#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 283 of 1
no - famously, there exists a counterexample to f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)
(think hamel basis!)
so u'll have to use more facts than just that
That’s by definition of field automorphism
To be specific, the ring of R-linear endomorphisms of R is just R, where the endomorphisms are right multiplication
R is a 1 dimensional vector space over itself who’s basis element is 1
So yes lol
God showing $a_n^{r+1}b_{m-r}= 0$ for 2 i) was so annoying for me
kiand123
All the indices and everything
At least it gave me good review on the nuts and bolts of how polynomials multiply
But UGH
ahaha i just graded my commutative algebra students on something similar
yeah these are good to do in full though
Hahahaha
Yeah. I knew it was good to actually work on the details even tho i didnt want to
Jacobson radical? In MY commutative algebra class? That is noncommutative filth and must be purged! For shame.
yeshua
is there anything else other than the form P \oplus Q
no, that is all of them, if you mean P and Q are subgroups of Z
no, i just said that is all of them lol
Check if they have the same roots.
if they happen to be equal, you know from the left that (x+3) divides it
Then what?
number of subgroups of $\Bbb Z_p \times\Bbb Z_p$
yeshua
number of subgroups of $\Bbb Z_p \times\Bbb Z_p \times\Bbb Z_p$
yeshua
for this the subgroups can be of order 1,p,p^2
out of which two are trivial
how to determine the rest ?
any hint, pls just give me the minimal amount of hint
a subgroup of (F_p)^n is automatically an F_p-vector space
so you want to find subspaces inside an n-dimensional space over k = F_p
then use that to answer the second question
I have a question regarding the following theorem
\begin{proposition}
Let $R$ be a commutative ring, $a \in R$, and $f \in R[X]$. Then there exists a $q \in R[X]$ such that
[f = q \cdot (X-a) + f(a).]
\end{proposition}
why this holds only if its a commutative ring
what would be the problem if it was not
Mootje
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Hello, could someone tell me why any element of homK(F) extends to an element of HomK(L, algebraic closure of L) ?
if you have a map F --> Lbar, then you can extend it to any algebraic extension L/F
m dimensional subspace inside n dim space
$\frac{\prod_{k=0}^{m-1} (r^n - r^k)}{\prod_{k=0}^{m-1} (r^m - r^k)}$
amirite
But here i just have a map F -> F don't i?
yee r being the number elements in the field k (in our case r = p)
yep i missed that
yee, you have a map tau: F --> F which you can compose with the inclusion F --> Fbar = Lbar
yeshua
what if you use this for f = (X-a)(X-b), that should force q = (X-b) right?
Oh okay i see now, thank u so much
but then we have (X-a)(X-b) = (X-b)(X-a) which would mean ab = ba
made a mistake
$\frac{\prod_{k=0}^{m-1} (r^n - r^k)}{\prod_{k=0}^{m-1} (r^m - r^k)}$
yeshua
so to find the total number of subgroups i have to count all possible dimensional subspace right?
starting from 0 to n
yee
$\sum_{m=0}^{n} \binom{n}{m}r = \sum{m=0}^{n} \frac{\prod_{k=0}^{m-1} (r^n - r^k)}{\prod_{k=0}^{m-1} (r^m - r^k)}$
yeshua
is this a sin to do ?
not really, but that notation isn't conveying anything lol
ig better to write |Gr(m, n)(F_p)|
where Gr(m, n) is the grassmannian of m-dimensional subspaces of an n-dimensional space

Because the factor theorem only holds for commutative rings
f(X) - f(a) has a as a root, so if the factor theorem holds it must be divisible by X - a
If it doesnt then the factor theorem need not hold
In fact this statement is equivalent to it
Gr(d, n)(k) is the standard-ish notation for d-dimensional subspaces of k^n. It's called the grassmannian of d-dimensional subspaces.
there's a section called grassman ring in Hoffman kunze, but i skipped it
:orangecuh:
Could someone explain what is the intuition behind the definition of a polynomial being solvable by radicals ?
Like i knew since a long time that being solvable by radicals means that the roots can be expressed in terms of the coefficients and classic operations but why is this equivalent that the extension K / splitting field of f is contained in a radical extension ? 
Well, if you can express all roots of the function using only nested radicals, then you can have a finite tower of simple field extensions which just take an element of the base field and takes a radical of it (F(nroot(a)) for some a in F), and eventually all the roots of the polynomial must be contained in it, meaning that the splitting field is container in it
Hum i see but i just struggle with a small detail, If we denote by a1.....an the roots of f, why can't we merely consider the following chain of extensions :
F , F(a1) = F1 , F1(a2) = F2 .....
Then Fn will be the splitting field of f over F and thus F / splitting field of f is radical
Why do u need the contained in a radical extension?
Because that tower isnt a tower of radical extensions
Q -> Q(sqrt(1 + sqrt(2)))
Is nor a radical extension, while
Q -> Q(sqrt(2)) -> Q(sqrt(1 + sqrt(2)), sqrt(2))
is
And Q(sqrt(1 + sqrt(2))) ≠ Q(sqrt(1 + sqrt(2)), sqrt(2))
You cannot obtain Q(sqrt(1 + sqrt(2))) by only performing radical extensions
It'll always yield a bigger field containing Q(sqrt(1 + sqrt(2))
Yes okay i understand now ! My mistake was that i was assuming that if a1 is a root of f there exists n such that a1^n is in F but it's not True as u showed with sqrt(1+sqrt(2))
Thank u so much @thorn jay
Ofc! :3
Last question, If now i got that the F -> splitting field of f is contained in a radical extension, does it means that each root of f can be expressed with classical operation on the coefficients ?
Yes i can see it now, thanks ! 
Is there any advantage to think this way α(m∘n)=α(m)+α(n) and not α(m+n)=α(m)∘α(n)
Is α(m+n)=α(m)∘α(n) the wrong way of thinking?
Yes because
a(m + n) = m + n + 3
a(m) • a(n) = a(m) + a(n) + 3 = m + n + 9
Also please define •
Sorry this was what I was supposed to post, the first screenshot was part of the solution lol
Thus a(m + n) ≠ a(m) • a(n)
alpha is supposed to map from (Z, °) to (Z, +). So then the first one is the correct definition of homomorphism. The second would be if it was going the other way
but is a bijection so technically shouldn't this work too (Z, +) to (Z, °)?
Assume we don't know alpha
No
I meant is it possible to find a bjection alpha such that
No, just because something is a bijection doesn't make it a homomorphism.
α(m+n)=α(m)∘α(n) and would it be considered an isomorphism
I dont get your question
You're asking multiple things at the same time
And i think you've changed your question
So please state clearly what you want to know
No I didn't change my question, at least not on purpose. Lets assume that I never posted the first screenshot and are given the following question. Can I find a bijection b(m∘n)=b(m)+b(n) or b(m+n)=b(m)∘b(n) to show that they are isomorphic or is one wrong even if I do end up finding such function and why? As in who is to say that b(m∘n)=b(m)+b(n) correct and not b(m+n)=b(m)∘b(n) assuming it is even possible to find two different functions b for each cases
Btw I am not claiming that b should be the same function in both cases.
You can find such a b that's fine. It would simply be the inverse of alpha
That would also prove isomorphism right?
Yes, you just need one isomorphism in either direction
In that case why should someone pick the other route?
b(m∘n)=b(m)+b(n) and not b(m+n)=b(m)∘b(n)
I mean you just have to pick one
You pick the easiest
For example for an isomorphism between (R, +) and (R+, •) i'd pick
e^x : (R, +) -> (R+, •)
Instead of
ln(x) : (R+, •) ->(R, +)
because i generally find e^x less finicky than ln(x)
(R+ denotes the positive reals)
Let H, K be subgroups to a finite group G. If |H| and |K| are relative prime and a, b ∈ G, which values are possible for |aH ∩ bK |?
This is how I was thinking if H=K and a=b then |H| + |K| and if H!=K and a!=b, all of a sudden it is not as easy.
it is my understanding that aH and bK build cosest but this is all that tells me aH ∩ bH = ∅.
I am stuck
It tells you nothing right?
Well at least
|aH ^ bK| = |b^-1aH ^ K|
So all the possible values are
|gH ^ K|
(^ denotes set intersection)
not sure if I understand this one
Guess also worth thinking about how HnK is a subgroup of K
At least always one
because of identity element but other than that it depends on if they have similar elements or not
but still really not getting anywhere with this assuming I on the right direction
I mean (aH)nK doesn't contain identity unless a is in H
yes but then in that case only the second statement is true
considering aH doesn't need to be a group.
What's the second statement?
A cyclic group which is infinite then it has infinitely cyclic subgroups.
Let G = < x>, then all <x^i> are cyclic subgroups and are all distinct, right?
it depends on if they have similar elements or not
Well, I mean it always depends on that. Thats what the intersection is after all
yes but what were you implying when you said
Well maybe you want to think about a connection between (aH)nK and cosets inside the group K
Hello
Finite direct sums
Otherwise you can do silly things
Like if M_1, M_2,... are all nonzero modules then their direct sum isn't Noetherian (even if all the M_i are) because you have the ascending chain like
M_1 (+) ... (+) M_n
Ah true, not artinian either cuz M_n (+) M_n+1 (+) M_(n+2)…?
No wait it’s direct sums
This still works
Sorry I have now thought about for a long time and not getting anywhere important. The only time (aH)nK and cosets inside the group K are the same when aaK
So either the intersection is empty, or aH contains an element k of K. Then aH = kH.
Now, is there a relationship between (kH)nK and k(HnK)?
Sorry I am just not seeing where we are going with this. What do you mean by kH?
I have no clue about the (kH) n k but second one can only have one element k since given that |H| and |K| are relative prime it means that the subgroup |H ∩ K| must divide both |H| and |K| since it a subgroup of both. Thus |H∩K|=1.
I also btw have a hint in the question c ∈ aH ∩ bK then aH = cH
but it is really not telling me anything
Because
kH means the coset. You know things of the form {kh | h in H}
Think about what it would mean if kh is in K
I don't know if this is what you were saying earlier but the only time aH = bK is if h=k and a=b. If my understanding it correct searching for aH ∩ bK is the same as identifying H ∩ K and |H ∩ K| is true only for identity element as said before so the only element in common is c1 thus the order is 1. The other possibility is 0 because a!=b.
Is this correct?
That it's either 1 or 0 is correct.
I'm not sure I'm totally following your reasoning
I am not sure either but here is an example. Lets say G = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9} and Let H={1,2,3,4} and K={1,4,5,6}
When is aH = bK, well the only time that will be true is if we pick 1 and 4 , as in when h=k. So now it is just about identifying H ∩ K because if we ever pick a != b then aH=bK will never be true. |H ∩ K|=1 because |H| and |K| are relatively prime. Thus the only possible element in aH ∩ bK is ce where c = a=b and e is the idenitity element 1
Is this a correct or clear reasoning?
Not sure how to use ex1
For 2 i)
Im not sure how to create new nilpotent elements from the statement in 1
Well, I can't say I'm following this.
Like your example doesn't appear to be a group, but ignoring that aH will never equal bK, but maybe you're talking about how they can intersect...
but they only intesect if aH = bK
Yeah I know it is not a group at all
But I just sort of wanted to work with actual examples but probably not the best one.
Well, just picking a and b the identity, H and K still has {e} as intersection even though H and K are not equal.
Like I think maybe you mean something else when you say aH = bK
When we say aH ∩ bK
Don't we want the elements where ah = bk, no?
As in the elements both of the sets have in common.
If this going to be true then a=b and h=k. Is what I am saying totally wrong so far or unclear? If wrong then I am really back to square one (confused).
I have gotten that $a_{n-1}b_{m}+a_nb_{m-1} = 0$ so using ex 1 we can say $a_{n-1}b_{m}$ cannot be a unit
kiand123
Can this help me in showing $a_{n-1}$ is nilpotent?
kiand123
Tbh i didnt want help on this question but its taking me too long
I need to get to the other stuff
This wasnt even an assigned question but i wanted to do it cause polynomials confuse me
Multiply this by a_n
why does Z(G) = 1 lead to C_G (H)=H here? more context be helpful?
If C(H) were larger it would be all of G
Which means x would commute with everything
Why? That just kills the first term
I'm going off the hint given with the exercise
Oh
It should give a(n)^2b(m-1)=0, right?
Have you done the induction thing? If yes, what's a(n)^(m+1)b(0)?
Ah ok
Im just needing help on the very last part
Then a(n)x^n is also nilpotent
I have an nilpotent now use ex 1 to show the others are
Well if for example b=k is the identity and a = h^-1 you would have ah = bk
Bruhhh
Yea i didnt think to go back to the whole polynomial
why is this exactly?
Thanks matt
@rocky cloak how long do u think is a good amount until asking for help on problems? Id like to try to figure stuff out myself as much as possible but at the same time i dont have all the time in the world and i need to get going on stuff
but still it would only be identity element they will share
but I get your point, how else do I explain it then
H is contained in C(H) because it is abelian, and H has prime index
I.e. the only subgroups containing H are H and G
I think it probably depends on the problem, and wether you're making any progress or not.
I guess you just have to weigh how much time you have / how long it takes before you get frustrated.
I guess if you're very stuck. Then I guess it's a good idea to ask for a hint, and then go back to spending time for yourself.
Given f(x) = x^2 + x + 1 ∈ Z_2[x]
I was asked to draw the addition table for Z_2[x]/ f(x)
I included x^2 but they didn't in the table, why? How else are we gonna represent polynomials like x^2 + 1?
I get that x^2 = -(x+1), but how can we ever get x^2 by using addition?
x^2 + 1 = (x^2 + x + 1) + x
so can be represented by x
i’m trying to show this: if A is a ring with exactly one prime ideal, every element of A is either nilpotent or a unit
and i’m simply not sure how to go about it…
i know the ring must be local, but that’s about all i have
and i’m not sure if that’s even relevant
It is relevant if you know what units in a local ring is
That has 2 prime ideals
ah right the zero ideal
If you have one prime ideal by definition it is the nilradical
ok thank
i’ve learnt all my (very little) basic ring theory from Clark’s Elements of Abstract Algebra but i’ve just recently realized some of the terminology there is nonstandard
for example Clark considers the whole ring itself as a maximal ideal
.... What do they call maximal ideals then?
proper maximal ideals
That's... So pointless and stupid
haha
At least "maximal proper ideals" would make sense as term
Even though it's unnecessarily long
ok nvm i misremembered, he does exclude the entire ring when defining maximal ideals, but he doesn’t for prime ideals

i suppose that’s slightly less of a crime
Yeah, the naive definition of prime does include the entire ring after all. It's just convenient to exclude it
i suppose it’s analogous to considering 1 as a prime in Z
Indeed
this other problem seems suspiciously easy 
given ideals I = (8, 12) and J = (x^3 + 4x^2 + 4) both in Z[x], i’m asked to find a generating sets for I+J, IJ and sqrt I
it seems so straightforward i’m overcome with the dread that i’m misunderstanding something big time
is sqrt(I) the nilradical
yes
clearly I = (8,12) = (4) as no polynomials of positive degree divides 8 or 12, and gcd(8,12) = 4
so i can just use the identities (f)+(g) = (f,g) and (f)(g) = (fg) right?? what am i missing
I forget specifically if Z[x] is also a GCD domain
for the first two at least
Oh yeah i forgot, if R is a GCD domain then so is R[X]
for the sum I+J i’ve removed subtracted some linear combinations in the two generators to arrive at (x^3, 4)
and the product i guess should simply be (4x^3 + 16x^2 + 16)
that's an equivalent ideal
(4, x^3 + 4x^2 + 4) = (4, x^3) so whatever looks nicer
ok thanks i think i just really need a break
or you can do some conceptual exercises that don't require you to explicitly write shit down
For each prime ideal p of a ring R you get a field by localising at p and the taking the quotient at the maximal ideal (or equivalently by taking the fraction field of the quotient). I was wondering if you get isomorphic fields for each prime ideal or do you sometimes have two primes with non isomorphic fields ?
Just take R=Z
yeah def that too
you know that the nilradical is the intersection of all primes - what can you say about the nilradical as an ideal and what can you say about nilpotents in a local ring
omg hi ari
i’m so bad at abstract algebra but i’m having a lot of fun with it
also right i completely forgot about that characterization of the nilradical, thanks will have to have a proper look at this
i’m still rather confused by the basic objects to have a look at when studying rings and their ideals
I must have a fundamental misunderstanding of this question as I thought this was how you always solve these types of problems
What is the mistake and is this close to the proper approach?
The mistake is just like described in the yellow box.
But it is very close to correct. Just account for that small error and you're good
But I thought that they were disjoint excluding identity
Why?
Because two sylow subgroups are either identical or disjoint excluding identity I thought
Maybe have a look at the symmetry group of a hexagon
I don’t see how it isnt true since if P and Q are distinct p sylow subgroups their intersection is a subgroup and must have order dividing p by Lagrange so
you may be recalling the disjointness from when they actually have prime order, and thus their intersection can only be trivial
8 is not prime
So... What
Well like hk said, they can just intersect in some smaller subgroup
🤦🏽♂️
lol
Fuck me
Sylow groups are silly
Prime cyclic groups intersect only at the identity, which with some Sylow arguments actually let you rule out possibilities by realizing how much of the group the Sylow groups take up
Lol
Yea
😭
Thanks
Ive got to start thinking more yarn
Skill issuing hard on this. First I tried finding a pair of coprime ideals to factor I so I could use CRT to decompose R/I, but I couldn't find a nice pair, since e.g. (1-X,X-Y).(X,Y) is too big (includes X-X^2) and the same thing happens for other "obvious" factors. I also tried gaming out the relations and found that all elements of R/I were equiv a+bx+cy and tried to find an iso that way but all choices I could think of didn't respect the operation properly. Not really sure what to do, though my best guess is I'm not seeing a good factorisation of I
(already posted this in help but what the hell)
maybe find a surjection R -> S with kernel I
What can you say if y - xy = 0?
What can you say if x^2 - xy = 0?
does that logic work on R/I? I thought about it but i was wary of zero divisors
Is that directed at me? "Divisible by blah" becomes "equals 0" in the quotient.
i mean so because y-xy=0 in the quotient it doesn;t follow y or 1-x are 0 in the quotient right
i did think about doing that and using f(0,0) and (1,1) somehow
but i couldnt really justify it
A polynomial ring is an integral domain if and only if the original ring is.
(And every field is an integral domain)
||Y and 1-Y|| should be the idempotents which give the factorization
I think they were talking about the quotient ring?
Tho idk exactly what their issue is
I think you can modify your choice of ideals slightly to
||(1-X, X-Y).(Y, X^2)||
Same.
yeah I don't see why x-xy=0 (in the quotient) should tell me anything useful about x or y or whatever
I can't use domain facts because that;s no longer a domain right
fml
Really how I found these were just considering a homomorphism to QxQ[x]/x^2 though. And seeing what the kernel would be when composing with projections into Q and Q[x]/x^2
So that's probably the easiest way
didn't occur to me to reason backwards i just sat there trying to think of something from the ether
ty so much
Let G = U(Z18) be the group of invertible elements in Z18.
G acts on the set X = Z18 through multiplication. Determine all orbits under this action.
Answer;
The orbit for x is defined as Gx := {gx : g ∈ G}. All calculations are done modulo 18 and yield:
G1 = {1, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17} G2 = {2, 10, 14, 4, 8, 16} G3 = {3, 15} G6 = {6, 12} G9 = {9} G0 = {0}
I get that {1, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17} is the inveritble set in Z18. But according to the definition of an orbit but shouldn't gx be part of the set U(Z18)? Why instead teh module.
it doesn't explicitly say in the definition of orbits that gx needs to be in G either
orbits of subsets of groups don't have to be part of the subset
the oribt of 1 is everything you get multiplying U(Z18) by 1 which does jsut get you back U(Z18) yeah, but viewed this time as part of the set being acted on rather than the group
Why does need to be in module 18? Does an orbit gx where g in G need to be in G as well?
I guess the set of elements we can reach by applying g doesn't need to be a subset of X. But I really don't get what you mean here btw "orbits of subsets of groups don't have to be part of the subset"
No, the orbit is a part of the set the group acts on. So we think of the "group" Z18 and the "set" Z18 as different things
we could have e.g. the set of points on a circle or whatever, 18th roots of unity
but in that case {2, 10, 14, 4, 8, 16} isn't really a part of U(Z18)
U(Z18) is the group, Z18 is the set. The invertible elements act on the set, and that oribt is also aprt of the set
Omg
It totally makes sense now. I thought the other way around for some reasons lol
that X = U(Z18) and G = Z18
oh yeah that wouldn;t work
that can;t be a group since 5 or whatever isn;t invertible
wait 5 is totally invertible haha i gave an awful example. but you know what i mean
Thanks for the answer, I get what you mean. Gotta rethink my solution now haha
sorry is uz18 the noninvertible elements under multiplication
otherwise that just isn't true
no worries, in the answers as you can see they only did G1, G2, G3, G6, G9, G0
but aren't supposed to do it for all g's in G basically [0, 18]?
but is there like a proof or as it obvious to see or do I need to try all and see? But in any case don't we have to specify them even if they are duplicates
there's some theorem about like order of element times size of orbit=size of group or something but i dont really remember my group theory like at all
oh, orbit-stabiliser is what i was thinking of. probably
We know that a finite group G (whose order is multiple of a prime p) has a number of elements of order p that is multiple of p-1 and congruent to -1 mod p.
Do you know other theorems about the number of elements of order p?
We know that g in the group G has order 680 and we are looking for the order of g^72.
(g^72)^n = g^72n = 1, we know that g^680=1 which means that k=680 is the lowest number where g^k=1. So I couldn't really continue because I still cannot understand why the solution is not 72n=680 <=> n = 680/ 72 but obviously this is wrong because the fraction is not an integer.
I’m having a hard time with Hungerford 3.1.7 - prove that any ring R with more than one element such that for each nonzero a in R there is a unique b in R such that aba=a prove:
(a) R has no zero divisors
(b) bab=b
(c) R has an identity
(d) R is a Division Ring
I’m stuck on part (c), showing that there is an identity element
You have left and right cancellation if there are no zero divisors
Like, if R has an identity then (2) tells you what it has to be
Confirm that it is
Don’t you need to first establish the existence of multiplicative inverses?
Sorry I’m a little rusty on these things
No, that's sufficient but not necessary. The integers have cancellation, too, for example, and no non-trivial inverses
If a ring has no zero divisors and ab=ac then a(b-c) = 0 implies either a is 0 or b=c
I appreciate it, that was the thing I was missing
It's why it's called an integral domain, after all!
how did you define nilradical?
also what does the \approx mean
ok, i have no idea then
i would guess this means the localization of R at a
well, like, {1,a,a^2,...}
but idk, just a guess
okay i came across this question:
Prove that if H is a normal subgroup of G of prime index p then for any subgroup K ≤ G, either K≤H or G = HK and |K : K cap H| = p.
it feels like its wanting me to use the second isomorphism thm which was just proved in the book, but that yields |H : K cap H| = p, which isnt the result I want. it might be a typo but i cant produce a counterexample
The second isomorphism theorem tells you that
HK/H is isomorphic to K/(K cap H)
I sort of did in a weird way and assumed that since 72 doesn't divide 680, then there should be a number 680k=72n. In order for g^72n=1 then we need it to be divisible by 680k because (g^680)^k. But I don't really get which theorem they are refering to by "well known theorem", I can't really find it. But another question I have is, isn't it possible that there can be another number k who is not divisible by 680 but g^k=1?
Imagine k was not divisible by 680.
Then we can find q and r such that k = 680q + r with 0<r<680.
Then 1 = g^k = (g^680)^q * g^r = g^r
But since r<680 that contradicts 680 being the order of g.
Thanks, it makes sense, but which theorem were they talking about?
That's the theorem, the one I just described
Does it have like a name you now X's theorem where X is the name of the founder?
Not that I'm aware of
Isn't this wrong without the assumption of f being irreducible over Q?
For instance , If we take f(x) = (x+1)^3(x+1)^2 in Q[x], then the splitting field is just Q(i) and Gal(Q(i)/Q) is cleaely not S5
Yeah, you need f irreducible
Thanks 
In the solution they suspected that x^k where k=1,2,3,13,26 because we have (3^3)-1=26 elements and by langrange order of subgroup need to divide a group.
My question is how does x^k=1 guarantee that it is the primitive element since the definition of primitive element is an element who can generate the entire multiplicative group except 0.
I don't really see the correlation.
Q4 is just applying Q1, and i) and ii) in q2 i think right
Basically it follows pretty straightforwardly from those other questions
Do i have any intuition for it tho? No. Lol
It’s kinda just induction and “knocking down” the higher coefficients
Because multiplication of polynomials is nice for the leading coefficient, then you can work down
Thanks. Yeah
This idea works for both the zero divisor (extending the torsion case) and the unit one
Because in both cases
We are knocking down the degrees. We are stating that the product of two polynomials is a constant
Maybe try considering what happens when we say f(x)g(x) has degree less than both f and g? What happens to the first few leading coefficients?
You can also write f(x) = f_1(x) + f_2(x)x^k where k is the degree of the product :3
The ultimate conclusion btw is that all the coefficients for x^n greater than k are zero divisors
Which is why the inequality deg(fg) <= deg(f) + deg(g) is an equality for integral rings
Take the set of all prime ideals of A with inclusion order, then show that it has minimal element
It is kind of a poset
Ok right because not every two prime ideals can be ordered like that
Not every pair is comparable with inclusion
Yes therefore we are taking the inclusion
Therefore?
Ignore
It is Atiyah, right?
Is the intersection of prime ideals prime ideal ?
No, right
Yeah in Z intersect (3) and (7) gives u (0) but (0) not prime ideal
We are considering things element-wise, but you can probably pass through / invert a relation on their prime ideals containers
since ab in P if a in P or b in P is made two way by primality
Im not sure what u mean tbh
I still gotta read ur polynomial comements they seemed insightful
Btw happy canadian thanksgiving. Lol
Trying to think of a way to describe it intuitively vs symbolically
No (3) intersect (7) is not (0), it is (21)
And (0) is prime ideal in Z
Oops
don't take anything I say as gospel, most of these exercises I haven't done before and I'm just frankensteining ideas together intuitively til they make sense
Lol i truly didnt think that thru
minimal elements in respect to inclusion
that's a really fucky way of saying it
really it's that there are minimal prime ideals in respect to inclusion
you can use zorn's lemma on the "opposite order"
Duh 🙄
where A <= B iff B is a subset of A
Yes I think that works
Any problem ?
and then it's chain complete, because unions are suprema for inclusion, intersections are infima (which become suprema in the opposite order), and intersection of prime ideals is prime :3
Wdym
Pretty good intro to the Zariski topology too btw
I mean you react Duh, so I don't get it
Ya im gonna work on those ones soon
me avoiding symbolics like the plague
7, it is interesting I think we assumed A is a commutative ring with identity, right?
Closed sets are like the "spectrum" of ideals, sets of prime ideals containing an ideal. the whole ab in P <=> a in P or b in P thing gives finite unions of these "spectra" also are spectra (take the product of the ideals), while the arbitrary intersection thing is immediate
Yea
Now can you show in the Boolean ring every prime ideal is the maximal ideal
True
Sounds cool
That exercise is generalization
Yeah !
I'm not too aware of the actual application of it being a topology is (or any given set theoretic structure, such as monotone classes, sigma algebras, etc.) but I guess you have an excuse to use topology jargon lmao
tbf the prime part is redundant, you can also just consider ideals in general. Mainly it's due to intersections preserving primality.
And that's pretty easy since the auxillary inclusion is a "forall P_i for i indexing"
@tardy hedge btw is r(a) the radical of the principal ideal (a)
No they denote the ideal by a, it is not an principal ideal generated by (a)
I = r(I) if and only if I is the intersection of prime ideals
I can think of a god awful localization proof assuming Boolean prime ideal theorem
is there in general a good way to compute radicals of ideals?
write as generators, given generators of original ideal
yeah
the specific thing I'm looking for is r(y-xy, x^2-xy), which I already found, but I was wondering how to it for other ideals
Hmmm I’m not too sure, we’d be finding (f(x))^n = formal sum of generators
So you’d need the formal sum of generators to be a power in the first place
I haven’t done this before, I’ll think about it
Even if the given generators have no radicals, the radical can have new elements
Say (x²+y², x²-y²) ⊂ k[x,y]
So I doubt there's a "nice" algorithm for that
oh yeah, 2x^2 and 2y^2 would be in the ideal, so if k is a non-char 2 field, then so is x^2 and y^2. Thus x and y are in the ideal, so the radical is the whole ring
Wait no
1 isn’t there
It’s just (x,y)
Honestly this is probably some grobner basis evilness
So play it by ear/intuition for easy problems
Any hint for part 33 a, ?
I will ask what you think so far
You can show every ideal is contained in some M_c :)
Tbh I have no idea
The map sending f(x) to f(c) for a given c is a ring homomorphism into the field R
I think I need to work on this
Yes evaluation mapping, right ?
If M is maximal, then C([0,1])/M is a field...
Yes
I have class in a few mins, i'll come back with both ways
As one way...
Units of C([0,1]) cannot have a 0, and proper ideals cannot contain units
When we are talking about a chain (in reference to zorns lemma stuff), we can compare each element pairwise, but does that mean we can order the elements completely like x < y < z …
Yes
Yes, a chain in a poset forms a totally ordered set by transitivity
Yes
So every element in proper ideal I, has 0 at some point
Assume J is an ideal of C([0,1]) such that for each c in [0,1], there is an f in J such that f(c) =/= 0
^ is probably the best way to approach the problem
we know that if our ideal contains a unit, then it's the entirety of R
what is a unit in R here? well it's just a function that is never equal to 0
intuitively, i take some function (which might have 0s at say a,b,c)
find a function that isn't equal to 0 at those points
and add up the squares of those functions
now that doesn't quite work but u can adapt that into a solution
Yes someone suggested that use the compactness of [0,1]
PARTITION OF UNITY JUMPSCARE
Now I got it thanks @dull ginkgo @night tartan
Nice!
Can I check that im not being dumb, because either im missing some special case or my lecturer is doing something weird,
For my homework im asked how many elements are in $\mathbb{Z}_4[x]/\langle 2x^2 + x\rangle$ and obviously the usual method would just be find a monic representative of the ideal and then division algo to justify it just being polynomials of degree 1 if this was over say like $\mathbb{F}_3$, but this quotient ring isnt even an ID never mind a ED so how on earth can we use the division argument? She has done this calculation for $\mathbb{Z}/\langle x^3+1\rangle$ in the lecture notes, but since neither of these ideals are prime we dont have an ID so im not super happy about using the division argument
Nope
is there some like special case that im missing where monic polynomials over $\mathbb{Z}_4$ dont have zero divisors in such a way that prevents us using the algorithm? I just dont see how we can always have $f(x) = (x^3+1)q(x)+r(x)$ when we have zero divisors to contend with
Nope
So it is still possible to divide by monic polynomials, but I'm not sure that will help you so much here.
A hint could be that if y if nilpotent, then 1+y is a unit.
Im sure there is some other way to go about it, and ill definitely take that hint as something to think about and see what I can do, but this is the calculation shes provided in the notes and im just not sure that its properly justified, (lemmas 1 and 2 are just the division algorithm)
Like I dont think im wrong in saying that x^3+1 isnt prime so this isnt an ID, so like why can we apply the algorithm like that? Can we even do so?
The division algorithm has nothing to do with being prime.
Basically you can think of it like if f has degree n, so
f(x) = fn x^n + ...
then
f(x) - fn x^n-3 (x^3 + 1)
has lower degree. Then just iterate that until you get a polynomial of degree less than 3
This uses that x^3 + 1 is monic though (or at least that the leading coefficient is a unit)
Which is not true for 2x^2 + x
I was just mentioning primality for R/I being an ID, i thought we could only apply the algorithm in euclidean domains which are necessarily integral domains no? Im sure im just missing something here, this lecturer is a very accomplished algebraist so I cant see her making a basic mistake like that twice, but im not seeing what it is
The division algorithm works for monic polynomials over any commutative ring
In a euclidean domain you can divide arbitrary elements, but you can always divide by monic polynomials over any ring
So basically if F is a field F[x] is euclidean because all polynomials are monic (up to unit)
Im still not quite seeing why we dont run into zero divisor issues with f = qg + r though, is this related to the fact that units cant be zero divisors or something?
so 1 always being a unit is why monic polynomials are fine?
Yeah, that's right. A monic polynomial can never be a zero divisor.
I mean if
f = fn x^n + ...
for nonzero fn, and
g = x^m + ...
Then
fg = fn x^n+m + ...
which is nonzero
Yeah ok i was just being kinda dumb there, its quite obvious when you write it out like that
Everything is obvious when you know it 😉
Youre not wrong haha, just got a bit lost there and couldnt see the wood for the trees I think
is there a better way to do (2) here than explicitly write out the elements because that's what i'm trying currently and it's so ugly
also i completely forgot i was cooking so now i have pasta with garlic and chilli burnt black
mmmm
Can I get a small hint on proving that the commutator subgroup is normal? I've been trying to show that the conjugate of any commutator x^-1y^-1xy is a product of commutators but I'm completely stuck and have no other ideas.
I also tried showing that congruence mod (the commutator subgroup) is really a congruence on the underlying group. No dice.
I'm not sure I see how you're getting something superugly. Like isn't it just
p/s * m/t = pm / st
pm / s = p/s * m/1
ah yeah i'm def overcomplicating, considering for ideals I in A a general element of IM as a finite sum of products in I by M
ok so i won't need such a double sum excellent excellent actually that makes perfect sense i'm just way too tired 😭 have been rushing to get through this assignment so that i can ditch studies for a week and run off to rome
thanks jagr
A hint could be that conjugation is a group homomorphism, and a commutator is just a product of stuff
Of course I should have thought of looking at conjugation as a homomorphism. I'll think about that, thanks!
I am trying to see how the proof of example (1) goes, and it's basically laid out in the explanation already
but all I see is that Psi is a left-inverse of ell
I don't see why ell is surjective necessarily
i can send an image incase my question doesn't make enough sense
If you know that elements in the tensor product looks like you can just directly show it's surjective
they're a sum of constants*basic tensors
so then I can just apply the tensor product operation properties to show that it is surjective probably
actually do we even need constants
any element in the tensor product is just a finite sum of decomposable tensors, I think
you can say more
if M is a cyclic module generated by m, then M⊗_R N has elements that look like m⊗n, where n in N varies.
i.e. don't need to look at finite sums, just elementary tensors are enough
why do we think that M is cyclic generated by m? I might be missing something
i gave a tiny bit general result
in our case, M = R and m = 1
so all elements in R⊗_R N actually look like 1⊗n
this is because for a scalar s,
s(u (x) v) = (su) (x) v = u (x) (sv)
yeah I think so its surjective because say we want to map onto r otimes n then we map ell(rn)=1 otimes rn = r (1 otimes n)= r otimes n
but this is if every element is just an elementary tensor instead of considering finite sums
linearity
is ell linear?
ell(r1n1+r2n2)=1 otimes r1n1+r2n2 = 1 otimes r1n1 + 1 otimes r2n2 = r1 otimes n1 + r2 otimes n2
the tensor is
does this work to generalizing to finite sums
in one coordinate the tensor is linear, and you can write each of the summands as 1 (x) m
so the sum is also of the form 1 (x) m
yeah I think
1 otimes (r1n1+....+rn n_m) = 1 otimes (r1n1) + ... + 1 otimes (r_mn_m) = r1 otimes n1 + ... + r_m otimes n_m
okay for some reason this is stumping me, can i get a small hint?
show that if G₁, G₂ are subgroups of G with G₁ a normal subgroup of G₂ and G₂/G₁ abelian, and N is any subgroup of G, then (G₂ cap N)/(G₁ cap N) is abelian
@ me if you responds please
TENSOR PRODUCT JUMPSCARE
Consider the center as a subgroup lol
doesn't (G2 n N)/(G1 n N) embed into G2/G1?
does it? i looked at that for a minute
the kernel of G2 n N --> G2 --> G2/G1 is G1 n N

Oh that also works too lol
would you mind outlining where your hint was trying to point me?
it ultimately was a roundabout way of what det said so dw about it
man how tf did we get from giving a set multiplication to whatevers going on here
math moment
Mfw symmetry is structurally a mess
in GAP is there an O(1) way to write Difference(List(c1, x -> x^-1), AsList(c2)) = []; where c1 and c2 are conjugacy classes of a subgroup of a symmetric group and have the same cycle structure? Although i dont know how to prove this expression's correctness Representative(c1)^-1 in c2 and Representative(c2)^-1 in c1; is a bit faster but is still O(n).
To simplify, given two conjugacy classes of a subgroup of a symmetric group that have the same cycle structure and consequently the same number of elements, is there a quick way to determine if the elements in the first conjugacy class are the inverses of the elements in the second class? I highly doubt there isn't a fast group theoretic approach for this problem but I'm not sure what to do
Sorry I think I didnt understand, how can you have two different conjugacy classes both having elements with same cycle decomposition?
Can someone please explain this to me. Are they claiming that every finite group G whose order is greater than 2 is cyclic?
no
theyre saying if G is a finite group of order >= 2
then any one of the statements being true
means that the other 2 must also be true
so theyre either all true or all false
You probably read "the following statements are equivalent" as "the following statements are true". Note that they dont mean the same thing
that's what GAP is telling me
gap> Filtered(second_cycle_group_classes, k -> CycleStructurePerm(Representative(k)) = [ 1, 1,,, 1,, 1 ]);
[ (3,27,33)(7,18)(12,39,20,15,37,47,13,44)(14,22,46,41,40,16)^G, (3,33,27)(7,18)(12,39,20,15,37,47,13,44)(14,22,40,16,46,41)^G ]```
to be specific the use case is the rubik's cube
gap> U := ( 1, 3, 8, 6)( 2, 5, 7, 4)( 9,33,25,17)(10,34,26,18)(11,35,27,19);;
gap> L := ( 9,11,16,14)(10,13,15,12)( 1,17,41,40)( 4,20,44,37)( 6,22,46,35);;
gap> F := (17,19,24,22)(18,21,23,20)( 6,25,43,16)( 7,28,42,13)( 8,30,41,11);;
gap> R := (25,27,32,30)(26,29,31,28)( 3,38,43,19)( 5,36,45,21)( 8,33,48,24);;
gap> B := (33,35,40,38)(34,37,39,36)( 3, 9,46,32)( 2,12,47,29)( 1,14,48,27);;
gap> D := (41,43,48,46)(42,45,47,44)(14,22,30,38)(15,23,31,39)(16,24,32,40);;
gap> cube := Group(U, L, F, R, B, D);;
gap> r := Random(cube);;
gap> IsSubgroup(SymmetricGroup(48), cube);
true
gap> IsSymmetricGroup(cube);
false
gap> ConjugacyClass(cube, r) = ConjugacyClass(cube, r^-1);
false
gap> CycleStructurePerm(r) = CycleStructurePerm(r^-1);
true```
I dont understand this type of code sorry, I can just give you group theory answers
hm i think this is only true with symmetric groups
Aha so they just wanted to say that if one is true then the rest are true too
Correct me if im wrong
Yea ofc, because elements of an arbitrary group dont have a cycle decomposition (beside maybe the cycle decomposition of them seen as permutation of G).
Exactly!
It has a cycle decomposition but isn’t symmetric idk the word for it
Two different conjugacy classes in this group have the same cycle structure
Wait are you conjugating only by elements of your subgroup?
yeah
Ahh ok
I mentioned it was a subgroup of a symmetric group in case it was relevant
Can you quickly determine if all elements in one conjugacy class are inverses of all the elements in another
Im thinking about it but I dont know any statement that deals with this
Even tho it doesnt seem diffficult
Difference(List(c1, x -> x^-1), AsList(c2)) = []; works
But is super slow and bad
It should be pretty clear what GAP code is doing
By any chance is your subgroup exactly the alternating group? Because then there is the answer
My subgroup specifically is the Rubik’s cube group so no I don’t think so
You’re given that they have the same cycle structure in case that helps
The rubik cube group is a subgroup of the alternating group tho
Because every element of the rubik group is the product of 2 4-cycles no?
^ here is the exact definition and six generators
But still I think MAYBE I have the asnwer, I just have to check one moment a pdf ok?
Oki
The use case is in searching elements of conjugacy classes of a specific order and im noticing that these inverse conjugacy classes duplicate my search’s result with an inverse permutation
I want some way to determine if a conjugacy class only contains inversed elements to avoid redundant computation
Ok last question, such conjugacy classes have the cycle decomposition of a rubik's cube move e.g. your conjugacy classes are basically sets of moves of the cube?
Ok well my actual use case is for a subgroup of the Rubik’s cube group not the entire group I omitted that to simplify the problem statement
But idt it should change anything
Hopefully
I should have said that earlier sorry xD
If yes, then Im 99% sure that the elements that conjugate a certain element g with its inverse are Just product of 2 disjoint transpositions, that is they are basically moves that swap 2 pairs of boxes of the cube. I hope this helps even tho its not a complete solution.
So you just have t check that the product of these "special" permutations with an element ofyour conjugacy class does/doesnt give an element of the other class, I dont know if this is computationally better or not
I haven’t formally studied math so I’m not sure exactly what that means xD I’ll do research and try to understand it though
Another idea I had was to simply just check if the inverse of one element of a class is in the other
It seems to work with a few tests something tells me if just one element is jnversed then all of them are
But it’s an ok solution because it’s still O(n) and idk if it’s correct
Yea that sounds good
Also sorry if i confused u (its 1 am for me lol) im tired as hell
Nw
Yea thahlt should be right
How do you know
That exactly was an exercise I did a while ago in a paper, I dont know of i remember corrrectly tho.
Let me check
No ok I didnt remember well
Forget what I said lol
😿
poop

Why do you guys think Gallian's book is a bad book?
Quick question, is that I was looking at it and I saw that the Gallian book seemed relatively bad, as for the exercise section, I do not know if my thinking is correct, but the examples are very good, I do not know, whether to consider this book to study their examples.
ikr
i dislike the notation for certain things but that doesn’t say anything on the content in the book
I also don't like the note that is also something negative I guess, but it fulfills its function, although the list of exercises is not that I like it either.
@rocky cloak I proved the commutator subgroup H of G is normal: if m is in H, and g in G, then g^-1mg=m(m^-1g^-1mg) is in H. What was the proof you were thinking of when you gave me your hint? I couldn't work it out.
i am trying to prove Lemma 26 but I am stuck, the one direction i have down pat, but if K/H is normal in G/H then what trick do I use to show that K is normal in G?
this is what some old notes say, but Arguing similar to above I don't quite see the solution.
okay this problem states:
Let $1 = N_0 \unlhd N_1 \unlhd N_2 ... \unlhd N_r = G$ and $1 = M_0 \unlhd M_1 \unlhd M_2 = G$ be composition series. Show that $r = 2$.
jan Mo Lakeli Tu Katuwe Pa
it says to use the second isomorphism thm
i have no idea where to start
just a nudge would be nice
,w jordan holder theorem
I don't want a hint, I am just not sure what exactly the author asked, give an example of a non-trivial commutative ring in which every element is of square 0, so it wants a non-trivial ring means there exists elements x,y such that xy≠0 and r^2 = 0 for all r in R.
Right? Don't give a hint
Yes the ring has no unity because then it will be zero ring
right
If we write [x, y] for the commutator, then
g[x, y]g^- = [gxg^-, gyg^-]
I don't see how 1 helps me to prove 2
boolean rings are commutative
use induction
boolean rings have char 2 also
for the inductive step you use 1
Yes
So first I have to show its cardinality 2^k
Oh it is something every non-zero element has additive order 2 so it must be isomorphic to (Z/2Z)^k
So it has cardinality 2^k
Right?
yeah roughly speaking
from the previous part, we take any e in R not equal to 0 or 1
then we induct based on the fact that R is isomorphic to Re x R(1-e)
(and then stare hard at what Re and R(1-e) are, and realise that they're both boolean rings too)
In 17b, how do I show that for all h in H, h^-1 is in H?
this is the last correction I need to make for my homework but I'm struggling
Any element in H has finite order
I know, but I don't know where to go from there. Here's my work
I was looking back at it and I don't really understand what I was trying to argue
Any element h of finite order has a power that is h^-1
Because then Re ≠ R and R(1-e) ≠ R so we can induct on their cardinality
Yes they are Boolean ring
Thank you ❤️ Kevin and LY
nw!
i would try to write like this
Why does there exist an inverse of h in H though?
H isn't a group
Or, not assumed to be
so H to H is a sort of bijection(not so sure here but i am hoping) just by the closure of the set
honestly I understand why this makes sense but I think this technique is too elegant to put in my hw lol
no, lol, this is primitive
u surely can use this type of argument
feel free to prove the injection and subjection part
I just mean rather that our lecture/textbook hasn't used this kind of technique with functions at all so it's like pulling it out of a hat; I see why it makes sense, though, so I suppose there's no harm in writing it out. Thank you
Why is if ab subset p a prime ideal, then a subset p or b subset p? a and b are ideals
This seems obvious what am i not seeing
Assume b is not a subset of p. Then there is x in b, but not in p.
Now for every y in a think about the element yx
Write down all the definitions involved. Put them next to each other on a piece of paper, right in front of you, like a mathematical mise en place.
Thanks yea so the fact that p is prime isnt relevant i guess
....?
It is kinda the only thing that's relevant
I thought at first just the ideal structure was relevant
K one sec
It forces y to be in p
a and b can be arbitrary sets though
Ok, also there is a lemma regarding intersections of ideals and primes i should review that
Is this really an only one way implication?
Then how come they can take the modules of the terms separately? In other words how come they use Fermat's theorem term by term?
I mean if a = b mod n and c = d mod n then a + c = b + d mod n
i.e. addition is well-defined mod n
The implication says that you're free to replace a number with any other number it's congruent to (when adding or multiplying), and congruence will still hold.
The opposite direction isn't even true with equality.
Like, if a + c = b + d it's not the case that a = b and c = d.
Sounds logical lol, I was just a little confused why they took the module for the terms separately
I feel like I understand what they did but not completely
Replace congruence with equality.
If a = b and c = d then a + c = b + d
Hopefully that's not suspect.
But if a = b then it gives you, e.g.,
a + c = b + c
If a = b and c = c then a + c = b + c
(Just to illustrate how that's an application of the statement involving both variables at once)
By doing "both at once" you're proving simultaneously that a + c = b + c and c + a = c + b
Which...for a commutative operation like + that's not so interesting.
I was talking about this post
I mean in the polynomial equation. I am not seeing the relation sorry.
The statement "If a = b and c = d then a + c = b + d" licenses the fact that you can "add a number to both sides", which you hopefully find uncontroversial.
They're using the above picture in exactly the way the direction of the arrow indicates. If that's your confusion...
Here we want "If a ~ b and c ~ d then a + c ~ b + d, which licenses "adding a number to both sides" with respect to ~.
So that we can "pretend" that ~ behaves like = with respect to addition, at least.
if C = 14x^39 mod 19 then we can replace with C in the equation. Isn't that what they are doing?
Take x^57
Well:
x^57 = (x^19)*(x^19)*(x^19)
But x^19 ≡ x for all x (mod 19).
So if x^19 ≡ x then (x^19)*(x^19)*(x^19) ≡ x*(x^19)*(x^19). Repeat that twice, you get
(x^19)*(x^19)*(x^19) ≡ x*x*x
≡ x^3
Yes. Maybe I misunderstood what you were confused about. It sounded like you didn't get why proving that + and * are well-defined WRT modular congruence licenses doing things term-by-term.
Thanks for the help anyways, it means a lot but so when given an equation or whatever if I can see that a term mod m can be simplified then I can do that and put it in the equation right? I just need to double check so I don't make mistakes like this.
I guess, find the poset of primes, and get a little creative.
Open sets of Spec(Z) consists of all prime ideals of Z with finitely many removed
How do I find the roots here?
Im not sure what u mean by find the poset of primes
Like which prime ideals are contained in each other
Isn't it like irreducible in F, but in the answer they claim that g(2a) = 0 but I get 2a
But still I wanna know how the to get to that conclusion
You could take a general element, plug it in and see what it needs to be a root.
are you telling me to try out all elements in F and see if they give 0?
Like calculate g(b alpha + c) = 0 and solve for b and c
I am sorry, how is that gonna make the problem any easier?
Because you'll be able to solve it...
I'm not sure what you mean by easier, easier than what?
I mean I don't understand what you are telling to do at all. I might be very slow but what is supposed to be b and c ?
Like
g(b alpha + c) =
(b alpha + c)^2 + b alpha + c + 2 =
b^2 alpha^2 + 2bc alpha + c^2 + b alpha + c + 2 =
b^2 alpha + b^2 + 2bc alpha + c^2 + b alpha + c + 2
so b^2 + c^2 + c + 2 = 0
and
b^2 + 2bc + b = 0
So from the second equation either b=0 or b+2c+1=0.
Putting b=0 in the first has no solution. So then b = 2+c, which you can plug in to get c=0
You could also just brute force the 9 possible options I guess
I thought prime ideals in Z arent contained in each other. Besides (0)
Yup, so for Z it's pretty easy
Oh i see
Yea i guess somehow (0) is near everything since its closure is everything
Or smth like that
Like the prime ideals correspond to irreducible closed sets. So drawing them as some geometric object containing other closed sets would make sense
so b^2 + c^2 + c + 2 = 0
and
b^2 + 2bc + b = 0
Where dod you get the second equation, perhaps from f(x)?
How did you simplify the first equation and removed any term that was multiplied with alpha?
They're the coefficients of alpha and 1 in the equation right above.
Continuation of the question,
How come you are allowed to do that
so b^2 + c^2 + c + 2 = 0
and
b^2 + 2bc + b = 0?
How come you could create two polynomials = 0 from one polynomial coefficient
We know that
d alpha + e = 0 means d=0 and e=0
Otherwise alpha = -e/d, but alpha is not in Z3
Sorry but how do we know that d alpha + e = 0 . Which also got me thinking why did you even pick "b alpha + c". Was it random?
We were looking for roots of g inside F.
So I took an element in F, i.e. b alpha + c and put it into the equation g(x) = 0
yes
so you could also have just picked b tho in F?
right but might be stupid question but why b alpha + c.
Because that's what the elements of F look like.
They are exactly
0, 1, 2, alpha, alpha+1, alpha+2, 2alpha, 2alpha+1, 2alpha+2
I.e. b alpha+c
So Spec(R) just consists of {(0)} ?
Thanks this is new to me so weird to think about
Yes I understand that but I was asking why did you pick " 2alpha+1" instead of 2. Probably a stupid question but I don't understand.
I also don't understand how we know that d alpha + e = 0
Ok with the polynomial rings damn its been so long since ive reviewed ideals of polynomials
I don't understand the question. When did I pick 2 alpha + 1 instead of 2?
b alpha + c = 2 alpha + 1 where b=2 and c=1?
Just an example
Ik we could have picked anything 0-2
oh wait
nevermind lol
but still confused about this one tho d alpha + e = 0
So I take the equation
g(b alpha + c) = 0
We simplify the left hand side, which gives us some equations which we solve
The solution happens to be b=2, c=0
now I am following but how come you are allowed to separate
b^2 alpha + b^2 + 2bc alpha + c^2 + b alpha + c + 2
to
so b^2 + c^2 + c + 2 = 0
and
b^2 + 2bc + b = 0?
I get that the terms that contain alpha is spearated with those that don't
but it doesn't really add up for me
Because if
d alpha + e = 0
then d=e=0
Aha okay so you did
(b² + 2bc + b)α + (b²+c+2) = 0
This has solutions only if e=d=0 in d alpha + e = 0
God that is such a smart move compared to the solutions given. Thank you so much for the help!!
So in order to prove this I just have to show the subsets of G seperated by the order of their elements partitions G and form a subgroup right
Sorry I forgot the actual question
Cause then lagrange's tells me that the order of the subgroups divides the order of G and since they partition G, the sum of the elements must equal the order of G
I don't think there's anything that needs to form a subgroup, you just need to show that phi(d) is 0 when d doesn't divide n
And that G[d] partition G I guess. If that's not immediately clear
but if I dont show each G[d] is a subgroup, I cant apply lagranges
But G[d] isn't a subgroup
For example the identity don't have order d (unless d=1)
right
Okay good point, so I shouldnt even be paying attention to lagranges here then
You should use Lagrange to argue what the order of an element can be though
oh
so I assume there exists an element whose order doesnt divide o(G)
then define a cyclic subgroup of G with that element as it's generator
then lagrange's would tell me that would be impossible so phi(d) must be 0 when d doesnt divide n
then it would also show G[d] partitions G which basically ends the proof
What would be the best way of explaining why if R has exactly one prime ideal, every element of R is either a unit or nilpotent?
I am thinking specifically of showing that if an element is not in the ideal, then it is a unit
Whats the best way of explaining that part?
Isn't k[x] a counterexample to this? (x) is its only prime ideal, but x is not nilpotent. Am I missing something here?
Oh wait are you including, like (0)?
Do we care about nonzero prime ideals?
This is from a/m. I believe they include (0) to be a prime ideal
OK good, I see my mistake then
nilradical :3
And units are elements lying outside of any proper ideal
Maximal ideals are prime
Ergo there is one maximal ideal (local)
So any element is either in the nilradical, the one maximal ideal here, or is a unit (outside of ALL proper ideals, all a subset of aforementioned maximal nilradical)
are we implicitly using the fact that every ideal is contained in a maximal ideal
Y e s
I mean you could see it that way, but equally the ring must have a maximal ideal, which is prime, so that must be the unique maximal ideal
Problem is also the nilradical as defined via nilpotency needs Boolean principal ideal theorem or an equivalence to show every ideal is contained in a prime ideal in the first place
So that’s to be expected :3
ok thank u
To show A/R field -> A has one prime ideal
I just did: R must be maximal, and we know R is intersection of all prime ideals, so there must be only one prime ideal or else R wont be a maximal ideal
intersect p < p right
Ye
thx
Well it is p, since it’s an intersection of ONE prime ideal
Yeah and if it was intersection of more than one than it wouldnt be a maximal ideal cause it would be contained in one of the p's
The most difficult part here is the intersection of prime ideals being the nilradical
My preferred method is localization which behaves “opposite” to quotienting in terms of what happens to ideals
That’s a good thing to look into
Since units are elements OUTSIDE of ideals, so if we “turn” some elements into units (pray to yog sathoth there’s no zero divisors) the ideals that contain any of those elements we are localizing become the whole ring
so I don't understand what I am doing wrong
Hi, can someone explain Galois theory to me in Fortnite terms please?
Note, that the list of composition factors is the same, but they don't necessarily appear in the same order.
If M1 and N_r-1 don't intersect, then M1N_r-1 must be a normal subgroup bigger than M1.
so it must be M2
Indeed, which is all of G
oh okay so going back to the first application of 2nd iso I think,
MN_(r-1)/N_(r-1) iso to M1 is the assumption
but MN_(r-1) is all of G, if M1 cap N_(r-1)=<e>
so
G/N_(r-1) iso to M1
I want to say that this implies N_(r-1) iso to M_2
Well, you would want to show that N_r-1 is iso to M2/M1 in this case
And you'd want to use 2nd iso again
Oh because we already have M2 is M1N_r-1 so we want N_(r-1) is M2/M1
say that we show this then that makes N_(r-1) iso M1 right?
No, if you show that N_(r-1) is isomorphic to M2/M1, then you will have shown it's isomorphic to M2/M1
do we not know anything about M2/M1 from the composition series?
well and for the proof to go through we need it to be M1 but I guess we have not shown that it is
well and it can't be M2 since if it was then M1 is the same as M0
if it is M0 then M1 is M2 which also cant happen
so since its one of the composition factors it must be M1
Yeah, it's none of those things because it's M2/M1

I might be getting confused I guess but I thought the goal was to show N_(r-1) isomorphic to M_1 to show that r=2
And so if we have N_(r-1) isomorphic to M2/M1, then we want to show that M2/M1 is isomorphic to M_1?
If you can show that N_(r-1) is simple, then r=2
Consider G = Z/6
and the two series
0 < 2Z/6 < G
0 < 3Z/6 < G
well if we've shown it isomorphic to M2/M1 then it is simple by the properties of the compositions series
Indeed
but why does it being simple imply r=2?
Well N_r-2 is a normal subgroup, so N_r-2 = 1, so r-2 = 0
Im slightly concerned that this isnt even an algebra issue and im just forgetting/not seeing something super basic from like calculus but ill ask anyway,
H(K[x_1,..,x_n];x) is the Hilbert series of a polynomial ring in n indeterminates over an algebraically closed field, I agree that this is the sum of monomials in the ring but the textbook im reading says this is also prod{i=1}^{n} 1/(1-x_i) and im not sure at all where thats coming from, it actually states that before the sum of monomials part, which at least to me, is far more clear from the definition
1/(1-x) = 1 + x + x^2 + ...
That's indeed from calculus
I do now feel embarrassed for even asking that, I dont even have the excuse of not doing calc for 4 years because thats the classic lauraunt series trick and I did CA last sem...
well thanks none the less!
and for this question when it says "show that r=2 and that the list of composition factors is the same", it doesn't suffice to just show r=2 I have to also show further something about the N_i isomorphic to the M_i?
You have to show that the composition factors are the same.
This is not showing Ni isomorphic to Mi though. You seem to be confused about that
I must be, is it showing that they are actually equal and not just isomorphic?
I've shown that M2/M1 iso to N_(r-1) now
using 2nd iso
like you suggested
The composition factors of the series
1 < M1 < M2
is M1 and M2/M1
The composition factors of
1 < N1 < N2
is N1 and N2/N1.
So N1 needs to be isomorphic to either M1 or M2/M1 and N2/N1 needs to be the other one.
This example is somewhat useful
i was just trying to do this, curious to see how you do it
i just ended up skipping it
Oh I thought the composition factors were just M1, M2, themselves
so N_(r-1)/(N_(r-1) cap M_1) is iso to N_(r-1)M1/M1
and N_(r-1)M1 is iso to M2
No the composition factors are the simple groups that appear as subquotients in the filtration
so since N_(r-1)cap M_1=<e> then you're done
wait how did we get these
from the earlier discussion, if M1 cap N_(r-1) =<e> M_1N_(r-1) is normal and larger than M1
so it must be M2
ah
wait sorry where did we get M_1N_(r-1) normal from
is this one of the iso thms
its the product of two normal subgroups
oh, 2nd iso?
I don't think it is an isomorphism theorem
could be wrong
but just the product of normal subgroups is normal
i think easy to prove
It isn't
But it is a property called congruence-permutability
It is equivalent to the existence of the term
p(x, y, z) = xy^-1z
so for the first case we get real equality of N_(r-1)=M_1 and then it remains to show N2/N1 isomorphic to M2/M1?
Yes, though I'm not sure I'd say it remains to show.
Like if M1=N1 and M2=N2, then M2/M1 = N2/N1, that's just how equality works
I know its dumb but I'm just getting a little confused on how specifically I showed M2=N2
They are both defined to be equal to G
oh
right
🤦♂️
so it really only is the 2nd part of the 2nd case, we have M2/M1 iso N1 and need to show N2/N1 iso to M1
You mean |F| =p^r
But I still don't understand how to apply this on the question.
is 6 a prime power?
no
is there a field with 6 elements?
not sure
finite fields always have prime power number of elements
all finite field, like all?
yes
But still how do we derive how many distinct fields exist with |F| = n
finite fields are unique
meaning?
there is a unique field with p^k elements
so there can be two fields of the same order if isomorphic?
yes isomorphic fields always have same order
To make it clear why we can only go up to isomorphism, think about F_3, the field on 3 elements and Z_3, the field of intergers mod 3
Specifically, what the elements of each actually are
I am not sure I understand what you are saying.
Any isomorphism is a bijection remember, this is already true of bijections
Im trying to get at why we can only say theyre the same up to isomorphism rather than saying theyre equal, its a subtle difference in fairness, but I think helps illustrate why we say unique up to isomorphism
Because you can come up with a few different contrusctions for these finite fields, and theyll look subtley different, but you can really feel that they are the same
For this i got x1=x2=x3 = 0 for the homogenous. x1 = 1/3, x2 = 2/3, x3= -4/3 for the latter. For (a) I believe the solns are the same. But for (b) - (d) is the only way to do them is to find the modular inverse pertaining to x1,x2,x3 in for each field? (the homogenous is just all the multiples of p right?)
i got (b) (1,0,0), (c) no soln, (d) (5,3,1). For x1,x2,x3 respectively mod p. Would this be right?
Sounds correct
the following holds, right?:
if $H$ finite, $H \leq G$ is the unique subgroup of $G$ of order $H$, then $H \unlhd G$ (so that in particular $<(1 2)(3 4), (1 3)(2 4)> \unlhd A_4$)
jan Mo Lakeli Tu Katuwe Pa
because i think $gHg^{-1} \leq G$ right
jan Mo Lakeli Tu Katuwe Pa
and $H \to gHg^{-1}$ should be a bijection
jan Mo Lakeli Tu Katuwe Pa
unless im missing smth
yes
thanks
$\varphi(h) = ghg^{-1}$ is a homomorphism
\ \
$H \cong gHg^{-1}$

