#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 291 of 1
in part c here, how do I know that H is a subgroup of N(H)? I don't see how I can impose additional structure onto it
is H contained in N(H)?
yes because cosets are partitions so aH=Ha for all a in H right?
I see now
ty
what I said here made no sense but I figured it out
Let $R_3$ be a field such as $\mathbb{Q}$ or $\mathbb{Z}_{17}$. Prove that $R_3$ is an integral domain.
If I want to prove that this is an integral domain, how would I show that for every $a,b \in R_3 \setminus {0_R}$, $ab \neq 0_R$.
Devin ☆
I think this works, although I have been through several revisions of the proof.
The second line should have langle rangle instead of curly braces
By definition, a field is a commutative ring whose units are its nonzero elements. The product of two units has to be a unit, but 0 isn't a unit, so...
if G is a simple group of order 1/2 n!, must G be isomorphic to A_n?
Sorry, I missed the word “simple”. But time to check the classification of finite simple groups, I guess.
i want to prove that if G has odd order, x^2=a has a unique solution for all a in G
this is my process so far, I wanted to prove it with cosets
H={g^2|g in G}
[G:H]=2 because if a not in H, there is aH and H
so G has element of order 2 and that's bad
but is it true that [G:H]=2 or is the direction of my proof just bogus
H is not a subgroup if G is not abelian
hint: use ||lagrange||
solution: ||say x^2=a=y^2 has order k, odd. then x^2k=e. because G has odd order, order of x divides k. if the order of x is l then a^l=e hence k=l. similarly y has order k. now suppose k+1=2m (remember k is odd). then raising each side to mth power we get x=a^m=y.||
for my hw. I've done parts 1 and 2, I'm struggling with part 3 (both directions)
well aHbH = bHaH iff abH = baH right
try right multiplying both sides by (baH)^-1
so that I get (aba^-1b^-1)H = H?
am I able to conclude aba^-1b^-1 = 1 from that?
I got abH = baH but I wasn't sure about that move
How do we get to \sum x^i being the minimum polynomial?
oh its the cyclotomic polynomial
ups
17 is prime
$xH = H$ iff $x \in H$ and in your case $x = [a,b]$
mycroftholmes1703
My head hurts when I try to prove this. Let $R$ be a commutative ring with a $1$, then why $N(R) = \sqrt{0}$, where $N(R)$ denotes the intersection of all prime ideals of $R$. One inclusion is obvious, because $\sqrt{0} \subset P$ for any prime ideal $P$, but the other Inclusion I just can't prove it
J_U_V3
It’s the more involved direction. You’d want to use Krull’s separation lemma to show that if an element isn’t nilpotent then there is a prime ideal not containing it
assuming choice, how many field maps are there R -> C
The maps such that ℂ is algebraic over the image are in bijection with the left cosets of {id, conjugation} in Aut(ℂ), of which there are a lot - |ℝ|^|ℝ|. Since this is even equal to the cardinality of the set of functions from ℝ to ℂ, the answer is as many as there are functions from ℝ to ℂ.
oh wow, I knew there were a lot of wild automorphisms but I didn't know it was that many
It's surprisingly straightforward to prove - just take a transcendence basis of ℂ and consider permuting its elements. I don't think even a single automorphism other than the obvious two can be constructed without any choice though 💀.
what group could correspond to switching of elements in a function? For instance switching $\phi_1$ with $phi_2$ in a function $$\partial_\mu \phi_1 ^\dagger \partial^\mu \phi_1 + \partial_\mu \phi_2^\dagger \partial^\mu \phi_2 - V[\phi_1^\dagger \phi_1 + \phi_2^\dagger \phi_2].$$. This is for some physics work but I am feeling very dumb trying to remember what this would correspond to
PSCell
Hmm uhh
I mean im sure other ppl could help u out better, im just an early grad student but like
You are wanting to define a group action im assuming?
Im trying to find the group that this would correspond to.
Any group corresponds to some permutation
wouldn't it be something like the symmetric group?
Wait maybe it is just S_2 since thats the permutation group
but this is sort of a vague question
That makes a lot of sense
Yeah i guess ur right if u just want a swapping action
Sorry for the dumb question!
No dumb questions
Im curious how you implement that though
What is the purpose here? Just kind of curious what ur doing
Why do u need to involve groups to do that swapping thing
I dont study physics so im not really sure how groups are utilized precisely but group actions and modelling symmetries makes sense
Oki
Any nontrivial solution to x^p = e would be an element of order p right? Since p is prime the order of x cant be less than p
So when it says “the number of solutions to x^p = e is a multiple of p” that means there are a multiple of p elements that have order p?
Also, the proof for this was so cool. I hadn’t seen group actions in … “action” (lol) to prove things before
p or 1
I dint get it
Oh nvm ur saying im correct right
Order 1 yes , ignoring the identity
The number of solutions is a multiple of p only if you include the identity
so its incorrect to say there are a multiple of p elements that have order p
so are there a multiple of p - 1 elements of order p then? lol
No
There are a number which is congruent to -1 mod p
(which crucially implies it is a nonzero number, by the way)
I dont really get it yet
if there are qp solutions to x^p = e, only one of them would be e, so every other element should have order p right
so why cant i say there are qp-1 elements of order p
oh i see what happened lol, when i said that originally i did mean qp-1 elements of order p
but it was ambiguous the way i said it
thanks
Ah yeah i see
@somber badge my friend did an example of the argument for n=m=3, it generalizes ez enough
I finished problem 3 part i here but I'm struggling with part ii. I see that I can say either Z3 or Z5 are normal subgroups of Z15, hence is H is the inverse image of those normal subgroups, we find the quotient group G/H is isomorphic to both Z15/Z3 and Z15/Z5. Where do I go fromthere?
Can I conclude that the inverse images must have order 3 and 5 and so the indices are 5 and 3 respectively?
you cannot
you can conclude their indexes are the same though
since G/H = G'/H'
oh right, because the index is the number of distinct members of the quotient group
thank you
Was working on determining the symmetry group for a Lagrangian for two complex scalar fields. Very helpful in early quantum field theory
Nice.
I have a few questions
this is the representation I was able to make
I am wondering, if it is a valid representation
and then secondly, I am confused about how to verify if it is, or is not, irreducible?
@digital seal hii
presumably you wrote down the "obvious" D_8 action on R^2 right
yes
your professor is wrong
yes I know
i'm just gonna assume your representation is correct
do you have any theorems about irreducible reps?
or do you just have to verify it manually
hm
Maschkes theorem I think
that's probably not enough
would it be if I just let each element in D8 coorespond to th ematrix that does that symmetry
yes
Do you have a theorem in mind
i do
have you done any character theory
yes
okay do you know how to compute the character for this representation
yes
there's a theorem that states the character has norm 1 iff the rep is irreducible
no that's uh
not a coherent statement 
irreducibility is a property of the representation
okay you can use that
you need to compute the character for the representation and sum it
yes
ok
it's a group homomorphism
and the character of that is the sum of their traces? or I guess I am probably not understanding the character
yes
well "sum"
look up the definition of the inner product and calculate the inner product of your character with itself
I know what an inner product is but what is the relevant inner product here?
it'll be a sum of chi(g) chi(g^-1) divided by |G|
yes
my freaking sir...
how are you surviving in this class
💀

I think I have like 90% on the HW?
which is the other 50%
and then
I might be fucked
but I am trying
you see

is this the same class as the one you were talking about before
where you did the Ext and Tor functors
so I do this, and if the sum is 1 then its irreducible. Say I do this, and the sum isn't 1, then my representation was bad (which could easily be the case since I just picked the most basic one that came to mind) what then should I do?
Yes, same class
all of everything I post is the same class
bruh momento
we did module theory category theory now rep theory
I think we are going through all of d&F in like 1 quarter
skull
uh it should be fine
why?
because i'm pretty sure this representation is irreducible
yes
great
there are a number of ways to find all the representations
you should refer to your notes for those
fulton and harris
more generally if the subring A[b] sits inside a finitely generated A-submodule C that is also a subgring of B then b is integral over A, for then if c1, ... , cn generate C over A, then multiplication by b, regarded as an A-module map from C to itself, admits a matrix M with respect to the c_i

this matrix satisfies its characteristic polynomial, which is monic, by the cayley hamilton theorem, whence multiplication by b and b itself satisfy the same polynomial
whence
by b and b itself
you think I fuckign know the main point of any of these slides?


he gets freaky in this slide
the main point of this slide is much clearer
when bro admits in the slide the explanation is rough you know it is bad because rough is generous even for the explanations that he thinks are goood
oh my god
god damn
those slides look more painful than decrypting burned up papyrus from pompei
im so fucked u have NO ideea
what’s the topic (if you know lol 😂)
of that slide???
of the course
the composition problem
whatever the fuck that means
he said "i mention the composition problem" so I belive him..
but idk what that is outside of this "rough" explanation
lol
so far module, category, and rep theory
maybe try picking up the reference book
this is shocking
or just any book

i mostly read d&f
but it doesnt help because i cant read it all in 1 day
like he expects
nobody can 💀
for the homeworks?
I usually spend all week trying to do the 3 he assigns and get like 1 or 2 done
I hate you
compared to my fields medalist last semester who probably put at most 5 minutes into writing each lecture note page
imagine getting slides
so true
lol that’s true
notes? what are those
damn
i only know to copy down from the blackboard
indeed
copy.. you mean understand 
no i mean copy
sad
I hate copying everything the teacher says
usually I try to active recall at home
understanding comes naturally
yeah same
I mean like
I just look at these notes
and
it is like
what do they call it
osmosis
it seeps into me
so you mean the acid trip seeps into you ?
if i don't copy, im not gonna have a copy
this course is y i wont get into grad school
but it is ok
because it is very funny
to online strangers to see my lecture notes
#worth it
you can return to your linalg study group once you're done
and view it in a new light
I am takign linalg next quarter actually
thats exciting
with a non insane profe
so it will be good
b4 we get too far gone
this sum is called the character of the rep?
and the overline(d(g)) is the character of g^(-1)?
oh god snow is gone
no
(c, d) is the inner product of c and d
overline d(g) is the complex conjugate of d(g)
you can prove that it's equal to d(g^-1)
oh but we are taking (c,c)
yes
so it will be the sum over |c(g)|^2

interesting font lmao
> 6x + 3
> reducible in Z[x] as it factors as 3(2x+1)
> irreducible in Q[x], as 3 is a unit

sometimes i feel too many words
Somewhat decent mnemonic for gauss's lemma for polynomials tho
Irreducibility in Z[X] is stronger than irr. in Q[X]. The missing piece is being primitive
Having trouble finding where the left S-module structure on S (x) N needed that “compatibility” relation
To me it looked like that compatibility relation was only needed so that a homomorphism from N into S (x) N worked, not that the compatibility relation was needed to define a left S action on it
The context in that paragraph was that they started the tensor product with a special case in that S is a ring, and R is a subring of S
The “extension of scalars” tensor product case
You define s'(s⊗n)=(s's)⊗n, but you then need [s'(sr)⊗n] = s'[(sr)⊗n] = s'[s⊗(rn)] = (s's)⊗(rn)=[(s's)r]⊗n
Where s,s' ∈ S, r ∈ R and n ∈ N
(here the first and third equality follow from the way you defined the S-module structure, the other two are from the R-tensor product structure)
I think i see it better now thanks
It has been very tricky for me to understand exactly where each part of tensor product structure is used where and why it is defined that way
Ok so you need that compatibility so that the S-action on S x N is well defined
I think I’m just being kinda dumb here, but why is J(R/J(R))=0 for any ring R?
It’s the intersection of all maximal (left or right) ideals of R/J(R) which by the correspondence theorem are maximal ideals of R which contain J(R) but I don’t see why this is generally just 0?
I think I’m just getting a bit lost in all the inclusions there but I’m not seeing it
the correspondence theorem is definitely the thing to do.
You want to know J(R/J(R))? Intersect all maximal ideals of R/J(R), which corresponds to intersecting all maximal ideals of R containing J(R), which is just intersecting all maximal ideals again (since every maximal ideal contains J(R)), so this intersection recovers J(R) inside R, which corresponds to 0 in R/J(R)
Oh god yeah of course, it’s just the fact that we’re quotienting out by J(R)
Thank you! Been staring at that for far too long
haha yeah no problem!
Trying to prove the Hopkins-Levitsky theorem and getting stuck worryingly early there
Got confused by this before. Im not sure why this is not a group homomorphism.
i((m1,n1)+(m2,n2)) doesnt equal m1 (x) n1 + m2 (x) n2?
correct, they are not equal
why?
What does i((m1,n1)+(m2,n2)) even map to?
i cant figure out what it maps to just based on the formula for i given
being linear in each argument should have you do something like “foiling” from high school, or distributing
so i((m1,n1) + (m2,n2)) = i((m1+m2,n1+n2))
since that’s the group structure on the product M x N
really?? I thought (m1,n1) + (m2,n2) cant be simplified further. I thought M x N was a free Z-module with basis (mi,ni)
ohh yeah I think they have separate notation for that free group
M x N should denote the product of groups, no free group shenanigans
I’ve seen people write something like F(M x N) to be the free group on this set
I’m not sure what notation your book uses
In your text they say that they map from MxN to the free group then to the tensor product.
So i is the composition
MxN -> F(MxN) -> M(x)N
oh so the i: M x N -> M tensor N is not even considering M x N as a group, just a set?
Yeah
so i( (m1,n1)+(m2,n2)) wouldnt even make sense to write?
Well MxN does have a group structure, hence why they're saying that i isn't linear
But yeah, best to just think of MxN as a set
saying i isnt linear is referring to a group structure on M x N that is NOT the free Z-module structure on M x N
right?
If you are considering the map from the free Z-module to the quotient, that SHOULD be a group homomorphism, shouldnt it? isnt that just the projection map?
To be clear, M x N doesn’t have a “free Z-module structure”. The free Z-module on M x N is an entirely different (and very huge) abelian group. For example, for m,0 in M x N, we have also 2m,0 in M x N. Then, 2(m,0) and (2m,0) give different elements in the free Z-module, which I’ll denote F(M x N). As a set, it is much larger than the cartesian product M x N.
But to your other point, yes, i is not linear when we equip the cartesian product M x N with the usual group structure.
On the other hand, the map from F(M x N) -> M (x) N is linear, and it is the projection map as you said.
So, the problem here is exactly the M x N -> F(M x N) is not linear (otherwise i would be a composition of linear maps).
yea that makes more sense, thx
yeah no problem!
Let $f: G \to G'$ be a group homomorphism, let $H'$ be a normal subgroup of $G'$ and let $H = f^{-1}(H')$.
[\begin{tikzcd}
G & {G'} \
{f^{-1}(H')} & {H'}
\arrow[from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow[from=2-1, to=1-1]
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=2-2, to=1-2]
\end{tikzcd}] Then $f^{-1}(H')$ is normal in $G$ [proof cut out]. We then obtain a homomorphism [G \to G' \to G'/H'] composing $f$ with the canonical map of $G'$ onto $G'/H'$ and the kernel of this composite is $H$. Hence we get an injective homomorphism [\overline f: G/H \to G'/H'] \hr \ My question is: why do we need to include that $f^{-1}(H')$ is normal in $G$? It doesn't seem to be used at all.
I think to write G/H you need H to be normal in G, as only quotienting by a normal subgroup gives a groupstructure on the quotient.
But since H was identified as the kernel of the map, you automatically get for free that H is normal in G
Ah, I was thinking it's enough for H to be a subgroup. Do you know off the top of your head which group axiom fails when making it a not-normal subgroup? And yeah, from H = f^(-1)(H') it should right away follow that the kernel of G' -> G'/H' is H, so the proof is kinda unnecessary
The proof is only unecessary if you know that kernels are normal subgroups!
The condition that the subgroup is normal is exactly whats required to make the group operation in the quotient well defined.
As in: If you think about what is required that the group operation in that quotient is well defined it pops out that your group has to be normal
The proof is only unecessary if you know that kernels are normal subgroups!
Yeah, I do
As in: If you think about what is required that the group operation in that quotient is well defined it pops out that your group has to be normal
Ah
Yeah that's reasonable, since for *: (G/H, G/H) -> G/H we want xHxH to be in G/H and that is fulfilled when xHx = H
Thanks
Realsing theres something im a bit unsure of, Im working on a proof of the Hopkins-Levistky theorem and ive just shown that J(R)^n/J(R)^{n+1} is noetherian, but im actually quite unsure of what J(R)^0 is, would it be all of R? From the definition of the product ideal I really cant think of a reasonable definition of what this should be
Sorry, I think the last thing I said here is incorrect
The main reason I think it could potentially just be R is that knowing R/J is noetherian would be somewhat helpful for me right now
I think I^0 = R for an ideal I is reasonable.
you think about what is required that the group operation in that quotient is well defined it pops out that your group has to be normal
Can you elaborate please?
Im dyslexic
Chill
Is there any reason for I^0=R? I cant really think of a great reason for that beyond the fact that it makes this chain I have rn work
I mean, I^n is supposed to be the n-fold product of ideals, so you want
I^n I^m = I^n+m
Let G be a group and H a subgroup. There is a multiplication on G/H such that the quotient map G → G/H respects multiplication and sends the identity to an identity iff H is normal (in fact, just sending the identity to an identity forces H to be normal).
Ah yeah of course
If I is generated by a set S, then I^n is generated by all n-fold products of elements of S. For n = 0, this means that I^0 should be generated by the empty product, which should be 1.
And this.
Sick, massivley helpful for what im trying to do, proving this theorem has taken me far longer than it reasonably should have
Although, if you have proved J(R)^n/J(R)^{n+1} is Noetherian, you should look at that proof when n = 0 and see what it assumes J(R)^n to be in that case.
Im thinking it should be R, im trying to show that R is Noetherian, so im guessing that having R/J is Noetherian is probably helpful
my proof that J^n/J^n+1 also doesnt really make use of the powers of n anyway, just that its an R/J module
Well, R/J is an R/J-module
So if you define J^0 = R, J^0/J^1 = R/J is an R/J-module
(This is related to wanting J^m J^n ⊆ J^{m+n} for all m, n; taking m = 1, it gives us J J^n ⊆ J^{n+1}, so that J^n/J^{n+1} is an R/J-module. So you want J J^n ⊆ J^{n+1} for n = 0 as well.)
But i get the feeling that I should be using the fact that the jacobson radical of a artinian ring is nilpotent somewhere so im slightly unsure of my argument that J^n/J^n+1 is noetherian tbh
just sending the identity to an identity forces H to be normal
With the canonical map, e gets sent to eH and we want e to be in H if that is supposed to be the identity. So we want eH = H and He = H, thus eHe = H.
Does that look reasonable?
Is e the identity or an arbitrary element?
e is the identity on G
Ok, this still didn't prove that H is normal though
(mainly because when its proven in the notes it mentions its a helpful lemma for hopkins levitsky and im yet to make use of it, only thought is that we now know J^{m-1} is Noetherian for some m but im not sure how this helps)
OK nvm it has to preserve multiplication as well
I think we can leave out the identity mapping to identity then? That just makes it a homomorphism
Yeah, that follows from preserving multiplication (since the map is surjective).
The Jacobson radical of a semisimple ring is 0 soooo
The map being surjective is irrelevant, no? It preserving multiplication makes it a group homomorphism and implies f(e) = e
yeah oops, added semisimple for no reason there, 0 is certainly nilpotent though so I guess what is said isnt wrong
If you know that the codomain is a group, yes. If the codomain is a monoid, not necessarily. (Consider n ↦ n+1 on ℕ with the max as the binary operation.)
Yeah
So, we have f(xy) = f(x)f(y). First, f(xy) = xyH = f(x)f(y) = xHyH. Thus yH = HyH = Hy. and so yHy^(-1) = H and this implies H is normal, since y was arbitrary.
Does my last justification look reasonable?
Thanks
The more I think about it, I dont think R/J(R) is actually interesting here, im not sure that in general J(R) should be Noetherian but im not seeing how I go from J^n/J^n+1 is Noetherian to R is noetherian
If I localize a integral domain at an element and then take the fraction field, it should be isomorphic to just taking the fraction field in the first place, right?
Yes exactly, in fact this is a general fact about localisations which is a good exercise from the definitions
(The general fact being that if you have two subsets S \subset T then A[S^-1][T^-1] = A[T^-1])
Regarding the last part, I agree that we can get an injective homomorphism $f: G/H \to G'$, but why can $f:G/H \to G'/H'$ be injective?
Okay thanks, will do. From the definitions meaning they both satisfy the same universal property?
Since H is the kernel of f and f: G/H -> G´/H´ maps g+H to f(g)+H´ then f(g)+H´=0 if f(g) in H´ if g in H
What is G'?
Ok that sounds good
Thanks
No problem, you exactly quotiened out the kernel of f i.e. all elements that got mapped to zero are already zero in the quotient hence the induced map G/H -> G´/H´ is injective
Could anyone point me in the right direction wrt Hopkins-Levistky, im really struggling to see how to complete the proof. Ive got that $J^n/J^{n+1}$ is Noetherian for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$. I know that $J^m = 0$ for some $m\in \mathbb{N}$ since $R$ is Artinian, so we have the chain $0 \subseteq J^{m-1} \subseteq J^{m-2}/J^{m-1} \subseteq \ldots \subset J/J^2 \subseteq R/J$ but im unsure how to show this implies $R$ is Noetherian
Of course if we knew J(R) was Noetherian we'd be done but I dont think thats going to be true in general, and im not having many other ideas
Nope
Do you know that if N ⊆ M and N, M/N are Noetherian then M is Noetherian?
Yeah
Well, not subset, submodule but sure
Im not sure how to make use of that though, I thought maybe some sort of inductive argument to show that J is Noetherian, but I couldnt quite see how to do it
Oh wait no maybe I do see it, J^{m-1} is noetherian, as is J^{m-2}/J^{m-1} hence so is J^{m-2}
Inductivly then J^0 is noetherian thus R is
I think that works?
Yep, that's exactly it.
jesus christ that took me far too long
Ill take it though, it did make me think much more carefully about submodules of quotients so thats good I suppose
@elfin wraith How did you show that J^n/J^{n+1} is Noetherian BTW?
I'd like to learn this.
Each J^n/J^n+1 is semi simple and artinian so it’s a finite direct sum of simple modules, and simple modules are trivially Noetherian
Showing they’re semi simple and artinian just comes from the fact that R is artinian and they’re annihilated by J
Why is it semisimple?
An artinian module is semi simple iff its Jacobson radical is 0
Actually is that true, or is it only true of the ring
Hmm. IDK enough about radicals of modules; I should learn more IG.
Can we say that J is finitely generated?
I think I can see the rest from there.
Yeah I think I might need to rework my proof there slightly I think it’s only true that a ring is semi simple if it’s Jacobson radical is 0, but like the quotient definitely is semisimple, my reasoning might just be a bit off
I think R/J Artinian, trivial Jacobson radical => it is semisimple and then any module over it is semisimple.
IDR how to prove that either though.
Yeah honestly I’ll think about it more in the morning I’m tired now but my original argument was that they’re R/J modules which are precisely R modules which are annihilated by J, but then since R is Artinian J(J^n/j^n+1)=0 implies J^n/J^n+1 is semisimple
I’m pretty sure this doesn’t quite work as is though, I don’t think that last implication is true
why is $gp({[n]}) \subset \mathbb{Z}/d\mathbb{Z}$ is cyclic of order m by construction?
whattodowithanything
can you give more context on gp( { [n] } )?
the subgroup generated by [n]
since this subgroup generated by an element [n], can you compute the order of an element [n] in Z/dZ?
$ kn = 0 (mod ,d) \Rightarrow k = m $ since $d = mn$
whattodowithanything
i think so, in general in a cyclic group Z/nZ of order n, the order of an element m is n/gcd( m, n )
so your subgroup has an order m and it is generated by an single element therefore it is cyclic subgroup
what do you mean by"order of an element m"
by element m you mean [m]?
yes
i see, so the order of [m] being n/gcd(m,n) is a general property
Yes in Z/nZ
what’s a non example of a homomorphism?
why exactly is it not a homomorphism
take G, (S_n \ AutG) as bijections are all not homomorphism
recall what is homom i.e. the definition
I don’t quite understand this
focus on the former for now
$f: G \to H$ such that f is a homomorphism,
$\forall g \in G$
$$f(e_G)f(g) = f(e_Gg)$$
nastasya
try to think now ?
can someone give me a hint for part a of 7 here? I'm supposing ax=0 for a,x nonzero but I can't find a contradiction
also, the idea is going to be that b is the inverse of a right?
a comment, there can be element which is not zero divisor still it does not have inverse
in a division ring?
well i made no restriction on the structure
part d says it's going to be a division ring so that's why I'm asking that
like if we are going to show it's a division ring, then b is going to be the inverse right?
ohh thats interesting now im gonna solve it, haha
then $f(e_G*g)=a\bullet f(g)$?
sushi
yeah see how a has to be e_H
strech the equation to both directions and find the click
for finite groups there is another way
but this one works in general
i always had the finite argument in my head
oh how about this:
- ax=0, a,x nonzero, then axa=0
- a=aba=aba+axa=a(b+x)a
- b+x≠b contradicting the uniqueness of b
that works
sweet ty
I kind of find these weaker algebraic structures fascinating
You can say a lot about when silly slightly weaker axioms imply the full set of them
Or when finiteness plus X actually gets you Y
my thought was aba=a. if there was an a inverse, we could apply it and then ab=1.
But I don’t think they’re much worth studying other than for funsies
idk if my solution for c was very good. i basically used that ab acts as an identity
yeah
In that case it should be fine
I don’t really think you have any other canonical way to produce an identity
i was thinking if we can find some structure which creates equivalance with some know structure (division ring here)
that would be fascinating
for all x, ax=abax implies a(bax-x)=0 so bax=x. similarly xab=x. so we just need ab=ba.
a(ab-ba)a=a^2-a^2=0 so ab-ba=0 qed
In the case of like, a finite set with a regular multiplication (multiplication is injective let’s say) you pigeonhole to find a single thing where e•x = x and then show e works as identity everywhere
But in this case there’s really nothing, it has to pop out of the hypothesis somewhere and the only thing you’re really given is that for each a there’s a b where…
this is a pretty cool exercise tho yeah
so its a field ?
but it's interesting that it sort of relies on the uniqueness of b. idk if R would necessarily be a division ring if the b is not unique
Only a and b commute
oh right!
Nah no way, I can’t give you an example
But there’s no shot
yeah without uniqueness you get zero divisors
I think any division ring has this property, just set b to be the inverse, so a non-field division ring gives you an example
yeah the structure is kinda nice, leads to some truth then blocks it
if aba=aca=a, and R has no zero divisors then b=c
so division ring implies the hypothesis of the problem ?
I mean doesn’t it? Just take b = a^-1
thats strong if true
yeah definitely
oh yeah
haha
This is basically showing that a stupid notion of invertible is invertible
I think this has a name, without uniqueness
that's kinda what I meant by that beings the whole point of the problem: if aba=a and you can invert then ofc b will be the inverse
i like "stupid notion of invertible"
Ah
In mathematics, a regular semigroup is a semigroup S in which every element is regular, i.e., for each element a in S there exists an element x in S such that axa = a. Regular semigroups are one of the most-studied classes of semigroups, and their structure is particularly amenable to study via Green's relations.
I knew I had seen it before
What’s interesting is that a regular semigroup is not a group
Note what you did here, consider R\{0}, at best this is normally a semigroup
It has an associative multiplication
But when you considered the fact that R also has a + which worked well with x you got to upgrade this to being a full-on group. You got 1 and inverses
Now consider the case of a regular semigroup, where you have this weird aba = a thing, but no notion of +
You can’t show that this is a group, no 1 for you, and no inverses
In mathematics, a von Neumann regular ring is a ring R (associative, with 1, not necessarily commutative) such that for every element a in R there exists an x in R with a = axa. One may think of x as a "weak inverse" of the element a; in general x is not uniquely determined by a. Von Neumann regular rings are also called absolutely flat rings, ...
Okay wait, maybe the problem is also uniqueness idk
Anyway, when you drop uniqueness these are Von Neumann regular rings
i appreciate this raw input
In mathematics, the term weak inverse is used with several meanings.
also maybe of interest
Also who tf are you nastasya r u new
idk how to reply to this
That’s kind of an unanswerable question
It’s just rare that the algebra channel gets someone new in it
Idk if this is a sign that i haven’t been tending to the channel enough recently
🚬
u can find any previous conversations bw us, if it exists
Bad memory IG
search box: from, mention
same from this side
I searched and there wasn’t any from u to me
Whatever, the age that I knew everyone who used this channel is long past IG. It’s not 2020 anymore
🚬
no, i started doing maths this summer
but pls come to this channel to vomit some of those raw chain of thoughts, i find those more valuable than most texts
Idek what means
kinda insider joke, but gigan is a band and someone told me this when the new album came out

do u suggest reading sir Rotman ?
I didn’t read it
Can’t speak for his intro to algebra but his algtop and homological algebra books are decent
Not read either cover to cover or anything, but I’ve used them both as secondary sources (to Hatcher and Weibel) so he is capable of writing a good book if that means anything
Although he defines the direct sum in an incredibly strange way that I don’t really understand in his homological algebra book
Lol how
And don’t say it’s via functions with finite support
Cuz that is the proper definition
Unless you want to try to argue infinity-tuples are a rigorous thing to make a definition of
He first defines an external direct sum, which just seems to be the same as the normal direct sum, then says the normal (internal) direct sum is the same as the external one when it exists
I don’t know when it doesn’t exist or what the difference is but like it’s the choice he made
Lol
I guess he just wanted to say when you get a canonical decomposition
Via disjoint, jointly generating submodules
Weirdge
Yeah I think you could be right but it just feels like an odd choice that I’m not sure he justifies particularly well, I was mainly just confused what squareplus could possibly mean when I first opened the book
Lmfao
That’s bad
Really occasionally I open a ring theory thing and see “quasilocal”
i was asking for the group theory
and 2vol abs aleg
Not really
I mean, maybe originally
But it’s kinda extant only from Hochster I think
Or something
Idk
Idk just adding an extra property to a definition then calling the usual thing quasi is very French
Lmao
Je shall mange a quasibaguette oui oui
Arki red fox
merci
i think i did this one, which book? Jacobson?
i want to find the kernel of Ring homomorphism Z[x] -> R, f(x) -> f( 1 + \root2 ).
is there any thought process to find a function f such that f( 1 +\root2) without hit and trial?
If f(1+√2)=0 for a polynomial f with integer coefficients, then f(1-√2) is also 0
One therefore obtains that (x-1-√2)×(x-1+√2)=x²-2x-1 divides f
Hence the kernel is the ideal generated by x²-2x-1
Good morning everybody. I'm currently learning about the Burnside Lemma and I found this online. Could maybe someone help me out here?
Like I do know the symmetry groups, but i dont really get how they do it here.
Why is it 4 over 2 for the identity? The group action is permutation, so isn't this like a graph without edges? As in nothing gets permutated.
For the second point: we choose 2 vertices to connect out of four, which will automatically give two two-cycles. But whats happening with the invariants?
and do i understand it right, that a fixed point in this case is just the same graph after permutation? So if i have the graph with 1 connected to 2 and 3 connected to 4, this would be a fixed point of the second case? Cause permutating 2 gives 1 and permutating 4 gives 3 which leaves the graph as it is?
Its from this website:
https://artofproblemsolving.com/wiki/index.php/Burnside's_Lemma
ah great thank you
I worked out what’s actually happening here, you show R/J is Artinian semi simple by first showing R/J is Artinian, which is straight forward because R is and J is an R submodule, then J(R/J)=0 by the correspondence theorem
J^n/J^n+1 is Artinian because it’s just a quotient of submodules, and then it’s semi simple because a left Artinian ring R is semi simple iff every left R module is semi simple, the proof of that is showing that submodules of semisimple modules are direct summands, and these are all finite by Artinian so no worries there
I noticed that this is actually given as a theorem in my notes but it’s kinda buried because we only give an outline of a proof (lecturer skips any proof that uses zorns lemma for some reason)
The notes for my course say there’s a proof given in Lams book “First course in non commutative rings” section 1.2 but for some reason springer isn’t letting me log in to look at it, I think the vague idea would that some of the simple submodules are contained in the submodule, then you can write the original semi simple module as like the submodule plus the simple submodules that don’t contain it, something along those lines is my feeling but idk I’ve not worked out the proof
HEy guys, why are we interested in groupautomorphisms
I'm watching a youtube video of a lecture I missed and my professor blasts by this proposition while I'm sitting here trying to understand what being minimal wrt inclusions means. Could someone explain this for me?
the only subfield is itself
generally, in a collection of sets S, A is minimal with respect to inclusion if the only subset of A in S is A itself
How do I find the Smith normal form of a matrix? For example, the SNF of [2 0; 0 5] should be [1 0; 0 10], but I'm struggling to understand the steps
One way is to use that if SNF(A) = diag(a1, a2, ...), then ak = gcd of determinants of all k⨯k submatrices of A. (This won't give you the matrices you multiply A by on the left and right to get SNF(A) and for larger matrices can get unwieldy since if A is m⨯n, it has mCk ⨯ nCk such matrices, and that's (m+n)Cmin(m,n) in total.)
Another way is to run the algorithm for the SNF found in proofs.
IDR it but in this case I think you can do it ad-hoc. We "want" to get 2 and 5 in the same row or column so we can take their GCD, so start with C1 := C1 + C2. Then get the GCD into the (1,1) entry by R2 := R2 - 2 R1 (Euclidean algorithm for GCDs which happens to terminate after one step here), R1 := R1 - R2. Then clear everything in the first row/column with R2 := R2 - R1, C2 := C2 + 5 C1. You now have [1 0; 0 10], so you are done.
Guys quick question.. if a group G is generated by one of his elements, does that also mean that G is ciclic?
yeah
That makes sense, thanks
I tried to extract an algorithm from the proof given in Basic Abstract Algebra, but it was somewhat hard to understand. Do you know of any other textbooks talking about the Smith normal form?
Perfect, thx
I thnk I ended up learning it by reading multiple online lecture notes until I felt comfortable with it (but note that I don't remember the algorithm, and I've never had to practise running it myself).
I think the key step is to somehow get the (1,1) entry to be the gcd of all the entries of the matrix. Once you do that, you can clear the first row and column as above and recursively work on the rest of the matrix.
I see, thank you 
Is it only true that maximal ideals are prime if the ideal is 2 sided? I think even using the non commutative definition of a prime ideal we still need that M is 2 sided
I wrote up a quick proof so I know it is true if M is 2 sided, but it kinda hinges on that, I don’t see a way to remove that condition
i have to determine the structure of Z[x]/ (x^2+3, 3), i know how the structure looks of Z[x]/(x^2 + 3 ) and Z[x]/ ( 3 ) but i am not sure about original question
in these types of problems i am facing problems
ur modding out the 3s
right
like (3) is contained in (x^2+3,3) right
so all ur coefficints in these polynomials cant have 3s
so for starters this is Z_3[x]/(x^2+3)
right
My proof was basically let M be maximal, IJ subset M, assume neither in M, then M+I=M+J=R, so 1 =(m+i)(m’+j) but to conclude 1 is in M for a contradiction id need to know that both m’j and im are in M, which only works if M is 2 sided no?
It could just be that this isn’t the best proof, but im not seeing another one rn
yes
is it something ax+b, where a and b are in Z/3Z?
no continue
Wait actually im dumb, the addition commutes so I can just swap it there
yes
is there any more description? what are the better ways to deal with it?
just understand that modding out is just remainders ig
like if ur modding out something by x^2
modding out?
quotient
ah
yes
also usually with these problems the correspondcone theorem helps
how?
you know what the ideals of a quotient look like by looking at the ideals that contain the thing your quotienting out by
this is the (third?) iso theorem
this is kinda why when you divide out by a maximal ideal you get a field
or a divsion ring atleast
yes
yes
thank you
yw
How to approach to this question..please explain it stepwise
What is L800?
Can you find a subgroup of Z_800 which is isomorphic to Z_2? Can you find a subgroup of Z_200 which is isomorphic to Z_4?
And then do you see why finding those groups suffices?
A homomorphism is uniquely determined by its values on the generators, in general
If an element g can be written as some product of generators, say g=abcd, and f is a homomorphism then f(g)=f(abcd)=f(a)f(b)f(c)f(d)
So if you know the values on the generators then you know the value for any element g — write g in terms of the generators and use the fact that f is a homormophism.
Yes, I guess I wasn’t sure why Psi cant be defined some other way though. We want psi(m x n) to be equal to phi(m,n) (the middle linear map)
Ok nvm i know this is obvious im just being weird
Is there necessarily one unique one because if we want psi(m x n) = phi(m,n) then once we find one psi that satisfies that, oh it determines the rest of the map because m x n generates M tensor N
@barren sierra yeah I find subgroup of Z_800 which is isomorphic to Z_2 and similarly for another..then what to do
What subgroups did you find. And then notice that the big group in question is a direct sum of the two groups I mentioned
{0,400} and {0,50,100,150}
Yes then By their direct product got a set..Is that the required subgroup of Z_800 ×Z_200 which is isomorphic to Z_2× Z_4???
Nice
Is that the required subgroup of Z_800 ×Z_200 which is isomorphic to Z_2× Z_4??
is "uponthewitnessing" a meme? I know Wew says it, but what does it mean
and isn't the guy of the emoji gothamchess?
I got no idea lmao, ive only seen it in this server. i find it funny tho
Yes
thanks
I have a group of order 90. If it has a subgroup isomorphic to $C_3 \times C_3$, why can't it have a subgroup isomorphic to $C_9$?
mathrie
Idk how much group theory you know, but both of these are Sylow-3 subgroups and those are conjugate and hence isomorphic. Thus you’d conclude C_3 x C_3 ≈ C_9 which isn’t true
If you don’t have access to Sylow, you can show that the set (C_3 x C_3)(C_9) has size either 9,27, or 81. 9 corresponds to the two sets being the same which isn’t true cuz again C_3 x C_3 isn’t isomorphic to C_9. The middle is when they intersect at a subgroup of order 3, and the last one when they intersect trivially
If you can then show one of them is contained in the other’s normalizer then you get that this set is a subgroup of G, and hence its order has to divide 90 which they don’t, but idk how you can show the “contained in the other’s normalizer” very easily
great thanks! I do know sylow, so that explanation is very nice :). Why is it a subgroup of G if one is contained in the normalizer of the other?
Theorem
Usually it’s proven as a lemme in third iso theorem
It follows from the statement that it K < G is normal then KH is a subgroup
You just apply this where G = N(K) cuz if H < N(K), then well K is normal in N(K)
So you apply this
ah okay, many thanks!

Prove that if F is a field then F[x] is isomorphic to F[t].
f(x) -> f(t), works? If yes then why do we need a ring to be a field if we take the ring commutative then also work?
Let $\alpha$ be a root of $x^2 + ax + b$ and $\beta$ be a root of $x^3 + px + q$. How do I construct a polynomial whose root is $\alpha + \beta$ and coefficients in $\mathbb{Q}(a,b,p,q)$ ?
mycroftholmes1703
F[x] the set of all polynomials over F
Does the problem ask you to construct it or are you just trying to prove the sum of two algebraic numbers is algebraic? Because there is an easier way to do that, namely ||showing a number is algebraic if and only if it is contained in a finite extension of Q||
For me also
problem asks me to explicitly construct. Sum of two algebraic numbers is algebraic, that is a fact can be easily proved by extension of fields, so I don't want that
If I get the sense correctly, then I believe you want $x$ to be an indeterminate and $t$ to be fixed constant of $\mathbb{C}$. Now if $t$ is algebraic over $\mathbb{F}$ then such an isomorphism doesn't work, since then if you let $m_{t}(x)$ be the minimal polynomial then you have $\mathbb{F}[t] \cong \mathbb{F}[x]/<m_t(x)>$. To prove this isomorphism, you just have to use your map, which in this case will not be an isomorphism, but the kernel will be indeed be the denominator. But if $t$ is transcendental over $\mathbb{F}$, then it is indeed an isomorphism and exactly your isomorphism works well. And you are right, similar arguments holds for any commutative ring
mycroftholmes1703
But in question there is no given condition on t, so i think both x and t are indeterminate
But if $t$ is indeterminate then the question makes absolutely no sense. Cause by changing indeterminate notation keeps the ring "same" which is actually much stronger than isomorphism.
mycroftholmes1703
Yes
What do I now?
can you tell me the context for the question ? By that I mean, like if it's an exercise then for which section this exercise is in.
It is an exercise from Herstein's Ring last supplementary exercise
Can you tell me the book please ?
😅
Topics in algebra by Herstein
hungerford
Could anyone look over this proof for me, im slightly unsure about my justification that we can just pull back but I think the idea is there, Im trying to show that if R is left Noetherian, and S is a multiplicitive set then R<S^-1> is also Noetherian
We know that $R$ is left localisable so $R \subseteq R\langle S^{-1}\rangle$. Then if $I$ is a left ideal of $R\langle S^{-1}\rangle$, $I \cap R$ must be an ideal of $R$, as this is simply the restriction of $I$ to a subring.
Clearly we have that $(R\cap I)\cdot(R\langle S^{-1}\rangle) \subseteq I$ since $I$ is an ideal, hence closed under multiplication. The other direction is similarly clear to see, $I \subseteq R\langle S^{-1}\rangle$ by the definition of an ideal, and $R\cap I \subseteq R\langle S^{-1}\rangle$, so this is still just $R\langle S^{-1}\rangle$.
Thus, every ideal of $R\langle S^{-1}\rangle$ is just the projection of an ideal $I$ of $R$ into $R\langle S^{-1}\rangle$ via the canonical homomorphism. So consider a chain of ideals in $R\langle S^{-1}\rangle$,
[I_1 \subseteq I_2 \subseteq\cdots.]
Each of these has the form,
[J_1R\langle S^{-1}\rangle \subseteq J_2R\langle S^{-1}\rangle\subseteq\cdots,]
for ideals $J_i$ of $R$. Now pulling back along $\varphi^{-1}:R\langle S^{-1}\rangle \to R$, the inverse of the canonical homomorphism, we see,
[J_1 \subseteq J_2 \subseteq\cdots,]
however this chain stabilises since $R$ is Noetherian, thus so must the chain $I_1 \subseteq \cdots$, hence $R\langle S^{-1}\rangle$ is also Noetherian.
Nope
it looks like my prof won't be doing nilpotent or solvable groups. does anyone have any recommended texts or readings that have a good treatment? hungerford's approach is kind of dry and they say specifically it's a "group theoretic approach" but "historically they're talked about in terms of polynomials".
my understanding is that nilpotent groups are groups such that if you take commutators with commutators with etc. then eventually, the result is in the center (it commutes with everything). sort of makes sense since i'm used to nilpotent meaning A^k=0, and here we have G^k={e} (for G^k=[G^(k-1),G])
but solvable i'm still not quite understanding. it seems that to be solvable you have that commutators of commutators of... eventually commute with each other. but what does that mean? why do we care? what makes that "solvable"?
so not being solvable means that if you keep taking commutators, eventually things don't get "simpler" or smaller and the k-commutator subgroup is non-commutative and fixed by the commutator action (idk if that makes sense or if the commutator of a subgroup is an action)?
Solvable groups are those that have a composition series with abelian quotients
Write successive powers of a+b as linear combinations of 1, a, b, ab, b^2, ab^2, writing the coefficients in columns next to each other (start with (a+b)^0 = (1)1 + (0)a + ...). Eventually the columns will be linearly dependent, and that linear dependence means a polynomial relation satisfied by (a+b).
Specifically, (a+b)^0, ..., (a+b)^6 gives you a 6⨯7 matrix, so there must be a relation.
Another way to do it is using resultants; this is given as an application on https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Resultant.
I would go even further to say you have one with simple quotients
Which is as far as you can possibly hope to push it
Simple abelian*
Err
I meant to say cyclic
And yeah simple abelian I guess
Basically I just wanted a bunch of Z/pZ
So you don't consider for example Q to be a solvable group?
All groups r finite
I gVe the most ass lecture today
At least for the like first 40 mins
How to give the most unhelpful explanations of Aut(G) and Aut(Z/nZ) ≈ (Z/nZ)^x
Were u in the crowd
Indeed
I didn’t realize pure group theory like this was still an active area of research
Very cool
ah
what the exact structure of ring Z/12Z [x]/( 2x - 1 )?
the polynomial 2x-1 is not monic so we have not a basis for given ring
how do i compute residue of x^2 in given ring?
Notice that modding out 2x-1 is exactly adjoining a multiplicative inverse of 2.
So x^2 will be an inverse of 4. That means also that things y such 4y = 0 will now become 0, since you can divide by 4.
So this is the same as Z/3Z [x] / (2x-1)
got it, is it final descripition or are there any more clarification left?
Well you can simplify Z/3Z [x] / (2x-1) quite a bit more (remember Z/3Z is a field)
so Z/3Z[x] is Euclidean ring so Z/3Z [x]/ (2x-1) is isomorphic to Z/3Z, correct?
Yes, that's right
thank you
So actually solvable groups arise the from Galois' original motiavtion for developing his theory, when is a polynomial equation solvable by radicals. The motivation for a subnormal series comes from the pretty notion of Galois correspondence, all normal subgroups actuallu correspond to a normal extension. The quotient abelian condition is related to some parts of Kummer theory and the fact that abelian groups can be direct product of cyclic groups, which makes some properties of extension easier to analyse.
However your concern about the commutator of commutator of...... and why do we care has an interesting notion. We know how much we like, (I definitely do like I dunno about you) abelian groups and particularly a specific class of abelian groups called cyclic groups. Our fact is that we want to find the notion between such a definition of solvable group and investigate its relation to high commutator subgroups. Just like we have field extension we wants to have some notion Group Extensions and how do we build up the group from it's successive extensions. Solvable groups has a finite solvable series so it can be constructed back to original by finitely many extensions.
@toxic zephyr sorry for not replying to your message, but instead I am mentioning you.Hope this answer helps
Try Peter Cameron's notes and blog posts
if G is a group of odd order and x not equal to e then x^-1 is not in cl(x) because | cl(x) | is odd and if x^-1 in cl(x) then | cl(x) | will be even.
if y in cl(x), then y^-1 will be in cl(x) because x^-1 in cl(x). SInce y^-1 cannot be y, so they are different, hence |cl(x) | will be even.
is it correct?
You could elaborate more on why y^{-1} in cl(x). Otherwise, yes, this is correct.
let y in cl(x) so y = gxg^-1 for some g.
Now since x^-1 in cl(x) so x^-1 = hxh^-1 for some h. Now y^-1 = gx^-1g-1 = ghxh^-1g^-1, thus y^-1 in cl(x)
if G = HK, where H and K are normal and H and K are abelian subgroup, then G is abelian, correct?
because H, K are normal so they commute each other, h1k1h2k2 = h1h2k1k2 = h2h1k1k2 = h2h1k2k1 = h2k2h1k1
i used H and K are abelian subgroup
i think so coz only the trivial semi direct product is allowed now
i did something funny ig
I have to determine the number of Sylow 2-subgroups of D_2m, where m is an odd integer at least 3. I think it is exactly m
each reflection is an involution
yes
they all will generate order 2 subgroups
yes
yes
If H ∩ K is trivial, then yes (hkh^{-1}k^{-1} has to lie in H ∩ K for any h ∈ H, k ∈ K). Otherwise, not necessarily: in the dihedral group of order 8 <r, s ∣ r^4 = s^2 = srs^{-1}r = 1>, consider H = <r> and K = <s, r^2>, which are both abelian and normal (index 2), but don't commute with each other because srs^{-1}r^{-1} = r^{-2} = r^2 ∈ H ∩ K.
Wondering if anyone can point me in the right direction for this problem. Let $A$ be a ring and let $P \triangleleft A$ be such that $A/P$ is a domain. Let $S:= A\setminus P$ and observe that $S$ is multiplicatively closed. Suppose that $S$ is left localisable. Prove that,
[S^{-1}P:= {s^{-1}p: s\in S, p \in P}]
Is the jacobson radical of $A \langle S^{-1}\rangle$.
Nope
I want to prove that this is a left ideal before anything else, its closed under addition, so I just need to show its closed under A<S^-1> multiplication, but im really unsure how to do this
Like elements of A<S^-1> are just words, and we cant generally simplifiy them. S is left localisable, so we have an overring of A/P, B where we can simplify everything to the form s^-1a, but im not sure where this gets me
Weve got the universal property of A<s^-1> and quotient ring floating around, weve also got that P is prime (Since A/P is a domain) but again not quite seeing where this takes me
A map being R-bilinear does NOT a priori mean that phi(mr, n) = phi(m, rn) right
From the definition of R bilinear it does not seem that way
From the definition anyway it only says M and N are left R mods anyway too
If R is commutative then yes it follows. If R is not commutative then the definition gets a bit funky. You can check the property on wikipedia. You mention M and N are left R modules but you have R acting on the right on M, is that a typo?
As a sort of aside to this question, we never really spoke about why we actually care about localisation or rings of fractions in the non commutative case, like sure it’s nice that we get inverses, but we can’t do it for all rings, and isn’t the usual motivation for localisation in the commutative case algebraic geometry which is pretty commutative?
Mainly interested in a hint for how to show it’s an ideal, but any uses for the left ring of fractions would also be appreciated
R-bilinear would be
phi(rm, n) = phi(m, rn) = rphi(m, n)
The condition
phi(mr, n) = phi(m, rn)
is called being R-balanced.
As you might notice, R-bilinear is something about a pair of left modules (or possibly pair of right modules) while R-balanced is a statement about a right and left module.
Really R-balanced is the thing related to the tensor product, but in the connotative case it's equivalent
Ok yea I was kinda thinking something like that thanks!
I am spending so much time trying to understand all the details of tensor product
There’s a really nice explanation in chapter 12 of “a primer of algebraic D modules”
So the localization of a ring always exist, to invert r you can just take the coproduct of R and Z[x] modulo the ideal (rx-1, xr-1). But you usually impose restrictions to get a nicer construction (coproducts of rings are a bit unwieldy).
I'm no expert, but I think the main motivation for localization of noncommutative rings is for noncommutative geometry. Basically you have techniques that "deform" schemes and other geometric objects and when you translate that to rings you sometimes get noncommutative rings. So you kind of need to reconstruction algebraic geometry in the noncommutative setting.
Provided you’re comfortable enough with modules anyway, I found the explanation via bimodules to be the most sensible explanation I had seen anyway
Ah now that you say that I do remember the lecturer saying there’s a more general notion of localisation in the non commutative case when your ring isn’t a domain which we don’t cover because it’s just a bit of a mess, I’m guessing this is what she was meaning
That does sound quite interesting, I wasn’t aware there was much to non commutative geometry, but equally I don’t know much about regular algebraic geometry. Is that at all related to like deformation of rings and deformation theory? My comalg lecturer has mentioned it before but never in much detail
yes my bad their intersection is trivial
Yeah, don't know much about it myself. But I believe that's related yeah.
I guess this would be a good thing to ask your lecturer about, they can maybe answer more specifically about what your learning.
Anyway, to your actual question.
Notice x (s^- p) = (x s^-)p = (t^- y) p = t^- (yp)
for some t in S and y in R, by the definition of being left localizable.
Ahhh yeah I was getting caught up in thinking of the words like letter wise if you will, just taking it as a single element makes the Ore condition much more clear
i dont really like how he presents modules
id rather read d&f and once you get to tensor products switch to rotman
Someone in advanced algebra was incredibly confused about direct sums of modules this morning and I instantly knew it was rotmanns homological algebra lol
It’s such an odd presentation
Yea
he put his introduction to modules in the section on categories and functors
i thought that was really silly
In fairness I would’ve assumed modules were just a prereq to homological algebra but 
The main reason I’ve even looked it is just to see if I can reasonably define Tor without mentioning derived functors
And I guess I can just define directly for the tensor product but I’m still unsure if I want to do that, but even rotman goes for derived functors
So ive worked through the rest of this problem (took a break for a while), and ive shown that it has a unique maximal left ideal and that this is the Jacobson radical of A<S^-1> (I know this would mean that the ring is local in the commutative case but im not sure if that generalises) but I cannot for the life of me see where ive used that P is a prime ideal of A
Im guessing ive implicitly assumed I dont have zero divisors somewhere but im not sure where, any chance youd be able to take a quick look? Mainly just curious because im pretty sure my proof works, but im failing to see the relevance of A/P being a domain
We know that $S^{-1}P$ is a subgroup of $A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$, so we need only show it's closed under left $A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$ multiplication.
Let $x \in A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$. We see,
[xs^{-1}p = (xs^{-1})p = (t^{-1}y)p = t^{-1}(yp),]
for some $t \in S$ and $y \in A$ since $S$ is left localisable. Notice however that $yp \in P$ since $P$ is a left ideal of $A$, so we have that $S^{-1}P$ is a left ideal of $A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$.
\\
Suppose $I$ is an ideal of $A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$ such that $S^{-1}P \subsetneq I$. Then there must exist an element $s^{-1}a \in I$ such that $s^{-1},a \in S$. Then, by definition, there exists an element $a^{-1}s \in A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$.
However, since $I$ is an ideal we see that,
[s^{-1}aa^{-1}s = 1 \in I,]
giving us $I = A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$, so we must have that $S^{-1}P$ is maximal.
\\
To see that this is unique, suppose $M$ is a maximal ideal of $A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$. It cannot contain a unit, as then it would be all of $A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$, contradicting it being a proper ideal. So $M$ only contains non-units, thus it must be a subset of $S^{-1}P$. However, as $M$ is maximal, $M \subseteq S^{-1}P \subseteq A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$ implies that $M = S^{-1}P$, so $S^{-1}P$ is unique.
\\
The Jacobson radical is the intersection of all left ideals, and the only maximal left ideal of $A\langle S^{-1}\rangle$ is $S^{-1}P$, so $J(A\langle S^{-1}\rangle) = S^{-1}P$.
Nope
Is it just in the step where I say s^-1aa^-1s = 1? Since A/P is a domain, S must have no zero divisors? I dont think thats it though because they should be units
If in a finite unit ring we have the element 2 a nilpotent one then the order of the ring is a power of 2?
I mean, that A\P is multiplicatively closed is just saying that A/P is a domain.
??
Yes that's correct
Suppose $x,y$ in $G$ are elements of finite order in $G$. p is a prime number which is coprime to the order of x and y. We know that $x^{p^n}$ is conjugate to $y^{p^n}$ for some n. Prove that x is conjugate to y. I know that we could deduce that x and y has the same order but that does not necessarily mean $x$ is conjugate to $y$. I feel like it should be a straightforward argument, but I could not get it right. Can someone give me a hint?
Dong_Valentino
think about bezout's lemma and the product of the orders of x and y
I am reading the book Finite fields and there is an exercise that I have spent a while trying to prove. However, it has not come to success. This is exercise 3.97 by the way.
Any help would be greatly appreciated!
I see that now. Thanks a lot.
I don't know if this correct etiquette or not but could you please help me with the question I posed 2 message above this? If it's wrong to do this I apologize
in general don't ping random people
I didn't ping
i don't know how to do this
I responded
you did ping me
Replied
yes it was a ping reply
apology accepted
What have you tried
Well for one, I tried using cyclotomic polynomials. This obviously wouldn't work. Then I tried using orders and primitive roots and that didn't work too well unfortunately.
The previous exercise was easily done using cyclotomic because it was x^2n+x^n+1 and it is basically x^3n-1/x-1 so that worked out well. This one is a lot harder and I have struggled with it for a while.
Not sure if I am headed in the right or wrong direction.
How do you prove that $x^3-3x+1$ is irreducible over $Q$?
lebzul
Rational root theorem oughta do it
it doesn't work
Why not?
it’s a cubic, so if it were reducible, it would have a linear factor
a neat thing about that polynomial is that given any root alpha, alpha^2 - 2 is another root. one root is -2cos(pi/9)
Well, it does work. But where are you running into trouble?
i'm srry I confused the Rational Root Theorem with Gauss's Lemma.
Well, same thing in this case
Rational root theorem is just a special case of Gauss' lemma
So I use the theorem 'if p(x) is quadratic or cubic with no roots in K, then p(x) is irreducible over K,' and to verify this, I use the Rational Root Theorem by assuming it has a root in Q and arriving at a contradiction, right?"
yep i forgot this
Let a be a root of the polynomial x^4 + x + 1 = 0 over F_2. Then your desired conclusion is equivalent to the combination of (i) a has degree 4 over F_2 (i.e., X^4 + X + 1 is irreducible over F_2) (ii) the polynomial X^n - a is irreducible over F_16 iff n = 3^k 5^m for some k, n.
I assume (i) can be done by hand somehow. For (ii), a hint is ||look at the multiplicative orders of a and the root of X^n - a||, although I haven't figured out fully how to solve it.
Yeah, similar question asked by someone else some time ago
I think it'll need to add a lemma to show that ||y is not a 5^th power => X^5 - y is irreducible|| at the inductive step.
Thanks for the help. I also have another proof that I am not sure works. Do you think I can send it in dms and you could tell me if it is viable or not?
let f: G -> G/N, where N is a normal subgroup of order 2 of G. Now let H is a normal subgroup of G/N of order 3, i know f^-1(H) is a normal subgroup of G but how can i say it has order 6? yes it contains N
Given a group homomorphism f:G -> H, let y in im(f). Let x in f^-1(y) be arbitrary, then show that f^-1(y) = xker(f)
What I’m saying is, every fiber is a coset of the kernel, so they each have size the kernel
yes
If you have the generators for subgroup of index 2 in a group, how do you prove it is the only index 2 subgroup?
got it thank you
This isn’t an answerable question
Like, it’s unique to the situation, because this statement isn’t true in general
C_2 x C_2, a generator of C_2 x e is just (1,0)
But it isn’t the only index 2 subgroup
What about like C_3 x C_2
What would happen there
Or maybe C_5 x C_3
You don’t have an index 2 subgroup of the latter one lol
And for the former there’s only 1
But like, these are all different situations so idk what you’re really even trying to ask
How would you prove that
Let G be a group of order 60 and it has normal subgroup N of order 2, how can i say Sylow 3-subgroup is normal subgroup in G?
I looked at it
An order 3 subgroup is cyclic so it’s generated by an order 3 thing and there’s only 2 of those
And those generate the same subgroup
Or you can say C_3 x C_2 = C_6 by the Chinese Remainder Theorem and cyclic groups have unique subgroups of any given order
Idk
what’s some nice topic to look at to get used to thinking with exact sequences
prof working some prev exam problems and he just pulls exact sequences everywhere 
Exact sequences are everywhere in homological algebra so maybe take a look at some books on that? There isn’t really a huge amount to exact sequences though tbf, it’s just telling you that the image of one map is the kernel of the next
hmm i’ll get to alg top later, unfortunately i don’t have time to delve into that rn
but thanks it’s good to know these’ll show up there
and yeah i get that they don’t have all that much content, what i don’t get is why that content is so important
something something group quotient i guess but i don’t quite understand the something something ehehe
Im not sure exactly what to say about it, maybe someone with more experience can provide a better answer but they’re just kinda nice to work with
For example if you have 0->A->B then you know A->B must be injective
You then get like SES and LES and these are just kinda very nicely behaved, and you’ve got stuff like the snake lemma that tells you how to make these LES
Maybe the thing that’s nice is that exact sequences can just be generally phrased in terms of abelian categories, so you can say stuff about abelian groups, modules, vector spaces etc
So in a proof where we show that every non-abelian group G of order 8 we have to have an element of order 4 it was argued that if we would have no element of order 4 we must have an element of order 8 or all elements have order two, in both cases this would mean G is abelian, which is a contradiction. I understand that any group of order 8 has normal subgroups of order 2,4,8. But why must we have elements of order 8 (or the other case) if we have no element of order 4?
Really just trying to do the diagram chase proofs yourself. Short exact sequences should be straightforward to understand, and long ones are mostly a cohomology thing
If all elements have order 2 then the group is abelian: ab=a(ab)²b=a²bab²=ba
Yes, I'm aware, but still, why is it that if no element has order 4, either one element has 8 or all have order 2?
What are the possible orders?
Hi, when is x^4n + x^n + 1 divisible by x^4 + x + 1 versus x^4 + x^3 + 1 when n is not divisible by 3 or 5. this is in F2
2 and 8 are the only possibilities, if none are order 8, then all are order 2
I'm having trouble understanding this explanation for why Q⊂R is not finite. Why does the fact that pi is transcendental imply that Q(x) is a subfield of R?
In fact, it's actually kind of unintuitive to me that Q(x) would be a subfield of R
Isomorphic to a subfield of R
What is this subfield? It is not clear to me what sending x to pi really looks like as a field of rational functions over Q
You send f(x) to f(π)
Matteddy could you help me with my question please
Alright, then I'm clearly missing something. We have to have a order of an element which divides the group order?
It's probably a basic theorem which follows from Lagranges theorem right?
Like, it can't be that there is no element with order 2,4 or 8
In a finite group, the order of each element divides the order of the group.
Alright, which follows from Lagrange by considering $g^{|G|}$ where $|G|$ is then somemultiple of the order of g?
dellinger
A subgroup of index 2 is normal, in general
So there's a surjective homomorphism from your group into C2
The C3 generator must be in the kernel because it has order 3, if the generator of C2 was also in the kernel then the homomorphism would be trivial
So the kernel must be the subgroup generated by y and xyx^-1 (i'm calling x and y the generators of C2 and C3 respectively)
It's the kernel of the unique surjective homomorphism from the free product to C2
And any index 2 subgroup must be the kernel of such a homomorphism
How do you know it is a unique surjective homomorphism
Is that by definition
This
No, because as i said above a subgroup of index 2 must be normal, and the quotient is the unique group of order 2 (i.e. C2)
Can it alternatively be represented as <xy^2x, yxy^2>
No, because yxy² is not in the kernel
Ok let me state the homomorphism explicitly
you send x to 1 and y to 0
This is the only surjective homomorphism from the free product to C2
yxy² then must go to 1
So it cannot be in the kernel
That makes sense.
I am not entirely sure how it easily follows that the group is generated by those 2
I have been trying to figure it out for sometime but I cannot make the connection unfortunately
The subgroup is "the words with an even number of x's"
Ig if you want to do it formally you can argue by induction on the length of the word (written using only x's and y's, no inverses)
If the leftmost thing is a y then you have y times something with an even number of x's and less characters so by induction you can write that as a product of y and xyx
If the leftmost thing is an x then there must also be a y (else the xx simplifies) and notice that xy=(xyx)x so again you get xyx times something shorter
Let $R$ be a ring. Suppose $M = N \oplus P$ is a direct sum of right submodules. Suppose that the only $R-$module homomorphisms $N \to P$ or $P \to N$ are zero.
Let $f \in \text{End}_R(M)$. Show that $f(N)\leq N$ and $f(P)\leq P$. Deduce that there are surjective ring homomorphisms,
[\phi_N: \text{End}_R(M) \to \text{End}_R(N), \enspace \phi_p: \text{End}_R(M) \to \text{End}_r(P)]
whose kernels intersect trivially and sum to $\text{End}_R(M)$. Hence, describe $\text{End}_R(M)$ as a direct sum of rings.
Nope
Anyone able to point me in the right direction for the first part in showing that f(N)\leq N at least? I kinda get the vibe here but im struggling with how to actually show it
the set S of 0 and all zero divisors of a ring R is just the torsion of R as an R module right? and to show it always contains a prime ideal, can we just pick the annihilator of any element a of S?
N is the kernel of the projection M -> P
It might depend how you define torsion for non-domains, but it is the set of elements with nontrivial annihilator yes.
The annihilator of an element isn't necessarily prime though. What you can do though is notice that the complement of S is multiplicatively closed, then think about prime ideals in a localization.
A middle linear map to L gives u a group hom from the tensor product to L, if the tensor product is also an R-module, does this middle linear map extend to a bilinear map?
jagr2808, does the following idea work to show that 3^a5^b is irreducible in the x^4n + x^n + 1 in mod 2 question?
Let f(x) = x^4+x+1 in mod 2
f(x^(3^m5^n)) = you can just plug in
We have that totient function of 3^m+1 is 2 x 3^m and similarly for 5^n+1 we have 4 x 5^n
Taking order of everything we have 4 x 3^m x 5^n and this is also the degree of f(x^(3^m5^n)). thus it is irreducible.
Middle linear meaning f(mr, n) = f(m, rn)?
If so, then not necessarily. I mean it's not even given that L is an R-module. But even if it was you would need something relating the map to the R-module structure
Maybe, but I'm not sure I'm following.
Like you take phi(3^m 5^n) and then how does that connect with something being irreducible?
That's like a hole in my argument. I am not sure. I assumed that if order of a polynomial = the degree, it is irreducible. This is in mod 2
Do you know if that implies it is irreducible?
I'm not sure what "the degree in mod 2" means
the phrase mod 2 is poorly placed
Well then I'm even more confused.
What does "the order of a polynomial = the degree" mean?
Um
When you take the order in mod 3^m5^n
I have the order as: 4 x 3^m x 5^n
I have the degree of the polynomial as: 4 x 3^m x 5^n
Does this mean anything with regards to irreducibility?
I'm still not sure what it means at all.
You take the order of what mod 3^m 5^n ?
Using the totient funtion we have phi(3^m+1) = 2 x 3^m and phi(5^n+1) = 4 x 5^n. specifically, the order of the roots of f(x^(3^m5^n)) is 15 x 3^m x 5^n.
so then

