#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 277 of 1
I misread
then it's degree four
sorry I don't understand the question
@dim widget degree 2 extensions of F are square roots of elements of F
Generated by square roots of elements yes
okay so then if L/K has galois group Klein 4 then it contains two quadratic subextension K(sqrt(a_1)), K(sqrt(a_2))
and these have trivial interseciton since they are not the same
(Note this requires characteristic not 2)
so then L contains K(sqrt(a_1), sqrt(a_2))
but by degree considerations they are the same field
if R is a PID
M and N are free R-modules of the same rank (??) f:M-->N and g:N-->M are morphisms such that gf is the identity on M show that f and g are isomorphisms?
i got lost with how there are so many to deal with this i just fucked up
i thought about exact sequences and that free modules are projectives
but also aren't literlaly M and N already isomorphic
this was a problem on a qual
hmm I think most of this is general category theory and you only have to know one thing about rings
i see
does anyone know
i mean i got some good progress considering cycles from Sn
thank you for the hint; i was so out of focus cuz the problem had so manay information and like paths to try out
this did come from talkig abt the formula for the determinant of permutation matrices
I think you should just prove that the function is multiplicative then show that it has the right value on transpositions (which is an easy calculation)
oh wow thats way simpler than trying strong induction on n
for a given integers n,m, what is the kernel of multiplication by m from Z/nZ --> Z/nZ?
i think that the image is Z/(n/d)Z where d = gcd(n,m)
but im not sure what the kernel is
can anyone verify this?
Can someone remind me why (S/p)_p= Frac(S/p) for S=k[x1,...,xn] and p a prime ideal? I guess I don't have a good feel of inverting elements
m*d = 0 iff n|md so the minimal d = n/gcd(n, m), so that is the generator of the kernel
sorry, what is the generator?
in your notation n/d
i am waiting
so d + nZ generates in Z/nZ
generates what?
the kernel
yeah
what group is this
the subgroup?
since finite cyclic groups are determined uniquely by their order
ig im just confused?
like, i thought that the image would be mZ/nZ
yep
so is mZ/nZ = Z/(n/d)Z in general?
yep
okay, im confused, since when m divides n, we have mZ/nZ = Z/(n/m)Z
when m divides n d = m
so that checks out
it happens
hey im back again, ive gotten through proving multiplicativity and that it does indeed give the correct value for transpositions, but im just not sure how to combine them. Idk if theres some property of finite products that im not aware of that allows me to combine them in a way that proves the fact
You’re immediately done because then every σ \in S_n can be written as a product of transpositions
So the value a multiplicative function takes on the transpositions uniquely determines what that function is on all of S_n
ik but im trying to prove that for all $\sigma\in S_n$
$$
\mathrm{sgn}(\sigma) = \prod_{1\leq i<j\leq n}\frac{\sigma(j)-\sigma(i)}{j-i}
$$
BigBoyConst
its not evident to me how this works if i split it up into transpositions
since i just get a product of products
namely
$$
\mathrm{sgn}(\sigma)=\mathrm{sgn}(\tau_1\cdots\tau_k) = \prod_{1\leq i<j\leq n}\frac{\tau_1(j)-\tau_1(i)}{j-i}\cdots\prod_{1\leq i<j\leq n}\frac{\tau_k(j)-\tau_k(i)}{j-i}
$$
BigBoyConst
So with multiplicativity you’re claiming to have proven something like
$$\prod_{1 \leq i < j \leq n} \frac{\sigma_1(j) - \sigma_1(i)}{j - i} \prod_{1 \leq i < j \leq n} \frac{\sigma_2(j) - \sigma_2(i)}{j - i} = \prod_{1 \leq i < j \leq n} \frac{\sigma_1 \sigma_2(j) - \sigma_1 \sigma_2(i)}{j - i}$$
Right?
Micose
Because that’s what’s meant by multiplicativity
i thought by multiplicativity they meant the multiplicativity of sgn($\sigma$)
BigBoyConst
Sure, you need both
But i assumed you could assume that
now thinking abt it it makes so much more sense that i have to prove the multiplicativity for the product and not the actual definition of the function since its kinda trivial
the point is to note that || \prod \frac{\tau \circ \sigma(j) - \tau \circ \sigma(i)}{\sigma(j) - \sigma(i)} = \prod \frac{\tau(j) - \tau(i)}{j - i} || and then it becomes easy.
i’m not tripping with the following equivalence right?:
[ R[x] \cong \bigoplus_{k\in\mathbb N} R ]
rødbet
As R-modules, that's true yes
oh the direct sum doesn’t make a ring?
or would it just be like clumsy to define the product
I mean you can cook up several ways to make it a ring, but there's isn't really a canonical way to make it a (unital) ring
right
Like you could do point-wise multiplication, but that isn't unital and is also very different from the polynomial ring
mhm, i can’t imagine why that’d show up
…i guess except if you were looking to equip that direct sum with ring structure
is this terminology in Clark standard? “a proper element of a ring,” namely, a non-zero and non-unital element of the ring
and these are both transpositions or general n-cycles?
it doesn't matter
so general n cycles I guess
but wouldnt i have to consider both the cases where $\sigma(j)>\sigma(i)$ (which is what i'd want) as well as the case when $\sigma(j)<\sigma(i)$?
BigBoyConst
I don't think that
is useful
I don’t believe it is
ok that makes sense then
i guess the idea is to take this equivalence as a definition: the principal ideal (a) is a proper ideal of R iff a is a “proper element” of R
Im trying to prove 4th (lattice) isomorphism theorem for modules. Can I assume a priori that submodules of M/N are like A/N..?
or is that itself actually need to be proved
submodules of M/N are elements {m+N} that itself form a module
does my question even make sense
Ok, how is this (maybe some details off but more or less is this a correct approach?):
Trying to show: Submodules of M/N are A/N for some A submodule of M containing N.
Take a proper subset of M/N, that has identity and say has more than 1 element. So this is {m+N | m in A}. Where necessarily N subset A subset M for this collection of cosets to be a proper subset of M/N (that contains identity in M/N). If this is to be a submodule then of M/N then by submodule criteria: (m1+N) + r(m2+N) = (m1 + rm2) + N, needs to be in our collection, so we need m1+rm2 to be in A, so A is a submodule of M containing N
I kind of like this cause its like starting generally and then seeing what needs to happen once u impose more structure
Where da peeps at
You can refine this using the fact that homomorphism preimages and images of modules are modules
For surjective maps like our quotient, image of preimage of a set is the original set
So it’s the quotient module of the preimage :3
Hmm i dont get exactly how this works
Can you think of a map M -> M/N
The projection map thing
Can you write it down
pi(m) = m+N. oh ok so for surjective homs, preimage of a submodule is a submodule
After this I implore you to show that the same idea works for the lattice isomorphism theorem of rings :3
Now show that taking preimages defines a function {submodules of M/N} -> {submodules of M containing N} and is bijective
this is true for any homomorphism. Images and preimages send submodules to submodules.
Oh the surjective thing is only for preimage of normal subgroups for groups ?
(same for ring homomorphisms)
U need surjective for normal subgroup to map to normal subgroup
Yes
Not preimage tho?
In a sense, we only care about the surjectivity
M/N is just a notation for the image of the module under the quotient
These are modules though, so we don't have the same issues as with groups.
Yeah
i have small question
iin regard to the following notation
why do they say i. = i + nZ subset of Z
If $\phi$ is a surjective homomorphism of $A \twoheadrightarrow B$, then for any submodule $M$ of $B$, $M = \phi(K)$ for some submodule $K$ of $A$. In fact, $K = \phi^{-1}(M)$, the preimage of $M$
Mizalign
we just have $\phi(M) = M/N$ in the case of quotienting
Mizalign
Z/nZ is technically the set of congruence classes modulo nZ
So yes, i + nZ is a congruence class, a subset of Z
Do you know what a quotient group is? Have you seen G/N where N is normal in G?
We just define the quotient group to be on the set of congruence classes
yes
So nZ is just {nz | z in Z}
And Z/nZ is just the quotient group of Z by nZ
If you know what a quotient group is, everything should be clear.
So we havent showed that preimage of submodule in M\N is containing N tho right
M\N?
sure thanks alot
You mean M/N right
Yeah
But yes I haven't shown that
preimage of 0 is N
I asked you to show that
every submodule contains 0
Bruh u spoiled the answer but that makes sense haha
No worries
I appreciate the more high level description
Instead of going to nuts and bolts
I mean that is the explicit reason why in a sense
it's easy to generalize it to like
most algebraic structures
Yea
The "tedium" is showing the image and preimages are modules for homomorphisms of whatever algebraic objects you're talking about
do the ruddy exercise!!
Yea i will need to check if we proved rhat in class
Yea i should do it for the exercise anyway
yippee
Btw for the group case, the subjectivity of the hom is only relevant for normal subgroups to map to normal subgroups
I know
Did preimage of normal subgroup always map to normal even if hom is not surjective?
no
No ik sorry i was asking
Try to think of an example :3
I wasnt telling u i was asking lol
oh okie
Just embed any group in another where it's not normal
Like
Z/2Z in Dih(6) or whatever
tldr lattice isomorphism theorem is due to the quotient projection being a surjective module map
I actually wonder why that preimage-image of homomorphisms preserving submodules or subobjects isn't covered that much
like, as much as it should be in intro AA classes from what I can tell
Hmm right ok usually they talk about how the IMAGE is a submodule of codomain, but they dont say how images of submodules are submodules of codomain ?
Is that what ur referring to?
Yeah thats weird
preimages of codomain submodules are submodules of the domain
even if that codomain submodule is outside of the image, 0 is in both
you're welcome
Usually when i do algebra things i go very low level but i want to try to think more in terms of these more fundamental ways
once again, not only for modules. it works for like a vast majority of the algebraic things you'll see
These ideas can make some cohomology sillies of modules make more sense, especially diagram chasing imo
I've seen some arguments use these DIRECTLY
Like even then, the kernel is the preimage of the zero module
So you can describe the kernel of compositions of maps
If h = f \circ g, then the kernel of h is the g-preimage of the kernel of f
Oh ya, bruh
Btw the whole image preimage correspondence is similar to annihilators of submodules
What is cosets and isomorphism
Need help to determine its defintions
Wat da flip bro
Hello peeps, I have a somewhat strange computer-sciencey question about polynomials (this is probably not the best channel to ask but I try).
Given a multivariate polynomial f, we can associate to it a (highly non-unique) formal expression e in terms of sums and products of monomials such that e is mathematically equivalent to f. For instance, if f is the multivariate polynomial 2xy+3yz, the formal expressions 2xy+3yz, y(2x+3z), and 2y(x+z)+yz are all equivalent to f.
Now define the size of the formal expression e to be the total number of variables that appear in it, counted with repetitions and multiplicity. For instance, the size of 2xy+3yz is 4, the size of y(2x+3z) is 3, and the size of 2y(x+z)+yz is 5. I call y(2x+3z) optimal for the polynomial 2xy+3yz because (I believe) it's the formal expression associated to 2xy+3yz with the smallest size.
Here's my question: is there a (heuristic/probabilistic) algorithm that, given any multivariate polynomial, outputs an optimal or close to optimal formal expression associated to it? Feels like (the decision version of) this problem is NP-complete, so I'm happy for a locally optimal solution.
You can find these, and all other definitions necessary to understand them, in any introductory book on groups. In fact you can find these definitions online if you google them.
NP
Aight I’ll see myself out
Thank you then for that
Plenty of textbooks (particularly older ones like Jacobson Basic Alg) have pdfs online
Like how the inverse image map sends submodules of the codomain to submodules of the domain, the "annihilator map", Ann(M) = {r : rx = 0 for each x in M}, sends submodules of a module to left/right ideals (essentially the ring's submodules)
ANNIHILATOR!!
Hmm ok i have not actually parsed thru what u put here yet but i will
The annihilator of a set is elements of the ring R that the module is over that send ever element of that set to 0
Unfortunately my module theory lectures are so dry and i learn 100x more from u guys
My topology lectures are epic this term tho.
jacobson is fun
Are they monic
Tbh yeah I feel like first courses in modules or whatever are bound to be a bit dry lol
do u have notes or like
anything to share
topology is like the most 'rewatachable" series ever
in a way
math way
can someon give me a hint regarding this question
Showing that the field of fractions of ℤ[\sqrt{d}] is ℚ[{sort{d}}].
is there an easy way to do it
what are the units
of Z[\sqrt{d}]
actually probably just to use the 2-dim approach
The field of fractions is the 'minimum field' which contains it
since the field of fractions of Z is Q
and the field of fractions of that object is not Q since it doesn't contain sqrt(d) (assumind sqrt(d) is not rational, I'm assuming it's a non-square integer here, if that's not an assumption in the problem please say).
And Q[sqrt(d)] is a field and Q[sqrt(d)]:Q = 2 and Q[sqrt(d)] contains Z[sqrt(d)] we are finished
1/(a^2 - db^2) exists in Q given d^2 is not rational
so for any field containing Z[\sqrt{d}], for any a + b\sqrt{d}, 1/(a^2 - db^2) is in Q (contained in that field since it's a field containing Z, thus Q = frac(Z) too), so (a - b\sqrt{d})/(a^2 - db^2) is its inverse
that seems like a lot of unnecessary work
if d = (a/b)^2, then a + \sqrt{d} b is a zero divisor so there is no field of fractions for that element
That's why I added a disclaimer
was just adding that to elaborate
this type of question seems to be one where you assume d to be a non-square integer
I am not aware of any, but how fast is the “obvious” method?
in one variable the algorithm should be* the same as the one used for evaluating polynomials
so representing a0 +a1x +a2x^2 + a3x^3 + ... anx^n as a0 + x(a1 + x(a2 + x(a3 +(...))
Well, what about e.g. (x+3)^3
that's 3 accounting for multiplicity
which is the same
(although I still changed it to should be)
True true, might just always be the same
this algorithm gives you n, which is a lower* bound
For multiple variables, there might be some weird possibilities that could be better?
Based on funny factoring being hard
Might as well
if the resulting is divisible by a variable you can just factor it
Trivial lemma
lmao
I mean, it should just be like, total degree as a lower bound
But getting to that form
this is probably funny n > 1 means n = 2 moment, where everything's the same
if you have an expression of the form xp(x) + yq(y) + xy h(x,y) what's optimal?
if we reach the lower bound then we should have that for any evaluation on a variable we also reach the lower bound
I’d sure hope so
I mean it follows
That’s why I’d hope so
then like, how in which ways* can you optimally write an expression
also can you even reach the lower bound on x^2 + x^2y^2 + y^2
you can apparently (1+x^2)(1+y^2) -1
True
Could pull out that 1
But would you be able to find that nicely algorithmically
e is invariant under translations on the variables, constants
transformations (x1,...,xn) -> (x1^k,...,xn^k) multiply by k the optimal
and x-> x^k preserves the optimal solution as well (although the value depends on the type of factorization)
x^2 + x^3y +y doesn't have any degree 4 factorization
Sad
I wonder if homogenization helps
Ok so this feels closely related to something that is already being studied that you may find interesting
there are these things called algebraic circuits
so these formally are directed acyclic graphs
the bottom (source) vertices are inputs and the top (sink) vertex is the output
so here is the same polynomial expressed as two different circuits
you can easily do this for multivariable polynomials as well
the size of the circuit is the number of nodes in the graph
and the depth of the circuit is the length of the longest path from any source to the sink vertex (both of these circuits are depth 3)
so one can fix a family of polynomials paramaterized by n, say the n x n determinant (which is a polynomial) and ask "what is the smallest circuit (in terms of big O notation) for the n x n determinant
or maybe the n-th elementary symmetric polynomials
or the n x n permanent
or the n, d Iterated Matrix Multiplication polynomial (multiply together d different n x n matrices, output the 1,1 entry of the resulting matrix)
and this type of computation model has some deep deep connections to the P vs NP problem
For this question how do I get started for the second part? Do I just need to show that (a,b) times (x,y) = (1,0) and then just find the values of x and y?
yeah do exactly that. u can also notice that R is isomorphic to the ring of complex numbers. the addition and multiplication is exactly the same as addition and multiplication on the complex numbers, and u should be familiar already with finding inverses of complex numbers
Okay thank you so much 🫡
Another doubt related to the same question. When showing that (R,+) has a neutral element, I need to show that there exists some (c,d) in R such that (a,b) + (c,d) = (c,d) + (a,b) = (a,b). In this case the neutral element is (0,0) but do I need to prove it? Or can I just say (0,0)?
you should prove that (0, 0) satisfies the property you stated
but like it's kind of a one liner lol
I just said that since R=R^2 (0,0) is in R and by the definition of addition in R (a,b) + (0,0) = (a,b).
Your explanation is inaccurate
This is not just the standard ring R^2
Yes the addition is the same but the multiplication is different
So it's not just R = ℝ^2 as a ring
Because when you just say ℝ^2 as a ring, you mean with coordinate wise addition and product
So you really should be arguing by the definition of R
So everything you said is right except for the R = ℝ^2 part
It's being really pedantic but it's good to be pedantic when just starting
So instead can I say since R is a set of ordered pair of real numbers, (0,0) is in R etc,etc
sorry i’m not too good with complex groups yet. i get that each element is a rotation on the complex plane but i don’t know how to demonstrate that. i also don’t know what the inverse for any element would be
use euler's theorem
that's how u would go to the geometric intuition
ie represent a complex number in polar form and then use re^itheta = r(cos(theta)+isin(theta))
so this is really just a circle
the set H i mean
now is anyone here up for a field theory qual problem proof check?
i wanna sleep and it's just a y/n proof verification
just from i --> ii the rest is normal
the hints would be to know what kind of structure an isomorphism respects really
it should be all of them
that is for example if two groups are isomorphic then u know they must have the same order
so the problem is asking u to find the order of the image of an element
surely ur intuition would say that somehow u should consider the order of the element first before sending it
and then on ur paper maybe try to find out how an isomorphism changes that
correct?
that is
if we have two groups say G and H and an isomorphism, if an element g in G has order n what is the order of phi(g)?
phi is ur isomorphism ofc
i) --> ii) consider the polynomial x^p-a and call a root of this polynomial y. if y is in F than we are done if not then y is in some algebraic closue and hence by assumption we must have min_y(x) be seperable. also min_y(x) must divide x^p-a and hence x^p-a is not irreducible. factor x^p-a into irreducibles and since (x-y) must be a factor then the minimal polynomial must be one of the irreducible factors. consider now x^p-a = min_y(x)*g(x) where g(x) is the product of the rest of the irreducible factors. we see that by taking derivatives we must have either min_y'(y) = 0 or g(y) = 0. as min_y is seperable we must have g(y) = 0, but this means min_y must divide g(x) and since min_y is irred and hence prime it must divide one of the irreducible factors which is a contradiction?
yeah
chatgpt says im right please prove chatgpt wrong ik this is ur fav thing to do
Apologies if this doesn't belong here. In the first picture, T is assumed normal on a finite-dimensional real inner product space.
Why does the primary cyclic decomposition of (V, T) have the same number of summands as there are factors of the minpoly? (Is the primary decomposition already primary cyclic, and if so, why?) Assuming this to be the case (otherwise I'm not sure how the direct sum is orthogonal as indicated by the dotted circles), how do we get from the basis B_i to an orthonormal basis with the same matrix form - the statement of which I assume is missing in Theorem 10.10..?
do u know the fundamental theorem of f.g modules over PIDS?
Yes
each summand annhilates the whole space no? cuz these are quotients
in a way
so the minimal polynomial must divide each one and each one must divide the other untill the last factor (invariant factor)
im sorry if what im saying is nonsense i was about to sleep after i threw my solution, i just said what my gut told me idk if this is right sorry if it isn't
good luck im off to sleep
Hm I assumed we were working with the elementary divisor formulation
yeah this
mb
Good night
but ig that was not the point
So my understanding is this: the (unique) primary decomposition of (V, T) is of the form E_{l_1} (+) ... (+) E_{l_k} (+) W_1 (+) ... (+) W_m, where l_1, ..., l_k are the eigenvalues and W_j is the set of vectors killed by p_j(T). This decomposition is pairwise orthogonal because the orders of summands are pairwise relatively prime. But the first thing that I'm having trouble seeing is why the W_js must be cyclic, which I'm assuming Roman claims to be the case because otherwise the primary cyclic decomposition would involve more terms than is written (breaking up the primary summands into primary cyclic ones), in which case I can't use the relatively prime argument to claim that the direct sum is still orthogonal.
I'm also off to bed, will bump this when I get back ig lol
Is rep theory through quivers supposed to be brutal? I feel it is somehow quite involved.
From what I've seen rep theory in general is pretty brutal
I’ve heard of these things actually! I’ll look into them, thanks
Apparently they’re called arithmetic circuits
This is something called Horner form?
yeah I think I've heard that
probably that
I think Horner forms work for polynomials in any number of variables actually
Would be funny if the optimal solution is just to write it in Horner form lol
I think reading Elements of the representation theory of associative algebras by Assem et al is really nice actually (at least through chapter 3 which is as far as I got haha). It's real surprising to me that any finite dimensional K-algebra (maybe K is perfect or alg closed or something) is morita equivalent to a quiver algebra modulo relations. I think it's very pretty to start with your algebra and "find" the quiver and the relations
You need K algebraically closed, but there is a generalization of quivers called species that work for arbitrary fields. This also extends Gabriel's theorem to arbitrary Dynkin diagrams, not just ADE
I don't think it's supposed to be brutal, but it is definitely supposed to be involved. It's a big field of study after all
Thanks, I will look into the book
I see, I felt that the Nakayama functor and related business is pretty intense.
I mean, there is a lot of machinery underlying to make everything work. But when it comes down to it the Nakayama functor basically just map the projective cover of a simple to it's injective hull, that's it.
I guess one gets used to everything
Hmm.. I am struggling to get the usage of it in proofs, and intuitive picture.
Maybe some of it is technical computations
has anyone read or looked at Paolo Aluffi Algebra: Chapter 0 and Algebra Notes from the Underground? wondering if i should get both or just Algebra Chapter 0
I've read a little bit of both, for a first introduction I would definitely go with Notes from the Underground. Chapter 0 focuses a lot on category theory, and I find that you end up spending more energy learning that than the actual algebra
I'm reading through notes from the underground & really enjoying it. Nice conversational style.
But I'm at the level of "re-learning math i vaguely did 8 years ago" so good chance it's too basic for a lot of folk
Dostoevsky?
Jk
Every Splitting field of a family of polynomials is normal but is every normal field extension also a splitting field?
and is every algebraic closure a splitting field?
Yeah true but I had a great time reading about modules in dummit and foote tbh
So somehow they didnt make it sound dry to me at least
Hm not really unfortunately, i mean i do have Prof’s notes but the notes themselves arent particularly special
His lectures are just really good. He’s passionate and really wants us to understand the ideas
Lmao
I think after the bit where you learn about categories at the very beginning youre not doing much category theory for a long time in Chapter 0
Yes, every normal extension is the splitting field of the polynomials it splits. In particular the algebraic closure is the splitting field of all polynomials.
also if the normal extension is infinite?
Yes
so nomal extension <=> splitting field <=> algebraic closure?
algebraic closure over K*
First one yes, but you can be a splitting field without being algebraically closed
oh because in lecture we had that splitting fields are exactly the algebraic closure
do you have an example?
Basically any example.
Like Q(sqrt(2)) is the splitting field of x^2 - 2
I think you must be mixing something here
but it is also the algebraic closure over Q because Q(sqrt(2) is algebraic closed and Q(sqrt(2))/Q is algebraic
It is very much not algebraically closed
When you talk about the algebraic closure, what do you think that means?
I think you may be confusing it with a different idea
because for example X^2+1 has no roots in Q(sqrt(2))?
Yes
Yeah for example
the algebraic closure T/K is algebraic closed (every polynomial over T has a roots in T ) and T/K is algebraic
thats the definition we have
So it should be clear that Q(sqrt(2)) is far from being the algebraic closure of Q.
what do they mean with the splitting fields of F over K are exactly the algebraic closures of K?
They mean if you take F (the set of all polynomials) and take it's splitting field, you get the algebraic closure
AHH over ALL polynomials
my reading skills are bad sorry
so normal <=> splitting field <= algebraic closure, and splitting field <=> algebraic closure only if its the splitting field over all polynomials
thank you guys!
Yes, that's right.
Though I guess it's worth noting that the algebraic closure can also be the splitting field of a smaller set of polynomials
how?
(different families of polynomials can have the same splitting field)
For example over R, the splitting field of x^2 + 1 is C
C is also the splitting field of the family of all polynomials
But you really just need one
one polynomial?
ah ok now i understand
What do you guys cover in a module theory course?
is there any criterion that shows that set wrt to two operations is a field?
besides proving all the field axioms
I mean, the axioms holding is the definition. But in most cases you get most of them for free, because the operations you have aren't pulled from think air, but coming from something already with some structure
If there was a criterion that was simpler than the axioms, then people would just use that as the axiom
hmm okay
I googled it just now and it says that closure wrt to addition, subtraction, multiplication and division guarantees that it is a field
So closure wrt addition, multiplication and their respective inverses
is this valid?
Well, that depends what you mean exactly.
If you take a subset of a field, that is closed under all that, then it is indeed true.
Otherwise, what exactly do you mean by closure?
oh I see
so there is an assumption that it is a subfield of a known field
by closure I mean the set is closed with respect to the binary operation
I didn't mean it in any other context
Well, that's just the definition of being a binary operation
T=( subgroups of G) . If we have a galois group with Order n then the Order of T <= n+1?
The set Z with addition being defined as a + b = 13, a - b = 5, a * b = 32 and a / b = -1 is closed under all four operations
This is clearly not a field. You need to follow the field axioms. There's no way around this.
If T is a subgroup of G, then the order of T is less than the order of G yeah. You don't even need to add 1
Got it 👍
no I meant T is the set of all subgroups of G
So this isn't a galois theory question, you're asking if the number of subgroups of a group G can exceed |G|+1
Groupprops tells me that S_4 has 30 subgroups
And indeed S_4 is the Galois group of some extension
@cloud lynx see above.
Culinary mathematics, great stuff.
because my thoughts are the following
Also, I think (Z/2)^3 has 16 subgroups
I think in general (Z/2)^n will give you a lot of bang for you buck if you're looking for many subgroups for a small order
if I have a galoisgroup with order n then there exists n automorphisms which have maximal order n and every automorphism has therefore finite order so every automorphism is a generator of a subgroup of the galois group so there exists max n+1 subgroups of a galoisgroup
if I have a galoisgroup with order n then there exists n automorphisms which have maximal order n
This is false
In fact this never happens.
if this comes in my algebra exam i am gonna quit math
and every automorphism has therefore finite order
Yes, this is trivial because the group is finite.
Every automorphism generates some subgroup, but you can have subgroups generated by more than one element.
Have you studied group theory before tag?
yes i did
OK
do you have an example for a galoisgroup which has more subgroups than its order?
I just gave an example...
Yes
mmh
then i am cooked for my exam
i dont know how to find all subgroups of S4 example
because by now i had only galois groups with order n which have only maximal n+1 subgroups thats why i had this wrong thoughts
bump (text is above)
Both me and Boytjie have examples
And (Z/2)^3 is pretty easy to cook up an extension for. Like Q(sqrt2, sqrt3, sqrt5) for example
and (Z/2)^4 isomorh to Gal(Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3),sqrt5,sqrt7)/Q))?
and Gal(Q(third root(prime1), sqrt(prime2))/Q) isomorph to Z3xZ2?
Adjoining a third root of a prime, doesn't give you a Galois extension. You need the other third roots aswell, in which case the Galois group becomes S3. And then I think it depends on the prime wether it already contains the square root of the other prime
what does adjoining square mean?
Q(a) is Q adjoined a.
So Q(sqrt2) is what you get by adjoining the square root of 2
ah ok
i know but the extension does not have to be galois in order to have a galois group
I see, but then the Galois group of Q(third root of prime) is the trivial group
and Q(third root of prime2, sqrt(prime1))/Q?
It does not have order 6.
It has order 2.
Because the extension is not Galois, the order of the group of automorphisms is not necessarily the degree of the extension.
This is an example of such a case.
ah
unless prime2 is -3
In fact an extension is Galois if and only if it has degree equal to the order of its automorphism group
ok tyy guyss
is there a trick or statements to see wether a galois group is cyclic or not? or abelian or not?
because u guys can just tell to which group a galois group is isomorphic to
there's no trick
for me its actually pretty hard unless i have determined all subgroups of the galois group
some are just obvious, basically cyclic/abelian galois groups mean there is some way to write the extension where it is clear that there are no relations between the different roots of the minimal polynomial
so like Q(sqrt(p)) is quadratic so its galois with galois group z/2
then Q(sqrt(p), sqrt(q)) must have galois group the klein 4 group (intuitively, just because the two generators have no relation to each other, so the galois group should just be a product of the two galois groups)
and how do i know wether they are cyclic/non abelian? or do i have to show it by hand
certain extensions are cyclic because of general theory
e.g. if K contains an nth root of unity then K(nthroot(p)) is always cyclic and Galois
There is no silver bullet that tells you when something is abelian or nonabelian in general, you have to learn from experience/experiment around with automorphisms
But one example to think about is Q(sqrt(-3), cuberoot(p)) where p is a prime bigger than 3
this is galois over Q with galois group S_3 = Z/3 \rtimes Z/2
nth root of unity is x^n=1?
its a solution to the nth cyclotomic polynomial, which is the irreducible polynomial of largest possible degree which divides that polynomial
anyway in the case of Q(sqrt(-3), cuberoot(p)) the reason the galois group is not a product is because there is no galois degree 3 subextension
which there would be if the group was a product
if it were a product then taking the fixed field of complex conjugation (an element of order 2) would give a galois degree 3 subfield, but instead it gives Q(cuberoot(p)) which is not galois
so you see that the galois group must be nonabelian
ok thank you!!!
Starting definitions, module homs, Hom(M,N) as an r module, free modules, exact sequence, tensor product
I think we are also gonna do the modules over pid stuff
main question for me is how much overlap is there? actually i have dummit and foote already
HELL
yeah that would be quite funny
what's the horner form of x + xy + y?
x(1+y) + y innit?
this isn't optimal as (1+x)(1+y) - 1 is better
Oh my thing tells me the Horner form is x + xy + y lol
Guess it's not the same Horner form as the one I had in mind
A good algorithm (as in to find better than horner) seems to be:
Decomposing a polynomial as something with a lot of factors + a remainder with low degree
If you already have dummit and foote then you won't need both chapter 0 and notes from the underground. If you think DF is difficult, get notes from the underground, otherwise get chapter 0
Personally I quite like Notes from the Underground. It has a very conversational style that is fun to read
Can someone give me a hint for this question? So far I know I need to show that (1-sr)*t=1 which is essentially showing that (1-sr) has a multiplicative inverse. But I can’t figure out how to “construct” t?
How would you represent 1/(1-sr) as a series?
(think outside of abstract algebra, if you wish)
Yes I figured it out. Thank you so much!
here’s a problem from an old qualifying exam archive but I’m not sure how to solve it. I have some facts that I know written down but everything I try leads me nowhere.
part 1b) is what i’m specifically struggling with.
OOOOOH
I am so close to flash banging you with cool radical (pun intended) shit
Naturally for any ideal (commutative), a in J or b in J implies ab is in J. This is two way if it's prime...
this applies to powers of a too lmao
Yes that makes sense.
I’ve done a lot of scratch work trying to get to the answer but I seem to just be spinning around.
.
stuff like this.
do you mind zooming into the problem please :3
helps me a lot
Oh i think I see it.
Assume for each x in R there exists an m > 1 such that x^m = x. It's gonna be commutative even without unity then you want to show every prime ideal is maximal
yes
let me ponder for a second, it's a new problem to me
that’s alright take all the time you need.
Maybe assume J is an ideal containing prime ideal P strictly (i.e we have a z in J\P). Maybe we can show J = R
Not sure if this is helpful, but if x^m = x, then x^(n(m-1) + 1) = x for each n
Yeah that’s what i’m trying with q. I’d like to use operations to show that two elements in the ideal containing q and the prime ideal will let us achieve a sum of 1
and if 1 is in it, then it’s equal to R
I don’t think that’s true.
Didnt check the details and i havent slept so take it with a grain of salt: Let P be a prime ideal. Then R/P is an integral domain. It suffices to show that it is also a field. Let a in R but not in P. It suffices to find b in R such that ab-1 is in P. There is m such that a^m=a. Then a(a^{m-1}-1)=0 in P, so either a in P or a^{m-1}-1 in P. The first case is already excluded previously, so a^{m-1}-1 is in P. Hence, take b = a^{m-2} (which is possible since m is at least 2) and we are done
oh that works.
I am a moron
Ahhh that makes sense because it uses part a. I should’ve thought of something like that. Thank you!
arithmetic algebraic I've seen both around tbh, it's just a name
the set of 1-nilpotent elements forms a group, which is dope
So ik one can prove x and other degree >0 polynomials in R[x] have no inverses using a degree argument. R[x] embeds into R[[x]] by taking a_k = 0 for all k > some n in N, can I prove x in R[[x]] has no inverse by using such embeddings and counting degree, or is this flawed since degree isn't in general well defined? I want to use this to then show formal power series with constant 0 are not units, but I'm thinking this probably does not work
hrm wait nvm i think i got it
It is trivial that aH = H implies a in H right?
Yes, a is in the LHS, so it must be in the RHS
Assuming H is a subgroup anyway
$f(X)^c = f(X^c)$ true or false yes or no
bug free
What do you think
$f(X)^c = {x: x \notin X \vee f(x) \notin Y}$
bug free
and $f(X^c) = {x: x \notin X^c \vee f(x) \notin \text{what goes here} }$
either way I think no
Are you sure about that
bug free
Neither of the sets should be consisting of points in X or X complement
wow do i need to review some defnitions.
Assuming the domain and codomain disjoint
Anyway, it’s false
But you’re kinda doing these wrong I think
how so
Well, it shouldn’t be the set of x things whose f(x) has so and so property
So that’s already a bad sign
A transitive group action is one such that for all x, y \in X there is a g \in G so that gx = y
Is there a notion for when there is exactly one g?
like SO(n) on the sphere.
hi
this is easy right?
- has (x-1) and (x+1) as zero divisors, and the constants are the units except 0
2 is a field ?
Sure
or by 1 i mean R and 2 i mean S
yeah jusit wanted to check seemed suspectively easy
thank you
Owo
Wait I didn't read the units bit
yeah
okay 1 more problem that is very embarrasing but yeah whatever
the problem just stated ( and it recurred on multiple quals )
classify all semisimple rings of order n
Lol
now since these are finite they are artinian
so i can use artin-wedderburn
but i can't figure out how the matrix dimensions and what are the division rings
cuz i remember one problem asking this + (how many are commutative?)
i know the commutative ones would have to be like the ones that have dimension 1 over their matrix rings
but i wasn't sure
how to like write this fully
any hints?
also another bad question
the shift up operator on the set of infinite sequences is a famous counterexample for like proving injectivity <--> surjectivity fails when the vec space has infinte dim
literally the same counterexample should work in the context of noetherian modules correct?
that is if a surjection on a noetherian module is an injection
So I guess you want to keep in mind that all finite division rings are fields, and that you presumably know what the finite fields are.
From there I'm not sure how detailed you need the classification to be...
- also has any linear polynomial x-a as a unit, for |a| != 1
1/(x-a) = (x+a)/(1-a^2)
oof, wouldn't that be annoying.
|GL(m,F)| = F^m
so like n has to be a prime power say n = p^n' and then you're essentially playing with the divisors of n'.
And your ring is of the form GL(m,F_p^m') with mm' = n'
(finite domains are fields by Wedderburns little theorem)
Depends on the domain and codomain
probably on their lengths if I had to guess or something
I have to show the previous equality in a problem set on nilpotent groups and I'm not sure if they're integers and the left superscript operation means the tetration or if it's another operation defined on groups that I'm not aware of
Precisely, the exercise states 'Show that, in general: [above equality'
If anyone could enlighten me
(first case seems absurd)
I've never seen the notation
then I guess using n = 1 we have ab = ^{a}ba
so ^{a}b = aba^(-1)
so does ^{h}g = hgh^(-1) in general?
by induction you have abab...ab = (ab)^n
so I guess it should've been (ab)^n in the problem and not ab^n
this makes sense if it's notation for the action of h on g (by conjugation)
Right ! It does make sense thanks
Hey what can I say if there are two subgroups H,K of a group G such that they are conjugates (i.e there is a g s.t
gHg^-1 = K
I'm not sure what kind of stuff you're looking for, but they will be isomorphic and of the same index at least.
You might be able to say worcestershire if you try hard
how important is the theorie behind symmetric functions for galois theory?
or can i keep it out
lol
theory*
How does the field of the symmetric functions in X1,...Xn look like? I have no idea or intuition of this field
just K={f of K[X1,...Xn] | f(x1,...,xn)=f(x k(1),...x k(n)) for all k of Sn}?
It's purely transcendental if I'm not mistaken
Isn't it a famous theorem that it's isomorphic to some polynomial ring
Like a classic result of invariant theory
? it's due to Hilbert I think
and this is Galois theory
and field theory I guess
K is isomorphic to K(x_1,..,x_n)
and you can take as the x_i the ith symmetric polynomial in the X_1,...,X_n
cursed notation
yeah I just realized
Consider $\prod_{i=1}^n (T-X_i)=s_0+s_1T+\cdots+T^n$ where $s_i$ are polynomials in the $X_1,\dots, X_n$ (with integer coefficients). The $s_i$ are the symmetric polynomials (maybe there are some conventions as to whether you pick $s_i$ or $-s_i$, but this is irrelevant here)
croqueta3385
ahh okk tyy
what is equation 41 saying here? i dont think axa^(-1) makes any sense unless we we are considering the action of G on itself by conjugation
It should be Stab ax
And then the statement just follows because g(ax) = ax <=> aga^-1(x) = x
@tender wharf
Where I have added unnecessary brackets for clarity hopefully lol
aoh I see
It is a bit silly of them to say the proof is clear and get the statement wrong
So its a typo
I was trying to prove it myself and I was only able to do it when it was stab ax lol
So good to know
Lol well nice
he makes another typo on the next page I think
he says equation 41' but there is no 41'
so its probably 42'
yes, thank you jagr and triviallemam
If an infinite group with every element having finite order, can I show this group has infinite number of subgroups by just doing:
pick g in G, subgroup <g> is finite. Then pick g' in G that is not in <g>, and then <g'> is a different subgroup , just continue this wa
way
so G has infinite number of subgroups
The question I am trying to solve is: "A group with finite number of subgroups is finite"
So I was trying to show contrapositive
I dont know, maybe there is a better way or something, pls guide me with your smartness fellow math ppl
You did great, no need for guidance
Thanks a lot!
in fact a group has an infinite number of subgroups if and only if it's infinite
Btw I will forever be grateful for this server
If you guys weren’t here i’d be way behind
Everything would just take longer to understand, have to go wait for prof office hours all the time etc
A group action of G on A is a group homomorphism $G \to Aut(A)$, right? Many sources also define it as a function $\sigma : G \to (A \to A)$ where $\sigma(e_G) = Id_A$ and $\sigma(gh) = \sigma(g) \circ \sigma(h)$. Isn't $\sigma(e_G) = Id_A$ redundant, as it just follows from the homomorphism property?
sheddow
yes
the property of preserving the identity is redundant if you are already assuming this is a group homomorphism sure, but you need this condition if you're spelling out what it means to be a homomorphism in the first place
shouldn't the bottom be Aut(A)?
or does it follow, or something
but f(e_G) = e_H is not part of the definition of a homomorphism
but it might have something to do with what Trivial says, when the codomain is A -> A instead of Aut(A), you can't assume sigma(f) is invertible, so you can't deduce the identity property from the homomorphism property
it depends on how you define homomorphism
preserving the identity and inverses should be automatic from preserving products
whether you prefer this to be part of the definition or a consequence is a matter of taste
(it's basically the same as whether you consider the inverses and the identity to be a structure or a property)
So for the first definition you have a homomorphism G to Aut(A), and since Aut(A) is a group you automatically preserve the identity. For the second definition you only have a map G -> (A -> A), but you can use the axiom sigma(e) = Id_A to show that the range is actually Aut(A). Is that correct?
Well the answer is basically a tautology
Wdym
Well like
They are the fourth roots of -7
i.e. i^k 7^1/4
but that is like not a very amazing answer because i am just saying the 4th root of 7 is the 4th root of 7
If it respects composition then it mean that \sigma(g) is invertible for all g
If it's meant to be compatible with the operation on A it should be a map from G to End(A)
fair enough
I have a few questions on how surgery effects the homotopy groups of manifold. Assume we are examining the effect of $0$-surgery on a topological manifold of dimension $3$ which we denote $M$, and it's fundamental group. We know $\pi_1(\chi(M)) \cong \pi_1(M #(S^1 \times S^2))$. How do I get the final result $\pi_1(M) \star \mathbb{Z}$? And can we even follow this method for higher homotopy groups?
Architect
Quotient modules do have a universal property right?
yes
Cool
Can I say like the forgetful functor from mod to grp is adjoint to the Z module functor
So it happens?
Or is it needed to prove it separately
idk tbh
Let $A = (a_{ij}) \in \text{Mat}{m,n}(F)$. Then $A^t = (b{ij}) \in \text{Mat}{n,m}(F)$ with $b{ij} = a_{ji}$.
\begin{proof}
We have:
\begin{equation*}
\begin{split}
T_A(e_i)&= \sum_{k=1}^m a_{ki}f_k \\
T_A^\vee(f_j^\vee) &= \sum_{k=1}^n b_{kj}e_k^\vee.
\end{split}
\end{equation*}
Applying $f_j^\vee$ to $T_A(e_i)$ yields:
\begin{equation*}
\begin{split}
(f_j^\vee \circ T_A)(e_i) &= f_j^\vee \left(\sum_{k=1}^m a_{ki}f_k\right)\\
& = \sum_{k=1}^m a_{ki}f_j^\vee(f_k) \\
&= a_{ji}.
\end{split}
\end{equation*}
Evaluating the $T_A^\vee(f_j^\vee)$ at $e_i$ gives:
\begin{equation*}
\begin{split}
T_A^\vee(f_j^\vee)(e_i)
& = \sum_{k=1}^n b_{kj}e_k^\vee(e_i) \\
& = b_{ij}.
\end{split}
\end{equation*}
We have $(f_j^\vee \circ T_A)(e_i) = T_A^\vee(f_j^\vee)(e_i)$. Hence $a_{ji} = b_{ij}$
\end{proof}
gian
Can anyone explain why this proof is applying f_j^v to T_A
And also why we evaluate at T_A^v(f_j^v) at e_i
this is assuming E_n = {e1,...,en} is the standard basis for F^n and W_n = {f1,...,fm} is the standard basis for F^m
maybe i should ask this in linear algebra actually
yes this is an easy application of Van Kampen
you should learn what the Van Kampen theorem is and how to use it, it's a standard thing that shows up quite early in most algebraic topology courses
if you know the statement of Van Kampen then it is immediately obvious, it's meant to be a pretty rapid thing
thankfully this is like, the standard result to use any time you try to compute \pi_1 of any sort of gluing or connect sum like this
so usually you do not have to make so many decisions around what results might be useful for problems like these
H is a cyclic subgroup of G with order p, where p is a prime.
a is in H iff aH=Ha
is this true?
Suppose that $G = H \rtimes K$. Previously proven $G$ may be identified as a set with
the Cartesian product $H \times K$, and that viewed this way, the multiplication on $G$ is given by
[
(h_1,k_1) \cdot (h_2,k_2) = \left(h_1 (k_1 h_2 k_1^{-1}), k_1 k_2\right) = (h_1 \phi_{k_1} (h_2), k_1 k_2),
]
where for any $k\in K$, $\phi_{k}: H \rightarrow H$ is the map given by $\phi_k (h) = khk^{-1}$.
(External) semi-direct products.
The previous problem motivates the following definition. Let $H$ and $K$ be abstract groups, and let
[
\phi : K \rightarrow Aut(H), \quad k \mapsto \phi_k
]
be a homomorphism. The (external) semi-direct product $H \rtimes_\phi K$ is defined as follows. As a set, it is the Cartesian product $H\times K$, with group law given by
[
(h_1, k_1) \cdot (h_2, k_2) = (h_1 \phi_{k_1} (h_2), k_1 k_2).
]
Status: I have begun but got stuck midway.
What is the relation between internal and external semi-direct products?
Claim:
For disjoint subgroups within the same larger group forming an internal semi-direct product of the larger group, there exists an isomorphism between their external semi-direct products.
Idea:
Show semi-direct internal products are isormophic to extern semi-direct products.
Then, show external semi direct products are equal to internal semi direct products.
kaxi
$|HK| = \frac {|H||K|}{|H \cap K|}$
yeshua
2nd isomorphism theorem should do it
No its obviously false
a counterexample is p = 3, H = <(123)> and a = (12) in S_3
oh wait, misread the original question, nvm
do i just go that |X| = |X^G| + number of elements in each orbit
but by orbit-stab theore mwe have number of elements in each orbit is equal to p^n/stab_g(a represnetative of that orbit)
but this goes to 0 mod p and we have the claim?
Yup
is the direct product of rings commutative if only if the components are commutative?
should be right?
if we have commutative Rings R1 and R2 commutative then
(a1,b1)(a2,b2)=(a1 a2, b1 b2)=(a2 a1, b2 b1)=(a2,b2)(a1,b1) because R1 and R2 are commutative
and if they're commutative then the product is commutative
yes ok thank youuu

if we have a a principal ideam domain
then (a1)+....+(an)=(a1,....,an)?
because we have a theorem that d gcd of a1,...,an if only if (d)=(a1)+...+(an) where as R is a PID
This is true in any ring, just by definition.
Like I + J is the smallest ideal that contains I and J, and (x, y) is the smallest ideal that contains x and y
That's just what this notation means
ahh
In a PID (x, y) = (gcd(x, y)) just like you said
(and similarly for more than 2 elements)
but for what is it good for? only to simplify?
Let G be a group with the identity element 1 and a,b,c is also in G. Let x be in G which satisfies the equalities. Find G.
Yeah, it's very useful to have an ideal generated by just one element.
Then every element in the ideal just looks like a multiple of the generator.
When you have more generators you have to think about relations between them and things get complicated.
I have been stuck on this a little too long. I filled in two tables but still cannot find x. I get like x^5 = c but don't know how to go one from there.
ahh okk tyyyy
Are we supposed to assume that a, b, c, 1, x are the only elements in G, or that G is generated by them? Are they necessarily distinct?
Let G be a group with the identity element 1, and a, b, c ∈ G. Given that x ∈ G satisfies:
This is the only thing on the question.
I guess they have to be distinct and that G only consists of only these 4 elements.
Well, then no such G exists
If x^3 = 1, then either x=1 or the order of G is a multiple of 3
I forgot I have a solution lol but they did something like:
ax^2= bx <=> ax^3 = bx <=> [x^3 = 1] <=> a=bx
a LOT of things
Yeah, sure (assuming you meant ax^2 = b at first there)
G = {1,x,x^2} a = x; b = 1; c = x^2
Is there something about those equivalences you don't understand?
Yes, but why did you say that such no G exist.?I am asking because I actually wanna understand the topic fully.
Like I said, the only groups in which x^3 = 1 is possible, are groups where the number of elements is a multiple of 3.
So if the problem is supposed to be interpreted as the group having 4 elements, then no such G exists
Because 4 is not a multiple of 3
Of course it could be that the problem is supposed to be interpreted some other way.
Like the way Trivial did here for example
maybe it's a forall x in G satisfies?
That seems even weirder to me. But at least then G would have to be the trivial group
Also c would be completely irrelevant
can be Z/3Z^n I guess
Can't have ax^2 = b for all x
(U(Z8), ×) are groups. U(Zn) consists of the invertible elements in Zn. Investigate whether the group is cyclic.
So U(Z8) = {1,3,5,7} then <1> = {1}, <3> = {1,3}
This is only what I sketched so far, how do I solve this?
The order of 1 is 1, then order of the rest in the set is 2. But how can this help me?
From what I understand, the smallest sub group of a group that consists of x, like the smallest group made from x
OK so you don't know the definition
I am not sure that I totally grasp it tho.
A group $G$ is cyclic if there is some element $g \in G$ such that $\langle g \rangle = G$.
Boytjie
So it should be clear to you know whether or not U(Z_8) is cyclic from your calculations.
Aha okay there needs to be an element g whose group generated from it is equal to the entire G
In that case no, there is no such element.
Did I understan it correctly?
Thank you so much for making this clear for me and making me realise. I sort of understood but like it was like not clear for me, but now everything I have done so far seems clear to me.
I think that next time you're struggling with a question, you should ensure that you know the definitions of all the terms involved
Because this was the only issue here
AHHH
The group (Z13 \ {0}, ×) is cyclic. Determine all of its generators.
How do I even begin. In the solution they found the order of the elements and used Lagrange but I really cannot see it. Before I checked the answer I was finding the order by finding the cyclic group of each element and got exhausted and felt like I was doing something wrong. Is there antoehr way to find solve the equation 2^n mod 13 = 1 for example? Because if I am forced to find all the cyclic groups then do i even need Lagrange or whatever reason they used it for?
So lots of different things you can do here:
For any specific element either it's a generator or the order divides 4 or 6.
You can compute x^4 as (x^2)^2 and x^6 as x^4 * x^2. So this uses Lagrange to verify if x is a generator slightly quicker.
If you find one generator, it's quick to find more. Since the order of x^n is o(x)/gcd(n, o(x)) where o(x) is the order of x. In particular x^n has the same order as x iff n is relatively prime to the order of x.
Otherwise, if you just start computing powers of various elements. Then any element which has a generator as some power is also a generator. And any element that is a power of a non-generator is not a generator. Then you can start crossing out and circling things quickly.
Im reading algebra again and i've got this textbook which lays out all the definitions well but doesn't provide strong excersizes, so im feeling that im just reading without learning. Specifically for rings. It just feels like a construction after construction without it turning into anything in my mind.
Does anyone have a text to recommend, or an easyish research paper I can wrestle through? I don't want something like lang, that feels far too hard for me.
why 4 and 6
By Lagrange the order divides 12
So you just look at what the divisors of 12 is
I hear dummit and foote has good exercises & examples
yes but like all 1,2,3,4,6 divide 12. I don't really get it.
alright i can check it out
how hard would you say are the original 1920s papers of Noether?
came across them randomly in google
arent the generators all elements of Z/nZ which are coprime to n?
so they are units and therefore generate all Elements of Z/nZ
No, that would generate Z/nZ and not U(Z/nZ)
We're looking at multiplication, not addition.
ah
Yeah, so if the order is 1, 2, 3 or 6 then x^6 = 1, and if the order is 1, 2 or 4 then x^4 = 1
Find a subgroup of S4 that is isomorphic to G□?
How do I even begin here?
What is G□
I am guessing they mean a square.
OK I don't want a guess though, I want to know the definition
Remember we talked about this up here
You cannot expect to answer a question whose meaning you don't know!
They have had multiple examples of square begin a group with operations of rotations etc... in my book. This is an exercise my prof made so it must be based on the book. Also when I checked solutions it says: "Number the corners of the square 1, 2, 3, 4 and write down which permutation corresponds to each element in G□" so I am pretty sure it is a square.
OK so you've checked the solutions as well
So that is a pretty good hint so I'd try it.
Honestly I have but it is not saying me anything nor leading me anywhere.
Like are they saying to write down all possible permutations of G?
(1)(2)(3)(4) -> G is unchanged. (2341) rotated 90 degree?
isnt it D4? Dihedralgroup
yes I think so
just rotate
then reflect
and do it again
then you should get 8 Permutations
so its isomorphic to D4
if I am not wrong
lol
Aren't we rotating and reflecting D4 to begin with if I understand you correctly?
?
no I meant the square
every rotation and reflection is a permutation and there are only 8 ways to permute a square
so its isomorph to D4
Yeah but what is the isomorphism you are trying to show? I get that we can rotate and reflect but how does tell us that it is isomorphic to the subgroup of S4
D4 is a subgroup S4
okay
Sn is the set of all possible permutations
Excuse me, May I ask a question about groups?
given that D4 is a square, why do I even need to show that it isomorphic to another square. I am confused , sorry.
I wonder how to solve the first problem
what do u mean
I can just only prove that if g is in I, then the group generated by g is belonged to I. But I don’t know whether it is useful.
thats isomorphism if two groups are isomorph than only the label is changing and sometimes its helpful to know to what group it is isomorphic to because we know all properties of D4
Sorry I forgot the question, I thought I was supposed to prove that the subgruop I find is isomorphic. How can I prove that D4 is isomorphic to square formally?
I get the relation f(ab) = f(a)f(b) but can someone make such function in this case?
just change the labels
write down all permutations of G square
all permutations of D4
then map the right permutation of D4 to the right permutation of G square
for example if u map ,,rotate" to "reflect" it wont work
because it wont be a homomorphism
So can I beseech you to have a glimpse into my question now?
i think you can determine first the order of I
then put everything together
i think its good to think about the elements of G if G is finite
if g is element of G
then g^-1 must also be element of G
Indeed, I have noticed that. But what can I do with it
take two members from I. then phi(gh) = h^-1g^-1 = g^-1h^-1
so that gives you a lot of commutative multiplications
not sure how to continue
Quite so, i have made numerous tries in the past three hours, but I didn’t find anything useful
i wrote a silly thing
a subgroup contained in I would be abelian is what i should have wrote
I’m sure the teacher didn’t teach anything about Automorphism. TA said students should learn more out of class
I think “3/4” is important to solve it. But I have no idea how can we get this number
Both problems are talking about 3/4
Consider GXG the direct product. Consider the subset (g,phi(g)). This is a subgroup of GXG.
|GXG| = |G|^2. Now apply the constraints we know about the size of said subgroup
I just checked my notes, the last thing I’ve learned is isomorphism
This is a brand new method for me, I haven’t thought about it
yes it is also new for me
absolutely devilish
im not sure it works lets do the details
so it is indeed a subgroup of GXG, check. it has 1,1 and is closed under multiplication and inverse
ach it doesn't work
you can have |G| = 20 for example and then a subgroup of size 16 of GXG
May I ask why GXG has the order of 16 rather than 20^2 when |G|=20
I only learned the direct product in advanced linear algebra. I don’t know how it works in abstract algebra
you're right, GXG will have order 20^2
what i was saying is that 16|400 so there could, theroetically, be a subgroup that size in GXG
(External) semi-direct products.
Consider the following definition. Let $H$ and $K$ be abstract groups, and let
[
\phi : K \rightarrow Aut(H), \quad k \mapsto \phi_k
]
be a homomorphism. The (external) semi-direct product $H \rtimes_\phi K$ is defined as follows. As a set, it is the Cartesian product $H\times K$, with group law given by
[
(h_1, k_1) \cdot (h_2, k_2) = (h_1 \phi_{k_1} (h_2), k_1 k_2).
]
It is rather tricky to determine when two different choices of $\phi$ (for the same $H$ and $K$) give rise to isomorphic groups. However, at least we can give a {\it sufficient} criterion for two semi-direct products to be isomorphic, as follows.
The set of $\phi$ above, namely the set $Hom (K, Aut (H))$, carries an action of $Aut (H) \times Aut (K)$: if $(\psi,\mu) \in Aut (H) \times Aut(K)$, then
[
\left( (\psi,\mu) \cdot \phi \right) (k) =\psi \circ ( \phi ( \mu^{-1} (k))) \circ \psi^{-1}.
]
Show that if $\phi$ and $\phi'$ are in the same orbit for this action, then
[
H \rtimes_{\phi} K \simeq H \rtimes_{\phi'} K.
]
I've gotten to $\phi$ and $\phi^{\prime}$ have action $a \in Aut(H) \times Aut(K)$ such that $\phi = a \phi^{\prime}$. Not sure how to define the map moving forward or show isomorphism.
kaxi
i gotta go take a phone call if ill think of something ill return
I want to go to bed since it’s midnight in my country. I have worked on it for too long
In a (commutative) ring, multiplication by r in R on some a in R, a -> ra is not injective unless R is an integral domain?
What about surjectivity ?
Also, how can we show that the multiplicative inverse of a unit in R is unique?
So multiplication by r is not surjective
Edited because i wrote the map wrong
Whats the exact question?
under what conditions multiplication by r is surjective/injective in a (commtative) ring?
Yea
Its injective iff the ring is an integral domain right
Oo wait
Maybe thats not an iff? If the ring is an ID then certainly injective yeah
yeah
But is it possible maybe that for this particular r you always have cancellation law, but not for others on the ring
In that case it wouod be inejctive but not OD
ID
I think you dont have to require that your whole ring is an integral domain if youre only considering the multiplication function for a single element r
something weaker suffices
regarding surjectivity: If multiplication by r is surjective, then 1 is in the image. What does this mean for r? And then show the converse of the satement also holds
I think then you have a cute way of showing that a finite commutative ring is a field iff its an integral domain
Cool ok ill think about it
I have a subgroup $H\leq S_p$ for a prime $p$ where $|H|=p(p-1)$, I am trying to determine $H$ I have that $H$ has a single subgroup of order $p$. Does anyone have a hint?
mh_le
Did u read atiyah macdonald
I am supposed to work thru that book this semester
I am looking forward to understanding rings better because i dont think i really had a solid understanding of them
I did indeed, would recommend
Nice
Yeah nice
Tbh I didn't know much about rings before starting atiyah macdonald
You learn a lot from it
Put another way, how do I determine the elements of the Galois group of $x^p-2$ for a prime $p$?
mh_le
“There exists rings with exactly one maximal ideal, for example fields”
Maximal ideal is just (0) in that case?
yes
suppose that p is a prime that a group G is generated by two elements of order p and p-1 respectively, is the order of G p(p-1)?
consider the group of all words formed from x,y with the condition x^p = 1 and y^p-1 = 1. the group is infinite
"every non unit of R is contained in a maximal ideal"
Is the reason just because, every ideal is contained in a maximal ideal, so take "a" a non unit and (a) is contained in maximal ideal so a is contained in maximal ideal
So I was trying to say that R/(a) has a maximal ideal (that was zorns lemma application) but then all I can say from that is that there is an ideal containing (a) in R, but i cant say its maximal can I?
like for pi: R -> R/(a), can I say preimages of maximal ideals are maximal?
It said for a ring hom A->B, preimages of prime ideals are prime but it said preimages of maximal ideals arent necessarily maximal ...
In this case you can indeed say it
Hmmm but for the general case no... is it something about surjectivity ?
Btw G is a subgroup of S_p

