#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 276 of 1
h2x^-1=h3
x^-1=h2^-1h3 in H
I think you mean h2x^-1 = h3^-1
how?
just multiply by x^-1 on both sides
on the left
From x = xh2x^-1h3 you get e = h2x^-1h3
I don't want to go there tho
Multiplying by h3^-1 on both sides you get h3^-1 = h2x^-1
not h2x^-1=h3
$xh_2x^{-1}=xh_3$
$h_2x^{-1}=h_3$
eigentaylor
why would we do that though?
isn't this much clearer
You said h2x^-1=h3
which seems to contradict this
how is that not clear from the latex
how are you getting this in the first place?
shouldn't it be h3 inverse on the RHS
I don't remember
how is this wrong then?
I might have made a mistake
I think this is correct, sorry
I have another question. if a group has order r, then how do you prove that the rth power of any element is the identity?
I'm doing the next question and essentially I think the idea is that we want to show that (aN)^r=N for all a in G. given N has index r
Do you know Lagrange's theorem?
the order of a subgroup divides the order of the group?
Yes
yeah. but all I remember about the proof is that each coset has the same number of elements
is that used to prove g^|G|=e?
The proof I know of uses it
It is not difficult to prove Lagrange's theorem though
or oh is the idea that the order of any element must divide the order of the group because the powers form a subgroup?
yeah I agree with bequi here
mhm
so |G|=k*o(g) implies g^|G|=e^k=e I see that's simple
Also another way to do 2. is by using that the number of left cosets equals the number of right cosets
oh. is that only true iff normal subgroup?
It's true always
Otherwise you couldn't use it here because you don't know yet that H is normal
so how does that do 2?
You have two partitions {H, xH} and {H, Hy}
Can you see how it does it?
thinking about it
clearly xH=Hy
Is Hy=Hx?
yeah I think so. as long as Hx is not H then it has to be Hy right
Yeah
alright then I'm with you
is there something about how xH=Hx for all x in G that implies H is normal?
Sometimes that's even taken as a definition of normal
If f is injective (which it is for wreath products) just restrict your reps to H
I’ll answer this in full by characterising the irreducibles of a wreath product once I’ve been awake for longer than 5 minutes
Yeah, that’s sorta the part why I was like that’s not generic enough to see what’s going on etc etc 
dunno what that means
you're doing the easy direction here
it's much harder (although still not that hard) to take reps of G and H and turn them into reps of the wreath product
wait are your groups finite
No
Which is why this is nontrivial at all
(Analytically, that is)
why the fuck you asking me then
I mean what I said is still true
Because you are the silly little wreath product man
just restrict to H
That’s a good point, but it seems hard to get any nice info like uhhhh irreducibility of the thing on f(H), or having it actually quotient
(When it’s not a wreath)
having what actually quotient, H is a subgroup not a subquotient
The wreath is what I care about but because it’s injective into Aut(G) it sorta turbo sucks
For some horrid technical data reasons
if it wasn't injective we would have a serious problem
And this has been a thorn in my side for months
you can't deflate reps to subquotients so it's important that H exists in G as a subgroup rather than just in a SES
Yeah this is sorta exactly the issue
The thing is a subgroup but like not really
it just really is a subgroup though I'm confused
(1|h) is a subgroup of the wreath product iso to H
and then because f is injective H is iso to its image in Aut(G)
Ah yeah that’s not the issue, I meant the f(H) < Aut(G) part
so there's no deflation requirement there either
It’s iso to a subgroup but not equal to one, and there’s some goofy analytic troubles
Basically it’s only an issue because this is a question for mentally deranged individuals
Since any way to make this actually work, kinda has to work for any semi direct
And I just hoped some insane rep theorist would have something 
why on earth does this matter
As in, the issue is some measure pullbacks kinda fall apart, because of factoring nonsense, if the image isn’t particularly nice
isomorphic groups have isomorphic representation rings
Which I’ve been bashing my head against the wall on this question for months
but NOT the other way around
But basically turns out my argument works iff the image f(H) has extra structural properties I just don’t have on H (a priori)
I should look at this though
That is, the representations rings, I mean
Quick question. Suppose $n = p^k m$ for $p$ prime and $m$ relatively prime to $p$. Then over some field $F$ of characteristic p, we have $x^n -1 = (x^m - 1)^{p^k}$, so if I'm not mistaken, a root of unity of $x^n-1$ over $F$ must also be a root of unity of $x^m-1$, so we kind of lose some roots of unity by restricting to the characteristic.
Is there a geometric way to understand this in the complex plane?
Uncle Fyodor
thanks alot for your help
I want to prove that if G is a finite group and p^e divides |G| then there is a subgroup of order p^e.
Let G have order p^(n)m where p does not divide m and n≥e.
By Sylow there is a subgroup of order p^n, now use induction so there is a subgroup of that Sylow p-subgroup of order p^e so that subgroup is subgroup of G.
Is it correct?
You're missing a few steps I think. How exactly are you applying induction?
the sylow group has nontrivial center
I am assuming that that result is true for all groups of order < |G|
And if G has order p^n
Then I will use that non-trivial center
Yes
Sure, that works
So that's true, right?
Say P is a polynomial and $\Delta P= P(z+1)-P(z)$ then for the polynomial $zCr=(1/r!)z(z-1)...(z-r+1)$.
How can I show $\Delta( zCr)= zC(r-1)$?
I tried to just write everything out and factor but I got
$\Delta (zCr)= zC(r-1) [\frac{1}{r (r-1)}(z-r+1)(z-r)-\frac{1}{r}(z-r+1)]$
I'm not sure what to do with this. This fact apparently is related to pascals triangle but I'm not sure how
EDIT
Come to think of it I think this is false because it sounds like it's saying a degree (r-1) polynomial arises as the difference of a degree r polynomial and degree (r-1).
But if you add two polynomials with different degrees the degree will clearly be the max of the two degrees.
HausdorffT1
Both sides are polynomials of degree r-1 with coefficients over Z, so it suffices to check they agree on z = 0,1,...,r-1
and then it is a standard identity on binomial coefficients which yes is equivalent to saying pascal's triangle gives binomials
$\rtimes$
Trivial Lemma
ah semidirect product
I think they’re both degree r but it’s still the same
Hm zCr is of degree r right so after taking a difference it'll be r-1
I don't understand why both sides are polynomials of degree r-1. nC(r+1) is degree r+1 and nCr is degree r. I don't see why the difference doesn't at least have the leading term (1/(r+1)!)z^{n+1}. It's not like nCr has a degree r+1 term to cancel out in the difference.
Am I missing something?
Is it true that if a pair of vectors is orthogonal in R^2 with regard to the standard inner product, the pair is also orthogonal with regard to any other inner product in that space? This claim seems pretty obvious because all inner products on R^2 are basically an ellipse
But its n C (r-1) the
And the difference cancels out the top coefficient
since f(z+1) and f(z) have the same top degree thing
Nope, that's not true.
Oh my God I was evaluating the difference between nCr and nC(r-1) versus the difference between (n+1)Cr and nCr. For some reason your notation helped me realize that thank you for your help
For any pair of linearly independent vectors, there is an inner product that makes them orthogonal. So conversely, you can always choose an inner product that makes them not orthogonal.
I'm also not sure what you mean about the inner products being "basically ellipses"
If this was the case, automorphisms of vector spaces would have to preserve orthogonality, but they don't
Every inner product on $\mathbb{R}^n$ can be represented by a diagonal matrix of positive terms on the diagonal in some basis, and so we obtain a formula $\langle \vb x, \vb y \rangle = \sum_{k = 1}^n \alpha_k x_k y_k$ for $\alpha_k > 0$. I think I confused myself at this step because I wanted to reduce the problem to a smaller set than the whole $\mathbb{R}^n$, and I tried to normalise the value. That's how I obtained the equation $\sum_{k = 1}^n \alpha_k x_k y_k = 1$, which in the case of $n = 2$ is an ellipse
Thingoln
I can do it of course, but I'd only obtain an ellipse when $\vb x = \vb y$ 😛
Thingoln
The "in some basis" is the crucial part though.
You're reasoning seemed to be pinned on it being with respect to the standard basis.
Right. After changing my basis, I would get an equation for an ellipse, but if the basis was (1,0) and (1,1), then in the standard basis the graph would not be an ellipse
I have a hard time explaining my intuition at times, but I think I got it. Thanks a lot for the help 🙏
Come to think of it, I now realise that the class of isometries of euclidean vector spaces would be meaningless if what I said were true
ye
Please give example of a subset of a ring which is group under addition but not closed under multiplication
Z in R if you mean closed under mutliplication in the ring like an ideal?
otherwise uhhhhh
oh pick any copy of R in C that isn't the real line
(A line through origin necessarily)
duh
did you think I meant copy setwise?
why would I randomly switch categories like that
I know you meant that but I was just adding this for clarity for the asker
but here's the asker
evil Wew
quick question about this. i used that <X> is the set of all finite products of
xi^(ei)
where ei is 0 or 1
is that standard or is there a different definition of <X> i was expected to use?
$\gen{X}=\bdef{\prod_{i=1}^nx_i^{e_i}:x_i\in X, e_i\in\bdef{\pm 1},n\in \bN}$
eigentaylor
idk if there's something else with the fact that <X> is the intersection of all subgroups containing X or whatever
that i was supposed to use
im pretty sure what i did is right but idk its been a while
nah this proof is very trivial
okay cool
u basically just put gg^-1s everywhere and that's it
yeah $g\paren{\prod_{i=1}^nx_i^{e_i}}g^{-1}=\prod_{i=1}^n\paren{gx_ig^{-1}}^{e_i}=\prod_{i=1}^nx_i'^{e_i}\in\gen{X}$
eigentaylor
yur
cool thanks for the santity check!
yur
yur!
so i know i asked about this last night (and ofc i could be a little more specific about how Lagrange's theorem implies the rth power is the identity), but i'm wondering what the analogous proof is if i don't use the quotient group?
Hm tbh Lagrange or smth like it is inevitable - suppose G is finite of order r and N = {e}
Nice
Didnt know the latez off the top of my head
Fair
can i get a small hint on this q?
the second assertion follows from isomorphism theorems but cant see the way to prove the first one.
oh nvm im just stupid sometimes
the first follows immediately from |PN| | |G| 🤦♀️
could someone give me a hint for this one? i never really formally learned much about HK stuff. like i want to say that |G|=c1[G:H]=c2[G:K] or something but does G necessarily have a finite order? i'm not exactly sure what i want to show and what is sufficient.
im not sure if there's something obvious we can know about the two subgroups if the indexes are coprime. i'm guessing that it means their intersection is trivial. but i'm not sure why exactly that would be.
non-normal subgroups in general just sorta confuse me lol
Is this true?
is what true
If one of them is normal, then this would follow easily but
The product of subgroups is generally not a subgroup
I’ve been trying to think of counter examples and haven’t thought of one yet
oh like the original question?
Yeah
so this was from the first homework from last year. i'm trying to bone up on my group theory before the class starts. so i can't like ask the prof or anything, and it's possible there are mistakes and i'd have no way of knowing
Did the professor assume HK is a group?
i have absolutely no idea
i've been reading my old textbook, and it says that HK is not necessarily a subgroup
Yeah exactly
so maybe the coprime indices imply that it will be somehow?
Does HK even partition G when HK isn't a subgroup?
We can define an equivalence relation on the left cosets of G by: hH equiv h'H if there exists g in G s.t. hH = h'Hg
Of H*
I meant K instead of G aaaaa
Its almost 2am
And thats the same as hHK = h'HK
Time zone buddies
Show the number of left cosets of HK is divisible by the number of left cosets of H and it should follow (?)
The coprime index thing is almost forcing this to be true just by an order argument when G is finite
I dont remember if the number of right cosets have the same size
is G finite? or is it possible it's infinite?
As left in general
They wouldn’t specify finite index if it was finite
If so, try following this vein of thought while I go to bed
We’re still in the stage of trying to convince ourselves this result is reasonable
Or I am anyway. Mr. lemma seems to have gotten there
sorry i'm not understanding this lol
so G has possibly infinite order?
It is blindingly obvious that they aren’t imposing a finiteness condition on G
i was wondering if the fact that H,K are finite index and G=HK might imply G is actually finite regardless
Apparently every finite index subgroup contains a finite index normal subgroup
No
like {e}? or does that not count
rip
i feel super out of my depth here. glad i decided to try to study before the class starts.
can we know that H interset K is trivial?
actually just in general, i dunno what we can really do with cosets if the subgroup isn't normal. like we know that G={H,c1H,...,c(l-1)H}={K,d1K,...,d(m-1)K} where m and l are coprime. but how would we even try to show that H interset K is trivial?
[G : H cap K] <= [G:H][G:K] by second iso I think. And because the intersection is a subgroup of both, it’s index divides both [G:H], [G:K]. But then because [G:H], [G:K] are coprime and they both divide [G:H\cap K] so does the product [G:H][G:K], thus [G:H][G:K] = [G:H \cap K]. Now [G:HK] = |G||H cap K|/|H||K| = |G|^2|H cap K|/|H||K||G|= [G:H][G:K]/[G: H cap K] = 1.
How do you know HK is a subgroup?
(when you use [G:HK] etc)
But yes once you have [G:H][G:K]=[G:H \cap K] you should be able to conclude [I found a proof which did what you did and then concluded without proof lol]
(v nice wew)
could anyone give me a small hint?
can i assume G is finite?
gcd. lcm =hk .n
lcm = hk.n
I don't know but H is solvable right? And the intersection of the normal subgroup is normal
then by structure they are h, k sylow subgroup ?
If I have a graded module M over a graded ring S then does it follow that for some homogenous elements x in M
then Ann(x) is a proper ideal of S?
I'm reading somewhere that suggests this but I can't tell why.
I mean, as long as x is nonzero Ann(x) is a proper ideal.
Why is that for nonzero x in M?
Does it have to do with the grading?
I think 0 is in M0 and for any x in Mk then there should exist some element s in S so that sx is not in M0. But otherwise I can't see why and am not sure if that's why
Well, if M is nonzero it contains a non-zero element. And since M is graded we can pick that element homogenous
And 1 doesn't annihilate x, so Ann(x) is a proper ideal
Wow okay got it thank you.
sorry how does this help i cant see
I'm thinking of taking a normal series 1 < A < ... < H, and another one H/H < G_1/ H < ... < G/H. then merging the two, 1 < A < ... < H < G_1 < ... < G, we get A abelian and normal in H. but i feel like this is not enough to conclude A is also normal in G
I have no idea, just tried
So I don't know exactly which definition of solvable you're working with, but one is that there exists a sequence of normal subgroups (in G)
1 = G0 < G1 < ... < Gn = G
such that Gi+1/Gi is abelian.
If you're working with another definition you might try to prove this first.
Anyway, given such a sequence consider it's intersection with H
A more common definition is to just require Gi to be normal in Gi+1. To prove the stronger definition you may want to think induction.
A more direct approach could be to try to come up with subgroups of H that are invariant under all automorphisms (hence also conjugation by elements in G). There are some natural ones that come up when thinking about solvable groups.
I'm using this definition with the extra condition that G_i is normal in G_(i+1) as well
does the fact that their indices are coprime imply that at all maybe?
is the idea behind this to show there exists a minimal subgroup of G contained in H?
Yup
then do we claim H cap G_i is the minimal subgroup contained in H, where i is the largest number st G_i does not contain H?
Yes, go on
Or not sure what your saying in your second half there
But you consider Gi minimal such that HcapGi is nontrivial
so say we have K < Gi cap H. and K normal in G. and nontrivial, then K itself can be inserted into the normal series 1 < G1 < ... < G_(i-1) < K < G_i < ... < G. This contradicts with Gi being the minimal.
this reasoning feels a bit handwavy and prone to error rn but i'll come back to it tmr
I'm not sure where this K comes from or what you're trying to do now
But the point is that Gi-1 cap H = 1, but Gi cap H doesn't
Tried to show Gi cap H is minimal by assuming there exists a normal non-trivial subgroup K < Gi cap H
Then K must either turn out to be 1 or Gi cap H itself
If it is not one of those, K can be inserted into the chain of subgroups (not sure about this ?) and then Gi becomes no longer minimal as H cap K = K is non-trivial
But I guess we don’t know if G_(i-1) < K holds so I can insert K in between G_(i-1) and G_i in the chain of subgroups
It's only minimal in the sense that if you go to Gi-1 and smaller then the intersection is trivial
That's not something to show, that's just how we picked Gi
Then you have this normal subgroup Gi cap H to work with
We want to show Gi cap H is a minimal subgroup of G because we picked i such that the intersection is non-trivial, right?
In a previous exercise, I already showed minimal subgroups of solvable groups are necessarily abelian
Allright, you might be able to do something like that.
I think it's probably easier to just show that Gi cap H is abelian, but you can try that
Let G be a finite Abelian group and H be a subgroup of G then prove that G has a subgroup which is isomorphic to G/H.
Any hint?
Is this without the classification of finite abelian groups?
This is given in the problem set so maybe we can use that
Finite Abelian groups are direct products of cyclic groups, right?
Well, then I guess it really just comes down to looking at what the subgroups and quotient groups of finite abelian groups can be
In particular if you write G/H as a product of cyclic groups, you can try to relate that to G through the map G -> G/H
Okay
You don’t need to, |HK| = |H||K|/the intersection irregardless
But these guys may all be infinite
ok? is mans bothered
Let G be a finite Abelian group of order mn, where m and n are relatively prime positive integers. Then show that there exists unique subgroups of order m and n such that G is isomorphic to their direct products.
I used the hint, G_1 = { x in G | x^m = 1 } and G_2 = { y in G | y^n = 1 }. Yes these are subgroups because G is abelian.
Now if I define the mapping from G_1×G_2 to G such that (x,y) -> xy then it is homomorphism and I proved that this is injective and surjective so it is isomorphism.
Is it correct?
Yes looks good
Okay thank you
If M is a graded module over a graded ring S and I consider a homogenous element m in M,
Then why is Ann(m) a homogenous ideal of S?
Suppose rm = 0, and consider each homogeneous part of r
If G is a finite group of odd order then for any x≠e, x is not a conjugate to x^(-1).
Let x = gx^-1g^-1 for some g≠e in G.
Then, x^-1 = gxg^-1 so x = g^2xg^(-2).
We get x = g^3x^-1g^(-3).
For n = 2k, x = g^nxg^n and for n = 2k +1 x = g^(2k+1)x^(-1)g^(-2k-1).
And G has an odd order so we have x = x^(-1) implies x = e because x^2 ≠ e. So for x≠e x is not conjugate to x^(-1).
Is it correct?
So if r was decomposed into homogenous parts as r=r1+r2 in S then r1m and r2m are in different summands, say M1 and M2.
Does it just follow from these terms being in different parts of the direct sum?
Yea
Whoops lol
Are we using that 0 is homogenous or maybe that 0 is in a particular summand such as M0? I have a worry that 0 of M is in both M1 and M2 .
0 is in everything
Any comment?
Oh then I can't tell why a non homogenous element of S can't annihilate a homogenous element m of M
Maybe I need extra conditions on M like being f.g. and S being neotherian?
non-homogenous elements of S absolutely can annihilate m.
if r1 and r2 both anihilate m, then r1+r2 does as well
So Ann(m) isn't necessarily a homogenous ideal if m is homogenous?
Yes it is
a homogenous ideal is an ideal genereted by homogenous elements
Ideals only consisting of homogeneous elements doesnt exist for most reasonable rings
So is the argument more like, say r has homogenous decomposition r=r1+r2 then rm=0 implies r1m=0 and r2m=0 hence the homogenous parts of each r are in the ideal Ann(m).
Which means the ideal can be generated as Ann(m)=<r1,r2,...>
yes exactly
Possible dumb question. Do many people use Category theory in groups-rings-fields research?
yeah
algebra in general
for example with rings u can sometimes try to study the ring by looking at the category of modules over that ring
u can for example ask if i have two rings R and S, does R-Mod being equivalent (as categories) to S-Mod give R is isomorphic to S ?( the answer is no )
with groups there is this thing called tannaka duality in which u can (in a way) recover a group by looking at the automorphisms of the forgetful functor that preserve the monoidal product
something like that i am not well versed but this exists and u can just look it up and read about it
but basically u can recover G from Rep(G)
usually tho, the theory itself gets built instead of just being used to solve group theory problems. for example u can read about tensor categories which are categories that are almost like Rep(G) (symmetric tensor categories give or take)
u can study these things for their own sake and ig they are fascinating in a way that i can not appreciate
there aren't many elementary examples at all except for Rep(G). u can read about this more in delignes paper on tensor categories
yes, a lot
for example: cohomological algebra
This may be appropriate for category-theory chat, but are all groups-rings-fields morphisms in category theory invertable? what does one do when they're not, so, can a catagory morphism be uninvertalbe? I thought they must be by definition.
no?
also why are you saying groups-rings-fields lmfao
a category with every morphism inveritble is a groupoid
groups-rings-fields are objects in Cat theory. A little confused, since Categories seem to need invertible morphisms by def, no worries, just thinking a little out loud.
okay
I can't take you seriously when you keep repeating the channel name LMFAOOO
also they're not objects "in cat theory", they're objects in a category
and if you work with the category of fields I will cry for you
Please speak with some respect
nah
Anyhow, category arrows can be defined to and from each object, I relooked at the def, yes, seems they must not be invertable by def. Please speak with respect
@gaunt bone The identity morphism c -> c is invertible. Other morphisms need not be invertible
a category where every morphism is invertible would be a groupoid
this may have been where your confusion arose…?
e.g. you can think of groups as one-object groupoids
cmon now
not direct at you pseudo but like
you want me to give you respect when you just completely ignore my posts?
a category with every morphism invertible is a groupoid
HausdorffT1
yeah, G is isomorphic to the standard representation, no?
Rep(G) is the category of representations
Moamen is talking about tannaka-krein duality
How come when I ctrl+f groups-rings-fields in any algebra textbook I get no results
I thought they would be a pretty big deal
Please be respectufl
i'm taking a class on groups-rings-fields next semester and i'm kind of scared because I've only studied them individually and not as a single object. is there anything i can do to prepare
what do you mean 😭
Are you trolling?
I will not be repeating myself
Well, in case you're not. Groups, rings and fields are 3 different things
And I guess ctrl+f random text books is probably not a good methode to look stuff up in general
that's also just not how ctrl+f is supposed to be used
if you ctrl+f "angles-circles" or "angles circles" in a geometry textbook, you're not going to get anything because how do you write a sentence with "angles circles" in it? even though it's 100% guaranteed a geometry text will talk about angles and circles. it won't pick up "angles, circles" either.
try "group", "ring", and "field" separately.
does anyone here like combinatorial structures
it seems like such an unpopular area of math lol
I imagine those people hang out in #combinatorial-structures
Fax dude fax such fax
at this point its weird going to those uncharted servers
im so used to the nice familiar faces here
in algebra land especially

for 2a could we just pick (s, t) for each orbit O_{s, t} since the orbits partition M?
two questions
- any hints for proving that f is surjective?
- for the proof that ker(f)=MnN, the only iffy step is that n in M iff mn in M is a valid step, right? the => direction is clear, but if mn in M, then mn=m' implies n=m^-1 m' in M so the <= is also true right?
also, isn't this kind of like the chinese remainder theorem?
The injective part is correct
does this work for the surjective proof?
Yes
In general take g_1^(-1)g_2^ = mn then g_2n^(-1) = g = g_1m now f(g) = (g_1, g_2)
Don't forget to prove that it is homomorphism
ooh right
Seems oddly underrepresented here
Not sure why
so i haven't taken a class that covers this level of group theory yet (doing this to prep for the class), can anyone point me to what results/theorems i would want to look into to prove these?
There’s possibly a bit you can get out of some in foundations channel, but yeah, it’s certainly not too popular here
do you know that A_n is simple for n >=5
honestly, i dunno what a simple group is
I have the same question problem 2
i think you should take this fact for granted (it appears in most textbooks) – with that fact its not so hard of a proof
so... to use that i assume we would need to know that A_n is sort of... maximal i guess in Sn?
So if any H is a non-trivial proper normal subgroup then it is || normal subgroup of A_n ||, right?
That is clear though
it is an index 2 subgroup
And there is no proper subgroup > | G |/2
Thank you @vapid vale
is that obvious because |An|=n!/2?
Yes
and that's the sign homomorphism right?
yes
okay okay i feel like i'm getting it
so we know that A_n can't be contained in any other normal subgroup than S_n itself. but how do we know there is no other proper normal subgroup that, though perhaps intersects nontrivially with A_n, is not properly contained in A_n? is it that k | n! and k != n!/2 implies that k | n!/2?
consider their intersection
This is the part where this is relevant
I forgot this part in my proof
I want to prove that in a finite group of order pqr, p<q<r are distinct prime numbers.
Then if q doesn't divide r-1 then q Sylow - subgroup is normal in G.
We have the result that there exists a normal subgroup N of order qr. Now take Q as Subgroup of order q such that Q \subset in N.
Since q does not divide r-1 so Q is normal in N. Then for any g in G, gQg^-1 \subset N, and which is q Sylow - Subgroup of N.
So Q = gQg^-1 for all g in G.
Is it correct?
For any Q q Sylow - subgroup, we have N such that N = QH, where H is a r Sylow-subgroup. And H is normal and N has index p thus N is a normal subgroup of order qr
Yes that’s fine
Okay thank you ❤️
can someone help me prove that given a cyclic normal subgroup H of G, every subgroup of H is also normal?
i think we need to use that every subgroup of a cylic group is normal, correct?
are all functions morphisms?
no
every subgroup of a normal subgroup is normal
Mhh no
Every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic
Now let that cyclic normal subgroup is < a > now for g in G, gag^-1 = a^s, for some s
Now take any subgroup of < a > it is of form < a^k >
Now find ga^kg^-1
|| ga^kg^-1 = a^(sk) which is in < a^k> ||
Now can you show that for any element in < a^k >, ga^kmg^-1 in < a^k >
Wat
yeah i can only think of a few people
i will probably start posting there soon once i get off my ass
combinatorics 🔛 🔝
i apologise i see my mistakes now
My brain is broken. So for module homomorphisms f, g : M -> N,
ker(f) > ker(g) implies f factors through g?
What is the intuitive way to see this?
any ideas?
M -> M/ker g -> N, since ker g < ker f?
I have issues seeing how this gives the factoring
It should be obvious, yea but..
I dunno what exact sort of factoring you’re looking for
Which I probably should but uhhh oops
If I recall correctly, f = h \circ g for some map h : N -> N.
If M → N sends A ⊂ M into B ⊂ N you induce M/A → N/B
its an induced property by group elements, which just fix the whole subgroup. a portion of the subgroup may not be fixed
So you get M → M/ker(g) → M/ker(f)
I don't think M/ker(g) → N and M/ker(g) → M/ker(f) → N are the same tho?
Well, presumably one is g and the other is f
I was thinking of this, but I didn’t see a good way to extend q: M/g -> M/f to a total N -> N, after identifying w/ submodules of N
At least without some free generation of PID-ish shenanigans
I don't think free over PID suffices
You probably need like vector space
Cuz like 2,3: Z → Z
Yeah basically
Things do factor over mod g, mod f but I couldn’t see any way to get the desired thing without some very strong homogeneity
Which I’m not sure would really work nicely anyhow there, but
If you could get something like M/g as a direct summand you could do a bit more
(Which this is what I meant by free generation, like in the image then extending to the whole thing)
Ah, so this only works for special case where e.g. g is surjective.
I thought it worked in general, since a material mentioned like it does.
Resolves some of my confusion, thanks!
Let G be a finite group which has only one automorphism. I proved that it is Abelian and every non-identity element has order 2.
How can I show that G has at most order 2
We can say that G is 2-group
aut sends generator to generator
when the order is 2 u can explicitly show there is only identity mapping possible
Yes
where as more than 2 elements will have more than 1 non trivial generator
tho i have no proof for it
but conjecture at the moment, lol
I seen its proof
alr
Then we contrapositive it
But I don't want that
But then G is isomorphic to (Z/2Z)^n
If n > 1 then we have non-trivial automorphism
G is Abelian and every non-identity element has order 2 so by the fundamental theorem of Abelian group
oh i was talking about most general case
didnt notice the abelian part
but yeah it looks fair
Thank you
i just need that in general
alr i will try to prove
@crystal vale have u taken topology ?
yet
Yes
is there any spam-esque channel wehere we can talk without having to stick to channel protocol
DM
if A is a mapping from group G to G such that G is one-one and Ah_g = h_gA for all g in G, where h_g(x) = gx, then prove that A = h_k, for some k in G. I proved that A(x) = xA(1).
any hint?
I don’t think what you’re given is true unless you know G is abelian
I think you should have A = x -> xg for some g (which you’ve already proven with g = A(1))
To prove it, if A = h_k and Ah_g = h_gA then kg = gk (evaluating at 1)
In particular, if G = S_3 there is no such non-identity map
But right multiplication by (12) is such a map, contradiction
Yeah this is yoneda stuff
A map that commutes with all left-multiplication must be right-multiplication
Via following where the identity goes
This is Herstein' s exercise maybe I stated it wrong but I think it is a typo
I’m very confident it’s a typo, yeah
The formula A(x) = x A(1) is correct
This is essentially applying the yoneda lemma
But I didn't apply A is an injective
I don’t see why you’d need to
You don’t need it
Indeed you can deduce it from this
G-equivariant endo morphism implies bijective
Because right-multiplication is bijective
Like to be clear it is a good instinct to have of “hm, I haven’t used up all the assumptions”
It’s just that in this case, one of the assumptions was genuinely unnecessary
we doing a category theory crash course in class 
category for working mathematician 🤦♂️
Splitting a ring by introducing fractions may result in a non-ring due to loss of closure under multiplication, but splitting a field preserves its field structure since fields are closed under division by non-zero elements.
am i right ?
What is splitting 
$R[\alpha]$
yeshua
i forgot to say after applying evaluation homomorphism
I think you're confusing the term "splitting field". "Splitting a ring" is not really a thing, and the sentence you wrote doesn't make a lot of sense anyways
anyone know if this is okay?
also what do they mean by "determine the restriction of the equivalence relation to its closure"
do they mean find the closure of the set of representatives
No, like take the closure of the fundamental domain, then describe the equivalence relation restricted to that. I.e. which points in the closure are in the same orbit
As for the first part, saying pick (s, t) from the orbit of (s, t) isn't really specifying a choice.
You're supposed to pick one thing from each orbit
oh okay got it
would picking the s value that'sin [0, 1) and the corresponding t value work
Yeah, that would do it
like $(s - \floor{s}, t^{-\floor{s}})$
okeyokay
oh okay cool
Can someone help me find a set of 3 generators for the ideal ${f(X, Y) \in \Z [X, Y] : f(a, b) \equiv 0 \pmod{p}}$ for $p$ prime and $(a, b) \in \Z^2$? \
\
I was trying by cases: if $p | a$ and $p | b$ then this ideal is generated by the constant polynomial $p$, but if $p | a$ and $p \nmid b$, we know that $f(X, Y) = a_n(Y)X^n +...+ a_1(Y)X + a_0(Y)$ and since $p | a$, we get that $f(a, b) \equiv a_0(b) \pmod{p}$ and because $a_0(Y) \in \Z [Y]$, then $a_0(Y) = b_mY^m +...+ b_1Y + b_0$, and then idk how to continue
アポーロ
You're trying to work "top down" where you try to find a set of generators by sifting through the definition of this ideal, but this isn't a good way to do this because there are many ways to generate this ideal which you must choose from.
Try this "bottom up" approach: name a few small elements of this ideal (perhaps try to name a couple that are degree 0 and 1) and then try showing they generate the ideal.
I'll even give you a headstart: the constant polynomial p is in this ideal. Can you find a couple of degree-1 elements that, together with p, might possibly generate the ideal?
Come up with good guesses and then give your best shot at showing they generate the ideal.
I think it's easier to reduce modulo p
${f(x,y) \in \mathbb F_p[x,y] : f(a,b) \equiv 0 \pmod p}$
Trivial Lemma
Now this looks like a problem in algebraic geometry, probably
then just include p
Maybe p (p must be on this set of generators), pY and other polynomial of deg 1, because in the case where p | a and p not divides b, we can restrict the study to that Y polynomial b_mY^m +...+ b_1Y + b_0. We can divide each b_k by p (so b_k = pq_k + r_k and the polynomials p and pY take care of the pq_k part, r_mY^m +...+ r_1Y + r_0) I suppose that the polynomial 1 - cY may be the third generator, where c is the inverse of b modulo p, but idk how to prove it
OK so pY is not a great guess because that's already in the ideal generated by p
You're again trying to do things top down
I really want you to just list a few elements of this ideal
Don't try to be super smart about it, literally just name a few elements
Just throw them out, go ahead, tell me some
lmao you're right
I hope so!
Let's keep it simple.
tf you mean keep it simple
this simplifies everything
if you have p(x,y) and p(a,b) = 0 then q(x,y) = p(x+a,x+b) satisfies q(0,0) = p(a,b) and p(x,y) = q(x-a,y-b)
and the modulo p reduces everything further cause now you're looking for 2 generators not 3 (one of the generators goes to 0 when you quotient by (p)).
Let's let apollo do the question maybe
I just think your approach is horrible 🤷♂️
OK
cause here it's like "which polynomials are congruent to 0 (mod p) at 0,0"
Ok, p, 1 - cY (where c is the inverse of b modulo p), 1 - dX (where d is the inverse of a modulo p, assuming that p does not divide p) and I think that every 1 degree polynomial in this ideal is generated by these 3 polynomials...
Let Ax + By + C be a polynomial s.t. Aa + Bb + C = 0 (mod p), then C = -(Aa + Bb) (mod p), then:
Ax + By + C = -Aa(1 - dx) - Bb(1 - cy) (mod p)
Then if you have Ax + By + C, you can divide A, B and C by p, the p generator take care of the p part and then the 1 - cY and 1 - dX take care of the remainder, it's right?
Yeah this is looking much better to me
Here's an even simpler thing
Instead of 1 - cY, why not Y - b
And similarly X - a
(which in the case a=b= 0 those polynomials are X,Y and p(0,0) = 0 iff the constant term is 0.)
Your approach works I think (I would have to inspect the details a bit) but yeah just having Y - b and X - a simplifies it even more
Sure, idk why did I forgot X - a and Y - b lmao
it does not work in the case b = 0 or a = 0
Haha you were trying to be too smart about it!
But yeah you also don't have inverses mod p when a or b are divisible by p
So this is just the right way
See it's not too hard if you start with an idea of what the generators might be :)
would it just be something like (0, t) ~ (1, -t)
But I just have proved that it generates the set of one degree polynomials in this ideal, how can I prove that it generates the whole ideal? Maybe using the fact that f(a, b) = 0 implies that the polynomial f(X, b) = 0 has a root in a and then it is divided by (X - a) or something like this?
Well as it happens this is a question that has come up a few times recently lol
Let me give you the lowdown
every polynomial p(x,y) has a decomposition as a sum of monomials of the form (x-a)^k(y-b)^r (k,r >= 0)
We know that p, X-a, and Y-b are all in the ideal. So we'll use them from now on.
Let's say that some polynomial f(X, Y) is in the ideal, so f(a,b) = 0 mod p
Now f(X, Y) is in the ideal iff f(X, Y) + g(X, Y) is in the ideal, where g(X, Y) is some element of the ideal I've chosen, right?
Hmmmm, that's true, and k, r > 0 if p(a, b) = 0?
So in particular, since I know that X - a and Y - b are in the ideal, I can always manipulate it so that f(X, Y) is in the ideal iff a certain degree-0 thing is in the ideal
Can you see how I might have that happen?
if p(a,b) = 0 then the "lone-some monomial" the one with k = r = 0, has to be divisible by p
Hence p(x,y) is in the ideal generated by (p,x-a,y-b) if p(a,b) = 0 (mod p)
The proof for this is simple.
the polynomial q(x,y) = p(x+a,y+a) admits a representation as a sum of monomials of the form x^k y^r (k,r >= 0) (because it's a polynomial)
so p(x,y) = q(x-a,y-a) can be written as the sum of monomials of the form (x-a)^k(y-b)^r (k,r >= 0)
by simply replacing x-> x-a and y -> y-b in the decomposition of q
Yeah, this is true because X - a and Y - b are monic, then it works
Yeah exactly
But how exactly this proves what we want? This says that f(x, y) is in the ideal iff a certain constant is a multiple of p, but what is this constant exactly?
Well can you figure out what it is?
I'll tell you this
Using the fact that X-a is in the ideal is almost the same as setting X to be a.
Looks like division, maybe the remainder of something?
Hmm not quite
Or well now that I say that, I suppose it is technically the remainder lol
f(X) = (X-a)q(X) + r, so what's r?
It's the remainder of f(x) in the division by x - a. Then r is a constant
OK I'd like to see more of your thought process btw, please talk instead of waiting so long
Yes but in particular, you can find the value of r!
Let me write this again
f(X) = (X-a)q(X) + r, so what's r?
Is there a nice value of X that you could substitute in to get the remainder r?
I was trying to write the constant term of f(x) in terms of the constants in the rhs
Oh, r = f(a)
OK I would really have liked to have known you were doing that!
Even if you're wrong, I wanna see what you're thinking
Exactly, yes
So ofc we have two variables
So what do we get once we reduce f(X, Y) like this?
This takes a little bit of thought
Remember what I was saying, I wanna hear your thoughts even if you're totally wrong
The remainder should be f(a, b) because f(x, b) = (x - a)q(x) + r(b) dividing f(x, b) by x, then if you treat b as a variable, we get f(x, y) = (x - a)q(x) + r(y), if you divide r(y) by (y - b) we get that f(x, y) = (x - a)q(x) + (y - b)q'(x) + r', and then f(a, b) = r'
Perfect!
So we know that f(X, Y) is in the ideal iff f(a, b) is
Can you finish things now?
Sure, if f(a, b) is in the ideal, bc it is a constant, p | f(a, b) and then f(x, y) is generated by (x - a), (y - b) and p
Yeah exactly
Since we know p | f(a,b) by definition, we know that f(a, b) is generated by p
So we're done!
Thank you very much! My brain runs at 5 fps with algebra xD
Specifically when it involves polynomials of several variables
No worries
I am doing a reading course in commutative algebra using atiyah macdonald
I will definitely be needing yalls help most likely lol
Actually, has anyone gone through that book? Any thoughts?
I think I am going to be covering most of the book and doing the exercises
And you can think of rings as being in some sense a sort of generalization of groups.
— Borcherds
wait... what?
what?

I also would not really say that.
This lecture is part of an online course on commutative algebra, following the book
"Commutative algebra with a view toward algebraic geometry" by David Eisenbud.
This lecture is a review of rings, ideals, and modules, where we give a few examples of non-commutative rings and rings without identity, before abolishing these rings from the rest of...
skip to 30:08
borcherds makes throwaway comment referring to how rings have an Abelian group structure
people on math server lose their minds
you should've added context with the message 😭
but it was funnier this way mwahaha
the quote doesn't make sense without context

Lmao
True tho
He a cutie patootie
He’s like winnie the pooh
true
beautiful
quick problem verification : if K is some extension of a field F and we have F(a) = F(a^2) ( a is an element in K ) then is a algebraic over F?
why do we need F(a) = F(a^2) ?
can't i say F(a) over F(a^2) has degree 2
but a^2 is in F(a) so a^2 =a_1+b_1*a for a_1 and b_1 in F, rearrange that and there u have ur polynomial?
a^2 is in F(a) so a^2 =a_1+b_1*a ...
This doesn't follow.
Consider the field of rational functions k(X)
Clearly X^2 is in k(X) but it is transcendental over k.
Np
yeah fuck if a is transcendtal then a in F(a^2) means that a =f(a^2) for some rational function f
and we are done cuz i can just clear denominators and that's it
is that correct?
yeshua
i mean i can show this is why the additive group underlying a ring is abelian.
but is there more satisfactory aha type explanation ?
I think this is not the correct solution because how you show under additive operation it is Abelian?
I think you need unity
What contradiction?
I don't see how it gives you a + b = b + a
you can't use that to show 0+1=1+0 for instance
generally you're asserting x=ab and y=ba has a solution (a,b) for every (x,y) which isn't true
that's vacously true coz 0 is identity
i don't need to show that
the point is you said "arbitrary" so I just had to show one single example
but i think this takes care of your concern
for the thing i need to prove its still arbitrary yeah
in anyways my question was rather different
im looking for more grandiose explantion
addition being commutative is an axiom
if you let the addition of a ring be a nonabelian group then it sounds like distributivity gets messed up and you are stuck with a near-ring. I don't know if that train of thinking would be satisfying or not for ya
But if you have unity in the ring then you can avoid it
o
that works
yeah
i mean somehow u cant still avoid for rings that arent CRU apparently
commutativity doesnt do anything here
if you have an element x that permutes the ring then that works too i think
is there a more widely used term for the concept i highlighted in red?
i tried to google "algebraic property isomorphisms" but not very many relevant results show up
I need help, can any of you help with this?
I was linked here
I'm not entirely sure how the proof goes, but the fact that injective modules decompose into indecomposables ones, and that the indecomposable ones are exactly the injective hulls of R/p for p a prime seems relevant.
lmao
Why lmao lol
is (X,X+1) in Z[X] just Z[X]=(X,X+1)? or is it Z?
in my solution is (X,X+1)=Z but I think it must be Z[X] and not Z
Well that ideal of Z[X] contains X and X+1, so it contains their difference, namely 1.
So what ideals of any ring R contain the unit?
Z
OK let me step back for a bit
Let R be any ring
Let J be an ideal of R
Suppose J contains 1
Great
so its Z[X] right?
So going back, we have that (X, X+1) is an ideal of Z[X] that contains 1
So yes, it's Z[X].
my thoughts were similiar because because 1* g for every arbitrary g in Z[X] means that (1)=Z[X]
in the solution they also said that this is no proper Ideal. What do they mean? because its obv a Ideal
thank you Boytjie
"Proper ideal" means ideal not equal to (1)
ahh ok thank you
I have the Ideal (X^2+1,X+2) in Z[X] and i have to look wether its prime or normal. So (X^2+1,X+2)=(5,X+2) then Z[X]/(5,X+2) isomorph to (Z/5Z)[X]/(X+2)
in the solution they just showed that X+2 is irreducible but I think its easier to use the fact that X=-2 so the factorring is just Z/5Z
my question is why the solution dont simplify further instead of looking wether the polynomial is irreducible
doesnT*
is it because sometimes we dont know what the simpliest Ring is? so its easier when we have a polynomial to look at?
<x> is a maximal ideal in R[x], right? Because R[x]/<x> is a field
Yes R is for real numbers
yes then its a field
No, vice versa
In general, if A is a subset of B, then <B> is a subset of <A>
But 4 in <x,2> it is not in < x>
So (x,2) = R ?
no
<x,2> is same as { xp(x) + 2q(x) } ?
lol wait isnt every non zero unit a generator of its ring?
so (2) over R is just (2)=R?
Yes
So (x,2) is R?
then you re wrong (x,2)=R[X]
I'm not sure why you have to specify nonzero. Every unit generates the ring, as an ideal yes
It's the whole ring, for whatever ring it is an ideal of.
ok
my brain is fried
if I have a galois group of order 4 there exists 2 groups with order 4 Z4 and Z/2Z x Z/2Z how do I know to which group the galois group is isomorphic to?
You cannot distinguish them without more information
One way would be to look at the relevant roots.
Well the important values are $\pm \sqrt 2$ and $\pm i$. Clearly these two pairs are permuted amongst each other, and this action is faithful.
Boytjie
So think about what the group looks like as a permutation group.
I mean it's a permutation group.
The elements of the Galois group are entirely determined by what they do to these values
Can you write down all the possible permutations (hint: you can)
And therefore you know what the group is
so by looking what kind of subsets the permutations generate?
Try it and see
sooo
y,x,c,v are my permutations
y= id
x(sqrt(2))=-sqrt(2) , x(i)=i
c(sqrt(2))=sqrt(2) , x(i)=-i
OK you don't have to list them for me
v(sqrt(2))=-sqrt(2) , x(i)=-i
I can see you've got the right idea
so if we look at the order
So now you should be able to see what group that is
Yup
mmh then its actually kinda unnecessary to look to what group it is isomorph to
i thought it would be helpful to know so i dont have to determine the subgroups
But that's literally what you did, you just looked at it and saw that it's not option 1 so it's option 2
yes but I thought we can see it easier by just looking at the Order so we dont have to determine all Subgroups by hand you know what i mean? because if G is isomorph to a well known group we also know its subgroups. so we dont have to think about the subgroups. that were my thought
my tutor said it is very helpful to know to which group the galois group is isomorphic to
i think it's A|B
would "properties preserved under isomorphism" encompass "algebraic property" as defined in the screenshot?
is there a handy reference listing some common properties preserved under isomorphism?
for any commutative ring R, the units of R[x] are same as the units of R
and if R is a field (here), its more convenient
name story different name XD
whatever u can find,
if we are talking about groups here
from cayley table to orders of each element
i mean the algebra is taking place over a set
Miz I'm not sure what you meant here, this is just incorrect if you're talking about ideals.
I can't think of what meaning of angle brackets you could be referring to that would make this true
2x+1 in (Z/4Z)[x] would like a word with you
If you mean commutative domain you'd be right.
I wrote it backwards by accident,
But my intent was that larger generating sets generate larger ideals
For a ring S and a prime p does it follow that $(S/p)_p=0$? Where the subscript denotes localization at the prime
HausdorffT1
I can only assume you mean localising at the ideal of S/p corresponding to the prime p of S, namely just the zero ideal of S/p. So you're really asking if the localisation of an integral domain at zero is zero. So no, that's frac(S/p).
I assume you mean commutative rings. Noncommutative localisation gets narsty
Yeah I meant commutative rings. Okay thank you
ORE LOCALIZATION JUMPSCARE
you can do it through subgroups
it's always helpful to write the diagram (I don't know the name?) of the subextensions and subgroups of the galois group
the galois correspondence thingy
I forgot the name
this
Z/4Z only has 3 subgroups (itself, 2Z/4Z, and 0) so it has to be Z/2Z x Z/2Z
If someone says "Consider K[x] where deg(x) = 3" then it has to mean that x is some element in a polynomial ring k[t] where t is indeterminate, no?
You can in particular see this as the subring K[t^3] of K[t] where we simply call t^3 the name x, yes
But really what's happening is we're talking about graded rings, and this person is simply telling you what the grading on K[x] is
Graded rings can be seen as a way to generalise the idea of degree.
And the grading is that k[x]_i = elements of degree 3*i, or no?
The grading ought to be the one such that k[x]_3 is the monomials :)
because those are the things of degree 3
oh is this Ore as in Øystein Ore?
That's right

i’ve had a very brief look at some article of his on sone algebra stuffs or other, but i don’t understand the basic objects, that of a lattice
every element of Sn can be written as a product of transpositions right?
yes
there's probably an easy way to find the transpositions necessary to write a generic element isn't there?
cycle decomp? if so, not by name
oh actually yes. that's what I've been doing I think
When you say monomials here, you just mean the elements of k[x]_1, no?
so maybe k[x]_i is monomials of degree i if i is a multiple of 3 and 0 if not?
so if we have (a1...ak) is that equal to
(a1ak)...(a1a2)?
but these are monomials in x, yes?
Yes
Well where does it send a_1?
tysm
Oh you're using right-to-left composition mb
I default to left-to-right when I see cycles...
in fact you can also show that you only need adjacent transpositions
interesting
I read something about decomposition into commuting cycles (I think)? is that different from decomp into transpositions? I would think so, I imagine commuting transpositions is asking too much
right to left is the only way that makes sense to me lol
I need my function intuition haha
so can you write like (234) as a product of disjoint cycles?
that is a disjoint cycle
or disjoint transpositions I mean
No
okay that's what I thought
oh!
And you've already written it as (234)
okay that's really good to know, and makes a lot of sense
why is this not a grading tho?
Maybe it's worth proving that the disjoint cycle composition is unique. I'm surprised you haven't seen this bc it's very important for the symmetric group
I probably did but it was over 2 years ago. I'm studying up algebra before I start a grad course in it in a few weeks.
but intuitively it makes sense.
The i is the degree by definition.
And we required deg(x) = 3.
So we need k[x]_3 to contain x.
That's precisely what is being required when we say deg(x) = 3
rn I'm trying to prove that Sn=<(12),(23...n)>
my thought process is we just need to show every transposition is in that subgroup. I thought maybe writing the second one as a product of transpositions might help, and I'm trying it concretely in S4
is it (23...n) or (123...n)?
Hint: what does conjugation do in S_n
I thought this meant x was like some degree 3 polynomial like x=t^3+t and we were taking the ring generated by x which is K[x]
This is what we've been discussing the whole time, I said this up here.
it says (23...n) but idk could be a mistake
I think the 'classical' result is (1 2) and (1 ... n) but if my quick in-the-head check is right (might be wrong tbh) this also works
oh yeah I was able to show (rather, by messing around I found) that (12...n)=(12)(2...n)
- is true
is it something obvious? I mean we only need to think about conjugation by transpositions right?
well why not start by conjugating the transposition by the other thing
You know what kind of thing that produces...
i would think about adjacent transpositions
yeah I did find that (12)(234)(12) (which is conjugation) gives (134)=(14)(13)
but it didn't ring any immediate bells for what that does
I think he is saying that two elements are conjugate iff they have the same cycle structure. so if you wanna show somehting is of a specific form (say transpositions) then u should conjugate it with them
Not the long cycle by the transposition
Try the other way around
Conjugate the transposition by the long cycle
Because (and this is important) conjugates of something with a certain cycle decomposition will have the same kind of cycle decomposition, i.e. the lengths of the cycles will be the same!
You've been saying you want to get all the transpositions, so...
Is there a chance you don't know the trick for calculating conjugates in S_n
OH is this like the alternating group is normal?
degree appears to me to mean two different things, the degree of the element x inside some polynomial ring or it means its in the 3rd part in the grading
Uh sure this is a corollary
or did I miss the mark lol
when someone says x is of degree 3 Im not sure which they mean
Is this a no, taylor?
okay so conjugating the long cycle by the short cycle gives another transposition.
and repeated conjugation gave all the transpositions (1a)
oh yeah no not really
Boytjie
So in particular
So you've got all transpositions (1 a)
See if you can do something similar to get all (a b)
(1a) generate S_n as a varies
Extension task: use this to describe the conjugacy classes in S_n
eigentaylor is done
cuz the <{(1a) | a in {2,3,..,n}}> contains the transpositions
(ij) = (1i)(1j)(1i)
That's what Taylor said she wanted to try showing, yes.
no i was just asking for this cuz i didnt knwo why she had to do that
but ig it was an extension exercise ig
now i have a stupid question after eigentaylor is done
about fields 😄
oh that makes perfect sense. so if I conjugate (1b) by (12) then that should give (2b).
and then conjugation of (12) by (1a)(2b) gives (ab)?
not sure if that's more convoluted than it needs to be
but this makes so much sense. reminds me of change of basis a little bit. unsurprising since both involve conjugation
i think its illustrative to go between these various generating sets of Sn
imagine one of these toys but only one circle, and the rotating part only allows you to swap 2
that is essentially (12) (swapping) and (12..n) (spinning the circle)
so its clear that thats jsut the same thing as all adjacent transpositions
and its not hard to visualize any transposition
This is the most based explanation
Don’t forget about permutation matrices
oh yeah of course lol
Sometimes analogy is more than analogy
someone help please... am i stupid or is it too late in the evening or is this actually kinda difficult...
Let G be a group and let a, b ∈ G be elements with o(a), o(b) < ∞.
- Prove that for all k ∈ Z, o(a^k) divides o(a).
- If ab = ba, prove that o(ab) divides lcm(o(a), o(b)).
- Give an example of a concrete group G and a concrete element a ∈ G with o(a) = o(a^2).
- Give an example of a concrete group G and two elements a, b ∈ G such that o(a), o(b) < ∞, and o(ab) ≠ lcm(o(a), o(b)).
- think about the subgroup generated by a
- think about how (ab)^n = a^n b^n given the condition
- think of the simplest kind of groups
- given youve done 2, think of a group that has two elements that dont commute with eachother. matrix groups might be useful to think about
oh wait yeah, #1 is easymode. but for #2 and #4, my brain is cramping on what lcm(o(a), o(b)) means? i mean, i cant intuitively think it through...
and for #3, i suppose G = Z_2 and a = [2]_2 would work? ...is it really that simple?
intuitively u want a value n such that both a^n and b^n vanish since (ab)^n = a^n b^n. so we want both a^n = 1 and b^n = 1 at the same time. one thinks instantly about the lcm of their orders
i would suppose the intent of the question was to find a non-trivial element a in G
since every group G has that property where the order of its identity is equal to the order of the identity squared
note [2]_2 = [0]_2 which is the identity in Z/2Z
nontrivial examples would be an element of order coprime to 2 (e.g. 3) or infinite order
Imma just throw this here too in hopes someone has a trivial answer. Is there a neat way I can figure out whether a 20 cycle and B=(1 4)(2 3) generates S_20 or a subgroup of that without brute force looking for a single transposition?
It’s actually this but instead of 2 it swaps 4 at once
Trying to figure out the logic that that also generates all of S_20
I wouldn’t be surprised if there was a way to find A_20 as a subgroup then use Lagrange to double that to S_20 or something but I don’t know it
3 weeks into algebra has me lostttt
I'm tyring to solve 17(a) but I have a few questions. According the Fundamental Theorem of Galois Theory, there is only a one to one correspondence between isomorphsms K -> X where X is an algebraic closure of F contaning L, not just embeddings in to an algebraic closure of F.
Also, what does one to one correspondence mean in this case? Injective or bijective?
One to one correspondences are bijective
thanks
i wish everyone would just adopt bourbaki’s terminology already
I got the other question cleared up by rereading the proof of the Fundamental Theorem.
But I still have no idea where to start, so would appreciate a hint
and retroactively rewrite history/old textbooks while we’re at it
Take an arbitrary element from the galois group. What happens if you apply it to this "N_(K/F)(a)" ?
Can L/F be taken to be a finite extension?
Gonna bump this :/
I want to define N_{K/F}(alpha) = \prod_{\sigma \in Gal(K/F)} sigma(alpha) and since these are coset representatives we are told to show that it is well defined, but don't really know what that means in this case...
Oh.. this will only work if K/F is normal I guess
I'm tyring to show that if K/F is a Galois extension with Galois group isomorphic to the Klein 4-Group, then K=F(sqrt(D_1),sqrt(D_2)) where D_1, D_2 and D_1D_2 in F but are square free in F.
I have tried looking at which subfields K must have, but can't draw any conslusions from that
Hmm well subfields of degree 2
indeed
So of the form F(sqrt(x))
I believe you need characteristic not 2 but yeah
Actually maybe that is just for the converse
ah! So if K was a splitting field of an irreducible polynomial it would only have subfields of degree 4
Lol
?
yah
Deleted message dw
F has char != 2
Okay cool
so is my reasoning correct?
Every finite galois extension is the splitting field of an irreducible polynomial
that's one of the definitions
In part a I shoed that the klein 4-group was the Galois group of (x^2-D_1)(x^2-D_2)
Well you'll want to just unwind the Galois correspondence and consider subfield corresponding to nonzero elements
And play around with that
In fact that is essentially the whole solution oops
now I am supposed to show that if an extension K/F has the klein 4-group as its Galois groupo, then K=F(\sqrt{D_1},\sqrt{D_2})
Yes
a field can be the splitting field of many different polynomials
so I have that the subfields are extensions of order 2, then, K must be the splitting field of a polynomial with two irreducble factors of degree 2?
hey guys my teacher in my linear algebra class mentioned this formula for permutation matrices and how it comes down to something with the symmetric group. I know some abstract algebra and tried to prove it but got nowhere with strong induction. The formula is that given some $\sigma\in S_n$,
$$
\mathrm{sgn}(\sigma) = \prod_{1\leq i<j\leq n}\frac{\sigma(j)-\sigma(i)}{j-i}
$$
and sgn is 1 if $\sigma$ is even and $-1$ otherwise
BigBoyConst
Well ig, though that is not needed
The heart of this is seeing what degree 2 extensions of F look like
yes
I just don't see it
can you point me to a theorem I should look at? (Aside from the Fundamental theorem)
can you describe what degree 2 extensions of F are when F has characteristic not 2
they are F(sqrt(D_1)), F(sqrt(D_2)) and F(sqrt(D_1D_2))

