H, and similarily a bijective map will exist between g_ih_1K and K, etc etc.
But I don't quite understand how that comes together to mean that g_iH is a partition of the coset g_iH.
Oh lol I misunderstood
I assumed you meant like asking which fields have which square roots or smth lol
The image of a partition under a bijection is again a partition
Thanks! I shall try to prove that statement myself, and ill come back here and ask some followup questions if I haven't managed to understand it.
Well, f(x) = x^2 is an automorphism of a finite group iff it is abelian and of odd order
So a finite field has all square roots iff it is char 2
Huge
Oh
QwQ
Commutator subgroup of D_2n is subgroup generated by { r^2k | k = 0, 1, 2,...,n}, right?
For R a commutative ring and J its set of nilpotent elements, how do I show that R/J has no nonzero nilpotent elements?
I let alpha = a + J and show that a^n is in J for n s.t. alpha^n = 0, but I get stuck there on showing that a itself is 0
What does it mean for a^n to be in J?
it means that there's a natural number m such that a^(nm) = 0
Implies a is nilpotent element
a is nilpotent, so there exists q such that a^q = 0. If q > n, then alpha^n is not zero. So q <= n. Is this the right process?
am I missing something obvious that makes a zero from the fact that it's nilpotent?
Think about what you want to show
I want to show that alpha is 0+J
alpha = a + J, so that's equivalent to showing a = 0
right?
You want to show a is zero in G/J
No
You want to show a + J = 0 + J, right?
Yes
thank you
How to show that SL_n(R) = [ GL_n(R) : GL_n(R) ]?
I know [GL_n(R) : GL_n(R) ] \subset SL_n(R)
Bottlecap Desu~(Bottlecap Gang)
deleted this but can't delete the texit, I think I figured it out
here, alternatively, i can define a bijection $G/N_{G}(P) \rightarrow \Omega$ given by $gN_{G}(P) \mapsto gPg^{-1}$?
actually this might just be unnecessary because a similar argument proves orbit stabilizer theorem which is just what they used.
fastrack_and_backtrack
Yes if you already show that every Sylow p-subgroup is conjugated to each other
My doubt is T(N) ≠ N, so how can I induce Aut(G/N)?
I mean the element of Aut(G/N)?
| Aut (Z/3Z × Z/3Z) | = 48 ?
You cannot induce an automorphism, but you can induce an endomorphism.
= |Gl(2,F3)| = (3^2 -1)(3^2-3) = 48
I see
Yes
??
I mean I have to show that SL_n(R) is the commutator subgroup of GL_n(R)
Oh ok mb, i forgot that [G:G] means D(G)
Did you find the solution ? Is it for n = 2 also ?
Yes, for arbitrary n
I think the easiest way is to show that SLn is generated by elementary matrices and explicitly write those as commutators
Yes I found the same idea on MSE
3, by 1 we just need to find the image of (123...n) and (12), so let the image of (123..n) be a and the image of (12) is b, then we have a^n = 1 and b^2 = 1.
Since a and b in C* so a has n choice and b has 2 choice so total number of homomorphism are 2n, is it correct?
Not quite.
There are at most 2n homomorphisms, but you have to verify that these choices of a and b actually give rise to homomorphisms.
Part (4) can work as a hint
For homomorphism we need f(xy) = f(x)f(y), but since a and b are in C* so they commute to each other, doesn't work?
a^n=1 and b^2 = 1 are not the only condition, you have to check if a and b generate Im phi. And it's false because phi is not necessary an isomorphism, we don't necessary get n choices for a.
It's weird to consider (1 2 3 ... n) and (1 2) as the generators of Sn, considering all the transpositions is easier imo
Well, whether it works or not is something that needs to be checked
The ideal generated by some elements will consist of linear combinations of the generators
What is "the mi"?
Well being generated by monomials is the definition of being a monomial ideal
I guess not
This seems kinda unrelated to what you asked before.
But if you look at the quotient ring of a polynomial ring over a field it will have a basis given by monomials
your original question was about elements of J
and now you're talking about R[x] / J
so no it's not the same question
Every element in R[x] is a linear combination of monomials. That doesn't really change when you go to R[x]/J
For a ring with coefficients in a field (and perhaps in some more general rings but definitely not every ring) this is easier to answer
For an ideal $I \subseteq k[\overline{x}]$, the elements of $k[\overline{x}] / I$ (known as \emph{standard monomials}) are $k$-linear combinations of the monomials $\overline{x}^\alpha$ which are not in the ideal generated by the leadings terms of elements of $I$, i.e. $\overline{x}^\alpha \notin \langle \textsc{lt}(I) \rangle$.
but if k is not a field then you probably can't make a general rule like this
no
shit lemme fix
Spamakin🎷
my bad
this is a standard fact you can find in Cox, Little, and O'Shea Ideals, Varieties, and Algorithms Chapter 5, Section 3, Proposition 4
again this is for k a field
if k is a ring, then the description will heavily depend on the ring used and idk if we can say anything general
Pinging a random user, then insisting they are misreading your wrongly written question is kind of rude, the least you could do is thank them for the help @grand ridge
a binary structure and a group that act identically on a set are isomorphic and therefore the binary structure is a group?
what is this argument?
those matrices are special matrices, called permutation matrices
notice that all they do, given any vector, is just swap around the entries of the vector and that is it
yes
so instead of thinking about the matrices themselves directly, think about what the matrices do the vector [1;2;3]
I don't get your point
they permute it - but i wonder why that makes them a group
well, do you know about the symmetric group?
yes
tell me what your definition of the symmetric group is
You can verify the existence of an identity element, the existence of an inverse, and associativity of your binary operation
S_n is the group of all permutations of {1,2,...,n}
under composition
exactly - and the set of 3x3 matrices you just gave, consists of all the possible permutations of the three entires of the vector
it consists of matrices, not of permutations
so instead of permuting {1,2,3}, you're permuting [1;2;3]
it really isn't that different
hmm
this is going to be the core lesson you learn in abstract algebra - that what the actual thing looks like, matters much less than how it behaves
I don't care if you're permuting fucking oranges and bananas, as long as it's permuting 3 distinct objects in all the ways, then it, for all intents and purposes, is S_3
in the above case those two groups are isomorphic
this is arguably more of a group action / representation
epic i still cant wrap my head around group actions and i have an exam on it tmrw 😭
group actions are just fancy group homomorphisms
really, that's it
it's just sometimes more convenient to represent the action as an action instead of the underlying homomorphism
the permutation matrices may permute the vector, but it's important how the matrices multiply together
they need to combine in the same way as the permutations in S_n combine
sure, another way to interpet the permuation matrices, instead of permuting the entries of a vector, is that they permute the columns of matrices
here
verify that this is true, and is in fact how every single permutation matrix works
i don't know what that notation means
ok
but here's the thing: you don't really need to do all that
when the book proved that S_n is a group, did the book go through every single possible combination of elements in S_n to check that they are all associative?
we know that permutation under composition is an associative operation
so, if we show that something permute things, and that is all that thing does, then it has to be associative under composition
because we already know permutation is associative under composition, or else S_n would not be a group
the exact same thing is happening with inverses
do you mean to say permutation is an associative operation, or composition is an associative operation?
permutation under composition is associative, sorry, too used to that being implicitly understood as the operation
i'm trying to figure out why this works 
how about this: actually don't, you don't need to prove that that works to show that they are S_3
ok
S_3 is defined as the collection of all permutations of {1,2,3}, that is true
but that doesn't mean anything set isn't explicitly the set of all permutations of {1,2,3} is not S_3
because that's not the point of group theory
the idea of it, is that if any three things even remotely looks like {1,2,3}, and it is being permuted by something, then the combination of "that thing" + "those three things" is S_3
because the symmetric group is permutation
it is the very idea of permuting
so, here's how the proof works:
first, I see that every single given matrix permutes the three entries of the vector [1,2,3].
second, I know that there are exactly 3! = 6 total permutations of three things, and I see 6 different matrices.
So, the group formed by those matrices formed under multiplication is S_3
at this level, that's it
it's like saying a=2b+3 is not the equation of a straight line because you were taught that straight lines had the form y=mx+b, and you don't see a x or a y
a^n = 1 just doesn’t mean that the order of a is n, so as jagr said, u get at most 2n morphisms
But we don't need order of a is n
Btw I see the problem
That’s why we get at most 2n morphisms
But then how can I verify they make homomorphism or not
UGOBEL
I've technically shown that transpositions generate S_n, that's why I have some doubts about my solution.
One possible solution is to notice that
(12)(123...)(12)(123...)
has order relatively prime to n, so we must have abab = a^2 = 1
That still doesn't narrow it all the way down though
No k with σ(k) = k
So I guess in S9, (abc)(def)(ghi) is regular, but (abcde)(fghi) isn't
In which case (a)(b)(c)(d)(e)(f)(g)(h)(i) is the only option for fixed points anyway so I'm not sure why they included the second part lol
yeahyeah
this is the statement
"nice cut"
yeah, i mean always they would be writing the most pointless shit ever
Ah interesting
solving rotman's
Cool exercise
let's see
feel free to jump on https://discord.com/channels/268882317391429632/1334457895563169792 and leave comments
I'll do what I can on my 1% remaining
oh yeah i got this one
Sorry but I'm not bookable 😛
how crazy that the convo was about "same" thing
A function f fixes x if f(x) = x.
Woof, scrolling is hard
not really the same haha
"same"
"""""same"""""
f fixes x if x is in the limit over f
10 000 years of jail <3
the worst part is I'm not even wrong
If I want to find the number of homomorphism Z/nZ -> C*, isn't if I send 1 to a, we need a^n = 1.
So they will be n homomorphism.
Yes
Okay thank you
Lol
Correct answer but u need to explain
what is there to explain
UGOBEL
Because 1 generates Z/nZ
-_-
What I need for the image of 1 is to follow that the order of image must divide n
And n = 0 is the only relation in Z/nZ
They were asking for a check, not an answer review, I think :)
,, 1 = \varphi(\bar{0}) = \varphi(\bar{1}^n) = \varphi(\bar{1})^n
PKThoron
So the image of 1bar is an n-th root of 1!
Ugobel's question was a prompt for someone else, not a request for help
UGOBEL
Try to prove that Hom(Z/nZ, C*) is cyclic 🙂
They are all distinct because the image of 1 is distinct

How do I prove that N(r) < N(b)?
What is there to prove? This is a definition.
sorry this is the problem
Prove it meets conditions (a) and (b). What have you done so far?
I already done for part a
I'm not sure how to do part b. I know division algorithm yields that remainder r norm must be less norm of b
Is there an example in your textbook proving anything like this?
I think there is but idk what it is saying 😭
It's probably worth understanding, then.
You already have a guess for what q should be, so just plug that in, solve for r and simplify until you get a bound for N(r)
Also, if $u = a + b\sqrt{-2}$ and $v = c + d\sqrt{-2}$, I'd work out what $\frac{u}{v}$ looks like in terms of $a,b,c,d$. If you express it as a single fraction of (complex) numbers, you'll find $N(c + d\sqrt{-2})$ in the denominator.
Cufflink
I was hoping someone could check my proof
I can show the lemmas I cite if thats needed
Please ping me if you look it over
Thank you!
This is the problem I'm trying to solve
Here is my work:
Is there supposed to be more cases?
Hello. I hope this is the right place to post this. I am trying to learn and implement algorithms for finding irreducible modular polynomials. My implementation seems to be working, but I would like to understand the mathematics better. Is there anyone around knowledgeable about that kind of thing and willing to talk?
Here is my updated work!
The two square theorem tells us that any prime congruent to 1 mod 4 can be written that way.
For example, 7^2 can't be represented as x^2 + y^2.
Sorry not fermat's theorem, I meant a theory from number theory
that any prime p can be written as x^2 + y^2
ohh it's an if and only if
For the rest, you should say why x or y has to be even (if they were both odd, ...).
Also, if they were both even, ....
So, one is even and one is odd.
And then you can't say y = 2m quite yet.
You have to prove that an even perfect square has a square root with the factor of 2.
Like 2 | y^2 -> 2 | y.
You've only got 2 | y^2 so far when you say that y^2 is even.
Then, the rest is fine.
If you want, you can also shorten it to one case by saying "WLOG [without loss of generality] let us make x the odd square and y the even square".
that's impossible. That means we don't have a prime p in mod 4
if x^2 and y^2 are both even, then p isnt even prime
Yes, and you can say that to justify it.
oh ok
The three cases are both are odd, both are even, or one of each.
Prove that the "both" cases are each wrong, and you're left with one of each.
oh yea if they both odd, then we get even, which can't be prime
It's easier to prove that it can't be congruent to 1 mod 4.
To go the not prime route is a bit more involved because there's an even prime that's the sum of two odd squares.
Like 1^2 + 1^2.
My updated proof after your feedback! @subtle crypt
You have to be careful, because there's an even prime.
For example, you say that if x, y are odd, then odd + odd = even, which isn't prime. However, x = y = 1 is odd + odd = even, which is prime since 1 + 1 = 2.
ohh you're right
Since your problem only cares about p = 1 mod 4, you can say that if x, y are odd, then odd + odd = even, so it doesn't count as a number = 1 mod 4.
ohh true just mention that 2 doesn't count since we only care about p = 1 mod 4
Right.
It can be either 0 or 2 mod 4, but either way, it's not 1.
Hmm, it might be better to say that x^2, y^2 odd.
Let me think.
You're welcome.
are you sure ur can just quote fermat's 2 squares theorem?
if this is given as a problem in ring theory then it feels like ur meant to prove that any prime =1mod4 can be written as a sum of 2 squares
cus like after that it's just really easy
also this is really wordy
if ur taking like an introductory class then i think maybe it's fine, but certainly for a ring theory class you shouldn't need that much writing
something like
From Fermat's christmas theorem, we know $\exists x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$ s.t. $p = x^2 + y^2$. Checking mod 4, we see that one of $x$ or $y$ is even. So $p = n^2 + 4m^2$ for some $n,m \in \mathbb{Z}$
LY
would suffice
(also this is why are you sure the problem isn't asking you to prove the 2 squares theorem?)
every permutation in S_n can be decomposed into a product of disjoint cycles
any two disjoint cycles commute with each other
what is the order of a cycle? what is the order of the product of disjoint cycles?
i can follow up to this point
but is that valuable ?
for our case
i was thinking first of all
there are 2 cases
odd, even then
well, the question you asked essentially boils down to finding all order 2 elements in Sn
What is I here?
Yes, because the disjoint cycle decomposition directly gives you the order of the permutation
Yes
identity
yeah and transpositions and identities fit for it
and upto factorization they are unique
I think you can write every element as disjoint cycles, use that
alr let me try to count
but can you prove that those are the only possible ones?
it's not hard to find a example
the point is to find them all
lcm of all the orders
sure, can you prove why that's true?
chat feels trippy, will you provide me the statement again ?
.
order is length(not doing the explicit calculation here)
disjoint cycle means only one cycle will move any arbitrary element
so each cycle acts "independently"
so we have to find a number which satifies all the cycles
and lcm would the least number to do it
idk if that is what you have asked
good enough
alr
so, how would you go about counting all the possible permutations of order 2
first of all i was corncered how to consttruct them
out of n elements
coz its like
(12)(3)(4).......
or
(12)(34).......
so on and so forth
the lesson to learn from the proof you just gave, is that if you want to count them in a good way, first start by figuring out all the possible cycle types of order 2 permutations
right
and then do the combinatorics
yeah ywah which i tried to convey but chat is too trippy
ok i would try to argue for the count
thanks for the time
If [a,b] = e, then the ordre of ab is lcm(a,b), you need to know this before studying Sn
Disjoint cycles means that [cycle a, cycle b] = e for every a and b in your décomposition
You get it I think
thanks for input, i hope i got it, yeah
This isn't true
E.g. let a = (1 2 3), b = (3 2 1)
b different to a^{-1} of course, mb 👍
This isn't true either
Oh really ?
E.g. let a = (1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8) and b = a^3
If you additionally assume that <a> n <b> = {1} then it works.
commutativity does not imply disjointness, which is what you're looking for
Also, this has nothing to do with Sn. This is a general fact.
Haha so why refer to the lcm at all? You are saying o(ab) = o(a)o(b)
You may want to see the additional hypotheses necessary here, btw
True, so <a> cap <b> is better thanks
so
if it's a single transposition ways are
nC2 (1/2.1)
for two
nC2 (n-2)C2 1/(2^2 \times 2.1)
Thoguh S_n is sufficient lol
Um not for infinite groups 🤓
Sure but if a, b have finite order and commute then they generate a finite subgroup
:chad:
not explaining the degeneracy here
but then if i add that i would get the answer right ?
Hmmm I wonder what facts we could use to prove that......
Well you definitely don't need what has been done here
since the bound o(ab) <= o(a)o(b) is trivial
That's actually a cool observation
Nastasya I have no idea what you're trying to do 😭
Oh
So you just need to count things that are a single transposition, and things that are a product of 2 disjoint transpositions, a product of three etc. OK
your ping made me leave the album in midways to solve it

it's fine, my lazy ass would have ignored it for few another hours
Something like this
Does this look about right to you?
Shit I'm just giving away the answer. Mb. I'll spoiler
i dont care for this number
You haven't shown an argument...
add them all up
But fwiw no, I don't see where you're getting this 2^3 thing from for example
Ah but that's not what you want to do
The 2-cycles' elements are already unordered (because you wrote nC2, (n-2)C2)
What you need to account for isntead is swapping them, because you chose the cycles in a certain order
so you need to divide by 2! for example
right
Then once you choose 3 two-cycles, you need to divide by 3! etc
So the number of 2-cycles in S_n is just nC2, for example
We don't need to divide by 2
Right, but more importantly, (1 2) = (2 1) anyway so you shouldn't worry about it
Or wait, no I see what you're saying
You have got the point, yes
yeah i went for the general formula haha
that is why i was dividing, lol
yeah very trippiy indeed
any other thing i need to take care of ?
P sure that's all
alr
What's I ?
sorry for the ping mb
fine fine
U got the answer ?
i hope so, yeah
is there any argument/trick here ?
i hope he doesn't want me to blindly check for suitable candidates
$\sigma = (1~2~3), \beta = (4~5)$ and $\gamma = (1~2)$ ?
UGOBEL
Could also just pick beta the identity I guess
fact
I guess the more interesting question would be 3 elements such that each commutes with exactly one of the other two.
Not sure if that's possible...
Or to find all the (alpha,beta,gamma) possibles
in S_5?
Sure, or in whatever group
i think it can be possible in large group
Sn somehow feels like too smoky, need to get a better grasp
If a and b commute, what would c commute with of the two
The cycle type decomposition is really useful in understanding Sn
It's just coloring a 3 node graph innit
yeah, JJR goes through it but idk if it is enough
Yeah you're, it doesn't even make sense.
Could do 4 though I guess
yes
With four it becomes trivial, cause it's just two pairs of commutating objects
Like a, a^-1, b, b^-1
right!
Well with 4 I would want it to not come with exactly one other
Yeah but since commuting is a symmetric relation, you're not gonna get interesting stuff here
Now let's say 4 elements so that each commutes with exactly TWO of the others...
Yeah, I guess there's nothing interesting going on
Kinda puts into question what was the point of the original problem
would you mind unpacking the first comment here?
If you want n elements, each one commuting with only one other
Then let's pair up two of them, say a and b
And then they're gone. Both of them are now spent
ahh, ok
In S5, {(1 2), (2 3), (3 4), (4 5), (5 1)} is a set of 5 elements, each of which commutes with exactly two of the others
So that's cool
yeah, i mean also if it commutes or not is very "deterministic" (possessing common element or not!)
amirite
Yeah I think so
fairs
Would now be interesting to see if such a 4-tuple exists
Hey guys i have a problem.
If G is group and for any a and b of G we have the equation (ab)^2=(ba)^2. (and for every x of G if x^2=e then x=e).
prove that G is abelian.
Try to show that [a,b]^2 = e, then [a,b] = e because of x^2 = e => x = e
[a,b] = ab(ba)^{-1}
You mean aba^-1b^-1
yeah mb, thanks
UGOBEL
Do you have some algebraically closed fields in mind which is not C over R/Q?
The field A of algebraic numbers in C is a countable, algebraically closed field
Algebraic closure of Fp lol
if you have 2 algebraically closed fields F_1 and F_2 of the same characteristic, then either F_1 embeds into F_2 or the other way round
so that means all your algebraically closed fields over R or Q can be thought of as some subfield of C, or some extension of C
(you can prove this using zorn)
When I saw F_1 for a second I was like 