#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 275 of 1
cuz we know (1234) and (12) generate S_4
(1234) is obv in <1234,1243>
just need (12)
but how
i couldn't write it out
np
“This correspondence commutes with the processes of taking sums and intersections” what does that mean exactly?
I asked this question in discrete math but they're talking alot about graph theory and other stuff
If $f:A \rightarrow B$ is a function, when is it true that there is a bijection $A \rightarrow \text{im}f$.
clubsoda14
when f is injective
assuming you mean "when is it true that f: A-> Im f is a bijection"
What is the rank of D6 as a reflection group?
Is it 2 (because D6 is G2) or 3 (because D6 is A1A2)?
If you sum submodules or intersect them, it passes outside applying this isomorphism
Like f(a+b) = f(a)+f(b)
So f and + commute
Whoa, what program is this?
Chatgpt 6.0
it turns it into a relation based on subsets of where x_i takes values
since for any $A\subset X_i$ we have the relation $\forall_{x_i\in A_i} .\rho$
Sharp, secret keeper
i dont understand how the function is defined. x_1, ..., A_i, ..., x_n isnt an element of Rel(X_1, ..., X_n) right
oh i get it
yeah that's a bit odd, but that's the relation rule
the defining part is defining the output
yeah notation issues
i see
normally it is input |-> output right?
but this case is like input of output |-> output of output right?
yeah its the rule of the thing spat out
I think
I'm having a little trouble with problem 3 and problem 4b here, if someone can give guidance.
In problem 3, I know |G| = n for finite n. I thought about maybe treating G as a permutation group somehow and use k-cycles?
In problem 4b, I have my work on the right. When trying to find the cycle for 4, it seems like it maps back to 1, but I already have a cycle containing 1 that maps 8 to it
wait then how is the actual all^i function defined. As in what maps input from Rel(X_1, ..., X_n) to Rel(X_1, .., PX_i, ..., X_n)
It sends rho to the thing that acts as they describe
oh yeah im stupid
for p3, consider the elements e, a, a^2, ..., a^n where n=|G|
I'm thinking there's some way to prove that an infinite order element must map back to an element it contains as a factor somehow?
since G is finite
two of these are equal
and youre done
does it use pigeonhole somehow?
n+1 values, at most n distinct values
dont just give the answer though
mb
What are the characterizations of all group homomorphisms from R to R? One is the form of ax but what about others ?
okay so, e, a, a^2, ..., a^n is a list of n+1 elements in G, but G is cardinality n. Hence there exists some a^i = a^j for distinct i, j. WLOG j > i, s.t. a^i = a^h * a^i for h = j - i. Then a^h is an identity element (since argument works from both sides), so a is an identity element. Is this the right track?
a^h is identity already finishes
oh right
because then a power of a maps to an identity element
and a is arbitrary so it holds for all elements of G, thank you
only ones
Yes but choice of h is dependent on a
if R->R is homomorphism then R/ker is in R
But how can we characterize it ?
Yes
Is there anything someone might say about the 4b problem? that's the last one I need and I'm not sure I see why I'm getting a repeat of 1
if ker is nontrivial then cyclic group is in R, absurd
so ker is trivial
ie homomorphism is injection
or
Ok so
why did i do that just consider image of 1
R/ker is cyclic, how ?
@crystal vale
Is this R, the reals, as an abelian group?
R is real
Is this as an abelian group, as a ring, or what?
Just abelian group
if its R then there are many homomorphisms?
R is a Q-vector space
Yes
thats cauchy functional equation
Yes
And you can assign any of them to any arbitrary values
R is not finite dimensional over Q
Yes
So there is no nice characterization
I see
As long as you accept enough choice to get that basis anyway
Basically, imagine taking x |-> ax and shuffling it like crazy based on a choice of basis and then permuting them
Oh
So now you have stuff indexed by Sym(2^omega)
Which is uh
Very large
Not to mention choice of basis or wtv but that’s a bit beside the point
And this won’t describe all the possible maps either
Thank you
If G is a group and H_1 and H_2 are subgroups then any right coset of H_1 intersection H_2 can be written as intersection of right Cosets of H_1 and H_2, right?
Let r(H_1 intersection H_2) then I can write r(H_1 and H_2 ) = rH_1 and rH_2, right?
Let G be a group, and A a normal abelian subgroup. Show that G/A operates on A by Conjugation.
I don't want a hint, but I am not sure about what it means by conjugation here because if I define gH•a = gag^(-1) then it is group action, right?
yes
yes, but replace H with A
Yes
Yep pretty much.
If it helps, if we have a group G acting on a set S, we can also let G act on S’s power set, by sending a subset S to its orbit xS.
This is pretty nice, because in order to consider the action restricted to subsets, we’d need elements such that xA =A (to maintain closure on subset A), luckily it allows us to assert that the subgroup Stab(A) (of the power set action) acts on A :)
Similar idea can be used here, you just need to “quotient out the redundancy” of the action, I.e elements of the group where g • x = x for any x, I.e it stabilizes the whole group
Usually separable is in the context of an extension
yes right sry I meant field extension
Well it’s inherited from seperable polynomials, do you understand what that means
Here’s a subproblem. Assume f(x) is a polynomial over F where F is a field of characteristic p, and has 3 roots over field H containing F. How many roots does f(x^p) have over H?
Or better yet, how would we determine how many roots it has
Well the definition is just that the minimal polynomial of any element is seperable.
But an equivalent characterization is that for any element in the base field that has a pth root, that root is already in the base field.
Feels very pure-ish
@rocky cloak Can you check my solution please
because i solved it using another method but im not so sure
What's the problem/solution?
0?
so the closure of an infinite subset of Prime(Z) would be Prime(Z)
this is the solution that i had
because it's intersection would be the 0 ideal
which is a subset of every prime ideal
so the sets which are not closed are those which are infinite and those which contain 0
Suppose that $R$ is a ring consisting of $10$ elements. Prove that $R$ is commutative.
\begin{proof}
We will prove using the \textbf{Fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups} and the theorem \textbf{Cauchy} that it is a commutative ring. which implies that:
\begin{equation*}
ab = ba \quad \forall a,b \in R
\end{equation*}
From \textbf{Fundamental theorem of abelian groups} we know that $(R,0,+)$ must be isomorphic to $Z/5Z \times Z/2Z$. Using \textbf{Cauchy theorem} there is an $x\in R$ with $order(x)= 2$ , $order(x) = 5$. Furthermore, we know that every element in $R$ must be a divisor of the order of the size of the group and since $(R,0, +)$ has ten elements. This means that the order of each $x \in R$ can be either $2, 5, 10$. Now suppose that $ord(1) = 2$ , then this means:
[
1 + 1 = 0
]
then
[
a+a = a(1+1) = a \cdot 0 = 0 \quad \forall a \in R
]
This is a contradiction because every element in $R$ now has an order max of $2$ but that is a contradiction. Now suppose that $order(1) = 5$ then this means:
[
1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 0
]
then
[
a+a+a+a+a = a(1+1+1+1+1) = a \cdot 0 = 0 \quad \forall a \in R
]
This leads to a contradiction because $2 \nmid order(1) = 5$. So there is no element with $order(x) = 2$ which contradicts \textbf{cauchy theorem}. This means that $order(1) must be 10$. Now we know that each element must have max order $10$. So we can certainly have $a \in R$ if $a = 1 + 1 + \cdot 1$ where the number of ones is not greater than $10$. From here we can conclude that $R$ is commutatively true for every $a,b \in R$
\begin{align*}
ab &= (1+1+ \cdots + 1)b \
&= b+ b+ \cdots + b \
&= b(1+1 + \cdots + b) \
&= ba
\end{align*}
\end{proof}
Mootje
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
@rocky cloak this is my proof
Looks good
so the open subsets would be infinite sets, or sets containing 0?
since the closed sets are finite sets not containing 0
There are other closed sets
besides prime(z) and empty set
There are other ones
Any hint? If | G | = p^n and H ≠ G be a subgroup of G then [ N(H) : H ] > 1.
Uhh wait I'm sorry. The closed ones are finite ones not containing (0) and the whole space, yes
split it into when Z(G) is a subgroup H and when it isn't, if Z(G) isn't in H then HZ(G) normalises H and we are done because centres of p-groups are nontrivial. For the other case, try using induction on the order of G to prove it (hint: ||G/Z(G) is a strictly smaller group||)
If Char K=p>0 and f is irreducible in Fp[X] then its separable if the degree of f is not divisible by p. But then why is x^2+x+1 over F2 is separable?
I mean the degree is divisible by 2
but the Differential is 1
!=0
is the statement wrong?
Hey. There's this exercise in D&F which I don't understand: Let K be a finite extension of F. Prove that K is a splitting field over F if and only if every irreducible polynomial in F[x] that has a root in K splits completely in K[x].
By "K is a splitting field over F", do they mean K is a normal extension?
that's a good question, your usually have a splitting field of a polynomial or set of polynomials
Yeah
It's not an if and only if.
the result is true for normal extenstions so just prove it for those 
Even if the collection of polynomials is empty, or say, trivial?
I know
If it’s irreducible over F and has a root in F…
Oh bruh now i understand it
Every irred. polynomial which is not divisible by char p>0 is separable but this does not imply that every irred polynomial is separable if the degree is divisible
My reading skills are bad lol
Oh. So essentially if K is an extension over F which doesn't split any more polynomials, then it is the splitting field over F of the linear factors only and hence must be isomorphic to F by uniqueness of splitting fields?
Cause then being irreducible and having a root implies it being linear, as you indicated
Makes sense
Thanks!
hello
suppose you have the character table for a group
can u know how many elements in the conjugacy class itself?
like the cardinality of the equivalence class
If you set up the character table with columns indexed by conjugacy classes, then the rows are orthogonal wrt to inner product weighted by the size of the conjugacy classes. So you can set up the system and solve for that.
For example the character table of S3 is
1 1 1
1 1 -1
2 -1 0
The first column is the identity, let's call the size of the other two classes a and b. Then the orthogonality of the rows says
1 + a - b = 0
2 - a = 0
-> a=2, b=3
okay so im new to this so let's like be slow.
i know that the rows are orthogonal to each other and the columns as well by schurs orthgonality
and ik that the number of irred chars is the number of conjugacy classes
so now how exactly did u get these equations ?
jagr you want column orthogonality for this
I'm guessing you're trying to get the size of the centraliser out right?
Well, here you're already given most of the conjugacy classes. So just take the order of the group and subtract what you have.
i dont have the order of the group do i
it's S_4
It's the square length of the first column
1+1+4+4+9+9
okaay i think this is like similar to the square of the degrees of irreps
is that correct
what ur syaing
it's exactly that
Not just similar
It's what it is
why
you literally just said 
yes but why the fuck is the first column the degree of the reps
oh lmao
trace(1) u mean?
or like trace(phi_e) = trace(I)
sure
= dim(V)?
I mean the degree of the character
I should've actually read the image posted lol it's completely unrelated to determining conjugacy class sizes from the character table
Well, there are different ways to see it. But the size of the group is the dimension of the group algebra.
And the group algebra breaks up as a direct sum of all the irreducible modules. Then by looking at Hom(kG, V) you can see that the multiplicity of V is equal to its dimension. So dim kG = sum (dim V)^2
yes
or you just take inner products and it's immediate
i see
And trace of the identity is indeed the dimension of the space
you have a non-trivial linear character with a kernel
and i can indeed prove that the tensor product of the reps are the reps that have products of characters
this kernel is a normal subgroup, count the elements in it using the sizes of the conjugacy classes given
Or even easier, just noticed that the image is {±1}
ah true
I'd also like to point out how you would find conjugacy class sizes from the table, $g \in G$ then $\sum_{\chi \in \text{Irr}(G)} \chi(g)\chi(g^{-1}) = |C_G(g)|$, and then $|g^G| = [G : C_G(g)]$.
Wew Lads Tbh
in case it's relevant to you in the future
i saee
oh yes fuck
why would it have two cosets tho im sorry
im just being as stupid as i can but like bare with me
Well it's a group homomorphism onto {±1}
wait wdym exactly by like
a non-trivial character with a kernel
like any character that isn't X_0?
i mean there are lke
4
right?
wait
i should only consider X_1 correct?
Gotta be 1d
like X_1?
Yeah
Yup
there's only one with a non-trivial kernel. So unless you want to prove the trivial subgroup is normal I suggest looking at that one lol
man I love finite group representation theory
ah my bad misinterpreted
Since the irreducibles form a basis of the functions ConjClassesOfG -> C, I assume you can associate a function to each conjugate class (1 if it's in it 0 if otherwise). By linear algebra obtain a decomposition in terms of the character table, and through the Inner product formula you obtain the size
it's like so clean
and doesn't deal with the all the yicky topology
(I love abstract harmonic analysis though, don't worry)
yes you can decompose the indicator functions but I gave a cleaner way of doing it
_ _
It's not like it's that hard to do either
let me see what you wrote
ah yeah
I forgot this formula existed
this is the correct way to do so
@delicate orchid why didn't you just write |xi(g)|^2
I would never write that
here in particular it's to keep the connection to column orthogonality clear
weird
I think it's clearer
writing it like this
After all the inner product is given by <xi,zeta> = 1/|G| Sum(C conjugacy class) |C| xi(C) zetaConj(C)
Since the rows are orthogonal, the matrix is unitary and so the columns are as well
This doesn't involve g^-1 at all
unless you always write xi(g^-1) as opposed to its conjugate
chi(g^-1) is the complex conjugate of chi
I know
I just think it's clearer to not write xi(g^-1) cause in the more general compact case it corresponds to the regular L^2 inner product
also if you're going to write the inner product like that, replace |C|/|G| with the 1/|C_G(x)| and just sum over representatives it's much nicer
it took me 3 times to read the notation you're trying to convince me is clearer correctly 
Trivial Lemma
I'd write this
for a fixed conjugacy class C
or just replace C with g
plus you can write
$\xi(g) \overline{\zeta(g)} = (\xi \otimes \bar{\zeta})(g)$
Trivial Lemma
I would never write that either
That's not what I mean
The thing is that the object is also a character of a representation
there's no tensor product here you're multiplying functions
I know it's the tensor product of a representation
but I don't care
\eta\bar{\zeta}(g) is fine if you want
we've literally spent the past 354 hours debating minutia and that's where u draw the line?
I dunno, I just feel like it doesn't make sense to write g^-1
I don't see any advantage
over writing just the conjugate
if I wanted to share something with someone that's not familiar with the subject I'd prioritize better ways to write / think of something over saving characters
From the way I wrote it the identity
they were not asked to perform this calculation, and "by column orthogonality" was already all of the required data
$\langle \xi, \eta \rangle = \langle \xi \otimes \bar\eta, 1\rangle$ becomes clear for example
Trivial Lemma
no
yup
I won't
do it
no
yes
no
pretty please
fulton whorris?
can someone please summarize what we are bitching about I'm not reading this yapfest
also that book was written 234 years ago
i think there's an argument as to whether to denote the product of two characters as cdot or otimes
James Liebeck, Navarro, Isaac's don't use it
Does a character involve tensor product
both are fine, it's also fine to just concatenate them with no symbol between
yes in a really trivial way
no wait, it doesn't but a professor of mine uses it so Imma keep it
ok I was being facetious with how much I disagree with using \otimes but using \cdot is deranged
yeah \cdot is probably the least standard
I don't think I've ever seen it to be honest
Absta
I think it's generally best to write this as a concatenation, and to reserve the tensor product for something like an exterior tensor product
where \simeq denotes Morita equivalence, I'm sure
in abelian* groups I've written + for the product of characters
my face just dropped from my goofy grin down to the most serious stare I've ever pulled
you do what
there's a good reason
the ring of characters is still a ring even if those characters are of an abelian group
I forgor if this is true
bro locked in
cause it forms a module essentially
I've also seen \boxtimes for the exterior one, just in case there's confusion
Me likey
yes?
but that isomorphim embedds it as a multiplicative subgroup, of R(A)
yeah
1 times 1 is indeed 1
not an additive one
actually maybe not
Absta
?
squensor product...
R(A) being the ring of characters of A
Yeah, but what I'm saying is unrelated to the ring of characters
Absta
Convenient and correct
according to terrence howard $\bC \otimes_\bC \bC \cong \bC^2$
hot girl ({ω|-ω})
It gives a non-trivial module structure to the irreducible characters of an abelian group
as an A-module?
like idk suppose I have a representation of GL_2 x GL_2 which is an exterior tensor product of some representations of GL_2, each twisted by a different character
what is A?
an abelian group I've used it like 4 times already
the most sensible way to write this is probably like
$\chi_1\pi_1\boxtimes\chi_2\pi_2$
I didn't think so, so as a module over what ring
nGroupoid
replace \boxtimes with \otimes if you like
wait I'm confused about what you mean
but writing something like
but I have a terrible stomach ache
the irreducible characters are a module over what ring
nGroupoid
Also I want to write things like the action of Lin(G) on Irr(G) nicely
just by concatenation
this isn't loaded btw this is genuinely new to me unless the ring is Z
ehttps://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Supercharacter_theory_of_an_algebra_group err it's related to this but I gotta brb
lets have a peep
I think between two sections of my thesis I forgot to pick a consistent convention of writing character twists on the left or right, although it doesn't matter a whole ton
Incomprehensible; may g-d have mercy on your wretched soul
I've encoutnered supercharacter theories before
first time I've ever seen them actually be used though 
,nlab exterior tensor product
No results found at:
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/search?query=exterior+tensor+product
they're like blocks but with much weaker structure
If you have a rep of G and a rep of H, their tensor product is a rep of G x H
But what is exterior tensor product?
But if you have two reps of G, you can also see their tensor product as another rep of G, just G.
So you want to distinguish between the two
(via the diagonal action)
Oh
Ahh, I see. So it is to distinguish two representations?
Yes
I wish I would be learning these stuffs in my rep theory class
Which we've agreed to write $\chi \boxtimes \vartheta$ vs $\chi\vartheta$ in the case of characters
idk what else you could be doing this is 101 stuff
Boytjie
Instead it is confusing idempotents handling and projective covers
wtf is taht font
oh are your fields arbitary characteristic
It's a clone of Palatino. I think the packages are newpxtext and newpxmath
It is not my field, it is just a class
doesn't matter actually. What we're saying is still true
brother
in christ
you take vector spaces to be over a field
what field are they over
Ah, likely arbitrary
yeah that makes sense you need gross machinery
except you DON'T sucker!
it's still all character theory!
Quiver is not character theory tho
q-q-q--q-q-q-q--q-q-q-q--q-q-q-GULPq--q-q-q-q-q-quive-r-r-r-rr??!!??!
Damn, I forgor
A1 reps
Yeah, it was not a class about representation of group theory
Quivering in my groups boots rn
Benson 1 has a great exposition on quiver reps. Chapter 4 iirc
I heard the class will handle quantum representations
Quiver reps seem cool. I haven't looked into them that much I admit.
they have been used in like describing characters of unitriangular groups
that sounds like a buzzword
Quantum groups: not groups, and not really quantum
quantum groups are pretty standard 
I didn't doubt they had a use but it's nice to actually see one
I mean (I heard) quantum rep is well-defined tho
are they infinite

They're not even groups wew
well now isn't this just woke
quantum groups are defined through their categories of representations
because uhhh Denzel lusting theory or whatever
in a sense the quantum group is its category of representations
Woah this is cool
so many quivers
it is yeah
this is true of any category by Yoneda
(up to equivalence?)
Wait what
ah bruh
I guess I am right that it is insanely fast
quivers are quite literally multidigraphs
honestly Auslander-Reiten stuff is the only kinda painful part
the earlier stuff is not bad at all
Also it is my skill issue but welp
quivers are literally some little arrows I draw sometimes
Dunno, I am struggling with even at projective cover
Auslander--Reiten looks so sick though!!!!!
it is really sick yeah
quiver is literally where I draw my commutative diagrams
Where's jagr to tell us how cool it is
projective covers are kind of stinky
give me my associated projective characters instead please!
I also kinda stopped paying attention at that point in the course and computing basic examples of AR theory is a bit painful
quantum groups are fun though
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
Yooo Wew did you see that Chris Bowman is gonna be doing a MAGIC course on Lusztig's conjectures? Do you even care?
@delicate orchid
people will really be like "I need to open quiver to draw a simple commutative square"
oh I thought you said your commutative diagrams WERE quivers, which is true
hmm... NO. No I don't think I do
I've secretly opened MAGIC in a browser tab
It's in the autumn semester
I had to learn tikz for drawing graphs it was awful 💀
doing analytical geometry
@prisma ibex should I stop math if this feels challenging
hahah good thing I'm not INCREDIBLY BUSY until novemeber
just to have nice spacing
everything is hard until you've learnt it
I mean I also put 2 hour each week into this class other than class time
But still, I am getting skill issued
Anyway, I'm off to bed.
Gotta love me some Nullstellensatz
semester starts monday, I'm cooked
how explicitly do you need to work with projective covers here
Why are you asking someone else to tell you to quit math, I don't get this behaviour
they want affirmation that it's ok for them to stay
and that struggling is normal
hence why I said what I said (I also said it because it's true)
Right, right ok
anyway what the fuck is an injective hull
rhetorical question don't answer that
resetting my MAGIC password at 1am
truly unhinged behaviour
Aw shit it's 1am
it's not there 
Shit I meant the spring semester
It's right at the bottom of the list
He links a preprint of his book on diagram algebras, pretty amazing tbh
the one above it looks more appealing
I think I need to take this one as well... been meaning to learn this stuff
Character theory is nice in particular
so I've heard!
This course sucks actually
Well I'm being mean. It's just very introductory. They do very little.
my thesis be like
Its sooooo nice
I am sorry
Maybe not that explicitly, I just expect it to jumpscare time to time
its so cool!
Is this for ug? I wish I had taken it for ug for a stronger app to grad school but the school didn't offer it I want to learn it unsure to get lorenz book btw what is character theory?
By Boytjie’s description of that particular course, yes
Wow it's like a website that does online courses?
Yur
thats a rather fair price too
I already signed up lol
hey so I'm trying to show that the group of rigid motions in R^3 of a dodecahedron is 60.
I think I understand one good method: any rigid motion maps a given vertex (say, 1) to one of the 20 total vertices.
then, vertex 2 will have to be one of the three adjacent vertices, giving 3 * 20 = 60 total rigid motions
it's intuitive that the motion is uniquely determined by the first two vertex mappings, but how do I show this in a proof?
the idea is presented as an extension to finding the order of dihedral groups, which are more obviously determined by the first two vertex mappings
maybe another way to find this solution is to find some proper way to label the vertices of polyhedra, which then forces a structure that would be uniquely determined, since that's what makes the 2d analogue obvious
any hints would be appreciated
I don't get it operation here, is it x^(phi(h)(x_2) ) or xphi(h(x_2)) ?
i personally think this is fine to just say - if you know how to transform one edge everything else follows
we are reading the same book
its the latter
What book?
Lang
😭
which edition do you have lol
the big one?
ye
Third one
i have third revised
Is there any other way?
I skipped some sections after Sylow
Wild, so that was a typo?
Yes
Let G be a group of order p^3 such that it is not abelian.
Then if x^p = 1 for all x in G then there exists subgroup H such that H is isomorphic to Z/pZ × Z/pZ.
Now we know the existence of the subgroup H which has order p^2. Now that subgroup is abelian, by fundamental theorem of abelian group it will be Z/p^2Z or Z/pZ × Z/pZ.
But if it is Z/p^2Z then there exists an element which has order p^2 but this is not true, so it is Z/pZ × Z/pZ.
Is it correct?
I think some of the order in your writing of the message is scuffed, but I think it works to show a p^3 order group with all elements of order p (or 1) has a subgroup of that shape
Should I write again?
Nah
Okay thank you
If I want to show that a group of order p^2q is solvable, where p and q are distinct.
So we can use the result that if H is a normal subgroup of H also solvable's and G/H solvable then G is solvable.
And G is a group of order p^2q so one of the Sylow subgroups is normal.
If Sylow p-subgroup is normal then H is a subgroup of order p^2 so it is abelian implies H is solvable and G/H is a group of order q which is solvable thus G is solvable.
If Sylow q-subgroup is normal then H is a group of order q so it is solvable and G/H is a group of order p^2 so it is solvable thus G is solvable.
Is it correct?
Well, if either Sylow subgroup is normal, yes, since that’s actually saying it’s very nicely solvable even, but do make sure at least one of those two groups is normal of course
As in, prove it or have proven it for another exercise etc
I proved that, but now I am trying again
you could also repeatedly use the fact that a subgroup of order |G|/p is normal where p is smallest prime factor of |G|
In other cases if number of Sylow q-subgroup is p^2 then p and q are consecutive primes which are 2 and 3 so then G has order 12
what am I doing wrong here?
I never use HK \subset KH
so I am suspicious
oh wait nvm HK is not closed under products
easier sol is (HK)^{-1} \subseteq (KH)^{-1}
So when HK is a subgroup then HK = KH
i think one of them has to be normal in order for it to be closed
would be nice if it all can be summed up with element analysis (i mean how B acts on Aut(A))
any help is greatly appreciated
if A is a set of sets, then how does one prove this function is well defined?
It seems obvious but I just want to make sure im doing this right
what is K ?
umm i might be missing the whole picture here
lost in liminal
like this should work, but I have no idea how to prove formally the well defined part
if K \cap xH = K \cap yH then how do I show xH = yH?
isomorphism theorems coming to mind
for the well defined part?
nah i havent looked at answer
can we not just show that it is indeed a subgroup then use the ladder construction
Can someone help me understand semifields which are abelian groups (P,) with an extra structure (P,,+) which is commutative, associative, and distributive as p*(q+r)=pq+pr
It's a basic result that the underlying abelian group (P,*) is torsion free.
I'm forgetting my basic abelian group theory, does this mean the underlying abelian group is free?
If it's finitely generated, yes
In general a torsion free abelian group need not be free
Q being a counterexample
(i mean the additive group of Q, because the multiplicative group of the semifield of positive rationals is actually free)
another way is you can show that right coset of H cap K is right coset of H cap right coset of K
this works right tho?
it is not true what if K = H and take x and y such that xH\neq yH and xH\neq H and yH\neq H
take H = 3Z in Z H cap 3Z + 1 = H cap 3Z + 2 but 3Z+1 \neq 3Z+2
you can try my hint
Ah okay I see thank you!
for each coset $g\left(K\cap H\right)$, there exists some coset representative in K and H such that $g\left(K\cap H\right) \subset g_1 K$ and $g\left(K\cap H\right) \subset g_2 H$
yeshua
I mean, you can just pick g1=g2=g
oh no
Have you considered group actions
i dont seem to understand that in this situation
dam i deleted that by mistake
in anyways its 0 1 0 1 0 1 in Z2
0 1 2 0 1 2 in Z3
0 1 2 3 4 5 in Z6
?
i dont see how g1=g2=g
I mean you can pick them differently if you like
Order mattess yes (if the group is not abelian)
are all the cosests equivalent upto representation?
"upto representation" ?
u mean the different coset mean anything differently or they are equivalent ad partitioned by equivalence class
I'm still not sure what you're asking. Different cosets are different yes. But a coset can have several different representatives
i mean its just a different name to repe represent different coset?
or they have more difference that's not apparent just from the representation
If gK = hK, then they are literally equal, and it's just notation that distinguished them
gK = {gk : k in K}
Different cosets are in bijection yeah, their all in bijection with K by k |-> gk
that's what i meant by upto representation
well can we conclude anything further about their orders?
Well, I'm not sure what more one could want. |gK| = |K|, and then you can prove Lagrange: |K|*[G:K] = |G|
i mean if the K ain't normal just the right and left becomes different
that's why i wad being cautious about that g1= g2
but u mentioned the abelian there
But you were only ever taking about left cosets
and then another question occurred
how about all the elements that are in bijection
can we conclude anything about their orders too
oh yeah true
There isn't really a fixed bijection, so depending on your choice every element is mapped bijectively to every other element.
i mean yeah it's not really an isomorphism
as all cosets aren't group
hmm so nothing but a mapping which doesn't preserve the structure in general
I am stuck on a proof of complete set of principal orthogonal idempotents for bounded quiver algebra.
Suppose w + I is an idempotent in KQ/I, where I is an admissable ideal. Why is w \in I?
I think you have your question mixed up.
Did you mean to ask why there exists an idempotent e in KQ such that w+J = e+J or something?
In the proof, after the calculation, it concludes "w = w + I is an idempotent, so e = 0".
Well, is there some context maybe
I am outside so I cannot post the proof rn, maybe some time later
And how are w and e related, and what are you even trying to prove
Like if w = 1, then it's certainly an idempotent and not 0. So something is missing
To show that c.s.p.o.i. of KQ/I is {\bar{e_a} | a \in Q_0},
It is enough to show e_a KQ/I e_a is local.
Now, write an idempotent as
e = l e_a + w + I
Computation shows that l^2 = l
In case of l = 0, the proof directly concludes that w \in I.
(This is for admissable ideal I)
@rocky cloak do you know what is going on in such a proof?
(It is to show that e + I = 0 + I or e_a + I)
So you're considering an idempotent in e_a KQ/I e_a.
So you would write that as e_a l e_a, no. Or what is l and w supposed to be in your decomposition?
I think l is in K, and w is linear combination of cycles at point a.
Ahhh, then it makes sense.
So w+I is an idempotent, but w is a sum of paths
So w^n is in I for sufficiently big n
But w^n + I = w + I, because it's an idempotent
Huh
Oh, because R_Q^n is included in I
Damn, I am dumb 
Anyway, thanks a lot! That clears it up for me.
Just remember, quivers is love, quivers is life. Stay strong!
i feel like everything i read somehow leads me to the ADE-classification (which i’ve no idea what is) help 
may i ask what's the fuss there?
Dynkin diagrams is the secret elite that controls the world.
Quivers is a combinatorial tool to study (homological) representation theory of algebras. And it makes everything nice
If we have Char K= p>0, then why is the polynomial x^p=x for x in prime field?
do i have to face it if i take graduate homological algebra
i knew it!
hope a physicist doesn't see this
In the finite field if char K = p then x^(p-1) = 1 so x^p = x.
I am not sure about the prime field but I think subring generated by 1, right?
multiplicative group
so what do u mean ? because its multiplicative there exists a inverse of x so that x^p-1 -1=0 => x^p-1 * x - 1*x=0?
the order of the group is (p-1) and its cyclic
Depends
But maybe
so?
we constructing the tensor product of modules in class 
so whatever element u take
if u mutiply it (p-1) times it will be 1
know i understand it
is k identity element in your alphabet ?
like depends on the school and professor
enlighten me on the dependence
Lagrange theorem
the multiplicative group has p-1 elements
so x^(p-1) = 1 forall x
Ok ok so every order of elements divides p-1
yes
in the prime field
but looking at the prime field is just looking at Z/pZ = Fp
yes
So if we look at X^p-x then the elements are the roots
And every field ist factorial so yeah
the roots correspond exactly to the elements of the prime field
Its the elements of prime field
don't understand what you're saying here
A field is an integral domain
unique factorization domain
and principal ideal domain
and in integral domains polynomials can have at most as many roots as its degree
(if a is a root of a polynomial f(x) then f(x) must be factorable as f(x) = (x-a)q(x) for some q with degree less than f)
Yeah, depends on those things. Like, I said it's a tool in homological representation theory, but if your course is more concerned with algebraic topology or algebraic geometry, then you'll do that instead.
And something like an intro course in homological algebra might just focus on abelian categories, the derived category, Morita equivalences and you know homological algebra. And not necessarily go to other contexts.
i might take that for alg geo
By induction, right?
yes by induction
if i get into the school im hoping for
If X is non-empty set such that there is bijection between X and field F then X can be field, right ?
X can be given a field structure yes, in fact even one that makes it isomorphic to F
Yes I see
You also don't need the requirement that X is nonempty, since every field is already nonempty
is the automorphisgroup of G just the symmetrical group of G?
No
it's a long story, gl
what took me a long time to realise was by construction its a group of maps(structure preserving)
What is the symmetrical group of G?
I assume they mean Sym(G)
They could have meant something else though
yes
@cloud lynx the automorphisms are much less
one element in Sym(G) is a transposition (1 g) for some g != 1
this won't result in a automorphism as 1 has to be fixed
the order is the degree of the splitting field extension of whatever polynomial you have
If A is an abelian group, is Aut(A) necessarily a group under pointwise addition?
yeah
abelian group written additively?
yeah
End(A) would be a group in that case, but I don't think Aut(A) would necessarily be closed under pointwise addition
so like if phi, psi in Aut(A) (phi + psi)(g) = phi(g) + psi(g) forall g in A?
yep
consider the identity morphism, when A is finite, and notice |A|id = id + id + ... + id (|A| times)
aha, you get the trivial homomorphism, which is not in Aut(A)?
yeah
nice, thanks 👍
unless A = trivial group
yw!
I've been tasked with proving that no subgroup of S_4 is isomorphic to Q_8. I know from looking it up that the subgroups of S_4 of order 8 are all isomorphic to D_8, which means none of them are isomorphic to Q_8.
My question is if there is a better way to approach this problem than to prove that S_4 has 3 subgroups of order 8 and all of them are isomorphic to D_8. It seems incredibly computationally boring
Instead of focusing on S4 you can focus more on Q8.
Like a map Q8 -> S4 is the same as a group action of Q8 on a set with 4 elements. Then you can ask yourself what are the stabilizers of the different elements. Since 8 > 4 each stabilizer is a nontrivial subgroup, and every nontrivial subgroup of Q8 contains -1. So -1 is in the kernel of the map Q8 -> S4, and the map cannot be injective.
This also has the advantage of working for Q8 -> Sn for every n<8
thank you thank you
If we look at the galois group of Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(5))/Q why can only sqrt(2) map to sqrt(2) or -sqrt(2)? and not also to sqrt(5)?
Suppose f is an automorphism. Remember that it has the property f(xy) = f(x)f(y)
Now note that f(sqrt 2)^2 must then be f((sqrt 2)^2) = f(2) = 2.
What I have written does not imply that, no.
f(sqrt 2) = - sqrt 2 is compatible with what I have written.
OK
ahh ok if sqrt(2) maps to sqrt(5)
then (f(sqrt(2))^2=5 != 2= f(sqrt(2)^2)
so this is not a automorphismn even a homomorphism
an*
Indeed
is that the only reason? or is it also because they have two different minimal polynomials?
You could probably find several reasons.
Thank you!
Those are pretty much the same reason. If x^n+ax^n-1+...=c then you can apply f to it and conclude that f(x) satisfies the same minimal polynomial (assuming f fixes the constants you use in the polynomial)
ahh okk tyy
ufff there are also polynomials with roots, which cant map to every root of the polynomial
for example X^4-1
it has i,-i,-1,1 as roots
but i cant map to 1
f(i*i)=-1 != 1 = f(i)*f(i)
If H and K are subgroups but not necessarily normal then is [G : H cap K] = [KH : K]?
This holds if normal by second isomorphism
But I don't see how the same bijection is well defined
I'm not sure that makes sense considering KH may not even be a group
I think maybe you also meant [H : H cap K], but that's just a minor typo
I'm not sure I can put my finger on what exactly the additional assumptions you might need here are
Maybe someone could help with me with some understanding here, but my professor claimed that “If two group’s (he said things but i assume he meant groups) are isomorphic, then their centers should be the same”, I’m not sure why that happens, and he emphasized should, so when does this not happen?
He was trying to appeal to your sense of what ought to be true
In fact, their centres are isomorphic.
I think I’m going to attempt to prove it. That way I get a better understanding
yeah that sounds like a good idea
ok i proved it. so the intuition is if i have an element that commutes with everything in one group, its isomorphism should also commute with everything in the second group, and vise versa.
thank you guys
yep yep
there’s like an informal theorem that anything you can state “in the language of group theory” must be invariant under iso
you might actually be able to make this precise with model theory? im not sure
but at least, the approach I took was verifying this myself for lots of individual properties like “abelian”, “center”, “conjugate” etc and eventually convincing myself that it was true
yeah, i’m simply having trouble with connecting all the ideas. this is a kind of math that i’ve never seen before. but i also really like it, just challenging
not sure if it’s considered pure math, but if it is, it’ll be the first pure math i’ve looked at (aside from possibly set theory and logic?)
Assuming HK is a group, then
h(H cap K) |-> hK
should be a bijection between H/(H cap K) and HK/K
if we have the polynomial X^5-1 over Q then the splitting field is Q(w)/Q where as w is the fifth unit root
why is the degree of this field extension 4?
and how do I determine the minimalpolynom of it lol
yeah I see now
HK is not always a group though.
So I just used instead the injection H/(H \cap K) into H/K
if gHg^{-1} = xHx^{-1} then nessecarily must xH = gH?
Consider for example abelian groups
right okay
how do I prove that {gHg^{-1} : g \in G} is of less cardinality than G/H?
like I dont immediately see a well defined map here
Well if gH = xH then certainly gHg^-1 = xHx^-1, so you could define a map from G/H to that set
Yes
So there you go
so then we get G/H is of less size than the set I care about
right because G/H injects into this set
No, if you have a surjective map from one set to another, then the domain is bigger
Oh I see.
And the existence of a surjection from A to B implies the existence of an injection from B to A?
Yes
interesting
It does, that is in fact an equivalent characterization of the axiom of choice
hmm interesting okayt
$Z(G) = \phi[G]$ where $\phi(x) \equiv \forall y. xy=yx$
Sharp, the forgotten
thanks
As with any isomorphism, $\phi(f(x))\iff \phi(x)$
Sharp, the forgotten
So anything definable will be “isomorphic” with the appropriate object in the other one
This holds also for like, any other logical thing preserved under isomorphism
I say “isomorphic” since you can have some things maybe not defining subgroups e.g., like “elements of finite order”
L_\infty,\infty is more than strong enough for sane people purposes anyway, and L_\infty,\omega is already pretty nice
Ok now you’ve lost me
Yes if you can write it in the language of groups you can do nice things
Lol
But not just first order things
Isomorphisms preserve all first order properties
You can define the center of a group G as
$Z = {g \in G: gh = hg \quad \forall h \in G}$
Trivial Lemma
Wow I wonder where I’ve seen that
They even preserve second order properties and infinitary logic properties
I didn't read the whole conversation when I opened the thing I just saw that message and replied
sure
The last exercise is to show that a semifield homomorphism doesn't have a well defined kernel. Can anybody tell what they mean by this?
I feel like I can define ker=f^{-1}(1) and since (P,•) is an abelian group if f(p)=f(q) for p,q in P then f(pq^{-1})=1 so if the kernel is a singleton ker=f^{-1}(1)={1} then p=q since inverse are unique.
I don't see a problem with defining a kernel
The addition stuff doesn’t really have an inverse tho
This is actually open, isnt it?
It's obviously equivalent to choice if you assume the injection you get is a right inverse of the surjection
wait really?
How is this any different than the case of rings? There is an underlying abelian group and elements of a ring aren't necessarily units so that don't always have inverses. I thought kernels being well defined for rings would have the same proof as semi fields having well defined kernels
Well your distributivity has changed sides so something could change
I thought the existence of kernels for rings followed directly from the existence of kernels of abelian groups? Do you use distributivity to show kernels exist for rings?
Well you do want things to be nice
Did they define "kernel" before?
There is a definition in terms of category theory, but that's probably not what they want
This was at the beginning of the document. i don't know If they defined it previously somewhere else.
I really just want a way to tell if a semifield hom is injective. I can't tell how to do this without a kernel.
In general kernels being trivial is not equivalent to injectivity
For example f:N->[0,+oo] given by f(0)=0 and f(n)=+oo for every n>0 is a monoid homomorphism with trivial kernel which is not injective
f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b) and f(0)=0
yeah you mentioned something about kernel pairs before
A standard semifield is trop(y1,...,ym) which is the free (multiplicative) abelian group generated by yi with the auxiliary addition + given by (a1y1+...+anyn)+(b1y1+...+bnyn)=(min(a1,b1)y1,...,min(an,bn)yn)
As an abelian group there is a Z action. Consider the map induced by 10 in Z, say f: trop(y1,...,ym)->trop(y1,...,ym) by f(h)=h^10. How can I tell this is injective?
It's obvious to me that 1=(y1)^0...(ym)^0 is the only element in f^{-1}((y1)^0...(ym)^0) and 1 is the identity on the abelian group.
I think this is an injective map? Can anybody tell?
What does min mean?
What order structure are you putting on the free abelian group to have minimums?
The coefficients of the free abelian group are integers so I'm using the total ordering of the integers
I got scared by this exercise I saw to think this map isn't injective
Oh yeah, I think you're right there
@delicate orchid rep theory of semidirects question for you, as a treat. How can I turn representation data of G \rtimes_f H into representation data of f(H) < Aut(G) :3
Of particular interest is wreath products ofc, but that’s a bit less “generic” and nice
If i have 2 isomorphic subgroups H1 H2 in G, does an isomorphism H1 to H2 induce an isomorphism G to G?
I thought maybe this could work by bijecting coset representatives
but it seems like not quite right
I think it is not true
Take 3Z to 5Z by 3n -> 5n so it is isomorphism but if you induce Z to Z then it is not isomorphism because there are only two isomorphism between Z to Z one is identity and second one is x -> -x
hm yeah that makes sense
i wonder if theres a condition that would make it true
maybe normal subgroups
anyway thx for this
wait no thats dumb u just gave normal subgroups
welp disproven
There are some conditions which happen to imply it based on, like logic bs, but I am not aware of any algebraically nice characterizations
What if the H_1 and H_2 generated set of G ?
3Z and 5Z generate Z
Then H_1 = G
Because it is a subgroup
But it is true in that case yes
Further, if G is definable from H_1, I think you can do something
quick question, in order for an ideal I to be prime, then for the intersection of ideals J and K, at least one of J or K is contained in I. Does this mean for the ring of integers, where prime(Z) is the prime ideals of Z, (6) is prime?
(6) is not prime as it is the intersection of (2) and (3)
came across with this nice pic of algebraic numbers on wiki, adding the rationals (for differentiating purposes), is this how the absolute Galois group of Q would "look" like? sry for the stupid question!
I mean this is a picture of the algebraic numbers, while the absolute Galois group is their automorphism group. So that's two different things I guess.
And the position of the numbers in the complex plane doesn't really say much about how the automorphism group acts on them. I'm guessing the color signifies degree of minimal polynomial(?), which says something, but still not a lot.
But I'm not sure there really is a very good answer to what the Galois group looks like
What if we stack (not in the scary sense idk what it means mathematically, I mean like stacking a bunch of paper) of this galois group and do automorphisms like S_n
why do we care about distinguishing between internal and external direct sums?
I'm not able to find a good example of when there would be a meaningful difference yet they seem to be talked about separately everywhere I encounter them to the point that it makes me think there's some subtle importance that im not picking up on
I don't know if this is helpful, but I think of internal direct sums as a partial function/functor
Internal direct sums are for subgroups/subspaces of a fixed group/space
I think of subgroups of a group as a different kind of structure than a group by itself (it has extra structure)
And internal direct sums reflect that extra structure by not existing sometimes (or having more information other times since external direct sums are only defined up to isomorphism but internal direct sums can give different embeddings)
Isomorphic (as groups) subgroups of a group can have different behaviour, for example C_2xC_2xC_4 has two subgroups isomorphic to C_2xC_2 that give different quotients. So the extra information of which subgroup it is exactly rather than just its isomorphism type could be useful
Strictly, the set-theoretic constructions of internal and external direct sums are different too
Two subspaces having an internal direct sum is like a true/false property
Whereas external ones aren’t
What is true is that if two subspaces have an internal direct sum, then their internal direct sum is isomorphic to their external direct sum
In some categories it is. There are categories where not every pair of objects has an external direct sum
Mhm, I’m aware
And yeah I definitely agree with this
Subgroups are an instance where it is genuinely useful to care about a notion of “sameness” finer than isomorphism
Namely, set-theoretic equality
You can turn it into a kind of isomorphism if you consider the uh I always forget if it's slice or coslice category
Then two subgroups are isomorphic in this category iff equal
I see
Well, internal direct sums is really a statement about subgroups.
Like an external direct sum isn't just a group, but it also comes with extra data, namely inclusions and projections. For the internal direct sum you don't need this extra data.
For example saying that Z/6 is the internal direct sum of 2Z/6 and 3Z/6 is saying something more than merely Z/6 being isomorphic to the external direct sum of 2Z/6 and 3Z/6. It is fixing a specific isomorphism.
reviewing group theory. can someone give me a hint for 2? mostly I'm just struggling with what it means for the index to be 2.
does that mean that we have some x not in H such that for all g not in H that g=xh for some h? basically that the cosets are eH and xH for some x
also if all the cosets are eH and xH, how do we write that?
$ G=eH\sqcup xH$? $\oplus$?
eigentaylor
The former
Erm
Actually the former is false because both contain 0
And the latter makes no sense because cosets are not subgroups (except for eH)
$G/H = {eH, xH}$
Bequi
G/H is the usual notation for the left cosets of H
fair enough
This notation is used even if H is not a normal subgroup
ah. and if it's not a normal subgroup then the cosets just don't form a group?
Right
wait, why does xH have 0?
if e is in xH, then x inverse is in H, then isn't x in H so xH=eH?
I'm sorry that was stupid of me
The former is correct
oh okay cool
I think I got the proof as well
my argument is basically that if g is in H, then ghg^-1 is obviously in H. otherwise g=xh1 so we get
xh2x^-1 for h2=h1hh1^-1. if it wasn't in H, then it's equal to some xh3, so x^-1=h''^-1 h3 implies x is in H contradiction
otherwise g=xh1 so we get xh2x^-1 for some h2=h1.
I don't understand what you mean by this
either g is in H or g=xh1 for some h1 in H right? since those are the only two cosets
Right
x^-1=h''^-1 h3
Where does this come from?
shoot I didn't change all the ''s to 2
