#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 294 of 1
I did this one, from Jacobson right?
yep
7th one is interesting
Took me a while
And 6th is a tricky one
I love 8 one direction is trivial but other one is very good excercise
oh the counterexample the best route is to literally take the most simple (FREE) route possible
Let M be the monoid in 3 letters: {x, a, b}: Quotient by the relation e ~ xa ~ xb.

every string reduces to some string of a's and b's with an x power on the end. you can't have any other right units of x besides a and b since x is not torsion
i love left and right inverses of functions
Yuhhhh
Sections and pullbacks right
This also works more generally. You can consider multiplication by a on R. In this case you've assumed it's injective so it must be bijective since we have a finite set. But also this works more generally e.g. if you have a finite dim k-algebra A then multiplication by a will be an injective linear map on a fin dim space and hence an isomorphism
Why is that a group under self conjugation, if we have class number of 2, we have that the group is isomorphic to C_2?
From what I understand the conjugacy classes are {e} and the remaining class cl(g) contains all the other elements of G and they are all conjugate to each other
but im kinda stuck there
So note that this is only true if G is assumed to be finite, so it will use a counting argument of sort.
Maybe think about what the orbit stabilizer theorem says about the action of G on itself.
Oh yea I forgot to mention that G was finite
So then for some element g in G, o(G) = |cl(g)| * #stabilizers of g
That's right, but what is |cl(g)|?
1? Because we have cl(e)
Well let's say g is not equal to e,
What would it be then
however many numbver of elements in G/e
Remember your assumption. What you assumed was that G had only two conjugacy classes. You've already established that one of them has size 1.
yea to be honest im a bit stumped about what that tells me about the other class
other than all non identity elements in g are conjugate to each other
Yeah, but you know how many non-identity elements there are.
Say o(G) was 5 for example, what is |cl(g)|?
That would depend on the stabilizers right?
oh wait
are you trying to get at the fact that groups of prime order are cyclic or am I completely gone
I'm just gonna say this is either a gap in my knowledge or im just blanking
So you know that every element is part of some conjugacy class right?
That's right, so in general it would be o(G)-1
So now you're in the position where o(G)-1 divides o(G)
ohhhhh
took me a second
but that can only be the case if cl(g) was 1 and o(G) was 2
Oh, I see. The idea is that Fbar contains all elements which are algebraic over F. (Consider why the polynomial root definition captures this.) Therefore it is equal to the union of all algebraic extensions E_i — intuitively, not actually; see note below.
Once you see it in this way, it is clear that for a field F, any algebraic extension E of F must be contained in the algebraic closure of F
There is a big subtle issue with what I just said, which you should be very careful of
it is possible to have two algebraic closures which are isomorphic to each other
Then when you have algebraic extensions Ei, it is possible that Ei is a subset of one algebraic closure, but not a subset of the other algebraic closure
the key is that Ei will be isomorphic to a subset of the other algebraic closure
so you have to be very careful about saying "subset" and "union"; instead work with isomorphisms, or otherwise use about some fixed global extensions and talk about subsets of those
are you taking 113 or 250 rn?
bc my 113 hasnt covered this yet
For a polynomial of degree 3, do you know the possible Galois groups?
For this polynomial, what are the roots?
Is the polynomial irreducible?
It's order 6 or lower. If I can rule out S_3 I'm fine, everything else is abelian
If the ring is an integral domain of order 2^n, can I say if char R exists then it must be 2?
Because char R is the LCM of all additive orders of elements of R so it must be of the form 2^k, and because it is an integral domain it must be prime.
Interesting but I am not sure about dim k-algebra A
Do you know about the cube roots of unity?
Well in general about nth roots of unity
Well yeah I can find the roots here in C easily
but they aren't in Q
and every lemma about this that I find requires that there is at least one primitive root of unity in your base field
That's good
What are the types of roots in C? Do you have any real root?
Do you have complex roots?
yeah $\sqrt[3]{10}, \zeta_3\sqrt[3]{10}, \zeta_3^2\sqrt[3]{10}$
And what happens if you adjoin that first root to Q?
Resaturated nHail
Is the splitting field equal to that field?
6, then
I assume you mean of the splitting field yes
yeah, this would be 3
Yup, so the answer is...
Well this tells you you have a subextension given by just the first root
but you would have that no matter what?
Like that gives you a subgroup in the galois group
I'm clearly missing something, I haven't been able to keep up with this class given everything else this term
If I understood your question correctly, then $F(a) \subseteq F(a,b)$ yes.
きよし
Ah, I found the relevant part.
We should have that [Q(zeta, cbrt10) : Q(cbrt10)] = [Q(zeta):Q], but these are 2 and 3
so it's not galois
There's something funky going on here
and therefore not abelian
I think you are trying to use tower lemma, but it's missing some parts.
I can share the note I'm referencing from the class notes
sure
but it's not uh, the most readable
(these are the notes the professor uploads btw
)
It’s giving S3 vibes tbh
Cuz x^3 - 2 has Galois group S3
And sqrt2 vs sqrt10 are not so different
I could just compute the roots, look for automorphisms, and do this by brute force
These are the roots
well yes
The order of the Galois group is equal to the degree of the field extension
(Since it’s a normal extension)
^ Are you familiar with this fact
Ah I see what you did. This gives you 2=2
Yes.
This here, both sides are 2 by the theorem in the notes
The relevant theorem you want is: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Degree_of_a_field_extension#The_multiplicativity_formula_for_degrees
Ok so you’re trying to show the Galois group has order 6 (the current guess is S3)
You can do this by showing the field extension has degree 6
Right
What’s the fundamental diff between S3 and Z6
I mean honestly it’s only 6 automorphisms, you could hammer them out and show it’s not cyclic right
I'm debating this
Oh, the relevant theorem is that for a polynomial of degree n, the galois group must be a subgroup of Sn
Oh shit that’s it
Z6 is not a subgroup of S3
I thought we were stuck in showing degree 6 lol
I proved that if the commutative ring R has no zero-divisor then every non-zero element has the same additive order.
Can I conclude that if R is finite then the ring must be of order p^k, p is a prime.
Because since additive structure is abelian so if there are two distinct prime divisors it then there exists elements which has order p_1 and p_2.
I think this result is still true when I remove Commutative and add unity
This is super easy to prove as well. The automorphisms are completely decided by where the roots go. But the roots can only be sent to other roots. So each automorphism is a permutation of the roots. Therefore it’s a subgroup of Sn
True.
I found that we don't need R to be commutative
yes
the characteristic is p
then you get order is power of p by vector spaces
is this really as easy as "it must be a subgroup of (Z/10)^X = Z/4, which is cyclic"
Seems you figured this out, but a useful piece of information is that the Galois group of a degree n polynomial is a subgroup of Sn.
So here you have a subgroup of S3.
Okay thank you
frankly I should know things like this
:v)
but this class is a bit hard to follow sadly
even though it's an interesting topic to me
The prof has a thick accent and mumbles, and the lecture notes are... you saw them above.
handwritten by the prof with 1s that look like 2s.
Let A, B be free abelian groups of rank n contained in a field K. Assume that B ⊂ A. Prove that A/B is a finite group.
I have no idea where to start with this
I know that free abelian group really means free Z-module, but I'm not sure where to go from here lol
I don't know what machinery you're working with but you could take the short exact sequence
0 -> B -> A -> A/B -> 0
and tensor with Q
This is what I saw on SO
Seems like an elegant solution
But I wish I knew what tensoring was
Well, there is a simpler way using the same idea. So:
You can think of A/B as generated by the generators for A, so if you can show that each of them have finite order you're good.
Now think about the rational vector space spanned by A and B.
Then sp(B) is a subset of sp(A) and these are both n-dimensional vector spaces.
You can think about elements in sp(B) as b/m for b in B and m an integer. What more can you say about the relationship between sp(B) and sp(A)? What does this mean for the order of elements in A/B?
ahh this makes more sense thanks
im new to group theory and having some trouble with understanding if a lie algebra is simple or not. why are there no semi simple algebra in dimension 2 ?
in PID R can i say $a, b \in R$, if $aR \subseteq bR$ then $b | a$?
Cro
nvm $br_1=a*1_R$ for some $r_1 \in R$, dumb me
whats the logic here? The first iso is clear but i just dont see how to manipulate the ideal to get to that
I know both 5 and x+3 is in the ideal (1+2x,x^2+1) but how to show the other way?
Cro
and also, if i dont have this answer how should I go about "simplifying" an ideal like this? usually when both the polynomials are monic i just use euclidean algorithm but now idk how to do
x^2+1=(x+2)(x+3)+5(-x-1)
1+2x=(x+3)*2+5(-1)
essentially divide original expression by the polynomial with highest degree first, then work your way down
right, so how was I supposed get 5 and x+3 in the first place?
i got x+3 from pure luck so idk whats a systematic way to do it
Can someone explain why we're quotienting out by the diagonal matrices pls?
try writing euclid's algorithm in symbols, organize in a way so that linear combinations of x^2+1 and 1+2x stands out
but what dividing what
if you find out for example 1+2x cant really divide x^2+1 up to highest order term notice 2(x^2+1) is in the ideal too
use the remainder of x^2+1 divided by 1+2x to divide 1+2x
and youll notice everything is arranged in linear combinations of 1+2x and x^2+1 hence in ideal
at/a is the same as t
we'd like to send at + b / ct + d to [a b c d] (i'm too lazy to matrixify)
but that's not quite well defined cus i.e. (2t+0)/(0t+2) is the same as (t+0)/(0t+1)
so we need to quotient out by diagonal matrices
I see now, thanks
nw
If R is a principal ideal domain and I is an ideal of R, prove that every ideal of R/I is principal.
We know that every ideal of R/I is of the form J/I, where J is an ideal of R containing I. Since R is the principal ideal domain so J = (a), we can write J/I = (a+I), right?
If R is a commutative ring, is it true that (a)(b) = (ab) these are ideals?
We know that the splitting field of $x^3 - 2$ is $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{2}, i\sqrt{3})$, and is of degree 6. How do I find its basis of six elements? I can't seem to grasp the idea of roots of unity (those with $\omega$).
If you have the definition of the product of two ideals its very straight forward to verify that it is also an ideal, you should try to do this
Inxi25
No I mean (a)(b) = (ab) ?
What's your definition of (a)(b)?
Product of an ideal, finite sum of elements of the form xy, where x in (a) and y in (b)
Wondering if anyone can help me with a step in the algorithm for computing Groebner bases, my notes arent that clear. To give an example,
Let $f = xy+x$ and $g =y^2+1$ and $I = \langle f,g\rangle \triangleleft \mathbb{C}[x,y]$. Fix the monomial ordering to be deglex.
So computing the $S$ polynomial we have that $S(f,g) = xy-x$ and then the algorithm we're given says to reduce this, and im not quite sure what this means. The example in the notes gives that $S(f,g) = -2x$ but im really not sure where this is coming from
Nope
Like im not sure what they actually mean by reduction, it doesnt seem to be defined in my notes as far as I can see
my teacher explained euclidean domains horribly
😭
why hsow that they're a PID to get UFD
when you could do it all without ideals
and shwo the euclidean algorithm structure
💀
thank god keith conrad exists
I knew it was true that we could do it without ideals
are we just setting f=0 and then saying that xy = -x?
Let $C_i(G)$ be the central series of $G$ such that ${1} \subseteq C_i(G) \subseteq C_{i+1}$ and let $G$ be nilpotent, i.e. $C_n(G) = G$ for some $n \in \mathbb{N}$. Further, let $D_k(G)$ be the lower central series such that $D_{k+1}(G) \subseteq D_{k}(G)$ defined through $D_{k} := [G, D_{k-1}(G)]$. I want to show that $G$ is nilpotent if and only if $D_k(G) = {1}$ for some $k$. For this I try to show that $D_k \subseteq C_{n-k}$ inductively. But that's where I'm stuck already. I mean I know that $D_{k+1}(G) \subseteq D_{k}(G)$ and $ C_{n-(k+1)}(G) \subseteq C_{n-k}$ but that does not imply $D_{k+1} \subseteq C_{n-(k+1)}$ necessarily, so I'm not sure what to do.
dellinger
For commutative rings yes
Each element in the principal ideals takes the form xa and yb respectively,
So the products would be xy(ab) and finite sums of those would just factor out the ab and the sums would be in the R in Rab = (ab) lol
I’ve had a horrible realization
What if you could do similar shit on the lexicographic ordering on the free ring R[F_2]
IIRC you do polynomial long division of S(f, g) by the existing generating set {f, g} and if the remainder isn't 0, you add it to the generating set.
Just pondered something.
The N-indeterminate polynomial ring is literally the monoid ring over N^n. But isn’t this ordered monoid isomorphic to the generated ordered monoid in N generated by the first n primes?
Since the “prime” elements would be the indeterminates
Yeah I’ve kinda worked out that the reduction thing is just setting each of the functions to 0 and reducing the leading monomial to the lower degree term
I wish I hadn’t worked it out though it’s incredibly tedious to do this, but also kinda easy so guess I’ll do a couple for the exam then never worry about it again
If you mean partially ordered by componentwise ordering and divisibility respectively, then sure, they're isomorphic (partially) ordered monoids. But I don't see the point (or how it's related to what I said).
Neither. I took 113 last semester and I studied field extensions and Galois theory through the DRP this semester
Okay thank you
Well first let me get some stuff out of the way. It seems like we’re thinking of B and A not as abstract modules, but instead as the Z-span of some basis vectors b1,…,bn and a1,…,an in K. Therefore when we say sp(B) and sp(A), we are really saying the Q-span of those basis vectors. Is that right?
Yup
Ok I believe that sp(B) is contained in sp(A), and they are both dimension n
Since they are vector spaces, doesn’t this mean sp(B) = sp(A)?
I’m trying to convince myself that the elements in sp(B) can be written b/m
My guess is that you’re collecting the denominator:
(1/2)b1 + (2/3)b2 + (5/4)b3
= (6b1 + 8b2 + 15b3) / 12
Ok cool makes sense
Same applies to sp(A), the elements can be written a/m
Man A/B is still a mystery to me
I know it consists of cosets of the form a + B, but I’d like to understand it in terms of generators
And I have no idea where the sp(A) and sp(B) come in here
My intuition for all this is lattices in R^2
So if a is in A, then it's also in sp(A).
And what was the relationship between sp(A) and sp(B) again?
oh…
Dude I’m off my game today
That was right there
Ok let me see
a = b/m for some integer m……..
So A/B consists of cosets of the form b/m + B
We’re trying to get that there are finitely many cosets
But you can pick any integer for m, so I don’t see why there aren’t infinitely many choices of cosets
Why is this so difficult to wrap my head around
And what happens if you multiply by m on both sides
So what's the order of a+B in A/B?
Oh my god
I forgot order is additive
m
Damn
wait so every element in A/B has finite order
Thus the group is finite
Ding ding ding
Wait why can’t there be an infinite group where every element has finite order, like sequences in Z2
So tensoring by Q kills elements of finite order and embeds the rest in a Q-vector space.
So the tensor argument is really the same argument, but with fancy words
It's also finitely generated, because A is
Oh
Finitely generated + every element has finite order = finite set
Well I suppose if the generators have finite order, then there’s only finitely many unique choices for the coefficients
Indeed
If you have infinitely many generators, can they each have finite order, but there is still an element in the group with infinite order?
Assuming we're still talking about abelian groups, then no.
Hm
Oh so the sequence would look like
0 —> BxQ —> AxQ —> 0 —> 0
Tensoring a sequence by Q means tensoring each object with Q right
I really shouldn’t be talking since I have no idea what a tensor product does lol
That's right (think you swapped A and B though)
Whoops yeah
And that’s it? Then every element has finite order, and combined with A/B being finitely generated, you’re done?
What is there to prove when you tensor with Q
That seems so quick
Surely you have to prove A/B x Q is 0
So it's assuming you know quite a bit about tensor products, but the proof goes like this:
Q is flat, so when you tensor an exact sequence you get another exact sequence
0 -> B(x)Q -> A(x)Q -> A/B(x)Q -> 0
Since B(x)Q = A(x)Q = Q^n, then by linear algebra the first map must be an isomorphism, hence A/B(x)Q = 0.
It's true that X(x)Q = 0 if and only if every element in X has finite order.
But as you can see the outline of the proof is pretty much the same, just using some established tools to prove each step.
Oh wow
That’s amazing
That’s so nice
I have subtle questions about what’s going on when you make those steps
The sequence
0 -> B -> A -> A/B -> 0
has its objects as Z-modules and its arrows as module homomorphisms
when you tensor with Q, the object B(x)Q for instance, aren’t the objects now Q-vector spaces?
Why is this jump from Z-modules to Q-vector spaces allowed
Seems like they are fundamentally different objects
That's right. In general when you have a ring homomorphism R -> S, then tensoring by S takes R-modules to S-modules. This is called extension of scalars, and it's a "universal" way of producing an S-module from an R-module (c.f. adjunction in category theory)
You'll notice that all Q-vector spaces are in particular abelian groups, so their not fundamentally different.
Oh interesting, this reminds me of a homomorphism R->S giving rise to a homomorphism R[x]->S[x]
Extension of scalars is a good name lol
Anyway thank you
Here's a nugget of information, a lot of that can equivalently be stated using ideals, typically using principal ideals:
Greatest Common Denominators: Intersections of principal ideals are principal
Unique Factorization: GCD and "Principally-Noetherian", i.e every strictly increasing chain of principal ideals is finite, or equivalently each set of principal ideals has a maximal principal ideal.
Bezout Domain: Sums of principal ideals are principal (compare this to GCD domains)
Principal Ideal: Every ideal is principal lol
the whole "principal ideal" thing here really is just another way of saying the same thing lol
Yeah but sometimes it’s nice to not invoke abstraction
In particular
We can get UFD without invoking thr ascending chain condition in Euclidean domains
Which is nice
Because that’s a kind of abstract pain in the ass
I prefer to work in the ideal sense or the element sense one at a time and not to hop between them like crazy
Equally though, a lot of the power of ring theory is actually to do with ideals (well modules really, but same thing) so it’s not a bad thing to get used to
Hopping is terrible yeah 💀
Yeah, I’ve definitely gotten used to ideals after the ascending chain homework. Super useful stuff. Unfortunately, my class doesn’t have time to cover modules so that’ll be saved for an algebra class in college
Yeah there’s a lot to cover, you can’t do everything, but having covered Noetherian rings in highschool I’d say your pretty set for uni haha
Ideals are just submodules of a ring viewed as a module over its self though, so really you have been working with modules!
I should prove that if $G$ is generated as $G = H_1 \cdot H_2 \dots H_n = K_1 \cdot K_2 \dots K_m$ and all $H_i, K_i$ are simple normal subgroups of $G$, then $n = m$ and $H_i \cong K_{\pi(i)}$ for some permutation. My proof:
Since all subgroups are normal and simple we can construct a composition series by
$$ F_i = \prod_{j = 1}^{n-i} H_j$$, since now $F_i/F_{i+1} \cong H_{n-i}$ is simple. The same construction can be done with the $K_i$, call the chain elements $T_i$. Now, by Jordan-Hölder both must be equivalent , i.e. the lengths are the same (n = m) and there is a bijective mapping between all factors, ie $H_{n-i} \cong F_i/F_{i+1} \cong T_{\pi(i)}/T_{\pi(i)+1} \cong K_{n-\pi(i)}$.
Now does this seem correct?
dellinger
You are taking abstract algebra class in highschool? Your high school offers that?
💀 this is terrible I miss groups (I don't) 💀
yes - magnet high school
dw the class is as hard as a regular university class (judging by the C- average on the Group Theory test before the curve 💀 )
No don’t be silly, groups are boring and tedious, rings are cool fun and useful
Grouprings toe the line dangerously
💀what’s really scary is field theory
If we end up doing Galois it’s cooked
That’s ridiculous! Never heard of a hs offering that
Google proof school (not my school but it’s ludicrous)
Why does a linear transformation of a polynomial ring have to preserve degree?
E.g. the zero map is linear and doesn't preserve degree
And there's the question of "linear over what"
E.g. consider a general k-linear map on k[x] where you send x^k to p_k(x) for any choice of p_k
Definitely needn't preserve degree
Galois theory to me is exceptionally boring
Yeah but it’s probably hard
“Needn’t”. Only a mathematician would say something like “needn’t”
Lol
I think maths is probably the only place whence has been used in about 200 years
Idk I use needn't a lot tbf
I feel like many people misuse whence where they could say hence
I wonder if it comes from French influence since d'où is common
does the quotient of a ring or module distribute over direct sum?
I am told that Aut S3=S3. Since for each element of S3 I get a unique automorphism (conjugation by that element), this means that all the automorphisms of S3 are inner automorphisms. How can I show that none of the other bijections of S3 respect the group structure without going through them all and finding pairs of elements making that condition fail?
Shoot I completely forgot that those generate S3; that's still weird to me
Well they get sent to a 3- and 2-cycle respectively. Does only one pair of such cycles generate Sn for each n or something?
No that wouldn't help
Orders have to match. How many elements can each be sent to? That puts an upper bound on the number isomorphisms, which is certainly no greater than the number of bijections satisfying that condition.
Hmm yeah that works. Why does it actually matter that (123) and (12) generate S3 then? The orders have to match, so (123) can be sent to two elements [itself or (132)] and (12) can be sent to any of the three transpositions. Hence there are at most 6 automorphisms. I could have used (132) and (12) or what have you.
ywah
It seems kind of mysterious that I get a worse bound than by noticing that the set of 3-cycles is fixed by an automorphism and likewise for the transpositions, so there are at most 2!3!=12 automorphisms, since that packages the argument you suggested
Because homomorphisms are determined by choice of where generators go
Well, those two also generate S_3
Right, but I only use the fact that the orders have to be preserved in the argument
Maybe I actually misunderstood your idea somehow
It works out here to be the same thing because of the orders involved and number of generators involved.
But maybe in a different group if I tried to generalise your argument like I did here it would break?
Yes, I think so, once the details are spelled out.
Anyhow what you said is correct. That's the idea.
Then you can exhibit all 6 inner automorphisms directly if you want.
Well, 6 distinct ones. Together that means those 6 must be all of them.
Well I try to skirt around that by saying that the conjugations are relabelings of the permutations, meaning different conjugations correspond to distinct relabelings, so the map sending alpha to (x |-> alpha x alpha^-1) is injective. No?
Sure
why would anyone use the notation $M_{m\times n}(\mathbb R)$ when the notation $\mathbb R^{m\times n}$ exists ?
rødbet-jens

Eh well M_n(R) is already common tbf so makes sense to keep it similar
but also like R^{m x n} is slightly abusive notation since like lol
R^{2 x 3} is not R^6
so the x is sort of silly lol
hmm
I don't think so; I can't think of a counter example, but if it were true it would make the proof that the quotient of a semisimple module is semisimple too easy
What do you mean by this
For the question to make sense you need extra conditions which make the answer simple
(M+N)/S = M/S + N/S
Yeah so like
What does that really mean
There you are viewing S as a submodule of M, N and of M (+) N
yeah
like how does that set up work
well you take the direct sum of S with itself id assume
at least i believe thats the standard notation
so in reality it would be (M+N)/(S+S)
Wouldn't you consider M and N submodules of M (+) N, and S a subm of M and N?
Taking S (+) S would be different, it seems more natural to just take (M (+) N)/S
oh like identifying N with N x {0}?
Yeah
well, either coordinate works
hmm im not sure, it wasnt precised in the notes given by my prof
can i send the example directly maybe it would help
im a bit confused by it because we keep changing which structure we use to analyze it
nope its this one we want here
I would absolutely read the latter as an mn tuple not an n by m matrix
interesting
this is not a point of confusion for me, as i never use x to denote scalar multiplication, only for like set products or the cross product
Okay, I just realized it's easy to prove that (M + N)/(S + S) is iso to M/S + N/S, maybe that is the most natural construction. I'll have to think about it more tomorrow 
M_ emphasizes matrices which is nice
Does there always exist a complement for vector spaces? Also for infinite dimenisonal vector spaces?
do you mean for a subspace?
yes exactly
i think so
do you have a proof?
its a Zorns lemma proof for sure
Or somewhere where I could read one
yep
To summarise: given a subspace U of V, you can (using choice/ zorns) pick a basis of U, extend to one of V, and then all the "extra" basis vectors you had to add in span a space W which is easily seen to be a complement of U in V
zorns lemma is equivalent to an axiom of set theory so it works for all sets (edit: poorly worded but you get the point)
If M is a direct sum of A and B, and N is a submodule of M, is it true that N is of the form N1 (+) N2 where N1 and N2 are submodules of A and B respectively?
I don't think so, take Z x Z and the subgroup generated by (1,1) I don't think that decomposes into a direct sum of subgroups of Z.
The grouping together here is using chinese remainder theorem right?
If u have R/(p^2) x R/(p^3) thats isomorphic to R/(p^3)?
I havent learned crt properly so i may be so wrong
I see, thanks 
Not every torsion R-module has a nonzero annihiltor right?
Consider (+)_{p prime} ℤ/pℤ.
Always need to think of some infinite sum …
For the elementary divisors of a f.g module over a pid, do we count the repeat primes?
terror
Yea i saw somewhere earlier that ur not a fan of this stuff lol
I guess its not that interesting idk
Jacobson uses proofs that involve doing matrix calculations
Ohhh uhhh 😬
Which tbf if you have the time to algorithmically write it out is… admittedly kinda neat but that’s about it
Yea
Just it’s annoying to manually calculate
What IS interesting is that today we are starting some homological algebra stuff in class
Fun to implement if you code it yourself :3
I c
The only homological stuff I’ve done is some cursed form of diagram chasing I concocted
I should practice some diagram chasing questions before the exam on friday
Im looking forward to learning about derived functors
Im not sure how much we are gonna be able to cover
Actually in retrospect it’s piss easy to describe, easier than Jordan normal form
Basically you keep reducing the matrix to a diagonal of values on the top left and a lower (n - 1) x (m - 1) block on the bottom right
Sort a column by number of prime divisors, moving 0’s to the bottom. Then apply Bezout to reduce the top one to a gcd of all of the ones below it. Then wipe out the lower ones. Repeat for the row. Then you have turned the row and column into a diagonal
For (2), the second iso thm is being used right?
Im not so sure on how its being used
I think it’s the second
How is it being used?
We can just say that image of (p) in R/(a) is (p)/(p) cap (a) and then use second iso?
Sounds about right
I wouldn’t call it an abstraction.
The bread and butter of commutative ring theory is modules and ideals
We can use principal ideals to pull back structure defined on modules or ideals to the elements themselves
Principal ideals obviously allow you to map elements into the set of ideals
Which naturally have the inclusion preorder and different kinds of operations like ideal intersections, products, sums which you can sorta pull back to the elements
You can define equivalence relations and preorders from this, like x ~ y iff (x) = (y)
Or x <= y iff (x) is a subset of (y)
Which of you might work it out, are quite familiar
And frankly the “noetherian condition on principal ideals” only really deals with the principal ideals so it’s almost immediate to pull that back to the elements
A lot of the domain conditions are basically just closure of these different ops
As mentioned: Bezout domain when the family of principal ideals is closed under sums, GCD when closed under intersections
If you pull back the prime condition on prime principal ideals you get the classical prime element defn
Even being a unit can be rephrased in terms of ideals, i.e not lying in any proper ideal
A prime element in a ring has no divisors? Or an irreducible element has no divisors? (Havent studied this material properly before)
Ik in pid they are equivalent concept
Irreducible element’s principal ideal contains no other proper principal ideals
In a domain, which is the usual context
I.e they are “atomic”, can’t get smaller principal ideals that aren’t the trivial one
Do u mean irreducible elements principal ideal is not contained in any other principal ideal?
Oop yeah got it flipped
Lmao ye
Better*
But yeah it’s just pulling back that “subset” relation back to the elements
Ok. Yeah so irreducible elements dont have nontrivial divisors
Two elements are equivalent if their principal ideals are equal, in which for the case of a domain, you can show that it implies that they differ by a unit multiplier
If (x) is a subset of (y) strictly iff y divides x
Let’s say you have a set A, and a set B admits an ordering <, then if you have a function from A to B, you can define the pullback ordering on A where x < y iff f(x) < f(y)
For the map of the ring to the set of ideals, technically the pullback of the inclusion relation is “is divided by”
Yeah, maximal amongst principal ideals
In our lecture notes on modules over PIDs, it says that we can have rank F = rank G without F = G, where F, G are modules over a PID, and it gives the example (2) subset Z over Z. However, (2) is isomorphic to Z, right? F and G would always be isomorphic if they have the same rank, wouldn't they?
Depends on how you are defining the rank, or more precisely for which modules you are defining it.
I thought PID rings satisfy IBP
Are your modules free modules?
I don’t get why we don’t just say dim 3 or something instead of rank
Assuming freeness
Equality not isomorphism
This is just saying unlike vector spaces where if you have L < V with dim L = dim V, then L = V
You can have a proper inclusion of free modules L < V where rank V = rank L but L is not all of V
As the example 2Z < Z illustrates
The existence of inverses forces the equality
This is true when you have finite length modules N < M, if l(M) = l(N) then N = M. The difference is that for vector spaces, the length is equal to the rank / dimension. But for modules over non-fields, a free module is usually not even finite length
So for modules you kind of split in two two camps.
Finite length modules behave like vector spaces in terms of rank-nullity where you use length instead of dimension.
Free modules behave like vector spaces in that they have a basis and you can define maps by just saying where those go
Unfortunately over general rings you can’t have your cake and eat it too
Ah, that makes sense, thanks
the remark as stated in the lecture notes seems uselessly weak, but if F subset G then I see how that is interesting to note
Yeah
When proving uniqueness for the structure theorem for modules over pids, we know off the bat if M1 and M2 are isomorphic then Tor(M1) = Tor(M2). What is the difficulty then of just saying, for some elementary divisor of M1, say p^2, that the submodule R/(p^2) gets sent to R/(p^2) in M2?
If its isomorphic doesnt submodules map to submodules isomorphically
Im trying to understand what the problem is here with the elementary divisors
Sorry what’s an elementary divisor again
i think the prime ideals in the structure theorem for pids (the primes u get after crt)
I recall like two ways to write down the thing though
One is with like asserting that successive things divide the other
And the other one is something else
apply crt
And they’re related via CRT
Prime powers right?
yes
can you post / state what the statement you’re looking at is, and what uniqueness its asserting
think of the standard problems that involvle classifying an abelian group of order something
I suspect the problem might be that when you use elementary divisors you can permute the order of the things
u do prime decompistion of the order into powers and keep playing with them using CRT
thats the "elementary divisors" form
Whereas when you make it so each successive thing divides the next it fixes the order, up to the only ambiguity being writing something up to a unit
Theorem 9 is asserting uniqueness
So what’s your question?
If M1 and M2 are isomorphic, their submodules are isomorphic right? So if M1 has an elementary divisor of like p^2, then R/(p^2) is a submodule so then why cant we just say by the isomorphism R/(p^2) is a submodule of M2
In the proof though, apprently we can only say off the bat that their p-primary submodules are isomorphic
Which are when u group together the repeat primes into their highest power, like R/(p^3) iso to R/(p^2) x R/(p^3)
Can you show the proof and where you’re asking why you can’t do this instead
“If M1 iso M2 then the p-primary submodule of M1 is iso to p-primary submodule of M2”
You have to essentially prove that you can only write a module in this way in only a single way
Even if M1 has some R/p^n summand, it isn’t clear that when you write M2 in this way that R/p^n has to show up in that
Like what if somehow you can write down
Z/4Z x Z/2Z x Z/9Z ≈ Z/4Z x Z/2Z x Z/3Z x Z/3Z
Then there’d be a Z/9Z submodule on the right, but it hasn’t shown up in the decomposition on the right
And you’d probably go “no that can’t be true because Z/9Z isn’t isomorphic to Z/3Z x Z/3Z” and that’s essentially the crux of the issue, but you don’t know that this specific isomorphism would have to take Z/9Z to Z/3Z x Z/3Z a priori
But when you look at the p-primary part of both sides, on the left you get Z/9Z and on the right you get Z/3Z x Z/3Z, so actually wait this isomorphism would imply their isomorphic. So now you can do your like, kinda CRT proof or whatever to get your contradiction
Ok i think i kind of see what u mean
Basically, I’m saying that the notion of “invariant factors” or “elementary divisors” as written a priori depends on how you decompose M
And the theorems at first only assert there’s some decomposition
But you don’t know that this is instrinsic to just M, that you can only write it in one such way. In which case you’d have two different lists of these things
Think about composition series and composition factors or whatever
You need to prove Jordan-Hölder to say that the list of composition factors only depends on M itself, not on the specific composition series you had
u mean that they are unique?
yeah
ig to be more annoying proving jordan-holder is easy if you know the schrier refinment theorem
haha
Can anyone explain or hint to why alpha is a root of f
Well what happens when you evaluate f on alpha
I would say we get zero if f was a homomorphism. But idk what's supposed to happen if f is just some polynome
why does it matter if it is a homomorphism?
suppose f(x) = x^2 + 1
can you see why it works in this case?>
Since alpha is 0 in that constructed field, f(alpha) = 0 would follow
well alpha is not 0
alpha is the coset x + (x^2 + 1) which is certainly not the same as 0 + (x^2 + 1)
right mb
This is confusing. What even is the 1 in "x^2+1" in K[x]/(x^2+1) ?
1 + (x^2 + 1)
ah thats good
I claim f(x +f(x)) = f(x) + (f(x))
Ok but why didn't my lecturer at least say that
How does life justify the hardships it imposes on me
that's true
in fact for any polynomial g(x) we have that g(x + (f(x))) = g(x) + (f(x))
why is the trivial ring excluded from being a field
what about field theory gets more annoying if we just let it
In mathematics, the field with one element is a suggestive name for an object that should behave similarly to a finite field with a single element, if such a field could exist. This object is denoted F1, or, in a French–English pun, Fun. The name "field with one element" and the notation F1 are only suggestive, as there is no field with one elem...
Uh I'm not sure it is a good choice to reply to that question with that article
Anyway, the trivial ring is excluded from being a field bc it is annoying to say "let F be a nontrivial field..." every time.
N.b. the "field with one element" referenced above is not in fact a field and does not actually exist.
Instead of saying "let F be a field" I would instead have to say "let F be a nontrivial field" to say anything interesting.
Ok here is a simple one
There is a vector space of dimension n for all fields and integers n.
Or idk even more straightforwardly
dim F^n = n
mm, maybe it would break a lot of linear algebra yeah
This does actually raise an interesting question to me, why do we allow the trivial ring and trivial group? In my experience they only really appear as a counter example, are excluded from a theorem or a nice base case for an induction
Why do we allow the empty set?
I think there are things to say here but I will say this: the trivial group turns up infinitely more often in my experience than the trivial ring ever has
I want to actively ignore the trivial ring, whereas I occasionally argue that a group is trivial in various ways (e.g. by saying that a quotient group G/N is trivial)
Yeah no that is fair the trivial group definitely has its uses as does the empty set, but I’ve literally never encountered the trivial ring beyond intro ring theory books saying this is a thing and we ignore it
Because yeah the trivial group is nice for like composition series and the like, and the empty set is useful all the time, say the closure is a set together with its set of limit points, but I’m still yet to come across an actual instance of the trivial ring, so what is lost by requiring more generally that rings have different additive and multiplicative identities?
And in that case you don’t need to make the distinction that a field can’t be the trivial ring which I have always felt is an odd distinction to make
the category of rings and groups would be much, much worse without them
the category of fields already sucks because 0 isn't invertible
I wondered if that would be the case
And yeah now that I’m home and can actually think of course that’s the case, it’s the zero object in Group
"Yes, but" in practice this still isn't really an issue.
In actual study of these objects, we still want to ignore the zero ring.
But then I suppose we allow the category of fields to be annoying by not having the trivial field, just to avoid having to say non trivial field everywhere, much like we do with rings, so I guess it’s just convention more than anything?
The category of fields is weird for unrelated reasons
And in a non-categorical perspective, fields are weird as algebraic structures for unrelated reasons.
Im not sure how we know the Ni’s are cyclic modules
This is not a shocking fact. There is no isomorphism theorem for fields, for example. In universal algebra we would say that fields are not a variety.
yeah, and that's because 0 isn't invertible
Oh yeah.
Somehow i didnt realize that tho
Everything is a shocking fact for ppl less knowledgeable in math
Funny how that works
I remember being really impressed by the idea of quotient objects in general
When i first saw them
Yeah I suppose I’ve never really considered that, I being a simple ring is a slightly weird property
Could you elaborate more on fields being weird as algebraic objects though? I’ve not done much (any really) field theory so I guess maybe I’m missing some stuff but idk to me they’re just rings with so much structure that they become kinda simple again
every single field map is an injection
There's an answer which boils down to "definitional efficiency", i.e., having to say "non-trivial field" everywhere we said "field".
But one can also wonder if there's more going on.
For example, unlike groups and rings, the class of fields isn't definable over an algebraic/equational theory in the sense of universal algebra. If that were the case they'd be closed under direct products, among other things.
From that perspective, it's maybe less surprising that fields are "something different."
I was mostly asking how often we would actually have to specify non-trivial
if the answer is "all over the place in linear algebra" I guess that makes sense
I guess it does just come back to them being simple rings again then, maybe I’ve just never appreciated that being quite so weird of a property
it is weird in that it makes them unlike most other algebraic objects
Yeah I guess, I suppose when I proved Schurs lemma I just never really appreciated the result before
What does this mean?
do you know what a category is
yes
ok so in rings and groups, the trivial ring/group is the initial and final object
this makes them very nice categories
for instance, the image of a ring homomorphism is a ring, this stops being true if the trivial ring isn't a ring
many, many, many more examples
like?
well that not being true means that you don't get ring or group quotients as a well defined thing
You do get quotients, except in very specific circumstances. I think the importance of the trivial group is being overstated here, it doesn't prove anything you didn't know
What page is that?
I think i just straight up dont understand this proof
465
I understand “in the general case Ni is a submodule of M with annihilator dividing pi^ai”
I dont understand the application of crt near the end
I dont understand why we see the annihilator of Ni is “precisely” pi^ai
Remove the author's comments and just leave the definition, propositions, theorems used in the demonstration and then connect the comments to what he is saying.
I think it says something about a prime factorization of powers, maybe you should go back a little bit, besides it talks about comaximals, take a rest a little bit.
can someone tell me whats the point of PIDs
aM = 0, that is M = M / aM and aM is the intersection of all (pi^alpha_i M), so the crt gives you M / aM = the sum of M / pi^alpha_i M and then you shall identify those with Ni
If you take m -> (a / pi^alpha_i) * m, this gives a mapping from M / pi^alpha_i M to N_i, it's surjective as a/pi^alpha_i is invertible in R/pi^alpha_i, so that should make this a bijection i think
I’m not sure what you mean by what the point is, some rings just are PIDs, and PIDs have a lot of nice properties
Like they’re all Noetherian, prime and maximal ideals coincide etc, there’s just a lot of things you can say
Tbh you’ll see the point the more algebra u study
Thanks a lot
Allows you to describe the powerful ideal structure of a ring purely through the elements alone
no like, the quotient of two groups G/N is no longer actually well-defined.
I agree that you can technically prove anything you want without it, but the categories of rings and groups being nice is awesome and there's no reason to chuck that away
bro im trippin. Z -> Z/(2) x Z/(4)
Has kernel (2) cap (4) = (4). So Z/(4) is isomorphic to Z/(2) x Z/(4)?
y am i trippin
Ok because this is not true for groups right
Z4 is not isomorphic to Z2 x Z4 for groups?
nah i just know im doing something profusely wrong rn
2 cap 2 is 2
it's just not surjective
Also yeah not surjective bc gcd isn’t 1
1st isomorphism theorem tells you that Z/4 maps to Z/2 \times Z/4 but the value on the first factor is determined by the value on the second factor
so the map maps to a diagonal subgroup of the product which is isomorphic to Z/4Z
thanks'
i realize now that in the proof for crt they say IF the ideals are comaximal then ...
I should look at the proof for that
more closely
How do we know a-priori that the p-primary submodules are the same?
Is that just because M1 and M2 are isomorphic?
Any homomorphism has to send the p-primary part into the p-primary part cuz linear, and you apply that both directions on the isomorphism to see it restricts to an isomorphism of p-primary parts
ok yes
so lets say a p-primary part is like Ni = R/(p) x R/(p^2)
isnt R/(p) also a submodule of M? Why doesnt that correspond to the same submodule for M2 via the isomorphism?
I mean, it does (but if there’s multiple R/(p)’s you can’t say which)
But the point is that if the other guy was written as R/(p^3), there isn’t an isomorphism
If there were then you’d have an R/(p) submodule from that isomorphism, in fact a summand
But there is no R/(p) summand of R/(p^3), and as a result or “in fact”, no isomorphism from your Ni to R/(p^3)
Try writing out the proof as you want to do it and notice where you get stuck, or show the proof you wrote and have someone point out where you mess up
what is the "other guy"?
The p-primary part of M2 or whatever
I think until you do this you aren’t gonna get what I’m talking about
Because the statements you keep asking are vague
In some sense
Wouldnt it make more sense to say if the other guy was written as R/(p^2)? Because that has the same annihilator as R/(p) x R/(p^2) .
I am thinking that a p-primary submodule of M1 has annihilator (p^a), then the p-primary submodule of M2 is isomorphic so has same annihilator. But then the question is like, are their decompositions in M1 and M2 the same?
thx for the help btw i think im slowly understanding it a bit better
Only skimmed it so maybe some small details could be a little off but the broad strokes look good to me. Another fun exercise you could do is showing they’re both equivalent to the maximum condition if you were interested
maximum condition?
Any collection of non-empty ideals has a maximal element.
Your proof is good and you used details which can be modified a bit to prove that
Maximal element meaning one that contains all of these?
no that wouldn’t be true, the ideals could be comaximal
a maximal ideal is an ideal that can't be contained in another non-trivial ideal
Oh maximal as in that
Right
My bad I forgot that was a thing and defaulted maximal to like containment
no its fine normal thinking
For a proof for this, I can get if $R$ satisfies the maximal condition, it is ACC easily.
If $R$ satisfies the maximal condition, any chain $I_0 \subset I_1 \subset ...$ must have a maximal element realized as $I_i$ for some $i$, in which case it stabilizes at that. Conversely, if $R$ satisfies the ascending chain condition, consider any set $S$ of ideals that contains no maximal element. We should be able to build some chain of ideals of S, and if we can build a chain $I_0 \subset I_1 \subset ... I_k$, and then since $I_k$ isn't maximal by construction, we should be able to find $I_{k+1}$ to continue the chain?
marlins_karp
but the issue is I don't know how to force that chain to consist of elements entirely in S
You can't always take quotients of two groups, so idk what you are saying. And it is well defined
you always can if N is a normal subgroup of G
is 2 irreducible in Z[i]?
no
hint: square 1+i
that shows it's reducible
but I saw an exercise where "we will prove 2 is irreducible in Z[i]"
you just reduced it yeah
Yeah assuming dependent choice we can turn “finite strict inclusion chains only” into “every collection of ideals has a maximum element”
Note to self, investigate the following:
Say a commutative, totally ordered monoid $M$ is psuedonatural if for each $x < y$ there exists a $c$ such that $x + c > y$
Does the monoid ring $R[M]$ inherit the countable chain conditions (Artinian, Noetherian) from $R$?
shatgtp
I think the answer is yes. We can easily define the degree of an element based off of the largest monoid summand. We can define the equivalence relation ~ on the monoid ring where r_1 ~ r_2 if they have the same coefficient and leading degree, i.e have the same leading term.
We can then split an ideal J into these equivalence classes, and each equivalence class can be associated to a pair [a,m] where a is the leading coefficient and m is the monoid element.
For each m, the set of a such that [a, k] intersects J for each k <= m should form an ideal in R since if s in R[X] is [a,m] then we can lift it to any [a,k] for k > a by multiplying by the c given by psuedonaturality
Then we can use that map to try to squeeze an increasing chain in R[X]
Since obviously that map on the ideals would preserve the inclusion order, but would have to terminate in R, for each m
Call that map [J,m], then if we have a strict sequence of increasing ideals J_n, we should be able to show [J_n, m] terminates for each m
I’ll come back to this later I have more productive stuff to do
Don't think so, like if you take M to be the positive really numbers under addition, then the condition is satisfied just be taking c=y, but R[M] is very infinite, even when R is a field.
I think I need to impose a countable condition for a diagonal argument of of the ideal maps mentioned
I suspect the condition you want is that M is well-quasi-ordered (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Well-quasi-ordering). IIRC this is equivalent to Hilbert's Basis Theorem for the special case of an ideal generated by monomials.
Also you "shouldn't" expect the Artinian property to be inherited; for example, a polynomial ring over a field is not Artinian even though a field is.
Yeah I realized that later
I got something similar to that lol
I got something similar to that by considering a commutative ordered monoid ring over F_2 and seeing what happens to the principal ideals of the monoid elements
can i get a hint to show there are no simple groups of order 396
Decompose 396 into prime factors and create various constraints on how many subgroups of different orders there can be using Sylow's theorems.
If i have a module M and a submodule A, is there necessarily a submodule B such that the direct sum of A and B is M ?
Consider 2Z/4 as a submodule of Z/4
Some useful facts could be that if a group has n sylow subgroups, then the action gives a map to Sn.
And if P is a sylow subgroup, then the index of its normalizer equals the number of sylow subgroups.
A projective module cannot have any torsion elements right?
(assuming the base ring is an integral domain)
Yes, since it's a submodule of a free module.
Ok thx that what i was thinking
Hi gyus hope y'all good , does anyone have or know a math french group thnx
If a K-algebra is finitely generated, then is their a fixed size for all minimal sets of generators?
The group algebra KS_n over any field K is generated by the following minimal (by inclusion) generating sets:
- {(1 2), (2 3), ..., (n-1 n)},
- {(1 2), (1 2 3 ... n)}.
Let I be ideal in a ring R and J be ideal for R/I. Does J = {I + k | k is in K} for some ideal K in R?
So we write this as J = K/I
And yes, this is true. More importantly, there is a bijection {ideals of R/I} and {ideals of R containing I}.
Now go forth and prove it!
@chilly ocean hello!! ty for offering to help u dont know how confused i am rn lmao
Pick something
Are you in a first course for abstract, algebra
yes, the first course
my test is on groups and homomorphisms
i think i understand what a group is loosely enough?
here's an example of a question i just did, that stumped me and made me go to the notes
i just dont even get what T^-1 would even look like? the markscheme was so unhelpful, it just said "(a) by inspection"
Ok
You know these are elements of the symmetric group right
yep
You know how to write down the inverses?
no...
would the inverse be like, swapping them? so if 1 mapped to 2 would the inverse be 2 mapping to 1...?
No like remember that g*g^-1=e
Oh yeah that would be the inverse
The example you gave
But doing that for each element
Could I have some help with this?
It's for my abstract algebra but I'm not really seeing how abstract algebra topics really connect to this 😭
Any progress
I tried letting a = x^2 + y^2, b = m^2 + n^2 but I don't think that leads me anywhere
I also tried doing some examples but Im not seeing anything
Why not lol
I get ab = (xm)^2 + (xn)^2 + (ym)^n + (yn)^2
but how do I make this the sum of two squares
Is there more you can do there?
Factor maybe but doesn't that just give me back a and b?
Yeah you dont want that
You want to show that ab is a sum of two squares
So ab=q^2+p^2 where p and q are integers
so basically switching those 'rows' ?
Add in 2(xymn) - 2(xymn)
Yeah kinda but you need to go through each element
Have you heard of cycle notation?
Then you have that ab = (xm+yn)^2 + (xn-ym)^2
yep, like (1 2 3)
but idk how to find the inverse
actually, is the inverse of (1 2 3), (1 3 2)?
Nah you read it backwards
So like (1 2 3) is one goes to two and two goes to three and three goes to one
If you want the reverse you have 3 goes to 2 goes to 1 goes to 3
yeah, so doesnt (1 3 2) do the opposite?
ohh does it have to go in this order
(3 2 1)?
Nah it doesnt matter its the same thing
I didn’t recognize it at first
okok
if its not in cycle notation, and its in like that weird table matrix form, doesnt swapping the 'rows' work, when finding the inverse?
Id say try it
Oh wait my bad interpretting
For sure swapping the rows would work but when we write that two line notation we want the first row to be in order
So swapping the rows doesnt do that and you have to reorder which takes more work than cycle notation
do u think its better to convert it into cycle notation and then find the inverse
Yeah because sorting takes longer
okay lemme try that
okay i put tau into a cycle of (1 2 3 8 7 6 5)
and then im confused bcs if i want to do the opposite, cant i just write it backwards?
so like, (5 6 7 8 3 2 1)
?
Ye
Also I think putting the one 1st is standard maybe?
Maybe it's worth saying this explicitly
(1 2 3) = (2 3 1) = (3 1 2).
Maybe this is why you were confused about writing it backwards. You can, but there are other ways to write it.
Yea
i seeeeee
okok i think ive got inverses understood now, how did they spot the answer here was A using inspection? it feels lke magic
They just calculated it
so like, take 1 e.g., sigma first so 1 maps to 3, then through tau^-1, 3 maps to 2?
did theycalculate it like that
Sure
then how does that (2 3 1) cycle show that?
1 → 3, 3 → 2
but (2 3 1) is the opposite no?
(2 3 1) sends 1 to 2.
(2 3 1) = (1 2 3).
Function composition is right-to-left usually, but some authors disagree. However cycles are always left-to-right.
(1 2 3) sends 1 to 2, 2 to 3, and 3 to 1.
is there any easy way to tell what the potential stabilizers for some group action is? For example in this problem, its not super hard to just check each: 1) stable under every element so |Gx| = 6, |O| = 1, then check proper subsets, |Gx| = 2,3, then then only identity |Gx| = 1, |orbit| = 6. But if the group has a high order I dont see an easy way to figure it out.
I'm not aware of anything that makes it easy. Perhaps the computational algebraists have some wild tricks, but they're probably not useful for humans.
This seems like a tedious exercise to me.
is there a mistake here? shouldn't N be isomorphic to just Z mod 2?
Yes there is definitely a mistake, Z_4 x Z_2 is not cyclic
And I agree, it should be isomorphic to Z_2.
I can't even find small perturbations of the question that are correct lol
e.g. <x^2, y^2> would just be Z/2 x Z/2 I guess
yes it should be G/N
Ahhhh indeed
Ah that makes more sense lol
What a world it would be if 4 was coprime to 2..
Lol
In a question like 12
Are we taking V (x) V as a vector space over F?
So V has a (F,F) bimodule structure in the usual way?
Do we just assume that?
When taking tensor products over any commutative ring R, one typically assumes that all R-modules are (R, R)-bimodules with the left and right actions being the same. In this case, r ⋅ (m (⨯) n) = r⋅m (⨯) n = m (⨯) r⋅n = m (⨯) n⋅r = (m (⨯) n) ⋅ r, so the same is true of the tensor products. So you can view the tensor product as multiplying R-modules to give R-modules and forget about bimodules.
(You have to be careful about this when (and AFAIK only when) there are already bimodules with different left and right actions.)
Thanks
And im a bit stuck on this question anyway. What should be the approach when starting with v x v’ = v’ x v?
Personally, I'd try decomposing in terms of a basis for V; that's helpful for concluding anything from an equality in a tensor product.
Usually the most convenient way to deal with tensor products is through the universal property.
If you can find a bilinear map such that (v, v') and (v', v) are mapped different places, then they can't be equal in the tensor product.
Since V x V is a vector space you can use a basis argument there right?
Yes, but I more specifically mean a basis of the form {e_i (⨯) e_j : i, j in I} where {e_i : i in I} is a basis for V.
Is Wedderburn-Artin really an if and only if? Specifically curious about whether a semisimple ring has no nilpotent ideals
Here's how it appears in my textbook
Every nilpotent is in every prime ideal, if R is artinian then it’s semi simple if and only if its Jacobson radical is 0 so I think that works?
I see, so the reverse direction is also true? I'm confused by the fact that the conclusion "R is isomorphic to a finite direct sum of matrix rings over division rings" seem much stronger than "R is semisimple"
We need Artinian-ness
iirc
Actually no i think that's to pass from a trivial J radical
You can still decompose endomorphisms over a finite direct sum of modules
I think your underestimating the strength of being semisimple.
One easy way to see this direction is assume R is semi-simple, then R = Sum_i Si^ni for some simple modules Si.
Consider End_R(R), in general for any ring this is equal to R, but
End( Sum Si^ni ) = Prod End(Si^ni) because Hom(Si, Sj) = 0
and End(Si^ni) = Mni(End(Si)) and End(Si) is a division ring by schurs lemma
Is this not basically just the proof of artin wedderburn?
It's a proof of one direction at least
Actually wait if we have two R-modules that are NOT isomorphic then is the endomorphism ring of their direct sum the direct sum of the endomorphism rings of them respectively?
No, you can still have homomorphisms between modules if they're not isomorphic.
(but not if they're simple)
oh what does simplicity have to do with it
I was doing 2b by using R/m is a field but i dont want to do that. What is the more basic way?
I feel like ive seen this question before idk
Because simple modules don't have nontrivial submodules...
oh wait yeah doh,
brain fart
Assume that there is no such r, what can you say about the ideal (x) + m?
I guess worth noting that commutativity is irrelevant
(assuming ideal means left ideal)
Actually it's needed for the r not in m part. So I guess not completely irrelevant
Thanks. That makes sense
additional exercise, show the following are equivalent:
- R is a division ring
- R is left-simple, i.e no nontrivial left ideals
- R is right-simple, i.e no nontrivial right ideals
Somethign like that was what i was trying to get to
You can also bullshit a bit and say that R is a simple right-module over itself, so thus it's endomorphism ring (itself) is a division ring
m maximal makes (x)+m = m and then u get a contradiction cause you’d get 1 is in m
The fact that I’ve felt vaguely confidence that I could answer the last two questions asked in here is making me feel good about my upcoming exams
The noncom exam could still be hellish but we move
Interesting, I think I get the idea, but not 100% sure about the details
What is Si^ni? The ni-fold product of Si by itself? And Sum and Prod is the direct sum and product respectively, right? And it is different because you could have infinitely many non-zero components of End(Si^ni)?
what are you guys on in noncomm rn
Well, the sum/product is finite in each case. I just think it's weird to talk about a "sum of rings"
Course finished last week, it’s exam time now. Last thing we covered was Berstiens ineq and defined holonomic modules
So I guess that's technically a missing step, proving that the sum is finite.
But it just follows from R being finitely generated (generated by 1)
I’m currently trying very hard to revise the localisation section but it just absolutely does not interest me unfortunately
bernstien ineq in alg?
The man’s prolific, but yeah it gives a lower bound on the dimension of modules over the Weyl algebra
I see, thanks 🙏 and I just learned that semisimple rings are Artinian, so I guess that answers my question 
IG you mean that Artinian rings need not be semisimple?
\newcommand*{\End}{\operatorname{End}} \newcommand*{\Hom}{\operatorname{Hom}} $\End(M \oplus N)$ is the ring of matrices of the form $\begin{psmallmatrix} A & B \ C & D \end{psmallmatrix}$, where $A \in \End(M)$, $D \in \End(N)$, $B \in \Hom(N, M)$, and $C \in \Hom(M, N)$ (where matrices are multiplied by the usual formula but composing entries instead of multiplying them). This contains $\End(M) \times \End(N)$ as the subring of ``diaogonal'' matrices, but is larger unless $\Hom(M, N) = \Hom(N, M) = 0$ (which is at least true if $M, N$ are non-isomorphic simple modules by Schur's Lemma, but in general is very false).
Raghuram
Maybe? Am I getting something confused?
Semisimple ⇔ Artinian + (Jacobson radical = 0), I believe.
I know if R is Artinian then semisimple iff J(R)=0 is true
I just read this on wikipedia:
Actually yes I’m being very dumb
My reasoning for being dumb is even wrong, but yes no that is kinda trivial to show, maybe time for a study break
You can't be dumber than me, I have no idea what I'm doing 
Don’t worry I’m sure if you scroll back in this chat a few weeks you’ll find me being similarly confused by much of the same stuff
Localization seemed cool to me
Havent learned it much yet though
Thats when u “add in” fractions or smth right
It gets rid of prime ideals or sooomething
It seems interesting
Yes
Localisation is cool in the commutative case because it a) just works and b) is useful
In the non commutative case it’s just a headache and not, to the best of my knowledge, anywhere near as useful lol
For commutative rings it’s chill but for noncomm you want your “fractions” to be of the form rs^{-1} for a given set S right
I.e $(r_1 s_1^{-1})(r_2 s_2^{-1})= r_3 s_3^{-1}$ so we have some sense of closure right, but that needs some form of bastardized normality on the set s
shatgtp
This guy uses right Ore sets, oh brother
Objectively better stfu
is higman's embedding theorem also true of semigroups
The term "semisimple artinian ring" is weird considering semisimple rings are artinian. I'm guessing, like most terminology in this book, it's non-standard?
Determine all ring isomorphism from Z/nZ to itself.
Let 1 maps to a, a in Z/nZ then for ring isomorphism a must be generator and a^2 = a.
Since a is generator so a^-1 exists so we can get a = 1.
There is only 1 mapping, right?
I want to prove that identity is the only ring automorphism of R.
Now here I am aware of the Cauchy- functional equation so I need to prove that the mapping is continuous.
How can I show that?
I already saw this one a few months ago on MSE so the idea is order preserving here
But I don't know how to use that ?
Is that all it is?
Is the proof for 6 like:
Assume (i)
Take D an R-module. If we show every ses with D at the start is split then D is injective:
For some ses
0 -> D -> M -> N -> 0
N is projective so it is split
Its the same thing for (ii) -> (i) right
My class also tended to talk about semi simple Artinian rings, but I think more so because we were generally talking about Artinian rings in that chapter
So it’s not entirely non standard
I see, thanks 
why are there no semi simple algebra in dimension 2? read it in my tutor's comments on my work. tried to look it up but i dont get it
Do you mean semi simple lie algebra perhaps?
oops yes i meant lie algebra
I guess, pick a basis x, y
Then show that the span of [x, y] must be an ideal.
To show Q[√ 2] is not ring isomorphic to Q[√ 5].
Idea: there is x in Q[√ 5] such that x^2 = 5 but this is not case in Q[√ 2].
Say f be the ring isomorphic mapping then f(5) = 5, but f(x)^2 = 5, but f(x) in Q[ √2], contradiction.
Correct?
i would use Q[sqrt 5] iso Q[x]/(x^2 - 5) and Q[sqrt 2] iso Q[x]/(x^2 - 2), then show a separate little lemma that for any ring A and ideals I,J in A, we have A/J iso A/I iff I = J
and of course (x^2 - 5) is not equal (x^2 - 2)
oop but i'm not actually sure if that lemma is true ehehe
I’m fairly certain it’s not
that would be a pretty good reason for why i am failing to find a proof for it, but that is also very likely to be as i'm just bad at math 
Yeah no you can have R/I \cong R/J with I neq J in the noncom case for sure
I’m not sure about the case for commutative rings though, then it might be true
I feel like noncommutatice algebra would be really hard to gain intuition for
It’s too late for me to think about it much, but as stated it’s definitely not true
There’s a reason I’ve averaged about 5 hours per homework question!
About 120 hours on hand ins for a class that’s supposed to be 100 hours of work total including teaching reading etc lol
It’s fun though, there’s just kinda more to say and different ideas than go into to commutative rings. I like those too though I’ve did a decent bit of combinatorial comalg for my UG project and it’s been really fun
ah yep not even true in the commutative case i think i have a counterexample one sec
yeah take simply A = Z x Z, and I = ((0,1)), J = ((0,1))
Oh yea combinatorial comm alg? Did you learn stanley-reisner theory?
Yeah looked at Stanley Reisner rings a good bit, it’s really cool, definitely something I’d be interested in doing more with
we have A/I iso A/J iso Z, but I neq J... here still I iso J but i guess there might be counterexample where the ideals are not even isomorphic
Im gonna be doing a project in that too this year
Ive only learned the basic ideas so far but i havent gone into details
Well I presume you’ve already come across them but Miller and Strumfels Combinatorial Comalg is fantastic as is Herzogs monomial ideals
Hm i might not have actually
I was just looking at intro papers
Not really textbooks yet
Miller and Strumfels starts out quite gently, there isn’t really too much prerq knowledge needed until like section 1.5 where you might need to dip out and learn some homological algebra
I see
But if you’re fine with like resolutions, free and projective modules, gradings and simplical homology you’ve got like everything you need for that book
Herzogs book is considerably less gentle, but is also very nice, a touch terse at times but not too much so
This is also true in the commutative case
Take a polynomial ring k[x1,...,xn] with k algebraically closed
The quotient by any maximal ideal is isomorphic to k
a counterexample with noniso ideals is A = Z/(2) x Z/(4), I = ((1,0)) + ((0,2)) iso Z/(2) x Z/(2) and J = ((0,1)) iso Z/(4), but A/I iso Z/(2) iso A/J
Oh god yeah haha the obvious example is really the hardest to spot
Yeah I think the because the example I had in mind for the noncom case was slightly involved I was over complicating that but I also didn’t really think about it much because it’s bed time
i have said so many stupid things lately 
I think it’s a perfectly reasonable thing to assume would be true
It just unfortunately quite catastrophically isn’t lol
It's true as R-modules: I = Ann_R(R/I) (for two-sided ideals of a general ring as well).
But once you go to one-sided ideals, it's false: M_n(k) for k a field has many maximal ideals (one for each codimension-1 subspace of k^n) and all the quotients are isomorphic to k^n as M_n(k)-modules.
Isn't this an unnecessary use of Wedderburn-Artin? F is a field, and therefore simple, and FxF is isomorphic to F \oplus F, so it is semisimple basically by definition. Have I misunderstood something?
this is such overkill, the ONLY ideals of this ring are (0,F) and (F,0) lmao
It's not exactly the same thing. F is a field and hence simple as an F-module, but you also need it to be simple as an (F ⨯ F)-module. Which it is, but note that the first and second F factors are non-isomorphic simple (F ⨯ F)-modules.
But yes, it is very elementary that F ⨯ F is a semisimple ring.
$\Bbb R$-linear ring homomorphism $f:\Bbb C$ $\to M_n(\Bbb R)$
spiritedcaveman
can i get any hint about the structure or anything
i mean what would be the constraints for the the matrix entries and how
whats the motivation behind such construction ?
Well mutliplication by a complex number z = a + bi
Is better thought of in polar coordinates
say z = re^itheta
Then it corresponds to scaling everything by r and rotating by theta
So if you consider multiplication by a complex number as a linear map on C = R^2, it’s a rotation matrix composed with a scalar matrix
Rotation matrices are exactly of the form
[ cos theta, -sin theta ]
[ sin theta, cos theta]
That’s exactly right
lol yeah it happens
same thing happened to me on a problem i was working on yesterday its just a matter of practice
i mean, jesus christ its never the case that i need a material from another galaxy for most of teh hardest(apparently) problems
its something so vivid and you know it, but for christ's sake it will be in your blind sight
This may be a hard question to answer, if its even well posed, but why do we require a sufficiently large sum for the Hilbert polynomial? Looking through the proof in my notes im struggling to see exactly where we use that s>>0 (upper bound on the sum). I have also seen that there is a more general formula that works for all s using the Euler characteristic, but this seems to discuss a lot about sheafs and the like which I've never really looked at, so whats the difference here?
I appreciate this is maybe a bit of a vague and ill posed question which possibly has an answer I'm not equipped to understand but 
What is the definition of Hilbert polynomial?
The >>0 condition comes from the d=0 case (r=0 in the screenshot) only (and it "propagates" via induction)
@elfin wraith
like if you take d=0 and a vector space, if it were a polynomial for all s you would have h_M(s)=0 for all s, which need not be true
This is what Eisenbud says for small values, maybe try reading it. Idk this so can't help
Thanks that’s helpful, I’ll maybe take a look at Eisenbud and see what he has to say!
Ah yeah that actually was helpful, the proof via the syzygy theorem is a bit more enlightening imo (but outside the scope of my course so I see why we didn’t go that route!)
let f in Z[x] with odd integer coefficients and even degree. Then f(x) has no rational zeroes.
let p/q be the zero of f, then both must be odd since coefficients are odd.
now we have f(p/q) mod 2 = 0, since q is odd and all coefficent are odd and even degree so it gives 1 = 0mod2, which is not possible.
correct?