#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 288 of 1
uh yeah? i agreed i understood why she would say that.
Oh right, I think you may have phrased it as a question originally
This definition is the correct one. If your prof decided not to present it like this, and instead presented R[X] as formal sums in a symbol X, this is just as valid, although it hides these rigorous but confusing set-theoretic details.
They are the same definition in every way that matters.
is there a fast and generalized way to figure out if a conjugacy class contains an element and its inverse?
i know from here that this is not the case for abelian groups and i know from here that is it the case for symmetric groups
I'm working with the GAP CAS so would prefer an answer in that context
The definition of a conjugate element
We say that $x$ is conjugate to $y$ in $G$ if $y = g^{-1}xg $ for some $g \in G$
Now for the group $G=Q_8$ , we have the group presentation $$Q_8 = \big&l...
Let $G$ be a finite group and $${\rm Cl}(x) = {g,x,g^{-1}\mid g\in G}$$
the conjugacy class of $x\in G$.
As explained here,
in general, the conjugacy class ${\rm Cl}(x)$
does not necessarily co...
In GAP you can produce a list of all the conjugacy classes of a group, and easily check if an element is contained in one.
So just looping over the elements in the conjugacy class and check if it contains it's inverse
That's O(n) some of my conjugacy classes have billions of elements
Not n^2 because iirc \in is O(1)
It sounds like you need to produce specific techniques for your group
Perhaps you are looking at a finite group of Lie type for example. There are, iirc, techniques specifically for these groups which exploit the geometry.
Oh wait I think I might have figured it out
Great
I'm curious
One sec
I'm sure it's just Representative(c)^-1 in c because if it's true for one element it's probably true for all elements
That is indeed true.
Why?
I really suggest you try proving it yourself, it's very straightforward.
It might help you understand the situation a little better
I have little background in math what's a good resource to read to try and prove it myself
Do you know the definition of a conjugacy class? If so, you're equipped enough.
Given a closed subset X of A^n wrt to the zariski topology
We can write it X=V(a) for some polynomial ideal
Now a closed set that is contained in X is of the form Y=V(b) for some polynomial ideal b.
We assume k to be algebraically closed.
We can say that rad(a) is contained in rad(b) via the Nullstellensatz.
Can we say that rad(a) is contained in b?
If you assume b is already radical, otherwise just consider a=b as a counterexample
Right, did I missunderstand this paragraph, given the context of my question, then? To me its unclear how we can assume that I(X) lies in a
Well if Y = V(a) < X, then V(a) = V(rad(a)) and rad(a) > I(X), so it is true as they say that Y is the zerolocus of an ideal that contains I(X)
Oh my bad, so this hinges on V(rad(a))=V(a). Thanks for clearing it up!
Hey I was able to do (i) and (ii) thanks to you guys
But how do I conclude (iii) from there
Well you have to determine which ideals are both of the form I_W and J_W'
Because those will be the two sided ideals
Well, say I_W is a twosided ideal.
If W = V, then I_W is (0). So let's say W is not V. Then there is some nonzero A in I_W. What could the image of A be, can you control it by multiplying by things on the left?
Yeah so projections can be used to control that
But the problem is this image thing need to be surjective
Why do you say that?
Like you want me to get the identity right?
Not necessarily, no
Okay then idk
I meant need not
Be surjective
Like you have I_W = J_W' for some W'.
If you can show that W' = V, you'd be done, agree?
So that's all you need to do
Ohkay
I mean if W'=V then J_W' has identity so....
But how exactly are we showing W'=V
Well, what happened if W' isn't equal to V
I dk tbh
Then there is a vector in V not in W'
Sure
Alright, so now think about that a little

Sure
All the stuff in the two sided ideal don't have v vector in their image
So uhh
Like let's go over what we know so far:
- We have this nonzero A in I_W = J_W'
- So BA is in J_W' for all B
- Which means the image of BA is in W'
- Then we have a vector outside of W'
How are we gonna put this together?
So use B to move it to v
So like B is any transformation (with kerB= W) which takes Av to v should work?
No
That bracket thing is also not necessary
Any such B would work
Cause ideal right
Yeah, you just need to move Av outside of W'
Right
Rhanks
Thanks
Lmao I was so focused on other stupidly complicated manipulations that I forgot to see the simple things
Thanks
what paper/book is this because this is a result i kinda need lo
I said thanks more than 3 times lol
It's my assignment 😭
doom
me on my way to do more sporatic noncomm geo shit
I should actually get back to proving double centralizer for semisimple rings lo
noncomm alg?
I mean the course name is just ALG-1
i n t r o a l g
welp I'm doomed
Ah
Welp we can both suck at algebra then
If someone has a cool/interesting Jacobson radical problem please ping me I'm bored and i like the jacobson radical
Okay
I probably do
Wait
Look at 2(i)
It's enough to show rad(R)=0
rad here meaning Jacobson radical
K bar be algebraic closure
How do dis
hm what's abs semisimple
Like he's just naming that phenomena that
oh misread
I'll give that a shot when I stop procrastinating on my C++ project and do a bit of work on it
I haven't actually worked with the ring tensor product before, might need to try out some stuff with it
Oh okay
Well it's really not a good excercise for specifically Jacobson radical tbh 💀
It just be using some corollary or sth
Yeah
I'm guessing it's something you've done before, but just proving that all the equivalent definitions is kinda fun.
Like intersection of maximal left ideals, intersection of maximal right ideals, annihilators of simple modules, 1-xy has a left inverse, 1-xy invertible.
And in the artinian case, the sum of all nilideals.
I've done so many goddamn equivalences lmao
but I can try to refine it
The conditions for a ring to be perfect also give some nice equivalences involving the radical
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perfect_ring
In the area of abstract algebra known as ring theory, a left perfect ring is a type of ring over which all left modules have projective covers. The right case is defined by analogy, and the condition is not left-right symmetric; that is, there exist rings which are perfect on one side but not the other. Perfect rings were introduced in Bass's bo...
I have two questions
- Let $L$ be a Galois extension of $\mathbb{Q}$ with the galois group isomorphic to dihedral group containing $8$ elements. Then we have to show $L$ is a radical extension of $\mathbb{Q}$.
My approach : Dihedral group is clearly solvable and it can be proved. But I cam clueless how I can prove that L is a radical extension.
- Suppose that $L$ is a normal radical extension of $\mathbb{Q}$ and $[L : \mathbb{Q}]$ is not a 2-power. Prove that L must contain a primitive $p^{\text{th}}$ root of unity for some odd
prime $p$.
Can anyone help me with these ?
mycroftholmes1703
So if E/F had degree 2 (and the characteristic of F is not 2), then E = F(sqrt(a)) for some a. This you can see from the quadratic formula.
So if you can find a sequence of subgroups in the dihedral group each with index 2 in the next you'd be done.
Im having a bit of a hard time wrapping my head around the concept of Wreath Products. I've heard it loosely described as a group G being acted upon by a permutation group H. The example I am aware of is if you have n cubes with a symmetry group G, then the ways to rotate these cubes and permute the order is described by the wreath product G with S_n. However, in this case S_n can also be a permutation group on the set S_n itself which has n! elements and thus has structure G^{n!} semidirect product S_n. But the former representation implies a structure of G^n semidirect product S_n. Im confused as to which it is.
It can be either. You need to choose an action when you pick the group
So if I'm writing G \wr H, I am also choosing an H-set X and in reality forming a semidirect product G^X \rtimes H
And yes, you are right, there is no surefire way to tell what H-set you're choosing when someone writes that.
However there are standard actions, and when these are written we just agree that that's what we're referring to. When we write S_n, we mean S_n acting on {1, ..., n}. When we say, e.g., C_n, we mean the cyclic action on {1, ..., n} also.
If there is no written caveat, you should assume that the action is this standard one.
Is the first comment for he second problem and the second one for the first problem?
Just the first problem
Let V be an infinite-dimensional vector space over a field k. What is the Jacobson radical of End_k(V)? (IDK the answer but I'm curious now.)
Depending on how D_2n has been defined, you could just take an arbitrary element x and check whether x has order 2, i.e, whether x^2 = identity but x ≠ identity.
Also recall $D_{2n}$ is usually defined by the presentation [D_{2n}\coloneqq{r,s\mid r^n,s^2,srs^{-1}=r^{-1}}]
SelahW
This way it's not too difficult to find the elements of order 2
Last inequality, is the generalization of Chinese remainder Theorem?
Because if A + B = R then it gives the Chinese remainder theorem
But I need R to be commutative
It's not a problem if the special case (CRT) assumes more hypotheses than the general case.
Alternatively, you can apply this problem to the (R,R)-bimodule R under the additional hypothesis that A + B = R to get CRT for two two-sided ideals of a non-commutative ring.
BTW, are these from Blyth's textbook on module theory?
(R, R) - bimodule R ?
yes
You can construct a ring S (technically the tensor product R (⨯) R^op) and put an S-module structure on R such that the S-submodules of R are precisely the two-sided ideals of R.
If you take this for granted, you can make CRT a special case of this.
Nice (I like that book).
okay i will think about it, thank you
any hint?
In diagram chasing arguments like this, to define a function on one space (Z in this case), you usually pick an element and take preimages under various functions and then apply others.
got it
actually there is a theorem in theory so we can directly apply it
For example, in this case, to define h, take any z in Z and ||choose y in Y such that g(y) = z (why can you do this?) and define h(z) to be v(y). Show that h(z) does not depend on which y you chose and then that it is linear. The property v = h . g will be easy.||
Can't we apply this?
g is epimorphism therefore there exists g(y) = z
if g(y1) = g(y2) then y1-y2 in im f implies v(y1) = v(y2)
Does the group <a,b,c|a^2,b^2,c^2,(abc)^2> have a name? (Please tag if you reply)
this question might not make sense
i can elaborate more if needed
but if $(f \circ g) \circ h = h$, does that mean $f \circ g$ is the identity function?
clubsoda14
Not without some more restrictions on which functions you care about
Consider if h is a constant function
klein four
Z2 x Z2 with 3 equivalent generators
2d vector space over binary field
Klien 4 is also the smallest noncyclic group
I don't think that the given relations imply that abc = 1...
did i fuck up
yeah I think so
For example, we can map the group to F_2^3 by mapping a, b, c to the standard basis.
Can we show that ab has infinite order?
Oh if we add the relations acbc = 1, this is the semidirect product of <a, b | a^2 = b^2 = 1> with <c | c^2 = 1> by the action c.a := b, c.b := a.
In particular, any words in a, b which are distinct in <a, b | a^2 = b^2 = 1> are distinct in this group. By symmetry, the same holds for a, c and b, c.
Yes, the group arised from three involutions in SLn(Z) with the same "fixed point" and "generic 1 forms" , by this I mean think of an involution R as Rx = -x + <q,x>p, here p is the fixed point and q is the one form such that <q,p> = 2
The product of two of these involutions is actually a rank one unipotent
Meaning a unipotent u such thst rk(u-1) = 1
Its a quotient of Z_2 \star Z_2 \star Z_2 of course... it also contains copies of Z^2 (corresponding to (say) ab, ca as generators)
Does this come from root systems?
Root groups yes
By some results of Venkatarama this bad boy cannot live inside any thin subgroup of SLn(Z)
Seems like you're the one most likely to know what this group is called. 😂
Lol I was hoping this group was studied classically in combinatorial group theory
Cus the presentation looks good
This is true for involutions with the same one-form?
After all, otherwise you could get a nice Weyl group symmetry
Yes! you are right
It is cute.
Nice. I never thought about composing reflections with the same form/hyperplane.
hi just wanted to confirm if this seems right
if a and a^-1 are in the class, and for all b, (a is conjugate with b) implies (a^-1 is conjugate with b^-1), then you can apply that for all b in the conjugacy class and say that because a^-1 is in the conjugacy class, b^-1 is in the conjugacy class.
ive been thinking about this for too long i just asked chatgpt right now 😢
We also have $(ab)^2=a^2b^2=e$ and similarly for $bc$, right?
SelahW
No? I believe ab is of infinite order
SelahW
Freshmans dream haha
So do we contain a free algebra on a and b?
It's just a group, no vector space structure
That's with plus! This is just because the ring not necessarily commutative
There's no ring here?
Yeah
I read above, are we looking at the representation of this group?
Faithful representations into SLn(Z)
Ahh
I am interested in that
Big sl, not little? Ik people have different notations
Yes yes
Okok I will read more closely above bc I think other people probably know more about this than I 😄
Freshmans dream group edition
I want to prove this by myself
1 => 2, let's say contrary there is a non-empty subcollection such that there is no maximal element, now pick any submodule in it say N, then there exists submodule N_1 such that N \subset N_1, similarly for N_1, eventually we get ascending sequence N \subset N_1 \subset N_2 \subset....\subset N_k \subset....
But since M is a Noetherian Module therefore it will stop and give us contradiction.
2 => 1, since M follows maximal condition therefore for the collection of ascending sequence there must exist M_k such that M_n = M_k for all n≥k.
If there is any mistake please let me know
any hint for 3 part?
For 1 -> 3, if M isn't fg you consider what happens if you start from the zero module then toss in generators one by one
For 3 -> 1 start from an ascending chain, take the grand union and observe the union is a submodule
Ok so suppose $M$ is Noetherian and $N$ be a $R$-submodule of $M$. Choose $n_0 \in N$ and consider the module $<n_0> = N_0 \leq N$. If $N_0$ is all of $N$ then we are done if not then choose $n_1 \in N/N_0$, and keep repetaing the same argument. You will eventually have produced a chain modules contained, and your Noetherian condition tells it must stabilise.
Conversely, let every submodule is finitely generated. Then we have to show $N_0 \subset N_1 \subset N_2 \subset \dots$ must stabilise. Consider $N = \bigcup N_i$ and argue
mycroftholmes1703
yes, and if A\subset B, such that | A | = | B | with finite cardinality, A = B
Sorry I missed the part $N$ is a submodule of $M$ and hence must be finitely generated
mycroftholmes1703
so my first submodule is < n0>, then < n0 + n1 > ?
mycroftholmes1703
the third will be $<n_0,n_1,n_2>$ and so on
so how these structures are different?
mycroftholmes1703
oh got it
all these are different by the way you are choosing it
no i was talking about < n0 + n1> different from <n0, n1> but i got it
yes
they are not the same
lemme see
yes so at some point we get N_k = N_n for all k=> n
got it, thank you
Seems okay to me. If I am not missing out any finer details
ah, thanks
in converse part, say M is finitely generated by {n1,...,nk}, so at most k steps after we have N_s = N_k, for all s=>k
Root systems are funny because random ass algebra with them gives horrible identities like this
if M is R-module and if N is submodule of M satisfy the chain condition and M/ N satisfy same chain condition then M also satisfy that chain condition.
any hint?
Images and preimages of submodules are submodules (this should be relatively obvious). Consider the quotient epimorphism x |-> x + N, what happens to the module chain conditions?
Hint: ||Take the preimages of the chains, which is a chain||
yes images and preimages of submodules are submodules, do i need correspondence theorem?
actually the correspondence theorem is that applied to the x aforementioned map since the image of a submodule B is B/N, and the preimage of B/N is thus B by surjectivity
say M_0\subset M_1\subset M_2\subset....\subset M_m\subset...
then taking the f(M_0)\subset f(M_1)\subset...\subset f(M_m)\subset....., which are chain in M/N
taking preimage?
assume f(M_k)\subset f(M_n) for all k=>n, then taking preimage gives us M_1/N \subset M_2/N\subset..., M_k/N \subset M_n/N for all k=>n
should work
but where i used N satisfy chain condition?
because we apply it to the f(M_k) chain
but f(M_k) in M/N
Yeah you said M/N satisfies the chain condition
yes
so you apply it to that chain
Yep, that's the last part to check, but in that case it's considering what happens relative to N...
I think the correspondence theorem might be a bit more obvious here for ya
So we have a chain M_n in M. Taking the quotient gives a chain K_n = M_n/N, which must stabilize in some way. The only case that it doesn't is when ||It's entirely within N, in which you can ALSO apply the chain condition||
got it, thank you
sorry for the roundabout way
its fine
Ok so stupid question but why does the minimal polynomial of a transformation not change when u take it over an algebraically closed field
Like i know an explanation using matrices but like I want a more abstract formulation or sth
Can you give me an example of why the following ring is not reduced: $\frac{\mathbb{C}[x]}{(x^2)} \times \mathbb{C}$
damn_guuurl
Would be taking (x,0) suffice, since $x\cdot x = x^2 \equiv 0$
damn_guuurl
hey fellas, is there an open course with video lectures that follows tom judson's abstract algebra: theory and applications?
yep that works 
what do you mean by "not change"
Like some sort of invariance or preserved under the End(k^N) -> End(\overline{k}^N) embedding
Can someone help me to understand the converse part?
which one aaaa
ahh yes what a nice theta function... 56 is the dimension of the miniscule representation of E_7... 126 is the number of roots... yes of course
doom
Does this argument work? Suppose that $K$ is finite extension of a field $F$. and suppose that $K/F$ is Galois, then if $E$ is a subfield of $K$ and $E=\sigma(E)$ where $\sigma \in Gal(K/F)$. Then since $K$ is Galois we have that $K=F(\alpha)$ if $p$ is the
minimal polynmial of $\alpha$ over $E$. then $\simga(p(x))=p'(x)$ the minimal polynomial of $\alpha$ over $E'$, hence $[K:E]=[K:E']$ and it folows that $[E:F]=[E':F]$
mh_le
Compile Error! Click the
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actually I'm pretty sure the example you posted with E8 is of basically the exact same flavor 
I like the idea that evaluating it probably gives extremely small numbers
theta functions of lattices my beloved
shattices
nooo lattices are so good
note that both $p$ and $p' $ divides the minimial polynomial $f$ of $\alpha$ over $F$ so $\sigma$ will map any root of p to a root of $f$
mh_le
Ok so I have the sequence like this
${e} \triangleleft \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z} \triangleleft \mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z} \triangleleft D_8$.
mycroftholmes1703
But how are you saying we are done from here @rocky cloak ?
So by Galois correspondence these correspond to field extensions, and each of those are given by appending a square root
Ahhh yes. So they are basically quadratic extensions of 2.
The field extension corresponding to ${e} \triangleleft \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ say $F$ is a degree 2 extension and hence $F(\sqrt{\alpha}) = \mathbb{Q}$ and consequently we have for all the extension $\mathbb{Q} \subset F(\sqrt{\alpha}) \subset F(\sqrt{\alpha},\sqrt{\beta}) \subset F(\sqrt{\alpha},\sqrt{\beta}, \sqrt{\gamma})$
mycroftholmes1703
As for your second question, consider first the case where L is the splitting field of x^p - a for some a
Ok.
My doubt is how C is non-empty?
can someone tell me, why $P= mP$? I don't see why this would hold
damn_guuurl
So there seems to be some typos, but if P = M/im(phi).
Then N/mN -> M/mM being surjective means that mM + im(phi) = M. Which means mM/im(phi) = M/im(phi)
This example also works with x² and y² instead of x³ and y³, right?
this was easy to prove as a subgroup. i found that
$a^\ell b^k a^{-\ell}=\m{1&2^\ell k\0&1}$
which is in $H$ for all $k,\ell\in\bZ$. so isn't this subset isomorphic to all rationals with a power of 2 in the denominator? can i argue that set isn't finitely generated and then i'm done?
eigentaylor(got that eigenvalor)
also what is the name/symbol for that subset of the rationals?
also is it wrong to say $\gen{a}\gen{b}\gen{a}^{-1}\subset H$? lol
eigentaylor(got that eigenvalor)
to denote the set of all a^l b^k a^-l
interesting problem i thought of during a group theory supervision:
is there a group with exactly 5 elements of order 2?
||D_5||
Huh, that's a good question. I guess it's in some way because the dimension (say, the dimension of k[A] over k, where A is the linear map) doesn't change. But that's not a good answer.
Start at M and keep taking proper submodules while remaining non-zero. Eventually you are forced to stop, and the submodule you have must be a simple submodule - call it M_1. If M_1 is strictly smaller than M, start at M again and keep taking proper submodules while strictly containing M_1. Again eventually you are forced to stop at some M_2, and M_2/M_1 must be simple because there are no submodules between M_1 and M_2. Keep going in this way to get M_3, M_4, etc. If you never get M_n = M, the M_n would form an infinite ascending chain, which is a contradiction. So M = M_n for some n, and M_0 := 0, M_1, ..., M_n = M is a decomposition series.
BTW, when you get to the proof that series of submodules have a common refinement, I would recommend the proof in Ravi Vakil's algebraic geometry notes The Rising Sea: Foundations of Algebraic Geometry over Blyth's. They come with a picture that makes the argument much easier to follow.
I guess one way to think about it is how if T is a transformation on V, then V becomes a k[x] module retaj to
k[x]/(f1) x k[x]/(f2) ...
where fi are the invariant factors of T. So f1 is the minimal polynomial and f[i+1] divides fi.
Then it just comes down to k[x]/(f) tensored with a field extension K being equal to K[x]/(f)
That seems correct.
I've heard it called the dyadic rationals. Notationally, you can use ℤ[1/2] and nobody should object (although I don't know if they would know it).
I think there would be too much risk of confusion with {a^l b^k a^m | l, k, m ∈ ℤ}.
Okay this sounds way more promising to show
Thanks
would this work as a proof sketch? just need a sanity check
suppose G is a finite abelian group that is not cyclic. then G is isomorphic to Zn1xZn2x...xZnk such that at least one pair gcd(ni,nj)>1 (WLOG, suppose i=1,j=2). suppose n1=ap and n2=bp for some prime p>1. then H=<(a,0,0,...,0),(0,b,0,...,0)> is isomorphic to ZpxZp. by the map (ak,bl,0,...,0) maps to (k,l) (pretty sure my proof this is an isomorphism is correct)
ah yeah that's familiar. yeah makes sense
totally fair, yeah that also makes sense
the step i'm the least sure of is that there is at least one pair that is not coprime. but if they were all coprime, then (1,1,...,1) would be a generator, wouldn't it?
and what is the other case ?
Okay thank you
Well, you can see if you can find an intermediate extension L/K of degree p
I will look into it
808 pages
If R is the principal ideal domain then R is finitely generated, correct?
checking my calculation, the thompson subgroups of QD16 and M16 (modular group, uv = vu^5) both have 8 elements right
one of them is iso to Z2 x Z4 and the other to D8
It's unclear what you mean. R is always finitely generated as an R-module (generated by 1). This is true for any ring.
If you're asking if it's finitely generated as a ring, then this is not necessarily true
As finitely generated as a ring, why?
Well for example Q is not finitely generated as a ring
I'm struggling to think of an example of a commutative ring R, and an injective R-module M such that M is not divisible over R.
I know that R cannot be a PID because then an R-module is injective <=> it is divisible, so I'm trying to think of a simple commutative ring, that is not a PID, that is also not a Zmodule,
but I can't think of any simple examples
Principal ideal domain implies every ideal generated by a single element?
That is the definition yeah
Isn't Q the ideal of itself?
Q ( = (1)) and (0) are the only ideals in Q, that's correct
Yes
So can't I say Q is finitely generated by 1 ?
The subring generated by 1 is Z
I got it
If you're not talking about being generated as a ring, but something else that's fine
But generated as a ring we need x such that {rx | r in R } = R, right?
No
That's not a definition of generated subring
As @rocky cloak points out, there is indeed a typo. But if you are interested in the solution then
Let's see
For a local ring, the maximal ideal is it's Jacobson radical. Let $\phi : N \to M$ be given morphism then you can see that, since tensoring is right exact you got $(\text{coker} f) \otimes_{R} R/m \cong \text{coker}(f \otimes R/m) = coker(N/nM \to M/mM) = 0$, since the map is surjective. So you have easily $\text{coker} f = m (\text{coker}f)$. And now it is the perfect time to apply Nakayama's lemma as then you have $\text{coker} f = 0$ and you have $f$ is indeed surjective.
mycroftholmes1703
If R is an integral domain, then any injective module is divisible.
So it would have to be a non-domain.
For example R = k[x]/(x^2) then M=R is injective, but you can't divide by x.
R = Z/4 would also work
What if you took a semisimple ring
Are all modules divisible over a semisimple ring?
a => b, yes A is Noetherian because jagr point out A is finitely generated because A -module, A is a ring so r = r•1.
But the second sum of two principal ideals is the principal, I am not sure but isn't the sum of principal ideals is ideal and A is principal ideal domain therefore it is principal ideal?
Yeah
oh yeah
i am stupid
In general if r is not a zero divisor, then (r) = R so if M is injective and m is any element of M, then we can define a homomorphism (r) -> M sending r to m.
Lifting the inclusion (r) -> R by the injective property shows that we can "divide" by r in M
I am currently working on extending Maschke’s Theorem to continuous compact groups. Is it as simple as stating that the group elements are bounded and the space between elements is infinitesimal so we have an integral instead of a sum and a range rather than the order of the group? Or am I missing some important intricacies
Maybe it depends on how exactly divisible is defined.
Like you can't divide by (1,0) in kxk
What equations are they talking about
Why is k suddenly algebraically closed
I am supposed to use this apparently
I guess there is some work in showing that you can do integration on your group at all. Like the existence of Haar measure or whatever
That is actually what the question is titled “Haar Measure” however it has never been introduced to us. Is there a short definition you could provide?
Well, the Haar measure is just the measure (way to integrate) that is invariant under left multiplication by elements of the group.
In(S4) iso S4/C(S4)=S4/<e>=S4
im just trying to understand how S4 can be iso to In(S4). is this saying that S4 acting on itself by conjugation is the same as acting on itself by multiplication? i.e. that conjugating by some element is the same as left multiplying by a different element? i'm struggling to understand what this means
Hmm…. Okay. I’ll have to do more reading. This course requires a lot more formalism than I am familiar with so it’s making things difficult. I appreciate it!
or is this more trivial than i'm making it out to be. just that conjugating by each element gives a unique inner automorphism which preserves the group structure phi_(g1g2)=phi_g1 o phi_g2
Conjugation by x and conjugation by y are different when x and y are different
Gives u two ways for the group to act upon itself faithfully
Left mult and by conjugation
and normally, phi_(xc)=phi(x) if c is in the center, so a nontrivial center means that that these conjugate maps are no longer unique (because there are "fewer" of them than elements in the group)?
It just says that different elements give the same conjugation action
When they differ by something in the center
yeah that's basically what i'm thinking
that's why it's iso to the quotient by the center
okay thank you chmonkey ❤️
For a compact group it's not so bad.
Consider an open neighborhood of the identity U. Then for an element g in your group gU = {gu | u in U}.
The set of all such gU covers your group, and since the group is compact you only need finitely many. Call the minimal number you need [G:U].
For any subset S of G. Let [S:U] be the minimal number you need to cover S. Then [S:U] <= [G:U].
Now define the measure of S to be the limit of [S:U]/[G:U] for U smaller and smaller neighborhoods of the identity.
suppose that K/F and L/F are finite extensions where each basis is linearly independent over the other, then K intersected with L = F?
How can you even make sense of the bases being linearly independent?
You need to embed K and L into a super field and that isn’t canonical
I can’t say right off the top of my head, but I’m 99% sure you can embed them in different ways which have different intersections
Actually yeah, take Q and look at quadratic extensions
You can do say Q(i) and Q(i) again
Or like Q(i) and Q(sqrt(2))
This is kinda silly but if you work with quartic extensions you can get intersections of degree 2 or degree 1 or degree 4
Q(e^pi/4) and Q(i, sqrt(2)) for example
Or Q(e^pi/4) and like, Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3))
I see
?
This is a pain to show additivity, it's a bit easier with the Reisz Markov way but eh
yeah, choosing a basis requires choice
This isn’t the important part
For one they’ve started with a choice of basis
Vector space, but yes that was my point
to compare the two bases
You need a common superset for the intersection to make sense anyway. So I would take that as given
?
abelian groups???
Idk. To make sense of it yes, but it isn’t uncommon for people to not realize stuff like this when first learning stuff
question was about $S_4$, right?
SelahW
I was saying what inn(G) = G means
Just kidding ily aly 🫂
is there an elementary proof that even and odd permutations are well defined that doesnt involve constructing a homomorphism that takes functions and spits out functions of functions of whatever
like a more elegant one
How are you defining even and odd?
I'm not sure what kind of proof you're alluding to, but the one I'm familiar with goes like:
- every permutation is a product of transpositions.
- if p can be written as a product of an even number of transpositions and as a product of an odd number, then e = p * p^-1 can be written as a product of an odd number.
- so it's enough to show that the identity can not be written as the product of an odd number of transpositions. This you can do by induction and using the relations between transpositions
You can have S_n act on the polynomial f= Prod (xi-xj) for i < j and then it’s clear that the action produces f or -f and use that to define even and odd
This is maybe what you’re saying with functions of functions idk, but when you phrase it this way it’s very direct
and it’s clear the notion is well-defined here
okay thanks thats a billion times simpler
It was kind of like that but the proof used a specific example of a homomorphism that uses directed graphs in order to get one that goes from Sn to Z2 where every 2 cycle goes to the non identity
Lmao
Similar to what chmonkey said you could also define parity by the number of inversions (pairs i<j such that p(j) < p(i)).
Then what you need to prove is that this behaves the way you'd expect with composition
What would be the non-injective module, I tried Z2 as a Z4 module and thought it would work but it seems like Z2 is divisible as a Z4 module
What's your definition of divisible that makes Z2 divisible?
In any case Z/2 is not injective as a Z/4-module
Oh what I thought I had shown that it was injective 
Do you know what I did wrong?
g(1) = 1 implies g(2) = 1+1
oh equals 0
I wasn't sure where it was in the book, so I went with this one, maybe they are not the same or maybe I mis-used it
This is the definition
but then I thought the non-zero divisors were 1 and 3, and we can solve
0=1*a
1=1*b
0=3*c
1=3*d
for a,b,c,d in Z2
But I’m not sure about the non-zero divisor part I guess I’ve only really seen it for integral domains 🫥
I see, in that case any injective module is divisible, but the converse is not true as the example Z2 shows
You can also have counterexamples for domains, but they will have to be more complicated
any injective module is divisible?
I don't think so, its asking me to make a counterexample
Proof here
"If R is an integral domain, then any injective module is divisible."
This must be using a different definition of divisible then
Sure, but you can replace "integral domain" by commutative ring
Don't need commutative either
This definition is only stated for integers, but I suppose you could imagine extending it to
A = rA
for all nonzero r in R
or maybe all non zero divisors r in R?
Sure, but then your exercise would be false
so an R module A is divisible if rA=A for all nonzero r in R
and then we have to use a non-integral domain to find an example of an injective but not divisible module
yeah shit was ass
i ended up with 4 diff homomorphisms that build on eachother
Yes, though it's a little silly because if R has zero divisors then it's impossible for A = rA for all nonzero r, unless A=0
so the example has to be 0 ?
Well you wanted an example where it wasn't divisible, so you'd just take any non-zero injective
Could also be that the exercise meant to ask about a divisible module that wasn't injective...
Maybe worth checking erata on that
oh we let R have zero divisors and then any non zero module over R is not divisible, that's what you meant by that?
so we just find a ring R with zero divisors and any injective module over it
then it can't be divisible, because of the zero divisors
Yeah, I mean, you've already done that
but I thought Z2 was not injective as a Z4 module
I am looking at exercise 10 like it says, and struggling to see the difference between both problems part (a)
now M is a left R module instead of being a ring like S, is that the only difference?
Maybe I will need slme more hints.
In this case we have $L = \mathbb{Q}(a^{1/p},\zeta_p)$. The degree of the extension is definitely $p(p-1)$. But what more?
mycroftholmes1703
They're really different, you should take a closer look
The former says that if you take linear maps out of a ring R you can turn this naturally into an R-module
or well okay
they're not too different
if you let R = Z and S = R (from the first image) then the second image's a is the same thing as the first one
The thing that made the top image work is that an R-module M is also a (Z,R)-bimodule
?
like J(QD16)
How do I calculate $Z[\sqrt{-5}] / (1 + \sqrt{-5})$
Can you express 1 + sqrt(5) in terms of sqrt(-5) first?
Say you can do that, and say that 1 + sqrt(5) = p(sqrt(-5)) where p(x) is a polynomial
Then Z[sqrt(-5)] = Z[x]/(x^2 + 5) where you send x to sqrt(-5)
So Z[sqrt(-5)]/(1 + sqrt(5)) = Z[x]/(x^2 + 5,p(x)) by the third iso
Now you can maybe try to quotient by p(x) first, and then see what x^2 + 5 becomes under that quotient
Bruh
aNDY
My bad
Im pretty confident it should $C_6$
No wtf am I smoking
aNDY
Okay well
My previous comments basically stand
This is
Z[x]/(x^2 + 5, 1 + x)
If you quotient by the latter first you get Z where x = -1
So you have Z/((-1)^2 + 5) = Z/6Z
Lemme think about this for a second
Need to verify
Im so poor with commutative algebra
Sorry, what's g - bar
So you can use that Z[sqrt(-5)] = Z[x]/(x^2 + 5)
The image of g in R/f
I’m basically saying you can do a quotient by two things by quotienting by them 1 at a time
So when you observe this and then compute Z[sqrt(-5)]/(1 + sqrt(-5)) you’re choosing to quotient by f and then g where f = x^2 + 5 and g = 1 + x
But you can do it in the other order
I see
Note that g-bar in this case is 1 + sqrt(-5) because once you quotient by f you’re saying that x is sqrt(-5)
What's the algorithm to compute Z[x]/(x+1)
Just send x to -1
Why does that work
This is a surjection to Z with kernel x + 1
But like when you quotient you’re just saying
x + 1 = 0
So x = -1
That’s the intuitive thing, the first iso is the way to justify it
This is the same reason why Z[x]/(x^2 + 5) is Z[sqrt(-5)]
Yeah im familiar with the abstraction, just haven't done enough examples yet
Send x to sqrt(-5) and the kernel is (x^2 + 5)
But intuitively yeah, you’re saying x = sqrt(-5) cuz algebra
Yeah I’m just saying what you should be thinking to recognize how to compute it
Then you justify it after
You gotta know your idea before you can go and prove it yknow?
You set x = -1 in x^2 + 5 lol
Yeah so okay
Z[x]/(x^2 + 5, x + 1) = (Z[x]/(x+1))/(x^2 + 5-bar)
By the third iso
But the top guy there is iso to Z where you send x to -1 right?
Yeah
So now what I’m saying is that if R is iso to S by f, then R/I is iso to S/f(I)
You can apply your isomorphism to the ideal too and take the quotient on the other side
Apply that to (Z[x]/(x+1))/(x^2 + 5-bar) under the iso Z[x]/(x+1) -> Z where x goes to -1
And then x^2 + 5-bar goes to (-1)^2 + 5
So (Z[x]/(x+1))/(x^2 + 5-bar) ≈ Z/((-1)^2 + 5) = Z/(6)
So because the iso Z[x]/(x+1) to Z was obtained by setting x = -1, you just write x = -1 in x^2 + 5 to find out what to quotient by in Z
I am stuck trying to do (b)
Specifically I am stuck here
I want to show F' is an R-module homomorphism first of all
So I want to show for all b1, b2 in B, for all r1, r2 in R, that the equality holds
but I don't know how to simplify the LHS anymore because R might not be commutative, so I feel like I can't get the two sides to be equal
I get it now
So our map $\mathbb{Z}[x] \to \mathbb{Z}[x]/(x+1)$ is given by $x \mapsto -1$, since this makes $(x+1)$ the kernel of the map
And by 3rd isomorphism theorem
aNDY
We have that $\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x^2+5, x+1) \cong (\mathbb{Z}[x]/(x+1))/((-1)^2 + 5) = \mathbb{Z}/(6) = \mathbb{Z}/6\mathbb{Z}$
aNDY
i have a question from aluffi
this looks to be almost trivial?
im not sure if i am missing anything because once you identify the cayley graph with the group itself then you get that this is a free action immediately, no?
i am slightly confused on what the "action" defined in the parentheses is trying to convey
orrr maybe i am just bad at reading and the actions are on sets of vertices like it says.......
FWIW I’m reading it the same way
The thing in the parentheses just says what acting on a directed graph means
It says that when you move vertices which has an edge the place you moved it to also has to have an edge
But like you said, the Cayley graph just… clearly works
I'm very confused by part (a) of this
why does it just say [M is a Z-module..]
that makes part (a) completely pointless, as cor37 says "Every Z module is a submodule of an injective Z module"
so.. if M is a Z-module then its a submodule of an injective Z module, by cor37 and part (a) is pointless...
Proof: Take sequence M = M_0 \subset N \subset {0}.
By Theorem 5.9, for every Tower of submodule there exists refinement of tower such that it is Jordan Holder tower because M is R-module of finite height.
Correct?
I've got a and b done, so I can assume those results. I would appreciate pointers for c, I'm not really sure how to approach it.
You seem to have a mistake in the bottom right.
r1 f'(b1) = f'(b1)(r r1)
not r1 f(r b1)
where does here $A$ come from in the last part of the proof?
damn_guuurl
You have to remember that every R-module is in particular a Z-module. But yes the exercise is very easy, but it's also crucial to do (a) before (b), so that's the point
And I guess, if they didn't give you the solution in the hint it might be slightly harder
Wrote down this proof in class but im unsure for the last line. Why do we have equality? I dont think p(x) | p(p(x)) if p(x) has a nonzero constant term
You can write it out if it's hard to see, like say
p(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + ...
and write J = (p(x))
Then p(alpha) =
a0 + a1(x + J) + a2(x + J)^2 + .. =
a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + ... + J
yeah that was basically it, seems like an obvious no
That's a no yeah
yes for q(x) in R[x]/(p(x))
just to make sure
In general p(q(x) + J) = p(q(x)) + J
for any ideal?
Yes
oh ok yeah i had a misunderstanding about how the polynomials interacted i see
thx a lot
It's just because a polynomial is given by addition and multiplication, which all work nicely with the quotient ring
due the property in nilpotent maps that makes is an improper subset of Mn(R)\GLn(R) does there aries any algebraic property in the nilpotent set ?
i feel there is some thing cyclic about it, but i mightbe stupid
Don't think so.
They're not closed under addition, not closed under multiplication, not closed under commutators.
Can't really think of anything else one would ask for
What do you mean by them being closed?
Like topologically?
yeah I was doing that
Seems plausible, but idk
right two of em can produce good old GL
What do you mean by feeling cyclic?
now i think it's not really cyclic, its annihilation
but the fact that for a finite n and it's multiples the map would result in a 0 map
but 0times anything is zero
There's kind of a mistake in this exercise.
M shouldn't be an R-module, but just an abelian group. Or at least, every time they talk about a homomorphism to M it should be a homomorphism of abelian groups.
For example f defined by
f(a) = f'(a)(1)
is not R-linear.
I think I had a fundamental misunderstanding of quotient rings. I just got done doing a lot of groups and the way quotient group are defined depend on the fact that group elements permute the group
But the way the operations are defined on quotient rings vs quotient groups seem pretty different in nature as a result
Are they 
they seem to be at least
like aN * bN is a set equivalence to (ab)N from the usual group action
but if I take (a+I) + (b+I), if we just use set equivalence with the ring (not quotient) operation, we get (a+b) + 2I
which is not the same as (a+b) + I
I+I is just I
Since 0 ∈ I
The same way N*N = N
The addition structure is just quotient of abelian groups
oh right woops for that
yeah I + I is not 2I
need to be careful about this stuff
However (aI)(bI) ⊂ abI instead of =
(Assuming cring)
but I^2 is not I is it
right
okay so i think my point still makes sense
one of the operation doesnt rly follow from the set equivalence from the usual ring operation on it
yeah its still well defined ofc
So L is a radical extension, so you can find a tower
Q < Q(a1) < Q(a1, a2) < ... < L
where each time we adjoin some pth root.
If these ps are all 2, then L would have degree a power of 2. So one of these must be an odd prime.
So you have some K < L such that K(a) < L, a^p is in K, but a is not.
And you know that L is normal
if M = M_0\subset M_1\subset M_2\subset....\subset M_n = {0}, h(M) = n+1?, where h is height of tower.
You would usually define h(M) = n in this case, so that h(0) = 0
yeah okay, but why does this hold then?
thank you
any hint for 5.3?
i proved 5.4 but in 5.5 it seems easy since M/ker f is isomoporphic to im f, so i can use 5.4, correct? it just outline
by 5.5, we can say that if M_1 and M_2 is isomorphic then h(M_1) = h(M_2), but can we proof h(M/ker f) = h(im f) without circularity?
is there any jargon for homomorphisms which have f(a) < f(b) if and only if a < b
this is not increasing right since increasing is one direction (a < b => f(a) < f(b))
never mind it's an iff
This is an order embedding
nice thanks
By 5.7, can I say that if G is a finitely generated abelian group and f:G -> G surjective homomorphism then f is also injective.
And for 5.8, Since f is injective therefore M is isomorphic to im f so im f is Noetherian and A cap im f is submodule of im f therefore it is Noetherian.
Correct?
A finitely generated group doesn't necessarily have finite height, but if you know that fg abelian groups are Noetherian, then you can use the same argument
Yes but I just need to use Noetherian property
I mean if G is a finitely abelian group then I just need Noetherian property
To show f surjective implies injective
Yeah, in general for any Noetherian module M, if f:M -> M is surjective then it's also injective.
Dually if M is artinian and f:M -> M is injective, then it's also surjective.
Yes so my argument is correct ?
I don't know what your argument is.
You mean for 5.8?
Sorry but I don't get if you know that the fg abelian group are Noetherian, fg abelian group?
finitely generated abelian groups are Noetherian, yes
I'm not sure if that's your question
My question was I gave an argument for 5.8 first part, I wanted to verify it
Oh got it yes I know they are Noetherian
Because Noetherian is equivalent to finitely generated R-module
No, that's not correct
Noetherian is stronger
But for abelian groups it's the same
Isn't?
I can deduce that P is Noetherian because P/ker g is isomorphic to N so it is Noetherian and ker g = im f, so ker g is Noetherian.
So P is Noetherian but I have no idea about how to show existence of y_i ?
Wtf is height
Does that mean length?
It means length yeah
Their hint is silly
They’re combining the proof of surjective => injective for Noetherian and the converse for Artinian
But it’s much better I think to demonstrate that length is additive on SESes
Grrrrr
Yes
@rocky cloak sorry to ping but theorem 5.1 implies it is equivalent
No
No, jagr was correct
Theorem 5.1 c) says every submodule is finitely generated
Take a ring such as k[x1,x2,…], as a module over itself its generated by 1
But the ideal (submodule) (x1,.x2,…) is not finitely generated
It’s a theorem that fg modules over a Noetherian ring (like Z, which is why it works for abelian groups) are Noetherian
You mean A is finitely generated doesn't imply its submodules are finitely generated
Yes
If this is true (which says all fg modules are Noetherian) then your ring R is actually Noetherian
Apply it to the submodules I < R and you get it
Got it
I haven't read the Noetherian ring but my guess is when you treat R as R-module and if it is Noetherian then R is the Noetherian ring, right?
Yes
To prove this, do I need any advanced tools?
You don't, no. It's fairly straightforward to show that f.g. free modules are Noetherian and that quotients of Noetherian modules are Noetherian.
No
Show that if you have a Noetherian submodule N < M, and M/N is also Noetherian, then M is Noetherian
Doing this lets you show that R^n is Noetherian by induction
And then a fg module is a quotient of R^n
I proved that
Well then induction gives you R^n is Noetherian, and now M = R^n/N for some N so you win
I got how induction works here, assuming for R^n-1 = R^n/R implies R^n is Noetherian, why M = R^n/N?
If you are generated by x1,…,xn define the map R^n sending ei to xi
This is surjective (because the xi generate M) so by first iso you win
Here I am not sure about f.g. free modules, isn't diff from f.g. ?
Thank you for making the winner❤️
I don't know what this means exactly. f.g. means finitely generated. A free module is a particular kind of module that I don't want to get into if you don't know. A finitely generated free module is something with both of these properties. In particular, they look like R^n for n being a natural, like Chmonkey said.
can i consider the stabilizer of the action of G on the set of sylow p subgroups as a subgroup of index n_p where n_p is the number of sylow p subgroups
G acts on sylow p ssubgroups with conjugation
Our professor mentioned that if (m,n)=1 where m=[K1 : F] and n=[K1 : F], then K1 intersection K2 = F. Is this because then [K1K2 : F] = mn (because lcm(m,n)=mn) and since we have by the translation theorem that [K1K2 : F] = mn/([K1 intersect K2 : F]) and hence the denominator is 1, we have that the intersection of K1 and K2 equal F. If this argument holds, this seems to imply that if [K1K2 : F] = mn (for any reason), we can then conclude that the intersection of the extensions equal F?
so for a p group, we know there's always an element of order p. but can we say that if |G|=p^k, then G has an element of order p^j for 0<=j<=k? and by extension, would that show G always has a subgroup of order p^j for 0<=j<=k?
I have no idea how to do this problem in Lang and don’t really understand the hint
any hints?
could we say something like, let g1 have order p. then G/<g1> has order p^(k-1) (say k>1), so it has an element of order p g2<g1>. then g2 has order p^2 in G. etc.?
I guess those polynomials listed are the same as functions
every p-group is not cyclic. consider klein 4
i know it's not, but i'm just asking if it has an element of order p^k. in a proof i'm doing, i need to show a p group |G|=p^n has a normal subgroup of order p^k for all k between 0 and n. i've proved it providing i can say G actually has a subgroup of order p^k. are you saying that i can't guarantee this by using cyclic subgroups? because the klein 4 group has cyclic subgroups of order 2^0 and 2^1, which is consistent with what i'm trying to say.
if youre trying to show that a p group has a subgroup of the size of every possible divisor of its order, then you should use induction
and the fact that p groups have a nontrivial center
thats kind of what i'm trying to do here. is this idea wrong? @sonic coral
why do you think you can quotient by g1?
that’s what my suggestion will help with
so i remember we know the center is nontrivial
and so it must have order a power of p
are you suggesting to quotient by the center?
that doesn’t guarantee that your quotient group is p^(k-1)
yeah
If G is nilpotent and H subseteq G then H subset N_G(H) (strict inclusion)
p-groups are nilpotent because every nontrivial p-group has nontrivial center
tbh we have not learned nilpotent yet
you don’t need it but it’s a way to do it
the argument i was thinking doesn’t require it
How did you prove that a normal subgroup of order p^k exists given that one of order p^k exists?
but just to confirm, i was completely wrong: we can't guarantee an element of order p^j for all valid j?
group action by conjugation on the set of all subgroups of order p^k
Jaxon already told you not all p-groups are cyclic
its not obvious to me that cyclic is implied by "there exists an element of order m for all m that divide the order of the group"
cyclic would imply the other, but i don't see the converse
Your groups are finite,right?
yeah
If |G|=n and g has order n then G=<g>
maybe you mean to restrict to proper divisors
okay that makes sense to me
i was hoping klein 4 would get that across but i should have been more explicit
yeah a direct sum of exactly two wouldn't be a counterexample for what i was thinking, we need at least 3
okay so im convinced we can't use cyclic subgroups
sure, i was working with your idea of any divisor at first
ye
im just not sure how to use the center here to guarantee existence of subgroups
with order p^k
k=0 and k=n are obvious. just <e> or G
we definitely didn't cover that yet
the center is an abelian subgroup that is also a p group, how can you show the existence of a subgroup of order p that will also be normal in G
You can come up with it
also, in case it isn't obvious, note that a quotient of a p-group is also a p-group
yeah this is obvious
But the idea is that knowing information about subgroups of G/N you can conclude things about subgroups of G containing N
so the center is abelian p group, which thus has an element g1 of order p. this element will be in the center, so <g1> is normal with order p?
how do you know there’s an element of order p
and why is the cyclic subgroup generated by said element normal in the whole group
cauchy's theorem
that’s the right argument, yeah
p divides the order means there's an element of order p. the center is nontrivial. if g1 commutes with everything then of course conjugation will cancel
so is the idea to then do G/<g1>? or is there something simpler im not seeing
what is the lattice iso theorem
i dont think we ever talked about that either. but is the idea to show that G/<g1> also has an element in the center of order p which will then correspond to a subgroup of order p^2 in G
like im sure the correspondence theorem provides a very clean proof, but im trying to keep it simple.
something like what you’re saying I think
you would need to argue that the subgroup is indeed a subgroup of G
which the lattice theorem gives, but it’s not clear to me otherwise
okay so apparently i'm a total idiot. the first sylow theorem tells us that any group with maximal prime divisor p^n has subgroups of order p^k for each 1<=k<=n. so i was proving this for nothing (and i was done like an hour ago LOL).
still i came up with an argument, and i was wondering if you can tell me if this is BS or not?
let H1=<g1> and G1=G/H1. then |G1|=p^(n-1). if n>1, then we can repeat the argument and say we have a g2H1 in the center of G1 with order p. let H2=<g2H1>. then (G/H1)/H2 is iso to G/K for some normal subgroup K by the third iso theorem, and |G|/|K|=|G|/(|H1| |H2|) implies |K|=|H1| |H2|=p^2. so actually i guess this argument sort of directly implies the normal subgroups because i think i can just repeat this process?
Thanks. I found a seperate solution, it's actually almost similar. I used the fact that finite extension of $\mathbb{Q}$ is seperable and normal in question and hence as such is Galois. That makes the question easier I guess although I think they are the same
mycroftholmes1703
I am stuck with something else though
Find the splitting field of $x^4 + x + 1$ over $\mathbb{F}_{64}$
mycroftholmes1703
Assume has no other $0$ other than the trivial one. Consider the polynomial $h(X) = 1 - f(X)^{q - 1}$. Then you have the degree of $h(X)$ to be $d(q - 1)$. Now consider the polynomial $q(X) = \prod_{i = 1}^{n} (1 - (X_i)^{q - 1})$ then the degree of $q(X)$ is $n(q - 1)$. Since the only root of $f(X)$ is the trivial root $0$, then $1 - f(X)^{q - 1}$ has $n(q - 1)$ roots. But $n > d$ which is a contradiction.
mycroftholmes1703
what element would satisfy f^{-1}(y) = a kerf?
because if a in X and x in ker f, f(ax) = f(a)f(x) = f(a), but there can be multiple points in the preimage
Yes so what's the problem? There can be multiple elements in the preimage
You can show that if f(y) = b then y in some coset of ker f
But I think for fixed b, f^-1(b) is a coset of ker f
this exercise felt really weird to me because it felt like we were assuming things about M that shouldnt be assumed, but I think I did it accoridng to the problem statement
I was hoping someone could check my work
can you please tell which text you are reading ?
Rotman introduction to algebraic topology
Thank you
@rocky cloak any hints for this ?
Does the first #7 seem weird here? I don’t see how K is any different from G. If H is a subgroup of a group G, it automatically inherits the identity element e of G, So you have a tautology in the description for the set K, and every x in the group G would satisfy the conditions described for membership in K. Just take a=e. Or am I thinking about this wrong?
there is "iff" statement, so may gag^-1 in H but a not in H, for some g in G
also you have to show if a in H then gag^-1 in H
S_3, H = {1, 12 }, a = 12, g = 13, gag^-1 not in H
so K is proper set of G
First of all check if the polynomial is reducible or not.
i want to prove this one by myself, any hint how can i proceed? I have no idea how to go 1 =>2, yes there exist \pie:P->N injective morphism such that g(\pie) = id on P
yes wait let me do this
1=>3, my guess is N is direct sum of ker g and im \pie.
first they have intersection {0}, and since g(\pie) = id thus g^2 = g on im g
so we can write n = (n-g(n)/2 + (n + g(n) )/2.
and (n-g(n) )/2 in ker g
but how can i show n+g(n) in im \pie
yes
without even the /2 right?
yes
yes
well what is the easiet thing that can be in the image
like in general
f(something) rihgt?
anythuing of the of the form f(something)
f?
well, use the splitting u have
also try to modify the way u wrote n abit
u can also do this by defining a map directly
constructing an excpliti isomoprhism
this is easier
but i can't tell u without ruinig the hwole problem for u ig
ig the hint is to draw a diagram
no i am wrong g^2 = g on im g is incorrect
It's almost correct - \pie \circ g = id on im(\pie).
yes now how it helps me ?
Suppose m = n + p with n in N and p in im(pi). What functions can you apply to m?
g?
g(m) = g(n) + s, where \pie(s) = p
But what is g(n)?
sorry i don't get the question
You can simplify g(n).
N = ker(g); I think you meant that M = N (+) im(\pie)?
how N = ker g?
So yes, that's correct.
sorry, you mean M is not that M which is given in question
Yeah, I got the letters wrong.
This one is correct.
This should also be with the first term in M, i.e., let's say n = m + p with m in M and p in im(\pie).
then g(n) = s, but g is surjective
where s is defined by \pie(s) = p?
sorry i defined it here
yes
do i look at solution? i don't want
I'll say this much.
If N = M (+) P, this means that every n in N is equal to m + p for unique (m, p) in M ⨯ P. Obviously you can get n from m and p as m + p, but for the direct sum property to hold, it must be possible to get back m and p from n. So you should look for an expression in (n+p) which gives you either n or p (once you get one, you can get the other by subtracting from n+p).
thank you
clubsoda14
v^\vee is the dual basis yes
T(v_j) is just an element in V
so you can write it out as a linear combination of your basis elements
oh right since T:V -> V
the coefficints u get from this to T(v_j) is exactly the entries in ur marix
matrix
to show all 3-cycles are conjugate in A5, is it enough to just note a 3-cycle is a sylow 3-subgroup of A5 and all three cycles are therefore conjugate to each other?
most proofs i've seen explicitly show any three-cycle is conjugate to (123) in A5 so all 3-cycles are conjugates
i know hint is enough but i don't get it, i am stuck at showing im f^n cap ker f^n = {0}, i concluded that if x in their intersection then f(x) must be in their intersection
do it by writing a similar decompositoin to the splitting lemma's proof
particulary use compositions of functions
u know from the chains that ker(f^p) is ker(f^n+p)
and similiary with the img
yes
sorry splitting lemma?
/.
oh its called splitting lemma
no
i mean't when u tried to do the proof
and tried to write n as something here + something there
not apply the splitting lemam
lemma*
sorry
Yes so I am trying to show im f^n cap ker f^n = {0}
i think you can keep going down
like take x in im f^n
1 sec
im on bed and im stupid but im trying to show like
that the ker chain stops pre-maturaly
probably at n-q or something
Yes
do u think this works
Yes because the given hint has the same idea
well ig let us claim that ker(f^(n-q)) = ker(f^(n-q+k)) for all k
(under the assumption that the intersectino is non empty)
or no that won't do anything
I think we need the same for im f
x = f^n(y) for some y and f^n(x) = 0
Yes
Looks great.
But Q is an injective Z-module, not an R-module.
And this was probably a typo in the previous problem as well.
f^2n(y) = 0 --> y is in ker(f^2n) which is ker(f^n) by noetherian
or whatever
the chain
but x = f^n(y)
so x =0
yeah this should work
right?
so ig we don't need the img to stablize
atleast for that
unless im wron
g
I guess you have to also show that a 3-cycle is conjugate to its inverse.
But the advantage of the explicit proof is that it extends to An for n>5
@chilly ocean what do u thikn
I think this part is correct
@void cosmos sorry to ping, but i am again stuck M = im f^n (+) ker f^n
ah no problem i will wait
surely someone else cna help
it seems tricky to find combination
how do i find the units of this Ring if anyone could give me any insights
This is probably a stupid question, but I can't see why this is true, could someone help? (mu_n is the group of nth roots of unity over Q)
So one way to see it is that an nth root of unity is of the form $e^{2\pi i k/n}$ where k is in ${0,..., n-1}$
EmmaGhost
Well, assume we are not splitting over C but over some abstract splitting field K
