I believe in the polynomial long division you use to reduce the S-polynomials, whichever of f and g you choose to write down first gets precedence, i.e., if you start with (f, g) you'll prefer x ↦ -z and if you started with (g, f) you'll prefer x ↦ -y. Of course, S(f, g) = y-z (or maybe z-y), so you'll also add a reduction y ↦ z that ensures it doesn't matter in the end. I believe that regardless of the starting order, you will end up with a Grobner basis; I'm not sure if it's the same Grobner basis, but any ideal has (wrt a given monomial ordering) a unique reduced Grobner basis, so if you simplify your Grobner basis to a reduced one at the end, the result will be invariant of the order you wrote the original basis in.
#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 296 of 1
yes you may or may not get a different Grobner basis
Yeah nice one, I felt that this would be the case, my sticking point was wondering if it gives you the same basis, which I doubt, but of course as you mention that doesnt really matter
if you want some sort of uniqueness yea look into reduced Grobner bases
Cox, Little, and O'Shea \emph{Ideals, Varieties, and Algorithms} chapter 2 Section 7
in fact Lemma 3 just above deals with what you want in your question
Ah yeah nice one. I got the feeling that was the case but I didnt have the book with me to double check thanks!
I tried to plug in $y = a_i + a_{i, 1}x$ in for $y$ and expand and see what I got.
The result is that
\[
f(x, a_1 + a_{i, 1}x) \equiv \sum_{j = 0}^n c_{n - j}(x) \left( a_i^j + j a_{i, 1} a_i^{j - 1} x \right) \pmod{x^2}
\]
but then I'm not sure where to go from here.
I don't have differentiation on my side, except maybe in a formal sense.
anyone know some nice short reads i can look to if i’m interested in like the geometry of rings, like, the eisenstein integers
What would you like to know? The geometry of numbers is a topic of algebraic number theory, treated in pretty much every text on algebraic number theory
what does the geometry of rings mean here?
I mean in a way the geometry of the Eisenstein integers is kind of trivial, it's just a lattice. It is interesting if you add arithmetic to it. You can ask for patterns on the Eisenstein primes, for instance. This gets very difficult really quick, of course
I don’t know much about this topic but maybe Hatcher’s book on the topology of numbers https://pi.math.cornell.edu/~hatcher/TN/TNpage.html would be interesting
A number theory textbook from a geometric viewpoint
thanks i def should have a look into algebraic nt seems like great fun mwahaha
Tbh I don't understand the title of that book, the treatment seems standard. But I haven't read it
i am not quite sure tbh but i mean just looking at it makes it seem quite clear to me there should be something interesting to say here
I wouldn’t know haha I’m just putting it out there
Do you know this? https://arxiv.org/pdf/math/0501314
idk if something like that holds for the Eisenstein primes
this seems like a very cool result but the article itself look like it’d take me at least a year to make sense of 
Yeah, I would like to learn it. You should first start with Szémeredi's theorem, which is already very much non-trivial
i was thinking simple things like for example one can ask something like what is its isometry group?
which should be pretty trivial yeah but probably can lead to more interesting questions
Dumb question but what actually is the inverse of 1 + x in R? I've shown it exists as I know from prior knowledge that the maximal ideal in R is the set of functions which vanish at (0, 0). But I would like to physically write out and check what the inverse is.
Do you know about crystallographic groups?
There isn't one
it's literally 1/(1+x)
like
just barely and just the two-dimensional case
localization just means you take some elements and formally make inverses for them
i guess it should be something like a semidirect product of C6 and Z? wait no those two overlap
Z and C3
guh
it should be Z^2 also
won’t it be the ring itself semidirect product with its units
I mean you can write an isometry as a translation followed by a rotation, no? So you can write it in matrix form
yeah
after a couple of brainfarts i state with some confidence it should be $\mathbb Z[\omega] \ltimes C_3$
rødbet-jens
where of course $C_3 \cong (\mathbb Z[\omega])^\ast = {1, \omega, \omega^2}$
rødbet-jens
it's C_6
whaaa
I mean, you can think of R as a subring of k[[x, y]] if you want.
In which case the inverse is
1 - x + x^2 - x^3 + ...
yeah like this ring is Z[primitive sixth root of unity]
where does the extra square root come from?
Say zeta is an nth root of unity with n odd. Then -zeta is a 2n-th root of unity
ah right
Right right that's where I got to but I wanted to truncate that somehow lol
right so i'm missing the +- here
and the left side should be C6
i forgot -1 is a unit in Z

Isn't 1+w also a unit?
yeah but that should be something like -w^2
i find it kinda unbelievable i should say anything true rn but i’ll take your word for it 
i should probably eat something
I really chose a poor wording for that ngl sorry, i meant the matrices that are only a 1 at some part of the diagonal and 0 elsewhere
I.e the endomorphisms sending an element to it’s nth basis vector
Still doesn't sound right - for ℂ/ℝ for example, with the basis (1,i), you'll get all matrices of the form [[a, -b], [b, a]].
I’ll describe what i meant when i get home
To make it more notationally compact, you can write f(x, a_i + a_i1 x) ≡ f(x, a_i) + ∂f/∂y(x, a_i) (a_i1 x) ≡ f_1(x, a_i) + ∂f/∂y(0, a_i) (a_i1 x) = f(0, a_i) + ( C + ∂f/∂y(0, a_i) a_i1 ) x (mod x^2), where ∂f/∂y is a formal derivative and f_1(x, y) discards all terms divisible by x^2; and C is a polynomial expression of a_i and coefficients of f - in particular, does not involve x or a_i1. Since f(0, a_i) = 0, the desired requirement is met iff C + ∂f/∂y(0, a_i) a_i1 = 0. This can be done because ∂f/∂y(0, a_i) is invertible because a_i is a simple root of f(0, y).
Does anyone know the book that lists as a exercsise that if G/Z(G) is cyclic then G is abelian?
A lot of books list this as an exercise, I expect. Are you looking for a particular book or are you just wanting help with the question?
There are texts which don't leave it as an exercise?
I just figured it was tribute to the algebra gods just like the yoneda lemma
I'm frankly not sure, it's so standard I would have to check
can you explain this? S->G is that mean a bijection from S to G? not exactly what the bijection would be for a*b=(a-m)(b-m)+m bc it's a function from GxG?
i think i'm stupid
Take S = R\{-1}, G = R\{0}
And the bijection f(x) = x+1
For nxnxn Rubik's cube, God's number is of the same order as n^2/log n https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007/978-3-642-23719-5_58
okay, but like... how do we use the bijection to induce a group structure? i had actually tried to do this last night, trying to find some map from R{0}, the real multiplicative group, to R{-1} but i wasn't able to figure out how to finagle it.
is it like $a*_S b=f^{-1}(f(a)*_Gf(b))$ or something?
eigentaylor (STfFGMOaPID)
yep, that works
it should be straightforward to verify that this satisfies the group axioms
oh wow really? i thought i would have messed it up. okay imma try that rn thank you!
i think i'm struggling with associativity actually. it's not clear to me why
$f^{-1}(f(a)_Gf^{-1}(f(b)_Gf(c)))=f^{-1}(f^{-1}(f(a)_Gf(b))_Gf(c))$
eigentaylor (STfFGMOaPID)
I think you're missing two f's.
$a * (b * c) = f^{-1}(f(a) *_G \mathbf{f(}f^{-1}(f(b) *_G f(c))\mathbf{)}), (a * b) * c = f^{-1}(\mathbf{f(} f^{-1} (f(a) *_G f(b)) \mathbf{)} *_G f(c))$
Raghuram
you're totally right
we get $f^{-1}(f(a)_Gf(f^{-1}(f(b)_Gf(c))))=f^{-1}(f(a)_G(f(b)_Gf(c)))$ which works bc of the associativity of $G$
eigentaylor (STfFGMOaPID)
okay great tysm @tough raven @glad osprey @mighty kiln ❤️
that was actually a really exercise so thank you especially Arki
curious about this. i had an exercise where we show that G=Aut(H) acts on H via a group action, and we had to look at the G orbits of elements of H for small groups.
for H=Z4, we get the orbits {0},{2},{1,3}. for H=Zp i believe we get {0},{1,2,...,p-1}
i'm pretty sure because Zp is a field, that's why we get only two distinct orbits (not sure about that though). but is there like... a significance of the orbits of Z4 being {0},{2},{1,3}? like iirc G orbits partition the group H, but like... is there a special property of what the particular partitions are when the acting group is Aut(H)?
For cyclic groups, the orbits of the automorphism group should just correspond to the possible orders.
Also for arbitrary groups, Aut(H) contains all conjugations, so the orbits are at least as coarse as the conjugacy classes (but some conjugacy classes might become the same orbit under the full automorphism group).
For groups such that all automorphisms are conjugations, i.e., with no "outer automorphisms" (such as S_n for n ≥ 7), the orbits are exactly the conjugacy classes (so for S_n with n ≥ 7, each orbit is all permutations with a given cycle type).
For finite abelian groups, it should be possible but tedious to explicitly describe the orbits using the classification theorem (any such group is a product of unique cyclic groups ℤ/a1ℤ ⨯ ... ⨯ ℤ/akℤ, with 1 < a1 ∣ ... ∣ ak, or a unique product with all ai's being prime powers).
Beyond that, I'd guess that very little can really be said in general.
okay thank you! that is interesting
one more question: does the fact that a field has no nilpotent elements except 0 require proof beyond the justification that a field has no zero divisors? like i proved it as a lemma, but i feel like that's unnecessary.
i proved it as a lemma with induction. but like... do i really have to do that? lol
IG you technically do need induction somewhere, to pinpoint the exact n such that x^n ≠ 0 but x^{n+1} = 0 so that you can apply the cancellative-ness of x.
But in practice, this is the kind of thing you prove once and then use instinctively forever, so exactly how you proved it isn't really important.
I actually remembered to respond.
We are considering End_R(B) as a right B-module, since B-scalings are nevertheless linear.
Oh, sorry. I thought you were talking about a basis for End_B(B) over R instead of a basis for End_R(B) over End_B(B) = B^op.
yeah that's the mind bendy part about it
I assume the module structure is given by (f⋅b)(x) := f(bx)?
Do you really need induction for that? Can't you just use well-ordering to say there exists a smallest n s.t. x^n = 0?
Same thing. 🤷
In the sense that well-ordering is the same as induction?
Yes.
This action is not well-defined if R is not central in B: (f⋅b)(r⋅x) = f(brx) is not necessarily equal to f(rbx) = r⋅(f⋅b)(x).
I would argue that explicitly using induction is unnecessary for that proof, unless your professor is really pedantic
I think what works is to look at the subalgebra B^op = End_B(B) ⊆ End_R(B) = M_n(R^op) and observe that End_R(B) ≡ Hom_R(R^n, B) = Hom_R(R, B)^n ≡ B^n as left End_R(B)-modules and hence as End_B(B)-modules for any choice of R-basis of B, so that End_R(B) is free as a left End_B(B)-module, with the i^th basis element being the matrix with i^th row giving the coefficients of 1 (or your favourite unit of B) in the {e_i} basis and other rows 0.
how would you do the proof without it?
my thinking is that you need a^n=a a^(n-1)=0 implies a=0 or a^(n-1)=0. so if you can show a^m=0 implies a=0 for all 1<=m<n then that does it.
is there a simpler way?
or i guess that's more for an integral domain. there's probably a much faster way with multiplicative inverses.
or
idk
Assume a is nonzero and let n be the smallest integer s.t. a^n = 0, then a^(n-1) must be non-zero, so a a^(n-1) = 0 which is impossible
That’s what i meant to say originally, that’s what i did in the original observation i tried with ShiN
Oh true, you can just note that (a^n)((a^{-1})^n) = 1 so that a^n is invertible, so it can't be 0.
Oh I see, that's why you took a basis consisting of units.
Are you taken to Eigentaylor
No, the last message was to you.
oh lol that's even simpler
If R is a ring (commutative if it helps) and M is a maximal ideal containing an ideal I, what further conditions are needed to guarantee that R/I is local iff I ⊇ M^n for some positive integer n?
I suppose (in the commutative case) it would be that for no prime ideal P other than M is M the unique maximal ideal containing P.
Is a finitely generated Artinian module necessarily Noetherian? This is true over a commutative ring by https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2346330 (in short: it suffices to consider cyclic modules, i.e., R/I's; but I is two-sided, so we can switch from R-modules to R/I-modules, and Artinian ring ⇒ Noetherian ring).
When tackling the below problem, I wasnt able to find groups that were Isomorphic to R_star, Q_star, C_star (all under multiplication) or Q under addition. Is that true? I feel like Im missing some isomorphisms here.
for R_star, what transformation would necessarily give you the other group on the real numbers (hint: how do you generalize multiplication as addition)
for Q_star perhaps you can find a similar arguement
for C* think about its relation to the real numbers
Damn, I was gonna prove it for commutative rings :(
So I know that an ismorphism between <R, +> and <R+, mult> is e^x... So im trying to think of a function that does a bijective mapping between (-inf, inf) and (-inf, 0) U (0, inf) 
From Wikipedia:
but over noncommutative rings cyclic Artinian modules can have uncountable length as shown in the article of Hartley and summarized nicely in the Paul Cohn article dedicated to Hartley's memory.
The example in question is you take the noncommutative polynomial ring k<x1, x2, x3, ...> in countably many variables.
You define M to be the module generated by v1, v2, v3, ... with the relation
xi vj = v[j-1] (with v0 = 0)
Notice that all submodules of M are finite dimensional, so M is artinian not Noetherian.
Now adjoin an element u to M with
xi u = vi
and call this new module P.
Then P is cyclic, and P/M is one dimensional. So as P is an extension of M and P/M it is artinian.
When comparing groups for isomorphism it can be smart to look at some invariants.
Do they have the same cardinality?
Do they have the same number of elements of a given order (how many elements of order 2 are there for example)?
Is the group divisible, i.e. can you for any x and n find y with y^n = x?
Thanks. Review is in order
Hey
if for all elements a, b of a group G, equations ax=b and ya=b have unique solutions in G, then G is a group?
I am supposed to prove this theorem.
The book I'm referring to has a comparatively lengthy solution
I solved it like this
We know that ax=b will always have unique solutions for x
Assume first solution to be e1, and the other solution to be e2
so ae1=ae2
By left cancellation law e1=e2
I proved the identity property of group like this but need to know if this method is correct as it seems very direct
I don't think semigroups have cancellation law generally
Ah actually I made a typo
I have to prove it as a group
I think the original question was correct. I recall someone asking a similar question last week.
Plus the new question is saying if G is a group satisfying... then G is a group.
my book states
The class of algebras is a natural extension of the class of rings
they’re talking about how every ring A has canonical structure as a Z-algebra given by mapping n to n1 where 1 is the unit in A
but in what sense is this an extension
?
this is pretty horrible notation so let me clarify… the homomorphism Z to A is given by $n \mapsto \sum_{k=1}^{|n|} \text{sgn}(n) 1_A$
rødbet-jens
ok tbh that’s also horrible notation
Just in the sense that a ring is a special case of a type of algebra. It's a Z-algebra.
right, so there will be more algebras than rings coming from this construction (would embedding be apropriate terminology here?)
i guess this works if sgn is a function from Z to {-1,1} in A
Well, the map isn't necessarily injective, so maybe not an embedding.
Anyway, it depends a little bit. Not everyone defines algebras to be associative and unital, but even if you do you can consider algebras over rings that are not Z.
So that's how you'd get more algebras than just rings
ok thanks i think i’m following
but actually i should probabably rather be thinking about polynomial rings and ideals
Polynomial rings are another good example of algebras

Comalg exam took me 45 minutes out of 3 hours so either the easiest exam of my life or I’ve failed more drastically than ever before
i’m placing my money on the former mwahaha
I am too, I feel incredibly good about everything I put down
Although it took me 3 passes to notice I claimed Z[x] was a PID lol
Z is a PID, polynomial rings are PID, so surely Z[X] must be like a double PID 
Z is my favourite field fr
Unironically my thought process the first time around 
Really just need to pray for the same energy going into non-com tomorrow (It absolutley will not happen)
Those are some tight exam schedules
Yeah 18 hours apart isn't too fun but it could be worst, my friend has diff geo friday morning, condesned matter physics friday afternoon and QFT Saturday morning
Oof
Condensed matter and diff geo are 80% exam and QFT is 100% so yeah ive seen happier men lol
the (2,x) example not being principal is pretty much burned in my mind now, lol
Stuck on part b.
I've shown that
\[
f(x, y_{i}^{(\ell + 1)}(x)) \equiv f(x, y_i^{(\ell)}(x) + (a_{i, \ell + 1} x^{\ell + 1}) \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(x, y_{i}^{(\ell + 1)}(x)) \pmod{x^{\ell + 2}}.
\]
I know that I could isolate a term $C$ which is a polynomial in the $a_{i, j}$ and coeffients of $f$ from $(a_{i, \ell + 1} x^{\ell + 1}) \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(x, y_{i}^{(\ell + 1)}(x))$ so my only real confusion is dealing with the first term.
I'm not sure how I can use the fact that $f(x, y_i^{(\ell)}(x) \equiv 0 \pmod{x^{\ell + 1}}$ to continue.
Spamakin🎷
What are the eigenvalues of matrices in SL_n(C)?
Well you're in SL_n(C) so the determinant is 1. What does that tell you about the eigenvalues?
I know the product of the eigenvalues is then 1, but can more be said?
I mean specifically the eigenvalues all lie in one very specific region
But no I don't think you can say more
Which region is that?
Well think about this
I also have no idea what you mean lol
They're nonzero I guess...
That is a region at least
Yeah IG that's a fair conclusion lol
They have to lie on the unit circle no?
I thought they did that's what I'm getting at
Hmmm am I conflating this with something else
Maybe you're thinking of SU(n)
Anyone got any ideas on this 💀
I'm not sure what I can say about things mod x^l+2 knowing what they are mod x^l+1
This wasn't an issue in part a where I used the fact that f(0, a_i) = 0 because since it's 0 in k, it's zero mod x^2 because of quotient maps mapping 0 to 0
Over any field, can you write V=H+N where H is a hyperplane?
What is V
srry, a vector space
Spamakin🎷
Yes and yes
ok so then my next question is given what you know about the basis of a vector space, what do you think the answer is? Also this belongs in #linear-algebra not this channel so respond there and ping me
oh i am working my way through this one right now
well the problem as given to me is stated as
show the set I = {f in Z[x] : f(0) is even} is a nonprincipal ideal in Z[x]
so far i've only shown that I = (2,x)
bit stuck on how to show the ideal is not principal tbh
something something relation not possible
oh
nvm i had it i'm just stupid and forgot we're in the integers
I can see all them implications from each definition, but how do I conclude this proof
So
[G:H] = [G:KH] * [KH:H]
[KH:H] = [K:HnK] divides |K|, but it also divides [G:H].
So we must have [K:HnK] = 1.
i see so if K is normal in G and H is any subgroup, them KH is a subgroup
That's right
That's how the proof goes yeah
so i was tasked with finding GL2(Z2), and i did the painful determinant casework, and got 6 matrices. and then JUST NOW realized that there might be a much easier intuitive way to go about it. is this logic using possible linearly independent subsets the proper or better way to go about it? like can i just do this and use the fact that a matrix is invertible iff the columns form a linearly independent set?
That's right, and this can also be used to find a formula for |GL_n(F_q)| if you generalise appropriately
welp... i guess that can greatly shorten my proof
yeah i could have done an exercise where you do this for GL2(Z3) but i didn't wanna do the casework. i guess this way makes it much more managable.
It's still a bit of a pain to write down all the matrices, but yeah it does make it conceptually easier
yeah at least it's 2d vectors. so you just need to avoid scalar multiples
2 * 2 + 2 * 2 * 2 + 2 * 2 * 2 = 4+8+8=20
is that how many there are for GL2(Z3)?
oof yeah i forgot to double it for all possible column orders.
and it seems i also missed 4 more
Still a bit too few I'm afraid
The order of GL_2(F_3) should be ||8 x 6 = 48||
Oh wait yes that would work out I think?
Order of operations...
oh my other mistake i think was i didn't count any matrices with all nonzero entries. of which i'm sure there are a few
i was just trying to use the linearly independent sets i calculated for z2, and just multiply by 2 for all possible nonzero entries
rip
Here's a trick for making this calculation a bit easier.
You're really just counting ordered bases.
So how many choices are there for the first entry? You can choose anything but the zero vector, so there are 3^2 - 1 choices.
So the first column can be anything nonzero, so that's 3^2 - 1 choices. Then the other column must just not be a multiple of that.
Then how many choices are there for the second entry? You just choose a vector outside of the span of the previous one, which is a 1d subspace. So there are 3^2 - 3 options
It should be clear how to make this into a general formula
yesss that makes so much more sense
that's a much smarter way to think about it
and that actually looks more familiar too
And the with some generalizing you get
||(q^n - 1)(q^n - q)(q^n - q^2) ...(q^n - q^n-1)||
While theres some discussion of couting stuff (something im horrifically bad at) there was a problem in my non com class a few weeks ago that im guessing has a nicer proof than the nonsense I did,
What was the problem?
"Let $S_s = k[x_1,\ldots,x_d]_{\leq s} = {f\in k[x_1,\ldots,x_d] | \deg f \leq s}$ and let $p_d\in \mathbb{Q}[s]$ be the unique polynomial such that $p_d(s) = \dim S_s$. Find a formula for $p_d(s)$ in two ways and prove it is correct."
Nope
So the first and realativley easy way is with the discrete derivative and induction, but then I tried a straight up counting argument for the second method, but the product of a sum im left with is so utterly unwieldy that im unsure if its useful
Ill go find my notes to see what I ended up with, but ive got no clue how youre ever supposed to see this horrific sum is actually just $\binom{d+s}{s}$
Nope
So it's the stars and bars thing right?
okay so if |G| = 56, we'd have subgroups of order 2, and any group of order 2 isnt normal, so G cant be simple?
Well my ipad is dead but its like $\prod_{j=1}^d\left(s - \left(\sum_{i=1}^d a_i\right) + 1\right)$ or something iirc
Like if you think about the monomials in your ring, you just pick s elements from x1, ..., xd with repetition and multiply them together
Not really sure what you mean
And the formula for selection is (d+s choose s) per the stars and bars theorem
The subgroups not being normal is the opposite of what you want
Nope
sorry i mean every group of order 2 is normal
But it's also possible to have normal subgroups of order 2
probably bestnto start with sylow
im dumb
Being normal is a property of subgroups, not of groups absolutely
Yeah Sylow is probably best here
See this may be realted to the thing about me being horrifc at counting arguments, im not sure I know about stars and bars
Do you mean index 2 perhaps?
indeed, i knew i was missing something simple
Oh yeah btw jagr, I sorted out that Witt vectors thing, if you're interested lol
In combinatorics, stars and bars (also called "sticks and stones", "balls and bars", and "dots and dividers") is a graphical aid for deriving certain combinatorial theorems. It can be used to solve many simple counting problems, such as how many ways there are to put n indistinguishable balls into k distinguishable bins. The solution to this par...
My thinking was you have s choices for a_1, s-a_1 + 1 for a_2 etc and you multiply all of those, if theres a theorem that says thats the binomial them sick lol
Yeah, I think you sendt a link, but I didn't read it.
It was true?
oh i sent a link for the char 0 case
if A is artinian local with char 0 residue field k, then yes, there's a (ring-theoretic) section of A -> k
Uhh I didn't actually look into how this was constructed lol
But anyway, for a perfect char p field k it becomes true that A is an algebra over W(k)
There the idea is that you get a map W(A) -> W(k) by functoriality and this now admits a section
which i guess gives you a map W(k) -> W(A) -> A by composing etc
Ah, yes this is nice and almost certainly something I shouldve learned by this point in my time doing maths
here the idea is that given x in W(k) write x = F^n(y) where F is the frobenius on W(k),and then consider any preimage y' of y in W(R) and take F^n(y')
for large enough n this becomes a well defined ring homomorphism W(k) -> W(A) since the maximal ideal of A is a nilpotent ideal
Hmmm
Though tbf I don't see additivity without further thought
lol
Oh wait yeah this being a ring map is just cause the Frobenius is a ring map lol, once you show that this is all choice-independent
I'm not sure what happens with the char 0 situation though, but it should be easier
apparently this is basically Hensel's lemma, where the characteristic 0 probably helps derivatives not vanish
So if k has characteristic 0, then at least Q embeds in A, that's clear.
Then I guess you can take a maximal subfield K of A. Then it's image will be a subfield of k. Say it's not everything, and pick a preimage x of an element not in the image.
Then there is a minimal polynomial such that p(x) is in the maximal ideal. Then you use Hensel's lemma to prove that p has a root mod m^n for all n. In particular when m^n = 0.
That seems like it should work.
oh very nice
The issue is that the situation I was in is more general than this and now i don't see how it generalises lol
so this should work, im posting here to confirm because it looks like im having brainfarts:
Number of 7-subgroups (say x) must divide 8, so x <=8, and x must be 1 mod 7. So, the only possibilities are: there are 1 7-subgroup(which means we are done) or eight 7-subgroups. If there are 8 7-subgroups, then consider number of subgroups in Syl2(G) ( call it y for now). y must be 1 mod 2(odd) and divide 7, so y<=7. So the only possibilities are y = 1(again done) or y=7. I want to claim x=8 and y=7 cannot happen together since then we will have 8(7-1)+7(8-1)>56 elements
You can't quite count 7(8-1) as the 2-sylow subgroups can intersect in interesting ways.
You are right i was sus when i was typing that. Even in the proof there is no gurantee they are free of intersection
But you can make a similar counting argument
Oh I had that as a homework question at the start of the semester, proof that I can do some counting arguments
Ah wait the 7 subgroups intersect trivially so there can only be one 8 sub group lol (because 56-48=8)
I literally had that in my mind for the last few mins
Only the 8 subgroups can intersect non trivially and properly because they can intersect at elements of order 4 or 2...
This carries over generally for order pq^3 because pq^3-q^3(p-1) = q^3 and there is only room for 1 q-subgroup
Nice
Nice
I feel morally obligated to point out (for cultural reasons) that every group of order p^a q^b is solvable (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burnside's_theorem), which implies the result you want is true even more generally
Something seems off about a comm alg exam followed by a noncomm alg exam...
Wait, didn't I answer part (a) somewhere above?
Oh this is part (b)
I'm too tired to make a smart joke about exams commuting rn someone else do it
Well, $f(x, y_i^{(\ell)}(x)) \equiv 0 \pmod{x^{l+1}} \implies f(x, y_i^{(\ell)}(x)) \equiv D x^{l+1} \pmod{x^{l+2}}$ for some $D$ which is a polynomial in the coefficients of $f$ and $y_i^{(\ell)}$. So you get $(\text{something}) x^{l+1} \pmod{x^{l+2}}$ which is the same as $\text{something} = 0$ (or at least $\equiv 0 \pmod{x}$).
Raghuram
I guess the second exam must be take-home, since it doesn't involve commuting...
Outstanding.
I would give my life for this exam to be take home
Instead it’s 1.5 hours to do 3 problems so either all the problems are trivial, I’ve done them before as homework, or I’m just unbelievably fucked 
i'm stuck on this problem i know to use burnside's lemma but it feels so daunting here
Exercise 12. Consider the colorings of vertices of a regular dodecahedron with 8 colors such that a face cannot have more than 3 vertices of the same color.
(a) How many such colorings exist?
(b) Consider two colorings equivalent if one can be obtained from the other through an action of an element of the group of symmetries of a regular dodecahedron. How many unique colorings exist?
(Hint: This group is isomorphic to the alternating group on 5 elements)
this question was on my exam today lol
How do I show this
It’s trivial to show that if f(x) is irreducible then f(x)/a_n is irreducible
But I don’t think that’s what they mean
i mean a sketch will do you plenty i think, how far along have you gotten
i feel like i could probably do (b) given the answer to (a)
ive done this type of problem with different numbers/groups but here i just have no clue how to count it for (a)
well start with one vertex colored, and walknyour way out remembering the constraint
you could also think about each face and mark the edges where they meet, see if that helps you
it's not just a simple counting problem where i can do one vertex at a time independently because of the shared vertices between faces, even considering the constraint though is the problem
because then i have to consider so many different cases depending on which vertex is which color when i reach another face and that would be completely different depending on how the previous ones were chosen, so i can't just multiply by the choices for the next vertex
like try to think through it and youll see, i didn't just send this problem without trying anything
idk to me it sounds like 8 choose 5 or (8 choose 4 and 5 choose 2) for opposite faces, that leaves the necklace in the middle which i'll leave you to count
hey man, how ya been
Im doing pretty alright thanks!
i'm unsure why it would be 8 choose 5 for each of the opposite faces. wouldn't it be 8*8*8*7*6 for each?
then the necklace in the middle is still highly dependent on what those choices are
i haven't really had much experience with combinatorics/counting problems so i might be misinterpreting it
nonono, just fix a pair of faces, each one you can pick either a configuration with no common colors, a pair of bertices and oh sorry there is still 3 as well since it says no more than and not excluding three
what?
if you fix a pair of opposite faces, that gives you two faces where you can count freely
yes
(8*7*6*5*4) for just the no common case is already way more than 8 choose 5 though im confused
so if you count them as either having all unique colors, one or two pair of common colors, or one set of triplet common colors (sorry forgot to count the extra pairs) that gives you the count for each face
so (8*7*6*5*4) (all unique) + (8*7*6*5) (one pair) + (8*7*6) (one triplet)?
for a single face
you'll need the addition of two pairs of different colors as well but yes that should be good since the permutation matters, sorry for my bad habits of combinatorial notation
oh right yeah
that part makes sense because they're independent then but the necklace part just seems like i'd have to consider any case of the top/bottom faces being two pairs, one pair, unique, or triplet but it would probably depend on the permutation of them as well
as well as the rest of the necklace
so now that you have two faces considered, you can now look to the first triplet of points in the necklace, they correspond to three faces and you can count the cases discriminately amongst those three faces
i'll give it a shot later
since they will have an opposite as well
oki
i hope this was helpful
im no combinatorist
i think so it just feels like im going to have to do a lot of casework
yeah, thats jow they keep undergrads busy after all
it isnt even a combinatorics class
half of the class is grad students 😭 but they give them different problems on some assignments
sounds like a familiar setup to me
like "undergrads do #1 and 3 others, grad students do #2 and 3 others"
they had us undergrads do the grad questions for bonus marks
i would just get 0 for it
i liked when we had to prove how cantor bernstein fails for free groups
oh that stinks, they should acknowledge the effort if they're grading it anyway smh
like if i did the #1 and 3 others and then also #2 it wouldnt be anything extra for #2
i usually did #1 and #2 because then the professor only grades those 2 and doesnt look at the others except for completion
and the first 2 seemed easier than the other problems
id do 2 of the others after 1 and 2
but one of the other 3 was usually too hard
this problem is the one i didnt do on the last hw
#2 for comparison was the same problem but for a triangle, 4 colors, D_3 and colorings with only 1 color not allowed
it seems more combinatorial in nature but i guess most finite group theory abstracted away from rep theory or dynamical systems do be that way
if i was to teach i'd prefer edging my students closer and closer into the lunacy of extensions but im biased what could i say
This question just asks "Find all Abelian groups of orders 9, 16, 27, 32". Where do I start?
the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups probably
ty
So I have, for those of order 9, that if G is such a group then |G| = 3^2. So there's a sylow 3-subgroup which is unique, and hence G is isomorphic either to Z mod 9 or to Z mod 3 times Z mod 3. Hence there are two such abelian groups. Does that seem correct?
well your middle point about the sylow group should be clarified but otherwise yes there are two
I got that from equivalency of the p-subgroup being unique with it being normal (and it's normal since the group is abelian)
thank you
yeah rhats why it doesnt really matter?
all subgroups of abelian groups are normal
Hey guys
Can someone explain like
Field extensions to me
And algebraic / transcendental ones
how much you know now?
Not very much about them
I know there’s always an extension field E of F in which f(x) has a zero
have you played with polynomial rings of fields yet?
Yeah
well p(x) has to be an irreducible polynomial for the extension to just be well behaved
F[x]/<p(x)> is a field iff irreducible iirc
if it isnt irreducible its like when you adjoin an element already in your field
yes exactly
Cause <p(x)> is maximal if it’s irreducible
Well, kind of. If a in F then adjoining a itself looks like F[X]/(X - a), and X-a is irreducible, so this is a field extension, it's just a boring one.
When we say F(a)
I'd say taking F[X]/(f(x)) for f not irreducible is like refusing to make up your mind about which element you're adjoining.
Is that the smallest extension field that contains a and F
how does one go about this?
Or nah
Consider what [ℚ(a) : ℚ] can be.
Wait guys
So pi isn’t transcendental over R right
But it’s transcendental over Q?
Are there any numbers that are transcendental over R
x
I'm having trouble with 5 here and questioning my solutions to 12 and 16. For 5, I know H, K are normal in G and that I can build isomorphisms from H to Hx{1_K} and likewise for K. But from there I don't know how to proceed.
For 12 I think it's sufficient to say that, since there's only one Sylow p-subgroup (of order 2), it's impossible. For 16 I think only the last two are isomorphic (same order), and that all are commutative since they're all cyclic. Is this correct?
Sorry for the big post I have an exam tomorrow and didn't want to spam them separately
Have you tried the First Isomorhpism Theorem for #5?
Yes but I don't know how to ensure that K, H are kernels in each case
I thought about using Caylays Theorem but I'm not sure its useful
@tight axle forgot to reply
Consider the map H \times K -> H defined by (h,k) -> h. The kernel is then {(e_H, k) : k \in K} = {e_H} \times K, correct?
Ok I see thank you
Of course
So say,
0 -> A -> B -> P -> 0 is exact
and P is projective.
Why is this sequence splitting, and how does one memorize this fact
Well, the way to see it depends on how you define projective. But for example if you apply Hom(P, -) you get an exact sequence
Hom(P, B) -> Hom(P, P) -> 0
in particular there is a map P->B that maps to the identity, i.e. the composition P->B->P is the identity.
A way to remember is that projective modules are the ones that map onto things, but they can never be mapped onto themselves.
Oh that's neat! Thanks
Interesting, writing Hom and the exact sequence makes it easier to think
I was trying to pull back a map by surjection, which my head refused to see
Thank you! I had actually suspected this before going to sleep because the same proof also carries over to pq^n, so i was wondering how general it could be. Very interesting.!!
Non com alg exam was actually extremely fair
I think I’ve actually done reasonably well, one of the questions was to show that the first Weyl algebra was simple, but I couldn’t exactly remember the proof, but I did remember proving the nth Weyl algebra is simple so just went over kill on it
My main concern now is that it’ll get scaled down which is always rough
:)
does every algebraically closed with char p=0 have the imaginary unit i?
Well, what do you mean by i
i=sqrt(-1)
The equation x^2 + 1 = 0 has a root, so you can pick one of those roots
I want to show that the circle and the hyperbola are isomorphic for k algebraically closed field with char p != 2
but its kinda hard
They are also isomorphic for char p=2
I know but its easy to show if its char p= 2 thats why my prof wrote char != 2
so is this a yes?
Well it's more that I wouldn't say "the imaginary unit"
But yes, there is a square root of -1
ok now I have to think about char p != 2, 0
x^2+1=0 has solutions in any alg closed field, regardless of characteristic
An algebraically closed field is defined as a field where every non-constant polynomial has a root.
So by definition x^2 + 1 has a root over any algebraically closed field. There's nothing to prove. But you could ask other questions:
- Is every field (isomorphic to) a subfield of some algebraically closed field?
- Does every algebraically closed field have a subfield that isn't algebraically closed?
What do you suggest instead?
Using the prime spectrum instead
i have nothing constructive to say i’m just bitching about a minor detail in what seems like an otherwise wonderful book 
I am a bit stuck with this. I know that ac are coprime. And i want to claim that somehow these 4 matrices are performing a form of euclidiean algothirm when row reducing. Then, we would eventually get RREF and wed be done. But im not entirely sure how to rigorously show it
whats the book?
smith, kahanpää, kekäläinen and traves’ an invitation to algebraic geometry
So a change of coordinates turning
x^2 + y^2 = 1
into
x^2 - y^2 = 1
?
Then just replace y by iy, where i is a square root of -1.
Can someone let me know if this is not okay?
thanks
Yes I did it thats why I asked about i= srqt(-1)
This is correct
Thanks!
I need a help in a problem
Let $L/K$ be a Galois extension and $\alpha \in L$ belongs to a normal basis of $L$ over $K$. Show that $L = K(\alpha)$.
mycroftholmes1703
I understand the fact that there exists a $\beta$ such that $g_1(\beta),\dots,g_n(\beta)$ is a normal basis where $\text{Gal}(L:K) = {g_1,g_2,\dots,g_n}$. Then we have $g_i(\beta) = \alpha$ for some $i$. I just have to show that all over $g_j(\beta)$'s are just some powers of $\alpha$.
mycroftholmes1703
I need help in that part
sounds like you need to show that basis is cyclic
exactly
what are some properties you know about cyclic groups?
they are generated by a single element
what properties are you referring exactly ?
@abstract rock
Think about what the minimal polynomial of alpha could be.
How many conjugates does alpha have? What does that tell you about the minimal polynomial?
So at the top of my mind is that $g_j(\beta)$'s are basically the conjugates of $\alpha$. Then minimal polynomial is $m_{\alpha}(x) = \prod_{i = 1}^{n}(x - g_i(\beta))$. Then we have that $m_{\alpha}(x)$ is seperable. Then by primitive element theorem we get the result.
mycroftholmes1703
Is this what you are trying to say @rocky cloak ?
So I'm not sure what beta is, and you shouldn't really bring in the primitive element theorem for anything here.
Just think about the definition of normal basis. It's that the conjugates of alpha form a basis. So what does that say about the degree of the minimal polynomial?
is it of degree n ?
If n is the degree of L/K, then yes
yes n is the degree of L/K
A basis for an n-dimensional space must have n vectors
yes
So then the minimal polynomial of alpha is at least of degree n.
So what does that say about K(alpha)?
So then $K(\alpha)$ is a degree $n$ extension over $K$.
mycroftholmes1703
But $L$ is also a degree $n$ extension over $K$.
mycroftholmes1703
Yes but is that even true ? That two degree $n$ Galois extensions are same ?
mycroftholmes1703
Like is there always a unique Galois extension for a field of a specific degree ?
@rocky cloak
No, but these aren't just two random extensions. They are related.
Is there for example an element they have in common?
mycroftholmes1703
is common to both extensions
Right, so if alpha is in L, what can you then say about K(alpha)?
ahhh I am so stupid
yes now I get it finally
$\alpha \in L \implies K(\alpha) \subset L$ but both are degree $n$ and hence they must be the same
mycroftholmes1703
I got so messed up
Under which math topic group, ring, fields comes under?
Abstract Algebra but the former two appear in multiple places, the latter is the basis for linear algebras
Fields come first then linear algebra?
more like you learn that cartesian products of fields with a scalar operation form vector spaces and alot of the consequences of that fact
I would say that linear algebra occurs in multiple places too :)
It's usually encountered in line 2nd or 3rd year of university. Commonly also just called "algebra"
(though non-math people call other stuff algebra, so the name "abstract algebra" was coined)
So it all comes under algebra? I thought calculus is algebra
See this
I recently googled on Cryptography and apparently Groups Rings Field is very much involved in it
Indeed it is
Question was just bout the topics of this channel, linear algebra would be out of scope for this conversation
If K is a Galois extension of a field F and H is a subgroup of Gal(K/F), show that there
is an element α in K such that H = {σ ∈ Gal(K/F) : σ(α) = α}, i.e. such that H is the
stabilizer of α
can I get an idea here?
just where should i choose alpha from
Do you know the primitive element theorem?
yeah but K might be Galois but nessecarily finite
But then it's not true right. Like just take K to be the algebraic closure of F and take H to be the trivial group.
is a subextension of a primitive extension primitive?
And extension is primitive if and only if there are only finitely many intermediate subextensions. So yes
Yeah, by the Galois correspondence H should correspond to the field F(alpha)
wait im confused now
is this not what I want to show
also I think the last line H = Gal(K/K^H) is wrong right
It says "finite Galois extension"
yeah
So then there's no issue with the infinite stuff. You just pick alpha so K^H = F(alpha)
No that's correct.
That's the Galois correspondence
H = Gal(K/K^H) and
E = K^Gal(K/E)
The line before that is fishy though. You should think about K^H/F not K/K^H
What do you mean?
Show that every finite group is the Galois group of some polynomial over some field.
Again, little stuck on this.
I want to embed G into S_n, but from there I have no clue how to recover a polynomial.
Give an example of a non abelian group such that every element in it has order 3?
The existence of such a group has an interesting implication: if we start with the binary string 01 and we are only allowed to insert and delete binary strings of the form XXX where X is a binary string, then the string 10 cannot be reached..
It turns out that the string 10 cannot be reached from 01, via a complstely different proof, so im womdering what exactly such a group would looks like
If you're asking for a hint on finding one: think about certain groups of matrices over the field with three elements and you will find one
If you just want a name, it's called the Heisenberg group
Wait is this some well known problem?
I'd say it's relatively well known, yes
Lie groups go brrr
I just saw it, how could i ever come up with this group
I mean looking at what it does to bases it seems obvious in hindsight...
It has to be of order at least 9, and it's not too hard to construct it as a semidirect product of C_3 x C_3 and C_3 after that, but no it's not obvious.
If someone were really determined they could find it
Okay, il have to do some reading since idk what semidirect products are. Actually this was a question i found on a math competition and the proof that they provided used some bizzare invariant
bump, this is what i have but i feel its wrong
This looks good to me.
It should be L/L^G
Must a von Neumann regular ring have trivial Jacobson radical?
This is one of the listed "facts" on Wikipedia at least
Huh. I really should have checked that first. Thanks.
Integral domain have unity or not 
All rings have unity.
There solved it for you
Thinking about it, a non-associative algebra without unit just a vectorspace with canonical bilinear map?
There are some people who say rings don’t require unity but that’s weird (weird as in definitely not the usual choice)
People tend to refer to rings without unity as rngs these days
Random number generators
should be rings mod i
Is sending full proofs (medium to short proofs), for someone to check, if anyone has time of course, allowed here, or frowned upon?
No not a problem at all as long as its ontopic
just make sure its in a pdf if its big enough
I hope this image suffices.
What is rhe difference between a radical extension and a purely inseperable extension?
They are very different objects - what makes you think they're the same/similar
Radical extension is one that the primitive element has some poee that is in the base field right?
But a purely inseperable extension is one such that for every a in K a to the p power is in F for some p power
This tells you that every purely inseparable extension is a radical extension, but not all radical extensions are purely inseparable
A radical extension is an extension generated by elements x such that for some k x^k is in the base field. So it need not be finite
This is a property of them but not a definition
Ah I see
Can somebody help me see why the first highlighted sentence is true?
Artin's Abstract Algebra reading group
I am missing something here, I don't get it why do we need f(R) in the centre of A ?
When I verify the axiom for R-module structure of A, I didn't use this property
So it makes A to R-module in both left and right R-module structure
Let M be a finite Abelian group then we know that it can be Z-module. Is it Q-module?
No, because if it is then there exists a ring homomorphism f: Q -> End(M) such that f(1) = 1 then Q is isomorphic to f(Q) which is subfield contained in End(M), but here Q is infinite countable set and since M is finite so End(M) must be finite so it cannot contain infinite countable set.
Is it correct?
how can you have a finite Q-module
Q is a field
a finite abelian group has torsion
Is my argument correct?
If it has Q-module then we map r to f(r) such that f(r) in End(M), f(r)•a = ra
whats f
its late so ig im not following sorry
if it has a Q-module then that means you have an action by rationals
what now
I mean f: R -> End(M), and we define f(r) in End(M) such that f(r)•m = rm, right side rm define by Q-module structure
yes
Where f_q(r) = qr
now how can u prove the claim that Q is isomorphic to f(Q)
and what kind of isomoprhism is this
ring isomorphism?
Because it maps 1 to 1 and Q is a field so f is injective
Because the kernel is an ideal
So the kernel can be {0} or Q
i mean
Yes ring homomorphism
okay but then ur arguing that Q is infinite countable and f(Q) isn't?
and hence cant have a bijection?
Yes
yeah ig its cool
Okay thank you
Why does one say "non-associative algebra" instead of that?
Like, it is quite far from being an algebra.
Well, "vector space with bilinear form" is a little longer and clunkier.
It's a also somewhat contextual, like people who study non associative algebras do care about varies restrictions one can place on the operation and how they relate, associativity among them.
It isn't really that far from being an algebra. Even though associative is a big deal.
Hmm, interesting
Is it true that $G/N \rtimes G \cong G$? I do recall seeing this somewhere but I'm now not entirely convinced it's true.
swifteeee
N Is a normal subgroup of G, a group
I feel like there's more hypotheses
or maybe its N \rtimes G/N
In fact I'm quite sure this can't be true as maps G/N x G -> G will struggle to be injective
You mean
$N \rtimes G/N$?
This is true sometimes, but not in general
jagr2808
I realised soon after posting that this is what I mean
If N isn't abelian, then you don't even have an action of G/N on N
But even if N is abelian, G/N isn't necessarily a subgroup of G
Yes that was my struggle. how do i identify G/N with a subgroup of G
Oh well
It was worth a think. Thank you jagr
is this post uni?
no it shsould be in uni, but like u getting ur masters
probably
correct me if I am wrong
You mean the level of the topics in this channel?
Around 2nd or 3rd year uni
yeah
sorry if I interjected on a grand discovery
I was doing some calc 3 and just needed a side note cause I have no clue what the heck is going on
I see
After putting this the right way round, try G=Z/4 and N being its unique nontrivial normal subgroup
C4/C2 is the cyclic group of order 2, and everything is abelian, C2 \rtimes C2 = C2 x C2 which, if what I was trying to prove is true, would show that C4 is isomorphic to the klein 4group, which it is not
C2 im identifying with the subgrou of order 2 in C4, {1,x^2}
which is its only nontrivial subgroup, and as C4 is abelian it is also normal
your first dip into the nature of the group extension problem
which has been resolved for abelian kernels (for the most part i believe, something in the back of my mind is trying to remind me ofna case but i cant be assed)
I guess it depends on what resolved means. When the kernel is abelian it's classified by the second group cohomology.
You also have a very similar construction to group cohomology classifying the extension for non-abelian kernels as well.
But computing group cohomology isn't necessarily easy.
I thought central extensions required the kernels to have a non trivial centre
or are younreferring to another construction for non abelian extensions?
Central extensions correspond to group cohomology with trivial coefficients. Extensions with abelian kernels correspond to group cohomology, and then you have a generalized construction where instead of an abelian group with an action G -> Aut(A) you consider "actions" of the form G -> Out(A) and allow A to be non-abelian.
Oh yes I think i saw mention of this (actions on G-> Out(A)) on groupprop wiki, i dont remember finding a source, do you have one you suggestion?
This MSE suggests Ken Brown's Cohomology of groups
thanks
But anyway I guess, the main point is that for group cohomology you at least have the tools of homological algebra to help you compute it, so in that sense the problem is "solved".
Not sure how well those tools translate to the non-abelian case.
It is given that M is left R-module, I am not getting the 4) last part, if I define the ring homomorphism f: R -> Hom(M, M) where f(r) : M -> M such that f(r)(m) = rm, then how f(r) in the centre of Hom(M,M) ?
In solution they make Hom(M, M) is a left R-module and defining r•phi = phi • r for all phi in Hom(M,M) and r in R.
The thing that breaks in the non-commutative case is that f(r) isn't contained in Hom_R(M, M)
But otherwise the above equations hold true
There you go! That’s a counterexample
I got it I thought it is Hom(M, M) not Hom_R(M, M)
I see why f(r) is not contained in Hom_R(M, M)
Because f(r) does not follow the scalar property of transformation
No it's not. It's Hom_R(M, M)
Yes
Here, there exists r_1 and r_2 such that r_1r_2 ≠ r_2r_1, but isn't possible r_1r_2m = r_2r_1 m for all m in M ?
I think Q_8 is another one if we consider the ses 1 -> Z/nZ -> G -> Z/2Z -> 0?
To say G = Z/nZ \rtimes Z/2Z would imply that D8 and Q8 are iso
Thanks boyt!
Yes, it could happen. But it's not true in general
Okay so there can be possibility
I think when M = 0 it can be possible
Damn that was fast! Yes, that’s another example
The general version of this is the dicyclic group of order 4n
It’s the nonsplit version of the dihedral group
If I remove the necessity of f(R) in centre of Hom_R(M,M) and replace Hom_R(M, M) with Hom(M, M), is it still ring homomorphism R to hom(M, M), I think yes
I'm not sure what you're asking.
The action of R defineres a ring homomorphism R -> End(M), yes
Yes I was talking about the action of R on M
I havent found anything convincing yet in my research but I've been chipping away at it with my spare time
Gotcha, I'll have a Google and a think 👍
I just realised that this can be used to construct a module with an arbitrary totally well ordered set I as its lattice of non-zero cyclic submodules (and therefore an arbitrary successor ordinal as its submodule lattice). Indeed, let k be any division ring and consider R = k<X_i : i ∈ J>, where |J| ≥ sup_{x ∈ I} |{y ∈ I : y < x}| (for example you could take J = I) and fix a surjection f_i: J → {y ∈ I : y < x} for each i ∈ I. Let M be the free k-vector space on I with basis {m_i : i ∈ I}, and let x_j ⋅ m_i := m_{f_i(j)}, defining an R-module structure on M. Then for any v ∈ M \ {0}, if i = "deg"(v) := max {i ∈ I : v_i ≠ 0}, Rv = span_k {m_j : j ≤ i} (prove this by well-founded induction on i).
Interestingly, this requires "sufficiently many variables" to go throuh. Over a Noetherian ring, finitely generated Artinian (or non-Artinian, for that matter) modules are Noetherian. Perhaps this generalises to notions of Noetherian and Artinian with respect to ordinals/cardinals (e.g. a-Noetherian iff every submodule is inaccessible by a-directed joins for a a cardinal, or a-Noetherian iff every increasing a-chain of submodules stabilises for a a limit ordinal).
Is there any injective (additive) morphism from Zp to Z hat which preserves integers?
that is to say
f: Z_p -> Z
f(n) = (n mod 1, n mod 2, ...) if n is an integer
Yes, the profinite integers is the direct product of Zp over primes p
the trivial one does not preserve integers
Could someone please help me write a formal solution for
- Z(G) of group G = {(2x2 matrix: alpha beta 0 alpha), alpha > 0, Beta in R}
- What subgroups does a cyclic group of ord7 have?
I know hwo to solve these problems btw
I just don't know how to write a formal solution
Like if you want just tell me each thing I ought to mention, so e.g., the definition of the group, subgroup, lagrange theorem, Z(G), cyclic group
idk if i'm missing anything
@slim stag
<@&286206848099549185>
this group is abelian innit
cyclic groups of prime order only have 2 subgroups
Just say by Lagrange’s theorem that since the cyclic group of order 7 has prime order, the order of the subgroups must divide the order of the group. Indeed, the only divisors are 1 and 7. Clearly, a subgroup with order 1 is possible being the identity, and then a subgroup with order 7 is also possible, being the entire group itself.
you can formalize it further but that’s the idea
and you could also write it better but it’s an outline
what about the other question
I've fallen down a rabbit hole and discovered that there are exactly 2 groups of order 18515 = 5.7.23^2 up to isomorphism. One of them is the cyclic group of order 18515. My current problem is that I don't know what group the second one is and I'm not sure how I would figure out what it is
any ideas?
nvm someone jsut came up with it
It's apparently Z_35 x Z_23 x Z_23
You could also see this with ease if you use the classification of finitely generated Abelian groups :)
Well, up until this moment I did not even know if the 2nd one was abelian
The classification tells you at a glance at the factorisation that there are two of this order which are Abelian
You're referring to the one that goes like
$G \cong \Z^n \times \Z/p_1 \times \cdots \times \Z/p_n$
like every finitely generated abelian group (in particular, the finite ones) are of this form?
Yes
The theorem also tells you a standard form which tells you exactly when they are distinct
Oh interestinmg
It hasn['t really come up in class recently so I guess I didn't think of it
so how does one prove these 2 are all of them? Sylow theory plus some other facts?
I assume you just show that there are unique Sylow subgroups for all primes, but hey, I only claimed you could find the other Abelian one easily
Idk how the argument would go
So, this all got started because an old qual problem had "prove that every group of this order with an element of order 35 is abelian"
Well if you're allowed to state theorems you havent proved this group has order of the form p^n*q^m
woops sorry misread earlier messages!
and the assumption of having an element of order 35 seemed unnecessary
(you can instead prove that the group has a normal subgroup of order 35 and this is all you need to use a recognition theorem)
ig the question then becomes "are there any non-abelian groups of order 35"
One would imagine not
well first you state that there is no simple group of order 35=7*5 by showing there are no simple groups of order p*q then you can use schur zassenhaus to show that the remaining possibilities must be semidirect products
I think we actually proved the "no simple groups of order pq"
and we've proved that there are no nontrivial semidirect products of order pq for distinct pq
interesting!
aren't groups great
I love em
My next reading might be how to construct a topological space with arbitrary fundamental group
I'm told there's 2 ways to do it
one with group actions, another with presentations
what is the question?
too late
there's a little twist about the divisibility but yeah you are right
if that's your attitude, then never post and certainly never tag any role
what's the twist? I mean p,q prime btw
that follows from the semidirect product being non trivial i suppose
right, 2,3. But I think there's no non-trivial C_2 \rightarrow Aut(C_3)
since 0 must map to the identity
consider D_6
in that case you get the possibility of acting non trivially
wait am I being goofy
maybe a lil
Aut(C_3) is isomorphic to C_2
thats ok man
No I've definitely seen this before and I should probably construct it myself
So, Aut(C3) is C2 yes, namely these isomorphisms are 1 \mapsto 1 and 1 \mapsto 2
right!
Oh wait
Yeah there's 2 homomorphisms C_2 -> C_2
the zero map and the identity map
zero map gives Z_6
identity map is a nontrivial homomorphism (a fact I seem to have forgotten, lol)
and you get D_3 from this
bingo
I guess I need to modify the set of things I call "trivial" in my head
triviality is when the brain wants comfort
true
I guess the reason I got confused is because I tend to say things like "G is a trivial normal subgroup of G"
which isn't technically correct
trivial is when the fact is obviously true and not useful
its so hard to get what's going on in someone's head
especially your own
but yeah, I'm now doing some like
"true/false" questions that our prof gave us
than lord, we have theorems and lemmas as shinning stars
we've done a lot of ring theory too, so I'm kind of forgetting the group theory
not forgetting
just rusty
hey, i feel im so weak in rings
any problem set/exercise you have in mind
that will make me a lil bit mature
To steal some problems I've done recently \
- Prove that $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ is not a PID \
- Prove that for a finite ring $R$, $R$ is a domain if and only if it is a field \
- Show that every proper ideal of a ring $R$ is contained in some maximal ideal of $R$ \
- Show that a ring $R$ is noetherian if and only if all of its ideals are finitely generated \
For one of these problems, you'll need to use Zorn's Lemma
Galstaff, Sorcerer of Light
if these seem daunting, perhaps open up a text like Dummit and Foot and do some of the early ring exercises
hmm, thanks i want to extensively solve a book ig
Ive always liked q2
Just making sure I’m not crazy, this action also works if I just take gf(x) = f(gx) right
Well it's no longer an action unless G is abelian (it doesn't preserve multiplication), but otherwise sure
I'm trying to prove that groups of order $p^2$ are abelian using the class equation and contradiction. I've been able to show that if such a $G$ is not abelian, then [\underbrace{|G|}{p^2\text{ elements}}=\underbrace{|C|}{p\text{ elements}}+\sum_{i=1}^{p-1}\underbrace{[G:C(x_i)]}_{p\text{ elements}}]
person2709505
yes, on the track
From roughly where will the contradiction come? Of course the counts match up
the quotient group G/Z can't be nontrivially cyclic
What's Z here?
Z(G) is the centre, which contains those element(s) which commute(s) with the whole G
Ah, I see. I will think about that, thank you.
Well there is an easier solution in my view but ye
Consider ||the centraliser of an element not in the centre||
Ok, got it.
Is there some kind of contradiction from the fact that all the xi have the same centraliser, namely the centre?
What elements are in the centraliser of g
The ones fixed by conjugation by g
I can't figure it out at this hour but I will think about that more in the morning, thank you @south patrol
what do the Sylow theorems say in this case
wait
So you get that there is a unique subgroup of order 7 and 23^2
how many groups of order 5.7 are there
I think only 1 right
which is the cyclic one
It will end up being that way, but it requires some work
I can use sylow innit
n7 = 1 (mod 7)
If there were 8 I'd have more than 35 elements
Yeah counting elements gets you to direct product recognition I believe
don't p groups have non-trivial center
it would follow G/Z(G) is either isomorphic to C_p or {1} (either case is cyclic) so G itself must be abelian
take gf(x) = f(g^{-1}x) or gf(x) = f(xg)
- is hard
easiest solution is the class equation
It has an easier solution that is similar to a basic proof in group theory
- is true???
how?
domains don't have to be abelian
As far as I’ve ever heard, a domain must be commutative
That’s bizarre
anyway, now you know that if you have a zero divisor in a finite ring
cool ass theorem
Yeah sorry wikipedia is wrong here
But yeah what you’re proving is that no zero divisors —> division ring
wdym?
But you HINT: ||consider a nonzero r and count all the unique powers of r||
I know the proof haha
no worries
Gotcha
Then prove it :P
No, you can have noncommutative domains
I'm surprised you haven't seen this in books. Wikipedia is in fact correct here.
It was a question
I have commutative algebra brainrot I guess
Its true yeah
Well its equivalent to the axiom of choice
Ah lol
Zorns lemma
I was thinking the union of a chain could be the whole ring
but no, cause then 1 is in one of the proper ideals
makes sense
Yes
how does looking at the degree tell me that's injective?
I believe that's meant to show it's not surjective
basically show that there's some degree of polynomial that's never reached
The first example that comes to mind is the quaternions but that seems awfully complex - is there a simpler example?
Lol I realise now the issue that to me domain usually is an abbreviation for integral domains (which are commutative)
The Weyl algebra (ring of operators in k[x] generated by multiplication by x and d/dx)
But I suppose if you already have the assumption of commutativity then this is true
Tbf this is a nice example though as it is a division algebra
Probably the simplest / most familiar example thereof
But don’t you have g(h(f(x)) = f(ghx) = gh(f(x))
Like this direction still preserves multiplication like this
If we take g(f(x)) = f(gx) as the action
Isn’t the action commutative in either case
Iirc integrality is where there is no zero divisors, being a domain is commutativity
g(hf(x)) = hf(gx) = f(hgx) =/= f(ghx)
So it's important to note that g and h act on the function f.
So you can act by h first, which gives you the function hf(x) = f(hx)
Then when you act on it by g you get
g(hf)(x) = hf(gx) = f(hgx)
If instead X was a right module you could define
gf(x) = f(xg) though
And that would be fine.
Or you can define a right action
fg(x) = f(gx)
yeah that's what I wrote
.
these actions show up a lot in a thing I studied
Yeah same
I think I’ve seen them for vector spaces too but not much else for now
If you have like two grupos R,S and an action on R this defines an action on Hom(R,S)
Is this correct?
Thanks!
Is this true?
$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{12})/\mathbb{Q} = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5})/\mathbb{Q}$?
Bean Man
As $\sqrt{12} \in Q(\sqrt{3})$?
Bean Man
Yes. Note the bit that matters here is just $\mathbb Q(\sqrt 3, \sqrt 5, \sqrt{12}) = \mathbb Q(\sqrt 3, \sqrt 5)$.
$\mathbf{Boytjie}$
I'm a little confused as to why
$\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2}, \sqrt{3}, i)$ over $\mathbb{Q}$ isn't Galois
Bean Man
What makes you say it's not Galois?
I thought it was but I'm told all the roots of $\sqrt[3]{2}$ aren't in the extension
Bean Man
Well, they're in there. Which roots are they claiming are not there?
So for clarity
Q(cbrt(2), sqrt(3)), Q(cbrt(2), i) or Q(cbrt(2)) are not Galois.
But Q(cbrt(2), sqrt(3), i) is.
If I have a field K with a topology that makes it a topological ring, does that imply that it's a topological field i.e. the map a -> a^-1 is continuous on K{0}?
I strongly suspect the answer is no but I'm having a hard time getting a counterexample
any tips for locking in for my absalg final (groups and rings)
😭
things to do or whatever
I know everything well but I'm just concerned abt blanking on computations/whatever
do practice problems from textbooks
If H is a proper subgroup of a finite group G, then G is not the union of all
the conjugates of H.
Any hint?
I was thinking about using some action
And yes all its conjugates are proper
To prove, g and g^-1 are conjugate in S_n.
Since g and g^-1 have the same cycle structure therefore it can be conjugated to each other, is it correct?
Then I can say in any finite group G, g and g^-1 are conjugate
Because the number of conjugates of H is |G | / | N(H) | and since |H | ≤ | N(H) | so there are at most [G:H] conjugates
Done, thank you TTerra
Does this hold for infinite groups too or is there a counterexample?
If G is a finite group with conjugacy classes C 1, ... , Cm, and if gi \in Ci , then
G=<g1,···,gm>·
This is the second part of that question, so now I think we can take H = < g1,..,gm> and but G can be written as a union of conjugation classes of H therefore H cannot be a proper subgroup of G, correct?
I think yes
This is interesting
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/121526/union-of-the-conjugates-of-a-proper-subgroup#121533
Basically it generalizes to finite index case, but not infinite index case.
I understand a little bit, how this reduces the finite case, I mean let H be the subgroup of finite index n, and then take an action on the set of left Cosets, it gives G -> S_n with kernel K, such that K\subset H. Now how does it reduce the finite case?
To show the number of conjugacy classes in S_n are the same as the number of partitions of S_n.
For every partition we will take the element of that cycle structure, I mean if partition such that a+b+c = n, then we can take the element of xyz such that x has length a, y has length b and z has length c and these are disjoint, correct?
Is there any better source for studying A_n group?
Consider Q with a basis of open sets given by
q + nZ for q in Q and n in Z.
Oh yeah I think that's more or less what yeshua said
I am looking for a concise book recommendation on abstract algebra, specifically covering groups, rings, and fields, including finite fields.
'Abstract Algebra' by Dummit and Foote
To determine the maximal order of an element in a symmetric group (the value of Landau's Function) would solve the Riemann Hypothesis, so it must be very hard to list all the possible orders of the elements of 𝑆𝑛
in general.
Can someone elaborate on this? What's the exact connection between finding all orders of elements in a symmetric group and the Riemann hypothesis?
What is the maximum value of Landau's function in terms of the cycle structure of the permutations?
the lcm of their transpositions
Was expecting you to talk about partitions of n.
But you look at all the partitions of n and take the one with the largest lcm.
Did you mean partition?
From Wikipedia, if g(n) is the maximal order of an element in Sn then
log(g(n)) < sqrt(Li^-1(n)) for sufficiently large n
is equivalent to the Riemann hypothesis.
In mathematics, Landau's function g(n), named after Edmund Landau, is defined for every natural number n to be the largest order of an element of the symmetric group Sn. Equivalently, g(n) is the largest least common multiple (lcm) of any partition of n, or the maximum number of times a permutation of n elements can be recursively applied to its...
Anyhow, if you think about how to make that as big as possible, you'll see you want cycles whose lengths are prime powers whose sum doesn't exceed n.
At which point the fact that RH could be involved should be less surprising
And it seems a proof of equivalence is here
https://arxiv.org/abs/1907.07664
arXiv.org
The Landau function $g(n)$ is the maximal order of an element of the symmetric group of degree $n$; it is also the largest product of powers of primes whose sum is $\le n$. The main result of this article is that the property " For all $n > 0$ , $log g(n) < li^{-1} (n))$ " (where $li^{-1}(n)$ denotes the inverse function of the logarithmic integ...
Though I didn't read it
yes sorry
do you mean removing orders that divide higher orders
wdym by sum doesnt exceed n
I should've said "You'll want non-trivial cycles whose lengths are prime powers and whose sum doesn't exceed n." The sum of the cycle lengths in the cycle decomposition of an element of S_n always add up to exactly n, but some of those cycles might be trivial cycles (i.e., fixed points).
Think about why both L(5) = 6 and L(6) = 6, for example.
I'd just suggest you sit down and think about how you'd try to make the order of an element as larger as possible by changing the cycle structure. It'll be clear after a bit why you care about cycles w/ prime-power length.
Because those are generalized eigenvectors
I don't see how we justify "The centre of G/C1 has the form C2/C1 where C2 is normal in G". Can someone help?
Something is telling me this is related to the correspondence theorem but I can't figure out any details
Yes, this is a variant of the correspondence theorem
Under the correspondence, normal subgroups correspond to normal subgroups
And the centre is always a normal subgroup
We have the canonical surjection pi : G -> G/C1. G/C1 is a p-group, so has non-trivial centre. Then by the correspondence theorem, this is the image of a normal subgroup of G containing ker pi = C1.
?
So we have the identification of C2/C1 with the centre of G/C1, C2 normal in G containing ker pi = C1
this shouldnt be possible if the ideal isnt two sided ?
i could come up w/ a proof for two sided ideals but not for 1 sided ideals by considering what you do in groups by taking cosets, but i dont think that proof will carry over to any ideal in general because it need not be two sided which i needed because i had to show that the multiplication of these cosets is well defined
Sure, this should be about two-sided ideals
Any kernel is clearly a two-sided ideal, so the statement can't be true for merely 1-sided ideals
this too, yeah its for two sided ideals
Indeed that then becomes the correct statement
:)
Idk why they said I should be a proper ideal though
it is still true for I = R since that is the kernel of the unique map R -> 0
(warning, this is the only "0 homomorphism" provided you assume ring maps preserve 1 (and that rings have 1))
you likely already know this but the way you said it left some room for that interpretation, so i thought it may be worth mentioning lol
yeah i was just reading through random sources online so im having troubles with definitions since they keep changing (i should just be reading from one place)