#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 300 of 1
So what's the relation with reduced rings?
A ring is reduced if the intersection of all prime ideals is (0)
Aka, if x^n = 0 for some n => x = 0
Oh i didnt see this lmao
Oop I should go back to my algebra course
Ring theory has a lotta definitions lol
Lol, got confused for a second, but thanks 

Then is there a quick way to see if $(\bar{m})$ is a prime ideal in $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$ ? For now i've always checked the elements in the ideal but that gets quite tedious if you start to look at bigger $n$
mathrie
what is bar m?
the congruence class of an integer m?
yes right. sorry, i should have specified. I meant an element in the ring $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$ that generates that ideal
mathrie
I think it's iff m = p mod n for some prime p dividing n
Prime ideals of a quotient are in bijection with prime ideals of the original ring containing the quotiented ideal
So this happens if and only if m is a prime factor of n
an ideal I of a ring R is prime iff R/I is an integral domain, or in this case a field since it's finite.
Decomposition into the product of rings using the CRT makes it easy to see what happens
I guess if you are working off of when m is such that (m-bar) is prime you have to ask when m mod n is a prime factor of n
So you just apply division algorithm to reduce m to between 0 and n-1
Which is this
Two steps of Euclid's algorithm is enough
So lets say i have $(\bar{5})$ in $\mathbb{Z}/21\mathbb{Z}$. Then that is not a prime ideal since 21=3*7. The prime ideals would be $(\bar{7})$ and $(\bar{3})$
mathrie
Yeah
(5) is (1)
(5-bar) is actually the entire ring
^
Cuz it’s coprime to 21
though the entire ring is prime depending on the definition.
I think some include not being the entire ring in the axioms, while some don't
yes, we included that in the definition. The ideal can't equal the ring
?
depends on the place you read it
not sure why you argued with me I'm just stating some inconsistencies I've seen in the definition
I can think of a million places this entirely destroys statements of things, and have never once seen a prime be allowed to be everything
Why're you writing that with such passion
I think definitions can be bad and letting (1) be prime is a bad one
I never insinuated you did
It doesn’t reflect its usage in anything else
i think i need more clue idk what to do 😭 how do we send quotients into K? Like the countability of the rationals argument, the zig zagy thing?
I study commutative algebra which concerns itself heavily with prime ideals and am stating that one shouldn’t ever consider (1) to be prime, that’s it
Okay
I am quite aware of the importance of prime ideals in commutative algebra
But at the end of the day the author can choose their own definition as long as they're consistent and clear on what they're writing
since you study algebra, surely you've seen examples of non-equivalent definitions with the same name
That’s silly, and one shouldn’t do that when the entire rest of the literature doesn’t do that. I could say that a continuous function is what everyone else refers to as a differentiable function but that would be bad
I've seen that to be specially true for things that generalize commutative ideas to non-commutative settings
I said what I did to clarify that if you see prime in virtually any context, you should know that it is going to mean proper, unless you can show me that in noncommutative settings it’s preferable to let it be equal to (1)
Where do you think you send the formal quotient a / b to in K?
Remember a and b are in K.
In that case I learned something and I’ll concede, but a statement like this I think just leads to confusion
If it isn’t actually used anywhere
Does this mapping need to be bijective?
🤷 I don't know what their professor has in their definition
it's not completely absurd that they don't have that in it
in which case I found it important to state
I just don’t think this is worth even considering, like I don’t worry if the professor defined a function as something non-standard
womp womp, I don't want to continue discussing this. Have a great rest of your day
Kk
remember that if a field contains a and b, it contains a/b
Oh yeah? What’s 2/0?
do we send like a/b to ab?
This is no longer additive
but this is not a bijection i think is it ok?
It doesn’t do what you want it to do
I guess youre missing some intuiton for how F is constructed
No
So you really want to send e.g. 1/b to b?
Maybe think about the case when D = Z is the integers
In that case F is constucted by choosing soe integer a and b and forming their quotient a/b right
then you have the rationals
Let's say K = C, the field of complex numbers
so can you think of a map F -> K in this case
Where would say [2, 4] get sendt?
to a + bi?
What is a+bi ?
Have fun yall
dawg if K is a field it's closed under fractions with non-zero denominator.
What is the field of fractions of D
Maybe back up even more.
Do you know how D sits inside F?
@spark veldt
D is the integral domain right
Yeah
D is a subset of F i think
the field of fractions of D is the set of fractions with numerator and denominator in D with non-zero denominator
Yeah, at least isomorphic to one in a canonical way.
K contains D, what do you conclude
So F consists of these equivalence classes of pairs [a, b].
And if D = Z you said earlier that F should be the rational numbers.
Okay, so which pair corresponds to for example 1? What about 2? What about 1/2?
[1,1], [2 1], and [1 2]
That's right. So in general
[a, b] is which rational number?
a/b? oh..
so this mapping sends [a,b] to a/b, now I just show that these ‘fractions’ form a field?
Yeah, or that this mapping is a homomorphism
oo right, wow ok thanks. I think the mistake I had was that I already viewed [a,b] as a/b, then got really confused as to how I was supposed to send a/b to K when I should’ve been looking at the equivalence class itself.
Thank youu sorry for taking a loong time to understand 😭
I guess a/b is unambiguous in a field, but I really prefer writing ab^(-1), not sure what other people think
and just to be sure, it's a good idea to check that the map is actually well-defined, for example f([a, b]) = ab is not just not a homomorphism, it's not even well-defined @spark veldt
I think i might be misunderstanding this problem: Prove that there exists a constant c>0 such that in every nontrivial finite group G there
exists a sequence of length at most cln |G|with the property that each element of G equals the product of
some subsequence. (The elements of G in the sequence are not required to be distinct. A subsequence of a
sequence is obtained by selecting some of the terms , nont necessarily consecutive, without reordering them;
for example, 4, 4, 2 is a subsequence of 2, 4, 6, 4, 2 but 2, 2, 4 is n
(Putnam 2008 A6)
cant you just pick your list to be e,g_1, g_1^2,..g_1^n,g_2, g_2^2,...g_2^n,...g_n,...g_n^n
where g_k is the kth generator
and n = |G|
the list has n^2 + 1 elements
cln(n) = n^2 means c = n^2/ln(n)
so you can always find a c that works
oh its because it might not be abelian
Seems to me that you want a c that works for all nontrivial finite groups G
Suppose K be a field extension of F, and let B= {b1,b2,b3} be the basis of K over F
is it correct to say K = F(b1,b2,b3)?
the smallest field containing b1,b2,b3
I’m trying to prove this
Yes
I wouldnt see why not
Let $I$ be an ideal that consists of all polynomials in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ with constant divisible by $7$. Show that $I$ is a maximal ideal using the definition.
bluepianist
I'm not really sure how to approach this
what is the definition of a maximal ideal?
$M$ maximal if for $I$ s.t. $M\subseteq I\subset R$ then $I=M$ or $I=R$. I tried letting $I$ be some arbitrary ideal s.t. $M\subseteq I\subset R$, not sure where to go from here though...
bluepianist
Well if I = M, you're done there's nothing to show
so suppose I is not M and show that I = R
do I need to do the reverse?
what reverse?
assume I=R then show I=M?
P implies A or P implies B
exactly
but we can do better actually
One really common way is to of course assume P is true, then say "If A is also true. Then we are done. So suppose A is false. Then we want to show B is true"
you've surely seen this before
essentially using the fact that P implies (A or B) is equivalent to (not(A) and P) implies B
so do you see why this suffices?
yeah i do
🔥
tysm,
I'm wondering why this is so?
How did they make the multiplicative inverse appear? It's not a field?
alpha is a real number, and they assumed it isn't 0
ohh i see
thanks!
This is my attempt I think it's not fruitful. How should I repair it?
I wanted to imitate the proof on Ex. 3.5.2 (post just above this) but since the polynomials have coefficients in Z I can't get the inverse and conclude 1 is in I, hence I=R.
Inverses do exist in Z/7Z though (for nonzero elements)
a quick y/n
every group generrated by 2 elements a,b of order 2 is solvable by modding out by <b|b^2=1> and using that if N and G/N are solvable then G is solvable
correct?
Why must <b> be a solvable subgroup?
sorry whoops, I mean a normal subgroup?
I.e. why can you mod out by <b>?
E.g. in the group with presentation G = <a, b | a^2 = b^2 = 1>, the subgroup <b> does not contain aba (though I may be mistaken about this -- hopefully someone can confirm)
<b> = {1,b} right?
Yeah
Did you mean something else when you wrote <b | b^2 = 1>? I can't see what it would be.
no, i was misremembering a fact about normal and abelian subgroups
I was referring to this lol
yea, i was trying to think about it too
Also new username and pfp, interesting
Yeah I’m pretty sure this proof is wrong as written, but I’m not sure if every group generated by two involutions is solvable or not
I think the derived subgroup is <ab>, whence it is solvable, but I have not convinced myself of this yet
yes i meant <b> ={1,b}
i actually dk ur right
i think ur right yes
<ab> is abelian
^
and the quotient is abelian too
yeah thank you!
I am not sure this is true, to be clear
doesn't the quotient have index 2
Oh, you’re right. Nice
Suppose $M$ is a maximal ideal and $ab\in M$. Can you say that $M=ab+M=(a+M)(b+M)=MM$ hence $a+M=M$ or $b+M=M$, which gives $a\in M$ or $b\in M$?
bluepianist
I'm particularly wondering if the MM to a+M=M step is legal
Assuming what you’re trying to prove is “maximal implies prime”, that step is either circular, or wrong (leaning more towards wrong, based on this comment)
No, just look at M = (2) and a=b=2
(a+M)(b+M) = abM + aM + bM + MM
there is no reason that should MM
Also uh off the bat, m = m^2 is an equation which one would usually expect not to hold
e.g. if m is f.g. then this is doesn't hold by nakayama unless m = 0
k^2 would like a word
Though Nakayamas lemma implies that m is generated by an idempotent.
Could be (1) as well. Though I guess m was assumed to be a maximal ideal or something
i guess what i had in mind is that in p-adic hodge theory there is a common local domain where m^2 = m
and then you're like okay that's super non-noetherian
(or a field)
I have read a lot online about the significance of the finite simple groups as "building blocks" for all finite groups much in the same way primes are the building blocks of the naturals. I'm now reaching the end of my second course in abstract algebra and I feel no closer to understanding why this is. In the case for primes and naturals I understand that any natural number can be uniquely factored into a product of primes. For a given finite group G, what would the equivalent statement be in terms of simple groups? I've tried searching online and not found many satisfying answers
This particular topic is one that interests me maybe more than anything else I've encountered in math so far, I'm endlessly fascinated by the classification of finite simple groups and just how complicated it is, I would just like to understand its significance a bit better out of curiosity
The Jordan-Hölder theorem: every finite group has a composition series, and the composition factors are uniquely determined by the group.
(i.e. doesn't depend on choice of composition series)
This means that every group can be built as iterated extensions of finite simple groups, and which simple groups make up a given group is unique. Similar to how the primes that make up a prime factorization are unique.
I see, I had encountered this theorem during class but I didn't realize that all groups had such composition series (in my class they were called complete subnormal series which I think may have added to the confusion for me)
Thank you
The difference between groups and numbers is that groups can be combined in more interesting ways than simply "multiplying"
You have the direct product, but also semidirect product, central extensions, and other types of extensions, and there is interesting theory understanding these ways to build groups
let's say you prove a map is a linear map
what would be a good concise concluding sentence to ur proof
Hoopity doopity dap, and that's why we have a linear map.
“by the above, the map is additive and homogeneous. QED”
Is the union of every chain of completely reducible modules (ordered by inclusion) also completely reducible? If so, how can this be proved? I got stuck when finding the simple direct summands of the union
Yes, this is a result about semi-simple modules:
If a module is a sum of simple modules it's a direct sum of simple modules.
You can prove it by Zorn's lemma. Consider the set of all simple submodules, and then consider the poset of subsets for which their sum is direct.
"And thus, as we have meticulously expounded through an extensive array of dialectical reasoning and corroborative attestations, the cartographic representation under consideration can be incontrovertibly ascertained to possess linearity in its constitution."
Surely this doesn't require choice
It wouldn't surprise me if it did, but idk
I mean the fact that every vector space has a basis is a special case
A vector space is a sum of simple modules
And a basis is precisely writing your space as a direct sum of simple modules
Oh you take the sum over all non zero vectors
Sure
Okie
Now what soup_norm said is sightly weaker, but feels like it should be choicy as well. At least like countable choicy
Arki red fox
Chmonkey chair monkey
Alright, 4am. Time for everybody to post other people's names, make sense
There should be a minus sign somewhere.
Either v(x) = (x, -x) or pi(a, b) = a-b (or negatives of these)
oh the question was...
I see, thanks, I’ll try that
and what is that do not work
was he consuming alcohol at late night while constructing this problem
I mean the hint says quite clearly that using those maps will not work, and that you have to introduce a sign somewhere
yeah now i get it, but why is it in a hint, i feel the problem statement could be better
that is no hint ig
AxB \to A+B
is that not canonical ?
maybe im worng
Yes, there are canonical (i.e. obvious) maps

But the problem isn't saying "prove that this canonical sequence is exact"
They're asking you to find one
is that a film reference ?
Yeah, classic Jackie Chan movie
now i feel why i need to be a linguistic wizard before doing anything serious with maths
jagr, can i get some book recommendation ?
idk what im trying to do
im not in any school
nobody told be to do maths, im about to be 22
Well I'm terrible with books, but you can ask I guess
oh, i dint have a clue with what im tryna do with algebra
if not book atleast tell me what is out there
topic wise
trying to learn module atm ig
I see, well I'm in representation theory of finite dimensional algebras. So it's like modules, but with more linear algebra I guess.
Galois theory is pretty clean.
From commutative algebra you can branch into like number theory stuff or algebraic geometry
Representation theory of finite groups is also pretty nice, like character theory and stuff
well alg geo is hot topic nowadays, but as far as i have done maths i think i like algebra more than anything
yeah i tried to get into some basic character theory, but i couldnt keep myself motivated enough
Could always learn some category theory and homological algebra stuff. People usually recommend Algebra Chapter 0
whats this homological algebra, is that something that we need in alg geo too ?
Yeah, it's essentially the study of exact sequences
Useful for alggeo, algtop and rep theory

alr
whats the pre req ?
idk, i feel lost because i dont have a school or a prof to give me work
Well, you want to know the basic of modules I guess. Then pick up some cat theory on the way
ok, noted
Here's an archive of bachelor and master thesises in algebra
Algebra | Oppgavearkiv https://search.app/vTcqdcXwKaeUnDcC7
can i tackle commutative algebra too ?
yeah, takes time
tryna to do topo too at this moment
but havent touched in a week
and words for topo ?
trying to solve this
feels hallucinating
would that work? 
well take the root of x^4=1
and show that x^k \neq 1 for all k<4
mind if the order is w
any integer multiple of w satisfies the condition
thats a topic closely related to the proof of existence of infinite prime number through furstenburg topology right ?

Yes
Algebra chapter 0 my beloved
what 
are you saying yes to my proof that R has no element of order 4?
someone posted about profinite integers and it vanished
I saw a topology related number theory exercise in the Niven, Zuckerman and Montgomery, I should try to do it sometime
I Love Algebra !
(Haven't studied AA yet but I'm badly curious to stdu
Have you finished Abbott and Rudin 
does anybody do zorich here ?
This shows us that the direct product of groups is abelian and associative
Zorich analysis?
does that mean w.r.t the direct product, the category of groups can be turned into a group
(not an actual group since the underlying collection isn't a set, but a group like object)
yeah as both A,B are normal subgroup of the mother group
yep
Maybe i use it for some topics. But using Abbott and rudin.
Hbu
bartle and rudin mainly
currently doing modules from bylth
(objectively true statement)
bible like book
I see. A famous book 
i like when problem set does it for me
not only the proof but also the vision, ehh its hard to word sensantions
Category of groups of categories of groups 
I see, i got it.
i’ve been meaning to!
should we consider creating a thread, count me in
from experience i know i wouldn’t engage much in that, but feel free to dm me with or about zorich things
anyone got any suggestion for some rings to think about in looking for how to find a proof of this claim: the set of prime ideals in any cring has a minimal element
what is a cring?
the domain and finite cases are obvious but i dunno how to to do an argument for the general case
commutative ring with identity
ah okay

ring with identity
i used to say CRU
...you don't include identity in your rings 
analysis...
that's an interesting proposition
wait how is the minimal element defined here?
minimal as in cardinality?
wrt inclusion
ah okay, so alternatively there is a prime ideal which is contained in every prime ideal of the commutative ring?
no
that’s only in the uninteresting integral domain case
where (0) is prime
actually no i don’t know that is the only such case just a such case
as in, where there is only one minimal element
What about looking at the intersection of all prime ideals?
also if (0) is prime, then ab = 0 => a = 0 or b = 0, so it's an integral domain
thanks i’ll try that, i gather this is an important construction which i haven’t at all looked at yet
but first i’m having a little break mwahahaja bye
nvm actually, you can have $ab\in I, J$, but $a\in I$ and $b\in J$
Jelle
so neither a or b have to both be in $I \cap J$
Jelle
Perhaps the intersection of all prime ideals is prime though, maybe look at ||nilpotent elements||
we say they are rngs.... (I'm sorry please don't be offended)
I think they were
about they weren't calling rings with identity simply "rings"
oh no its not Ralgebra its unitary associative Ralgebra
this is my main criticism of dummit and foote
:(
I only accept nonassociative algebras over a field
a field like H
i still do not understand why we need that definition of the module in your name
(we don't)
wait... Dummit and Foote doesn't require rings to have identity???
maybe i am confusing it w smth else but i'm pretty sure

cause many times on this server i have been confused when helping people only to realise that that was the case
lol
pulling a centrist stunt to not offend the analysts
Amusingly i now have use for non-unital rings
the main thing is that if you consider augmented rings (rings with a map R -> Z) then like
Friendship ended with D&F, Artin is my new best friend
those end up being equivalent to non-unital rings
i like the flow of artin
and similarly if you consider augmented k-algebras and non-unital k-algebras
How non UA of them to not mention the additive identity or inverse
so if you're interested in augmentations then you start thinking about nonunital stuff ig
oh sorry i meant to say serge, lang
UA?
un-assistive
Also, heaps and trusses
wait those are actual algebraic structures?
Universal algebra
but that comes under (R, +) being an abelian group innit?
that is a meme for me
Heaps are abstractions of the term xy^-1z for groups
Hey! That so happens to be my favorite branch of math
who would've known!
😔

It does, and they are uniquely determined by the operation (incidentally something im looking into rn), but universal algebra has permanently corrupted my brain
Well, you can make a monoid object in Cat out of it
Probably
But not a group object
oh right yea
Though i suppose you can take the grothendieck completion
since inverses aren't a thing there
incidentally something in looking to generalise
UA brainrot is real
Grothendieck forces inverses to be a thing!
i love how people outside of maths are so hyped about cat
Grothendieck is too OP
Im inside of math and hyped about cat
since you are module person(by name) im gonna ask u for suggesting me a book
i think my brain shut down, how am i constructing those sentences, its so embarassing
Lmao, i dont know many books, but im finally properly learning modules from "a course on homological algebra"
bruv
Learnt modules very sporadically at first, to be honest, so im not the one youbshould ask for recs

trying to do this
currently at chapter 3 exercise
well does this have the content ?
one might need(loosely speaking)
Yeah then it's hard to really know when to finish
Perhaps choose some maximal chapter/concept you want to get to or understand before you move on
yeah
Hmm, you could do commutative algebra -> AG, or just HA and then into AT or the like
anyother thing i might need for AT ?
haha
Group theory
Something you could do is find some university which keeps their teaching plan or whatever available online.
Then try to vaugely follow that.
that is a noteworthy advice
can i get a job under jagr ? 
My university uses Dummit and Foote for modules
(and groups, rings, fields and galois theory lol)
(and representations)
so how are you studying
what is this
just a pc 
oh lol
bruh
what subjects are you studying nowadays?
oh notknown is our matual friend Epic
modules, a bit of ring, and toplogy(not in last 2weeks)
Determination and desire to write cool looking symbols
he has shown me a lot of cool books, which im very thankful for
mcdnldsmngr
For R->S ring hom, can we make R into an S-module by s.r = sf(r)?
I know I usually see R->S making S into an R-module by r.s=f(r)s
I was also thinking this in the context of field extensions, with K/F we can say K is a F-vector space but was wondering if we could say F is a K-vector space
This would make S into a (right) R-module. Not the other way around
Could be beneficial to think about the inclusion Z -> Q
(it should be clear Z cannot become a Q-module)
s.f(r) is an element of S, not of R
oops
:p
Ah that is what you meant here
Yeah
Cool
yeah
He told me about nice books as well
Carother 😂
Yeah lol
i just know the cool quote from that book
Which one
I thought the devil was in the details
same thing upto sentiment
Is that the evolutionary biologist? I wonder what was the context for him to say that
haha, but it goes well with a lot of contexts i believe
if you pass the identity given to the quotient ring then (x^3 - 2) vanishes and x becomes theta, so a(theta) * (1 + theta) = 1 which is why the text says they are multiplicative inverses
Oh
The quotient Q[x]/(x^3-2)
I thought they were talking about field of fractions
Which is not relevant here in any way… right ? (Sanity check)
Ty
tbh that is normally what quotient field means so like dw
However, the field field of Q[x]/(x^3 - 2) is very relevant to this question
since it is Q[x]/(x^3 - 2) again
lol
What is the dual of Z to you ?
Z^*
SO(2) I guess
u sure ?
No u right
Not really a right or wrong without some context
SO(2) is the unit circle
Like you don't just want the unit circle in R^2 you need some group structure on it.
Ok i don't get it :/
So SO(2) or U(1), but same thing, they're isomorphic
How do you proove that the dual of Z is isomorphic to SO(2) ?
Well, first you have to define what dual means.
You define it as Hom(-, SO(2)), then it's pretty clear
To me it's Hom(Z, C*)
to me S^1 is also common notation for the group
Well, then you shouldn't be getting the unit circle as your answer
What can you say about homomorphisms out of Z?
but it is
I guess yeah C^x is probably better than S^1 / U(1) etc in general
Well it just depends on how you are defining dual
Hom(Z, C^*) = C^*
But usually ig Pontryagin duality means S^1 not C^x right
what is C^x lmao ?
same as C*
Nonzero complex numbers under multiplication
alr alr
and it just happens not to matter for finite groups (or more generally torsion groups)
But Z is not torsion, so the choice of definition does matter, and you will get S^1 or C* accordingly...
You right, if we use Pontyragin duality, then it's S1, else it's C*
Well, i don't buy the "else"
If you use Hom(-,C*) you get C*
There are other notions of duality
Ok ok thanks !!
Hi, its me (again). I'm trying to show that in every left artinian ring, every chain of leftideals can be refined into a composition series of the R-module (R, +).
For that I took any chain $L_0 \supset L_1 \supset ... \supset L_n$. Then by DCC for any $L_i \supset L_j$ I can chooe a minimal $B_0$ that contains $L_j$ and $L_i \supset B_0 \supset L_j$. Then I choose a minimal $B_1$ such that $B_0$ is contained and $L_i \supset B_1\supset B_0 \supset L_j$. But imo I would also need ACC to stop the process, or does DCC stop the process by the finiteness condition?
dellinger
Assuming you're rings are unital, then every left artinian ring is also left Noetherian, so you have both ACC and DCC
If your rings are not unital, then it's not true. Unless your composition series are allowed to be infinite
It is in general not true or is my proof just wrong?
Not true
Oh, alright thanks!
Something happen to them?
Nah I just remember he was so active a while ago and I dont see him anymore
He helped me a lot when i was first learning group theory
Sorry didnt mean to make it sound like something bad happened
If K is integral over F (K,F are fields) then thats the same as saying K is algebraic over F right?
I happen to be learning general integral dependence in comm alg and also field theory at the same time
and also alg number theory which ive seen has a lot of field extensions lol
this semester is all about fields for me apparently
Yes
Hm I was thinking, Dedekind cuts are strikingly similar to the field of quotients. The set of Dedekind cuts form a field, and so do the field of quotients. Can you do what you do to Dedekind cuts, the same thing you do for a field of quotient of an integral domain?
it's early in the morning and this is just a thought lol
Dedekind cuts construction involve an order so you’d need to figure that out first
But I also don’t think it’s that related
Like when you take the quotient field of Z you get Q and then do Dedekind cuts to get to R
The first process goes integral domain -> field by adding units
And the latter goes from incomplete field -> complete field by adding in all limits
Dedekind cuts only form a field if you start with a field.
If you just start with an arbitrary poset, then its Dedekind completion won't have any field structure.
I think the similarity is that they are both completions in a sense
One is a completion of a poset to a complete lattice, and the other is from an integral domain to a field, filling in the "gaps" where there should be a fraction
It wont have a field structure with that attitude
i think if a group is transitive on a set, then it acts faithfully but
if it acts faithfully it's not necessarily transitive
is that right?
what about Z acting on Z/2Z by m + [n] = [m+n]? that's a transitive action but it's not faithful becasue 2 + [n] = [n] for every n in Z/2Z
in general if H is a nontrivial proper normal subgroup of G then the action of G on G/H won't be faithful but it will be transitive, because any non-identity element in H will act on G/H via the identity
oh yeah, Z acting on Z/2Z is transitive but not faithful
but
if a group is transitive on a set, there is only one orbit, right?
oh i think i see where i went wrong
the order of X can be less than the order of G
i mean the order of the G-set can be less than the order of G
i have another question
Let $X$ be a $G$-set and let $x\in X$. Then $\lvert Gx\rvert=(G:G_x)$.
Axe
trvial automorp right ?
Let p be a prime number and G be Z + Z/p^2. How to count the number of subgroup of G with index p^3?
My attempt is as follows.
If H is a subgroup with index p^3. G/H must be isomorphic either Z/p^3, Z/p^2 + Z/p, or (Z/p)^3.
Each H gives rise of surjective map G -> G/H. And surjective map to the groups of these 3 types give the required kernel, but two surjectives f and g gives same kernel if they are the same up to Aut(G/H).
So what I need is to count |Surj(G -> G/H)| / |Aut(G/H)| for each type and add them up.
I guess I managed to count for cases Z/p^3 and (Z/p)^3, but struggling for Z/p^2 + Z/p.
I’m not sure what you mean by the statement “two surjectives give the same kernel if they are the same up to Aut(G/H)”
They mean that if you compose the map G -> G/H with an isomorphism, then it still has the same kernel
the surjection is not unique?
But that idea seems somewhat problematic to me, because as an example Z/pZ + Z/pZ has two ways of quotienting out to get Z/pZ and I’m not sure how you’re getting that in your method
It’s probably going to be a lot easier to think about Z and Z/p^2 each individually
Since AxB is a subgroup of CxD iff A is one of C, and B is one of D
And you can understand the index of AxB very well just by learning [C:A] and [D:B]
So say you wanted to count the number of index p subgroups of Z/p + Z/p.
Then you start by counting the number of surjective maps to Z/p. That's p^2 - 1.
But then you have overcounted, because maps can have the same kernel. So you have to divide by |Aut(Z/p)| = p-1.
So the true answer is p^2 - 1 / p - 1 = p+1
This is true, but CxD has subgroups not of the form AxB
So it doesn't really help you much
Wait, what? When does the projection map fail?
Oh it’s just an extension of the two projection subgroups
I'm not sure what you're asking, but for example
(x, x + p^2Z) is a subgroup of Z + Z/p^2 not of this form
can someone tell me what the notation G(I) means where I is an ideal? this is from the book "monomial ideals" by herzog and hibi, and they just pull this notation out of nowhere
Yeah it’s not necessarily a direct product,you’re right
One thing to note is that a map to Z/p^2 + Z/p definitely maps p^2Z to 0.
So really you can think of the map as coming from Z/p^2 + Z/p^2.
But then all you have to do is count the subgroups of order p.
Gröbner basis? Or monomial basis or something like that?
It's not an extension of the two projections, but it is an extension of one projection and one intersection.
yeah i think its the latter, and the statements there do hold for monomial bases
Yeah, they should
the the converse of the inclusion might not be true because B might be bigger than im(h) and f is defined over all of B but as the composition holds things outside of im(h) doesnt really matter
they are asking me to prove the equivalence here, but im not getting over the notational convolution to see what are they(1 and 2) truly means on their own
If I take the subgroup generated by { 1/p | p is a prime } under (Q, + ), how can I say this is proper subgroup? How can I show that 1/4 not in that subgroup?
prove that every element in R can be written as f(X)Y+g(X)
with f,g real numbers
i have no clue what to do
i have never done an algebra with multi variables polynomials
and in our textbook its like 1 page of info on it basically saying some very obv things so idk what i can do here
ah wait maybe i can use this one theorem (i read it wrong the first time)
ye so the only theorem in the section of multiple variable polynomials is R[X1,X2,...,Xn] is isomorpg with (R[X1,X2,...,Xn-1])[Xn]
idk if i can use that
Is this even true? How could you write X^2 in that form
idk man i dont know wtf is going on
idk why i cant understand algebra
im just trying to study to not give up hope before the exam even started but yeee...
not going to well
There seems to be a typo. Should probably be f, g in R[X]
you sure?
It's definitely not true if f,g are real numbers
thats what i first thought but i kinda just assumed that i didnt understand it
Well, that would make the statement true at least
And would be a reasonable exercise
then there is prob a typo
ok i will try it with f,g in R[X]
f and g are also more commonly used for functions / polynomials.
Would have gone with like a, b if they were numbers
hello fellow dutch person
Why would they have written f(X)Y though instead of fXY
where do you study
Hello fellow dutch person
ku leuven
i believe (X) is the ideal
so you multiply the X first
you use Lenstra right?
But wouldn't that turn the entire expression into an ideal?
i'm sure i've made this exercise some time
isn't the trick to use remaindes?
oh, or is that the entire point
remainders?
uuuh elements in R are of the form f(Y²-X³) with f in R[X,Y] no?
Could be helpful to think about it as a subgroup in Q/Z, then show it has no element of order 4
Like, for any f in R[X,Y], we can have f = g*(Y^2-X^3)+r for some r, where deg_y(r) < 2
wdym sorta?
f + (Y^2 - X^3)
yuh i know that theorem
Jelle where do you study haha
that might actually help
Yeah and then maybe use evaluation homomorphism
Actually, for 2 variables we need an extra step
but it's kind of easy
erm how do u define the degree of a multivariable polynomial?
you look at the deg of y and x seperately
like the theorem we saw only works over single variable polynomials
it talks abt f,g in F[X]
can we achieve a contradiction through lcm ?
so i dont think we can use this theorem unless we first prove that it works for multivariable polynomials
like what i mean is we cant iuse theorems we didnt prove in the lectures
F[X, Y] = F[X][Y]
so you can just think about this as the case R[Y] where R is some arbitrary ring.
The proof is the same as for R a field, as long as your polynomial is monic
Suppose f in R[X,Y]. By the theorem, we can write f = gX^3 + r, where the degree with respect to x of r is less than 3
$f\in \mathbb{R}[X,Y]$. And $f=gX^3+r$, where $\deg_x (r) <3$.
joel
aah okok
Now, since $r\in \mathbb{R}[X,Y]$ again, we may say that $r=hY^2+r'$ for some $r'$ such that $\deg r' <2.$
joel
So $f=gX^3+hY^2+r'$.
joel
waitwait
i'll wait haha
i dont see how u can just despawn the y² in the first thing
you mean in g or in h?
right here
Like, we view the Y terms as coefficients
Like we can view any polynomial as $f = \sum_{i=0}^\infty g(Y)X^i$
joel
Well, the question says nothing about $f(X)$ or $g(X)$
joel
So they didn't just go away
like shouldnt it be f=g(x³-y²)+r
Well then we would just have $f=r$ right since $X^3-Y^2=0$ in this ring
joel
huh now you completely lost me
Well we divide out by the ideal $(X^3-Y^2)$
joel
i tought we were using division algoritm over R[X][Y]
Like for example, we have $\mathbb{R}[X]/(X^2+1)$, then this says that in that ring, $X^2+1=0$.
yuh i understand that
joel
Well now we are dividing out by $X^2-Y^3$ so that's obviously 0 in that ring. So it can't be just $f = (X^2-Y^3)g+r$
joel
but over what ring are we using division algoritm?
over the ring $R$ as stated in the exercise
joel
but R is a quotientring not a poynomialring
Well it is a polynomial ring, where $Y^2-X^3=0$
joel
Like elements of this ring could be $f = X^3Y^5-X^7Y+XY^3+3$ or something
joel
but arent elements in a quotientring of the form f+(X³+Y²)
like arent the elements of R sets?
And in this example, $f=(X^3Y^3+XY)Y^2-X^7Y+3$
noo definitely not
no not really
what
joel
i tought that a quitientring is the ring of the nevenklasse
idk the engoish word for it
i mean $R$ is a set, but elements of a set are just the elements.
joel
right, this is not the case here
what da fak
Because in a subgroup $H$, we have a "nevenklasse" has the form $aH$ right
joel
for some $a$ in the group
joel
yuh
wait are u just viewing R as the ring of representants for those nevenklassen?
Like you can view ideals for rings as the same as normal subgroups for groups, but they do not work the same in general
It is though, right, if I = (Y^2 - X^3), then X^3 + I = Y^2 + I
now thats where i guess i went wrong
yeah well because X^3-Y^2=0
i tought that like ideals are basically normal subgroups but for rings
i mean i guess that's right but it's just equivalent
but they are also "nevenklassen" cosets is the word I think
ye that might be it
kinda true but not entirely. they work differently
uhu
but we defined quotientrings pretty much the same as quotientgroups
ye but so are we just looking at the representants?
i mean it's basically just $x-y\in I \Longleftrightarrow \overline{x}=\overline{y}$ right?
joel
yup
And those $\overline{x},\overline{y}\in R/I$
joel
yup
Well, now we have $f=g \in R/I \Longleftrightarrow f-g\in (X^2-Y^3) \Longleftrightarrow f-g=0$. So any element in $(X^2-Y^3)$ is just zero. And we use this fact for calculations
joel
yup i understand that
but yea $f,g$ still live in $\mathbb{R}[X,Y]$.
joel
ye
So do you better understand now 🙂
and the f+() and g+() are in R
well i already understanded that
but like so when we are using division algoritm we arent rlly doing it in R but we are looking at the representanten for elements in R?
so like x³=y² in this ring
i've not really seen the word "representant" be used in ring theory, but i think you're right yes.
representant is like
a+I
then a is a representant for that coset
and obv u can have different representants for the same coset
yes i think that's correct. Because anything in $I$ just equals zero in $R/I$
joel
you got it yes
No $X^3=Y^2$ right
wait
joel
haha
yes
waitwait we dont need division thing then right?
i mean no not really now that i'm thinking about it haha
like doesnt it straight follow if we jiust replace x³ with y²
or the oother way around
just substitute
because any term in terms of $Y$ that is higher than $Y^2$, we have that that's equal to $g(X)Y$ or $h(X)$ right
joel
yea that's true, like if you want to do it rigorously
yuh thats when u sub it
$f\in \mathbb{R}[X,Y]/(X^2-Y^3)$. We have $f = \sum_{i=0}^\infty g_i(X)Y^i = \sum_{i=0}^\infty g_{2i}(X)Y^{2i}+\sum_{i=0}^{\infty} g_{2i+1}(X)Y^{2i+1}$
joel
the sum doesnt go to infinity i think polynomials are by definitoon finite
and then $Y^{2i}=X^{3i}$ and $Y^{2i+1}=YY^{2i}=YX^{3i}$
joel
It does go to infinity, but then after some $m$ we have $g_m=0$
joel
oh ye that also works
The definitions are equivalent, but then you don't have to deal with the fact that if $\deg(f)=n,\deg(g)=m$, we have $\deg(fg)=m+n$. This is annoying because if you define the elements of the ring to have an upper bound, then surely after multiplying $f$ by some other polynomial $g$, we can exceed that lower bound which makes it not well-defined
joel
so that's why it goes to $\infty$, because then we don't have a lower bound
joel
aaah ye that makes sense
But anyway it's kind of nitpicking, it's basically the same
😎
i'm glad to have helped. if you have any other questions, feel free to DM. I just took ring theory a month ago, so it's fresh in my memory
@empty kernel
We can also just talk in dutch you know, might make things easier
Like midterm?
ermmm no clue what that means
tussentoets
but here in belgium universities its like
you have one exam
if you fuck that up come back in augustus
damn
at UVA, we had a "tussentoets" and a "tentamen" and we also had to hand in homework
HW is like 10%
we got "vacation" for three weeks (u just study everyday for 3 weeks) and then we get exams of all or subjects
for some classes its permanent evluation
like for differential equations we had 2 tests both counting for 4 out of 20 points and then the exam now is for 12 out of 20 points
you are a year 2 student? which book did you use for linear algebra
but for algebra classica pmechanics and analysis its just one exam
what 💀
this one
that's crazyy
i cant be bothereed to type commas
algebra, classical mechanics, analysis
that's why i was asking because i knew our book was belgian haha
wim veys is my professor for algebra this year
that's crazy
one exam, that's pretty bad...
i tought it was like that in every uni
that's actually really cool
well we have some cool professors like stefaan vaes is quite famous in the math world
nope, i have one exam algebra 2, one exam diff eq, one exam stochastics. thats it
ye see for some copurses u also have it that way
its not very nice but it is what it is
i dont think i ever studied this much in my life
this is what our algebra 2 exam looked like
well that's good right? lol
Yes very good
this was the "tussentoets"
Like in my first year barely did anything
Same
Wait but how many points does it give?
For the final grade
Lucky u
whatt haha
Well if it isnt all at once then i thibk it is better
I dont like how this one test will decide if i fail algebra or not
yeah... very harsh....
I much rather have ways to already score some points throughout the semester
Do your subjects go an entire year?
i heard the amount of work in belgium is worse
Noo haha
Ah ok same here
Rip im gonna come to the netherlanfs
probably not that much better hahahahahaha
idk?
you have the same book as me, so it's probbaly roughly the same?
Probably it would be weird if courses differ that much
yeash true
The only difference might be in the spread of the work i guess
probably yeah
For linear algebra we also had one test that determined our entire score
that's not great...
I didnt fail it though
gg's
Passed it first try
i believe in you
haha
for ring theory
this is your second algebra course i guess?
Yuh
Wait no
Third
We had linear algebra
algebraic structures
Now algebra one
Algebraic structures was a small subject that only lasted half a semester and it was an introduction to groups and rings
And we also did like dual spaces and shit
right dual spaces
we had a subject about group theory and after, we had ring theory
kinda weird that those things are combined at your uni haha
Wair i will show u what we have to learn for algebra 1
This is what we see in algebra 1
And what i have to know for the exam monday
right so also some linear algebra
i guess in NL we have to know more about one specific thing, we had like 14 chapters of ring theory
yuck
yeah hahahaha but yeah. i wish you luck!!!!!!
By this presentation of QD_2n, isn't isomorphic to D_4n ?
I think there is a mistake in presentation
Yeah I think it should be srs = r^n+1
Hello ! It there a good way to find the subgroups of order 8 in S4 ?
Like, i quickly find out with Sylow that if H is a subgroup of order 8 in S4, then he is isomorphic to D8, but it there a better way ? To directly find H ?
I now understand that every surjective to Z/p^2 + Z/p (Let's call this L) factor through Z/p^2 + Z/p^2. And surjective to L has kernel of order p.
I can also count the subgroups of Z/p^2 + Z/p^2 with order p (if I'm not wrong it's p+1).
But every these subgroups can be kernel of some surjection from Z/p^2 + Z/p^2 to L?
The Sylow theorems are certainly the quickest.
You can see that D_8 is a subgroup because the symmetries of a square are permutations on its 4 vertexes. It's a Sylow p-subgroup of S_4, so all other subgroups of order 8 are conjugate to it.
The only "elementary" way I can think of would be to then rule out other groups of order 8 based on various group properties. For example, the quaternion group Q_8 can't be a subgroup of S_4 because element of order 4 in Q_8 all square to -1, which isn't true of the elements of order 4 in S_4.
etc. etc.
Is that "better"? It will be much longer.
It is good to note that for n≥3, the dihedral group of order 2n is a subgroup of S_n, for the reason outlined here.
Ohhh Yeah true ! I forgot this one haha
Tanks you 🙏
Ah, any (Z/p^2 + Z/p^2) / (subgroup of order p) is of course iso to (Z/p^2 + Z/p)...
Thank you 🙏
I am trying to convince myself that $$C^\times$$ is a Lie group. First, the multiplication map $$(a,b) \cdot (c,d) = (ac-bd, bc + ad)$$ is piecewise smooth because both $$ac-bd$$ and $$bc + ad$$ are polynomials of input. So multiplication is smooth. Similarly, $$(a,b) \mapsto \frac{a}{a^2 + b^2}$$ is also smooth. so inversion function is also smooth. thus $$C^\times$$ is a Lie group. Is my reasoning right? Please let me know if there is a more appropriate channel for this question.
pink_panther
the inverse of a + bi is (a - bi) / (a^2 + b^2) and i tried to argue both maps (a,b) --> a / a^2 + b^2 and (a,b) ---> -b / a^2 + b^2 are smooth
oki thank you!
I have a text on group presentations that says that a set of relators generates a word if you can create the word out of taking the relators and repeatedly either sticking a relator between two symbols or deleting a relator. Is it required that you stick the relators in the middle, is sticking them at the begining/end not enough? Like, isn't this just the normal subgroup of the free group generated by the relators?
like this is its definition, it feels stronger than necessary but idk why it would be?
So this is the normal subgroup generated by the relations, so if you assume things like
w*w^-1
is a relation, then it's enough to be able to stick things in the middle of words.
Otherwise you need to also require conjugates of relations to count as relations.
the text assumes that ww^-1 are all relators yeah
but do we need to stick them in the middle?
Right, then it's enough to put relations into words
is juxtoposition not enough?
Say your group is the free group generated by a, b. With relations given by a.
Then bab^-1 is also a relation
The only way to produce that is to place a in the middle of bb^-1
ah I see.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Presentation_of_a_group
" In this perspective, we declare two words to be equivalent if it is possible to get from one to the other by a sequence of moves, where each move consists of adding or removing a consecutive pair x x − 1 {\displaystyle xx^{-1}} or x − 1 x {\displaystyle x^{-1}x} for some x in S, or by adding or removing a consecutive copy of a relator. The group elements are the equivalence classes, and the group operation is concatenation." is that just wrong then?
In mathematics, a presentation is one method of specifying a group. A presentation of a group G comprises a set S of generators—so that every element of the group can be written as a product of powers of some of these generators—and a set R of relations among those generators. We then say G has presentation
⟨
S
...
"consecutive copy of a relator" sounds to me like if ab is a relation, then you can't turn c into acb.
But if you interrupt it differently, then it may be wrong sure.
It's not super clear what they mean, but is somewhat hinted at by saying "consecutive pair x x^-1", or just by which interpretation would make their statement correct.
i am being destroyed by group theory 
what does the term "inclusion preserving" mean
[Correspondence theorem] If N is a submodule of an R-module M then there is an inclusion preserving bijection from the set of submodules of M/N to the set of submodules of M that contain N.
oh its like the lattice structure doesnt get destroyed after the mapping right ?
also does the bijection means not losing information while quotienting(which happens a lot when we quotient out an intricate group structure by some nsg)
Denote the bijection by F
If M includes N, F(M) includes F(N)
Do you know of any good reference to read about Artinian groups?
Took my algebraic structures final exam yesterday, did really well and I kinda wanna learn more. I used Herstein's Topics in Algebra for it. I'm wondering where would be a natural next step after this? Commutative algebra or something? I'm not really familiar with the algebra 'pathway'. Any suggestions?
Well, what things did you cover, which parts did you enjoy, what are you curious about?
Algebra is a fairly wide field with lots of things to explore.
The entire semester we covered groups rings and fields, really enjoyed things like the isomorphism theorems and ideals part in the rings chapter (although they were kinda frustrating).
I just found it really cool that we can construct fields from maximal ideals etc and especially had fun learning polynomial irreducibility.
Sounds like commutative algebra can be good then.
Probably smart to learn some about modules.
if $V$ is a vector space over $k$ and $T\in \mathcal{L}(V)$ is given, is there a nice condition to know when there is a vector $v$ such that $V^T$ is generated by $v$ as a $k[x]$-module?
Zander
Does V^T mean the k[x] module with x.v = Tv?
(It is not really standard notation)
Such a v is called T-cyclic. I don't think there is a general way to know if such v exists (besides assumptions that are essentially the same as the conclusion) but an important thing is that the degree of the min poly of T should be the dimension of the vector space [I assume you are working with finite dim stuff...]
yes. sorry about the notation, thats just how i learned it
Another thing is yeah you can consider the T-annihilators of each v
Which means the set of polynomials p(x) with p(T)v = 0
For each v you get an ideal I of k[x] of stuff killing v, generated by some polynomial p_v. v is T-cyclic iff deg p_v = dim V
(Note p_v divides min poly of T)
So yeah like playing around with these can be useful but generally kinda hard as you need to check a lot of v...
That's sufficient as well, actually. (Equivalently, minimal polynomial = characteristic polynomial. This is guaranteed if the characteristic polynomial has no repeated irreducible factors (or roots).)
Can I get some help with part(e)?
So notice that if you have an isomorphism
Q[x]/(f) -> Q[x]/(g)
then you can compose with the projection to get
Q[x] -> Q[x]/(g).
And then by choosing a preimage of x you can left this to a map Q[x] -> Q[x], that will map (f) into (g).
So the only way this can happen is if psi((f)) is a proper subset of (g).
psi((f)) = (psi(f)) and f and g have the same degree, so we would need psi to not preserve degree.
What are some easy maps that would work for psi?
How can you choose f and g to force this psi to work?
So there cannot exist such a map? Because automorphisms of Q[x] are linear in x?
We never said it had to be an automorphism of Q[x]
It only has to induce an isomorphism Q[x]/(f) -> Q[x]/(g)
I'm still a bit confused... ring isomorphisms from Q[x] to Q[x] are always of the form psi(x) = a x + b I thought, so they must preserve degree?
I'm telling you to not consider an isomorphism
So okay, let's just say for example
psi(x) = x^2
This is a pretty easy map that doesn't preserve degree.
How can we choose (f) and (g) such that psi becomes an isomorphism between Q[x]/(f) and Q[x]/(g)?
There is something I do not completely remember, what does the fact that a polynomial is irreducible over a finite field imply over its maximality/being prime?
A polynomial is irreducible iff it is prime iff it generates a maximal ideal.
Both of these are true over any field.
Is this a theorem? I wanted to read the proof
this fact should be in any abstract algebra book, where they prove k[x] is a PID
It is a theorem, but I don't know if it has a name or anything.
Maybe look here
https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1593553/306319
Yes I remember, that, but I don't find a proof in my notes, hence why I asked
oh that's nice, thanks a lot!
how about x^3-a, x^3-b. Say a=2, b=16?


