#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 271 of 1
ok where would you have to send (1,1)?
No I don't want to use the coset stuff
Is there any reason you want to avoid coset stuff? It's a pretty fundamental tool
I am doing a napkin and he hasn't introduced coset stuff yet
And in addition, we have additional condition that group is abelian
Hmm I don't think there's a great way that isn't just using cosets in disguise (or essentially just proving Lagrange's theorem, which isn't too difficult), let me think more though
well like
2x+3y to satisfy the homomorphism properties. though to make it satisfy the other requirements i think we would need for
3(2x) + 2(3y) == 0 mod 18
where like the x comes from the left side and y comes from the right side
so 6x + 6y cong 0 mod 18
so like x = 1, y= 2 ? would satisfy it right
so like we can send (1,1) to 2+6 i think
or like i think that would make our kernel atleast a subset of the desired kernel
wait i think i mixed up the numbers
Okay
oh here's an idea sidestepping Lagrange's Theorem:
Let n = ord(G). write out all the elements of G as G = {g_1, ..., g_n}. for your g for which you have g^n = e, consider the set {gg_1, ..., gg_n}. try to prove this set is equal to G, so you can say {g_1, ..., g_n} = {gg_1, ..., gg_n}. Do you see where to go from here? (this next step uses G is abelian, everything up to here is true if G is nonabelian)
if not I can give a further hint (provided you indeed prove these sets are equal, for which I can also give a hint)
let's think about the image of (1,0)
we need to make this 9
so that the first component will be zero for multiples of 2
if we made that 9 then (2,0) would be in the kernel?
but (2,0) isn't in the requested kernel
oh yeah sorry
it's okay dw about it, i have to go to sleep now
hang on i'm in the middle of a phone call
like i gotta wake up early tomorrow i can't stay up any longer lol or I'll be groggy.
if you want to continue the discussion on it though you can dm me and I'll try to get back to you tmrw morning
Yes, {g_1,...,g_n } = {gg_1,...,gg_n}.
Got it
Thank you ❤️
gg_1gg_2...gg_n = 1 so g^ng_1...g_n = 1, and g_1...g_n = 1 so g^n = 1
Is it good exercise?
@oblique iron I am interested to know how it hits you ?
Yeah this is right, you should only do column operations
(because x,y generate the same thing as x+ny,y)
Doing only column operations you get that it's also generated by (1,0,1), (0,1,1), (0,0,2), which is isomorphic to Z^3 (and an isomorphism could be given by the row operations) but it's actually a proper submodule of Z^3
(i.e. it's the one where all coordinates have even sum)
Any tips for this? I'm stucked in showing injectivity
also wondering if it holds in any abelian category
I would do this by
“N -> M1 \oplus M2 is an isomorphism by the 5 lemma, and then the morphism you want is M_2 -> M_1 \oplus M_2 -> N”
Which also proves it holds in an abelian category, because the 5 lemma does
If you don’t have 5 lemma, then it’s just a slightly messy diagram chase that I’m not sure it’s particularly nice to describe in words
ahhh right, thanks! completely forgot about that lol
A simple way to see that it works in any abelian category is just to use the commutativity of the diagram.
If you have a map X -> N such that the composition X -> N -> M1(+)M2 is 0. Then also the composition
X -> N -> M1(+)M2 -> M2
which equals
X -> N -> M2
is 0.
So since M1 is the kernel of N -> M2, we must have that X -> N factors through M1.
Then 0 equals X -> N -> M1(+)M2 equals X -> M1 -> M1(+)M2. And since the inclusion of M1 is mono, X -> M1 is 0. So X -> N is 0.
This is in fact just a proof of (half of) the 5 lemma. And it's not necessary for the bottom row to be split.
This is also a typo. It’s supposed to be an extension of M2 by M1
Is the idea here that the determinant, being a polynomial, has n roots, and C minus those n roots is still path connected? So we can let lambda be a path from 0 to 1 avoiding those roots?
Yes
I have the field extension F/K, where F is the algebraic closure of K.
Given α€F\K, I know there are (at least) n ways to include K(α) in F, where n is the number of distinct roots of the minimal polynomial of α.
Are there exactly n? Id say yes, following a reasoning that uses the FHT, am I right?
What is FHT?
First Homomorphism Theorem
There can be less than n if K is not a perfect field
What? Our lecturer proved that there are always at least n
Are you working over fields of characteristic 0?
Oh my bad
There are exactly n yes
Thanks
Just take the map K[x] -> F sending x to a specific element.
Then this factors as K[x]/(f(x)) -> F, where f is the minimal polynomial of x
So you have one map for each root of f
In general if A embeds into B, and we have an automorphism of B, we can compose the two to have another embedding
Conversely a map from K(alpha) is determined by where alpha is mapped, and it can only map to other roots of its minimal polynomial
Yes, I got this, I was having trouble understaning how an embedding K(α)-->F extends to an homomorphism K[x]-->F, but now I think I understood
Oh yea this makes sense thx
is normal subgroup a transitive property? i.e; if G is a group, A, B, subgroups and B normal subgroup in G, A normal subgroup in B, then A normal subgroup in G?
I'm sure I knew whether that was right at some point but I've forgotten
Can you tell me of an example of a non-normal subgroup?
Actually, no need
the Normal property is that you can define a quotiënt-group with it, even if G is not commutative
or N is a normal subgroup if, for any g in G, g * N = N * g
The answer is no
You can use dihedrals
The rotation subgroup is a normal subgroup of a dihedral group
And since its abelian, any subgroup of rotations is normal in the rotation subgroup
So you just need to find a subgroup of rotations which isn’t normal in the full dihedral group
Hmmmm wait maybe I’m misremembering this
No, that won't work, because the automorphism that the reflections act by preserves all subgroups.
Ah this one might’ve been permutations actually
ah goddammit I just found an example using the alternating group (A_4) and I have been trying with that one for so long...
Ah it was dihedral
But not the rotation one
You take a square, and consider the subgroup of symmetries preserving a particular diagonal
And then you take a reflection subgroup of that, which has size 2
This is generated by a reflection and a 180 degree rotation
I am so mad at myself
while checking A_4 with the normal subgroup H= Id, (12) (34), (13) (24), (14) (23)
it took A to be that subgroup of 4 elements, normal in A_4, and A_4 the normal subgroup of S_4
and look H makes a good normal subgroup for S_4
but the subgroup Id, (12) (34) is not a normal subgroup of A_4, I even noticed that...
but didn't realise that it is one for the subgroup of 4 elements above...
it must be, because its index in that subgroup is 2... you don't even need to check...
Mhm index 2 being normal is pretty convenient
"I'm missing the very obvious.." may as well become my catchphrase >_<
Happens all the time dw
the worst part is is was checking S_4 and A_4 because I half-remembered trying that sometime in the past, implying that it was on the right track
I'm now fairly certain I've repeatedly made exactly that mistake (now at least twice, but I'd bet up to 4 or 5 times actually)
This is partially why I used flashcards a lot during my degree
It included things like this
Glad I’m not doing a degree in meth
After I've derived the Jordan decomposition of A into A_s and A_n how do I show that they are polynomials in A
I am essentially using the structure theorem over PIDs and have done all the usual stuff
But it's not clear to me how looking at the ring K[x]/(x-a)^n tells us that A_s is a polynomial in A
If $|F| = q$ is finite, prove that $|GL_n(F)| < q^{n^2}$
So far, I have that since we are working with nxn matrices, there are $q^{n^2}$ possible nxn matrices. So how do I prove that there are some matrices which do not fall into $GL_n(F)$?
I saw a solution that said there is at least one matrix without a nonzero determinant. But then if that is the case, it is not an element of $GL_n(F)$, right?
Soap_Opera
Yes
zero matrix
Determinant 0 means not invertible
In dummit and foote, it says that GL_n(F) = all nxn matrices with nonzero determinant and entries in the field F
|M_n(F)| = q^n^2 and GL_n(F) is a proper subset of it (actually it's the group of units) lol
M_n(F) is free over F, and it's basis is the matricies that are just 1 somewhere, and 0 elsewhere
basis of size n^2, so it has |F|^n^2 elements
I think I'm confused since the definition of GL_n(F) says nonzero determinant and the solution is saying there is a matrix in GL_n(F) that has a zero determinant
there isn't
by definition GL_n(F) is the set of matricies with nonzero (unit) determinant
It's just saying to exclude that so that's why it's < q^n^2
Not in GLn, but there are matrices with 0 determinant. Hence not all matrices are in GLn
Not nonzero means zero
Ah, ok, I understand it now. Thank you all!
(Namely, 0)
You can also calculate the size of GL(F,n) by understanding that there is a bijection between invertible matricies and basises of F^n, i.e linearly independent sets of size n
A vector in a linearly independent set of size n is not a linear combination of the other vectors in that set, of which there are n - 1 many. That kicks out F^(n-1) many choices
hungerford
idk tho can't we like literally just count them like
if F has p elements then GL_n(F) would have (p^n-1)(p^n-p)(p^n-p^2...)
assuming GL_n(F) means nxn matrices with nonzero det
Bump?
more context please
Oh A is a vector space endomorphism over a algebraically closed field
A_s , A_n are semisimple and nilpotent endomorphisms respectively
It's basically an excercise in Jordan decomposition of A in End_k(V)
Yeah
I got this part
Now this nilpotent and diagonal matrices are also polynomials in A
That is what I have to prove and I am stuck
Also for more context this is an excercise in modules over PID
And it's applications to vector spaces
can u show that they commute with A
Well I was trying to get them to be polynomials in A first so that would lead to this statement
ur field is algebrically closed and you have n distinct eigenvalues and hence ur minimal polynomial equals ur characteristic polynomial so the converse holds too
converse of if one matrix is a polynomial of the other then they commute
now if u show that they commute then ur done
the proof iirc was like
the minimal poynomial is of degree n so there must be a vector v such that (v,Av,A^2v,..,A^n-1v) is a basis and then since B commutes with A then writing B in this basis is ur poly
Perhaps, but I am restricted to using modules here
V is a k[x] module where x acts via A
And using structure theorem and CRT I was able to find it as a direct sum of k[x]/(x-a)^i
No
They have other factors too
Remember after the decomposition we have f_1|f_2|...|f_n
my bad
Where f_1 is ur minimal poly
Now a basis of a particular k[x]/(x-a)^i is 1,(x-a),..,(x-a)^i-1 so using this basis to write a I get the Jordan stuff
But after that I am stuck
How do I get A_s and A_n to be polynomials in A
ur field is k
V is k[x]-module with f*v = T(v) where T is ur linear operator
decompose V into cyclic modules
.
wouldnt this imply that
V is cyclic
as a k[x] module
it's reallly the same as this but just writing it out ig
ur minimal polynomial when restricted to each summand should be a factor of the next summand
the last summand is ur minimal polynomial but the characteristic polynomial and the minimal polynomial are the same
u must have only 1 summand which is the last summand
once u have ur module is a cyclic module, and ur endomoprhism commute together you can write one as a polynomial of the other
okay let me rephrase
V is a k[x] module
V = k[x]/(f1) (+) k[x]/(f2) (+)....
each f_i annihilates V which means (by our action) we have the minimal polynomia divides the f_is
the final summand (call it f_m) would be equal to the minimal polynomial
but the char polynomial is the product f1f2...
so u must have V =k[x]/(fs)
no its just only 1 summand
by what i just said
by the fact that the min polynomial equals ur char polynomial
idk then honestly my bad i randomly thought A has n distinct roots
eigenvalues*
what i can maybe throw is
maybe same argument but on the semisimple operator only
since the semisimple operator has minimal polynomial = to the irred factors
I see
may i ask what textbook is this
i see
good luck
i hope tho this argument of like (min poly = char poly --> V is cyclic --> commutes <-> is a polynomial) is useful in the future
Is there an intuitive explanation of why characters are so useful for studying reps of finite groups? I understand that they provide an orthonormal basis for class functions but I don’t have intuition for why that is the case (maybe because I don’t have good intuition for the Great Orthogonality Theorem)
instead of having to decompose modules you add and subtract little lists of numbers
their main benefit is uniquely characterising isomorphism classes of C[G]-modules
the orthogonality theorem is easy to gain intuition for: Let x, x' be two characters associated to simple modules U, U', then <x, x'> = rk_C(Hom_{C[G]}(U, U')). Since U, U' are simple, by Schur's lemma this homspace is either 0 if U is not isomorphic to U' (iff x is not equal to x') or if they are isomorphic then it is spanned by the identity matrix, hence rank 1
Hmmm I’ll think about that thank you
I think the main thing that’s bothering me is the feeling that we are discarding information when we take a trace
but that's the amazing thing! We're not
But I guess the extra information is redundant for the irreps?
not just irreps, all reps (via semisimplicity)
Right
is this for harvard university
no I'm at a mid rate UK uni
hello
im kind of stumped on this problem
let me pull it up
#49
i know that the size of G is not finite
but how can I prove that
So group G is isomorphic to Zp correct?
it says that this is true for every prime p
how can it be isomorphic to Zp thrn
wait
group G is infinite because the homomorphic image Zp cant contain more elements than G itself right
i think this statement is still true |G| >= |Zp| ?
meant to say group G is infinite
yeah
What
my point is uh
how would i come up with an example
the size of G has more than Zp though
yeah
Img(G) must be Z_p for any prime p
for some homomorphism
What do u think
like for each prime p
the homomorphic image of group G, Zp is given?
yeah
im the one whos asking for help
so Z_p is the homomorphic image of G
so for each p we have there exists a homomorphism such that im(G) is Z_p
what example comes to mind
infinite group as u saud
Said
oh
Hiii
Is there a way I can know if a certain polynomial is solvable by radicals over Q without finding its Galois group? Specifically 3x^7-15x+5. I don’t know if it’s even possible to find its group
It's S7 according to Sage but idk how to prove it
it has 3 real roots, this implies it is not solvable since 7 is prime (Galois' theorem)
so here is a part of Jacobson
The intent is to find a base of a submodule generated by a given list of vectors in D^n, where D is a PID
And we can express the base using a relations matrix M. Using Elementary operations / Gauss-Jordan elimination, you can get to Row-Echelon form which we can call M'. So M' = KM for some invertible matrix K. But i don't get what you do from there to try to strip out any extra generators
hey chat, am I going insane too
Assume we have a ring R, where we have a unit b, and some element a such that (1 - ab) is a unit, then it's conjugate by b would be (1 - ba)?
b(1 - ab)b^-1 = b( b^-1 - a) = 1 - ba?
In a finite ring with unity, right inverse of an element implies that existence of left inverse, right?
Let a be an element in R such that ab=1. Now b cannot be left zero divisor so we have c such that bc = 1, so a = c.
Is it correct?
Yes conceptually, but here's an argument that proves the assumptions
Assume ax = 1 in finite ring R.
Lemma: a^n x^n = 1 for each n
Proof (Induction): a^(n + 1) x^(n+1) = a (a^n x^n) x = ax = 1.
Assume there exists an n such that: x^n = 0. then a^n x^n = 1 = 0. Thus for any r in R, r(1) = r = r(0) = 0, implying our ring is trivial.
Now, assume our ring isn't trivial. By pigeonhole principle, we have some n, m (n > m wlog) such that x^n = x^m.
If n - m = k, then x^m = x^(m + k), thus a^m x^m = 1 = a^m x^m x^k = x^k. Therefore 1 = x * x^(k-1), and thus x is a unit (with torsion).
Okay thank you
Also here’s a silly proof of something else i just thought of lol
what kinds of things did you make flashcards on? (abstract algebra specifically)
Definitions, theorem statements, proofs, explanations, intuitions…
Let (1 - ab) = u, (1 - ba) = v
Then a - aba = av = bu
Assume xu = 1.
v = 1 - ba = 1 - bx(ua) = 1 - bxav
(1 + bxa)v = 1
So if u is a left unit then v is too,
Sorry, just saw this. There's a slight gap but the right idea. Because {g_1, ..., g_n} = {gg_1, ..., gg_n}, multiplying both elements of the sets together you get g_1...g_n = gg_1...gg_n, so using abelianness you get g_1...g_n = g^n g_1... g_n. cancelling g_1...g_n (multiplying by its inverse on the right), you get 1 = g^n. your solution doesn't quite work initially because you can't assume gg_1...gg_n = 1 right away without further justification (which amounts to proving the problem)
It’s basically verbatim the proof that a finite (or where two distinct powers of x equal for each x) left (right) cancellative monoid is a group lol
{gg_1,...,gg_n } = {g_1,..,g_n } = G, so gg_1...gg_n = 1, right?
Yes
Hi there 🙂
I wanna figure out why d divides phi(p^d-1) where phi is Euler’s function. Do I even need field theory for this?
lol sorry for interrupting
Yeah that works, just remember in your proofs you should include that bit of explanation
Hopefully the hint and such helped, best of luck on the algebra studies!
Thank you
You mean phi(p^(d) - 1) not phi(p^(d-1))
Yes
Interesting
You can use Lagrange’s theorem
How?
You mean find a subgroup of order d in U_(p^d-1)? I thought about it but how do I find one
The group of units in Z/(p^d-1)Z
Then yeah, try to find a subgroup of order d in that group of units
I don’t know how
It’s supposed to be related to field extensions somehow
Use Euler’s theorem
One way of doing this is to consider the field F_p. How can you construct an extension of degree d?
The simplest is F_p^d
Wait huh
I had something a lot simpler in mind
That's not even a field
Phi being the order of the multiplicative group implies a^\phi(n) = 1 (mod n) if a and n are coprime (cuz then a mod n would be in the group of units)
I feel like you’re overthinking this
Soooo what happens when \phi(a^m - 1) has a nonzero remainder mod m :3
Maybe try to find some units in that group?
I really don’t think you need any fancy tech for this
Well I said how it relates to field extensions, but I agree there is a much simpler manner
are you mixing up Z/p^dZ with F_p^d?
It doesn't even require Euler's theorem
Mhm
Euler’s theorem just allows you to go straight from the “order of group of units” def
I don’t even see how euler’s theorem helps you here
a is coprime to a^d - 1
You don’t need euler’s theorem for that
Did you use that a is prime?
Oh shit yeah
This holds for any p
But not for any a
Not if d=0

oh I realized that instantly gives it away sorry
😭 thanks for the help
I think I lost it
Lost it…?
This is still my suggestion
And you don’t really need any number theory for this beyond knowing modular arithmetic
I don't want a hint, I just want confirmation that v is unique so is it true in (1), if we want to prove converse 1 implies existence of inverse so can I use v is unique?
Please don't give hint
You don’t need uniqueness in (1)
can someone explain to me how we get bc-1 in the line where it says the remainder lies between 0 and bc-1.
$0 \leq rc < bc$
and $rc$ is an integer
So $0 \leq rc \leq bc - 1$
would it be then accurate to just say remainder lies between 0 and bc?
Micose
Kinda
But it can’t be $bc$
Micose
understood thank you!
Maybe I'm misunderstanding your reasoning, but g_1g_2...g_n = 1 is not true in general
But if {g_1...g_n} is a group which is abelian then it is true
Yes in non-abelian it is not true
hmm, what about (Z/3Z)^x? 1*2 = 2
I don't think it's true even for abelian groups
It's true if G is abelian and no element is its own inverse
Now I got it, my mistake thank you for pointing out my mistake ❤️
If I have 1, then we have uvu = u and vu^2v = 1.
So vuuvuv = uv so by using uvu = u we get, vuuv = uv => uv = 1.
And then vu = 1.
Is it correct?
And if I have 2, we have u(vu-1) = 0 and (uv-1)u = 0.
Now I will prove that u is not zero divisor.
Let uw = 0. Then u(v+w)u = u, but v is unique therefore w = 0.
Hence, uv = 1 and vu= 1.
Is it correct?
How do you get vuuv = uv => uv = 1?
By second
I would do it like this
1: || uvu = u so uvu^2 v = u^2 v
So u = u^2 v so then as v u^2 v = 1, vu = 1
Then again as vuuv = 1, uv = 1||
Your argument for 2 works
Ah right yeah
vu^2v = 1 so uv = 1
Thank you
One has to wonder
Who the hell comes up with some of these extremely specific problems
Suppose $|G| = $55. Show:
(a) Every real subgroup of $G$ is cyclic.
(b) $G$ is either Abelian or has a trivial center.
OHHELLNAH
a) by Lagrange theorem every nontrivial real subgroup can be either of order 5 or 11. Both of them have prime order so they are cyclic (and Abelian). How to do b)?
consider the possible sizes of G/Z(G)
But how do I know what is the Z(G)?
G/Z(G) is cyclic iff G is abelian
if you haven't seen this before, try and prove it
Yeah I proved that
see if you can use it together with a to prove b
Give the "ideals" := 'normal subrings' of F_q [X]/ (X^q-X) where q is a power of a prime?
I do not know how well I translated that
We're looking for the ring version of a normal subgroup for groups (all examples)
you translated it well
I'd use the corrispondence beteween ideals J of R that contain I and ideals of R/I
Oh and that means the rign clearly has zeor divisors
Ah yes
So X must be in it?
As it is a group for the first operation?
Ah wat that doesn't imply the statement
So I can do quotient group G/N only if N is a normal group, so it has to be a subgroup. So I got 4 options for Z(G).
G/{1} ≅ G (trivial center)
G/Z_5 ≅? group of order 11 -> cyclic -> G abelian
G/Z_11 ≅? group of order 5 -> cyclic -> G abelian
G/G ≅ {1} (center is whole group -> G abelian)
Im not sure about case 2 and 3 tho, to me it looks like that would be a nice but Idk the argument
Ohh is it just lagrange theorem? |G| = [G:N]|N|?
yeahh it is omg thats so cool
Can someone explain the second step
I get that you can write it as a product of cyclic groups in that form
But why only powers of 2
the product is a power of 2
Well the product of the orders of the elements is 2
so all of its divisors are also powers of 2
hence all of the elements have order equal to a power of 2
That works, because F_q is a field, F_q [X ] is a HID
But isn’t the order of some element of the product the max of the order of some element on the list
So as long as the max order is a power of 2 it’s fine
dunno what this means
Thus any ideal can be generated by a single element
if some element has an order that isn't a power of 2, there is some odd prime that divides its order, and thus some odd prime that divides the product of all of the orders
immediate contradiction
As X^q-X must be in it, I'm thinking the generators must be the factors
When you say element, do you mean if G or an element of one of the cyclic groups in the product
does it matter? it's a statement about prime factors of integers
it holds for any group
there is zero group theory in that statement
I was mainly thinking that $|(g_1,g_2,\cdots,g_n)| = max(|g_1|, \cdots,|g_n|)$, so not every individual $|g_i|$ must be a power of 2, so long as the max is
donut123
yes that's true once you know that G is of the form they stated
using it to prove G has that form is circular
OOOH IM SO STUPID. I like completely misinterpreted the structure theorem in the first place
I got it now thank you
I just ignored the fact that the orders of each cyclic correspond to some factor of G
And by Lagrange theorem, G must be a power of 2, otherwise an element can have an order that is not a power of 2
Is it correct to say that orbit-stabiliser gives the following statement:
Every action of a group G on a set X is isomorphic to the coproduct/disjoint union of a family of “coset actions”, meaning an action where X is the set of (left) cosets of some subgroup of G?
Yes
In detail 1) every G-set splits as a sum of its orbits, which are transitive G-sets tautologically 2) every transitive G-set is of the form G/H by orbit stabiliser
But 2) is a slightly stronger form than what is sometimes stated as orbit stabiliser ig, since often it is expressed as a bijection rather than an isomorphism of G-sets, but the map involved is clearly equivariant
Real quick are G-sets subsets of G or sets G acts on
Cool cool
I spent some time thinking about whether this was anything like decomposing a representation into irreducibles
But “simple objects” in [G, Set] don’t correspond to actions on sets of cosets
So it’s not really semisimplicity or anything, but it is a decomposition
Sets equipped with an action of G
Thanku
How are you defining simple objects? As in not having any nontrivial proper subobjects?
Oh I mean
This doesn't go here or really anywhere
Maybe #prealg-and-algebra
Sure
Though one important thing is like yeah this does give a decomposition of permutation reps but they can split further
I mean if we define a G-set to be simple if any subset is stabilized (viewed as G acting on P(G)) then it is empty or the main G-set, then we have that the action is transitive
Obvious example being ZG lol
Yeah if you use subobjects then you get these
Because the orbit is like a cyclic submodule
Oh I wasn’t thinking of the representations here, just the actual group actions
Just different idea with group G to Sym(S) versus ring R to End(M)
it's exactly the same
there's even character analogues called "marks"
These were important but then became far less valuable in 1920s Germany
Specifically around 1923
it's woke gone mad
they're just representations over F_1 :smoked:
Let $N \triangleleft G$. Is $G$ finitely generated if $N$ and $G/N$ are finitely generated?
OHHELLNAH
Im thinking it is possible that G is not finitely generated but i can't find an example. Was going in the direction of some polynomial structure but they are all rings... but maybe im just wrong
G is necessarily finitely generated
Do you want me to give you hints towards that?
Oh wow... Ig if N and G/N are finite G is finite, can that help me somehow?
Yes
Let g_1N, ..., g_kN be a generating set of G/N, and n_1, …, n_i a generating set of N
Hint 1: ||I claim g_1, …, g_k, n_1, …, n_i generates G||
Hint 2: ||Given g \in G, I claim there is some g’ \in <g_1, …, g_k> such that g’^-1 g \in N||
That should be enough to start
got it ty
The canonical map G -> G/N has finitely many fibres (preimages of points) and each is finite
How do you calculate character tables for groups?
Like for dihedral and other finite groups for example
This is a hard question to answer in general
Because there’s an algorithm that works for any group, but it’s pretty messy to calculate with
For most of the groups you’ll look at in courses, generally the best strategy is to spot a handful of characters, then essentially sudoku out the rest
What do you mean sudoku out the rest?
Using row and column orthogonality, as well as knowing that the sum of squares of dimensions is |G| and similar other facts
GAYTTT
mmh so a 1D representation factors through the abelianization, is there something analogous for GL_2? I mean I suppose you can consider the intersection of all the kernels of homomorphisms -->GL_2 but asking if there is a simpler description
Hm, not one that I know of…
the structure of finite subgroups of GL_2(C) is quite rigid so maybe you can cook something artificial lol
idk much about GL
There's a funny thing I've just noticed
In a group, for coprime m,n and element a, the equation x^m=a cannot have more than one solution of order n
To prove it, suppose x, y are such solutions, use Bezout to write 1=km+ln, then x = x^(km+ln) = a^k = y^(km+ln) = y
Is this correct? Would you prove it differently?
it looks correct to me. maybe something like this also works:
assume x, y are two such solutions. as (m,n) = 1, we have $<x> = <x^m> = <y^m> = <y>$ so $y = x^k$ for some $k$ coprime to $n$. Together with the fact that $x^m = y^m$, we have $n | (k-1)m \implies y = x^k = x$
pink_panther
Does anyone mind checking my proof for this question? Let $Q$ be a Sylow $q$-subgroup of $S_q$. Show that $C_{S_q}(Q) = Q$.
We must have $|Q| = q$. So $Q$ is a cyclic subgroup of $S_q$. Let $Q = < \sigma >$ where $\sigma = (a_1 ... a_q) $ is just some q-cycle. Then $C_{S_q}(<\sigma>) = C_{S_q}(\sigma)$. Since q is a prime number and conjugation preserves the cycle type, we must have, for $\tau \in C_{S_q}(\sigma), (\tau (a_1) ... \tau (a_q)) = (a_1 ... a_q)$. This tells us that $\tau$ should shift the order of the numbers appearing in $\sigma$ by any amount, therefore $\tau$ must be an element of $Q$. Similarly, conjugation by any element of $Q$ shifts the order of the numbers by some amount and keeps the permutation $\sigma$ unchanged. So $C_{S_q}(Q) = Q$.
pink_panther
Yes that seems good.
Another quick and essentially equivalent way I believe would be to consider the conjugacy class of a generator of Q. ||It is conjugate to all q-cycles, and there are (q-1)! of those||
hey potato man
Incredibly late but here’s some tricks, when I say character I mean irreducible character:
- lifting from the abelianisation
- the sum of the squares of the degrees is the order of the group, and the degree must divide the order of the group
- row and column orthogonality
- they come in complex conjugate pairs, and are only not real valued on conjugacy classes that are not closed under taking inverses
- If x is a linear character and y an irreducible, then xy is irreducible
- the square of the degree of a character is bounded by the order of the inner automorphism group
More generally, you can also look at tensor/alternating/symmetric powers of characters, induced characters, and lifts from quotients and factor them using the inner product
Yo
dude ngl I feel like a moron because this section of Jacobson is not clicking for me
Here I should say it is a beautiful and actually surprisingly elementary theorem that every rep arises as a subrep of a tensor power (p sure this sharpens to exterior)
So like if you are stuck sometimes just tensoring up is a nice way to find something new lol
Did not know about the sharpening. That is nice if true
It is likely false then
Cause iirc the exterior power operator is nilpotent
The character/rep
U literally just square the character
Oh true
Uhhhhh what’s the actual statement again
One mo
And then everything is a subrep of a tensor product of that
Do faithful representations come cheaply enough though lol
Uh yeah
In any group that matters (finite simple)
Does it have to be irreducible?
Maybe this is false w exterior powers tbh
Nope
Trying not to interrupt the convo so I'll wait :3
I really don’t want it to be 
It is true for symmetric powers apparently
Ughhhh not as nice
If |G| = n then Everything is contained in kth symmetric power for some k < n
But still quite strong
Nvm if it’s bounded it’s just as nice as the thing I had in my head
Even nicer cause there’s no (-1)^k bullshit in the character formula
Pog
Do u know how it works btw potato (if that is ur name)
Lol
Uhh no but I found the proof online, 1 sec
the tensor power one is easier but you've seen that
The tensor power one is trivial
Lol is it trivial
Wait i think we are talking about different things
lol
I meaant the proof everything is a subrep
Tbh I have never worked through this and you have just made me interested
I think this actually came up in my diss last year in some form maybe
hmm
Ok “library of babble” ur turn
yeah i am quite stupid and do not fathom what the fuck to do here :3
Like namely
We can use "elementary" row operations and some primitive form of gauss-jordan
but Idk how to actually take advantage of the Bezout property
because you can only remove scaled copies of other rows
This really is a smith normal form moment
Full disclosure I saw a tuple of 3 integers and nothing else
dude idfk
Ok upon re-reading I would smith normal form a) at least
dude idfk
Iterative solution is fine cause that’s the only one I know of rn
as in these
i've reread this like 5 times
Oh lol
still not clicking
I’m scared
I’m even more scared but just Google “smith normal algorithm”
Oh like a recurrence relaation type ting?
Hm
i tried reading it but it was even MORE confusing
Wait is this true? I guess it is cause u can’t just stick it in the elementary sym/alt polynomial cause u have the chi(g^k)s AND the chi(g)^ks
just gives us this "Relations relative to another basis"
but doesn't elaborate at all wtf to do with it
or how to find a basis out of it
Don’t read it numbnuts try performing it
Follow the steps without a single thought in ur little head at first
just the wording of it fries my brain
and I don't know what the hell I am doing
or how to show it gives a basis
Yeah you can write them in terms of the character of the previous power iirc
I can compute the normal form, found it already but IDFK what to conclude
or how the fuck to find a basis from it
Yeah apparentlyt this is basically nonsense with the Newton polynomials
Which makes sense lol
and frankly i feel like a moron enough because it's pathetic to be stuck this long on a section with basic fucking linear alg
Have you see the proof of the structure theorem for modules over PIDs
The non-zero diagonal elements of the smith normal form describe the torsion part and the number of 0s tell u the rank. That’s what conclude from jt
WHOton polynomials ykwim
that's in the next two sections
I really don't like skipping ahead
in jacobson mainly
This is stuff I only hearad of through adams ops tbh lol
The proof is basically “u compute the smith normal form and u can compute it”
This still applies
What the newton polynomials?
I couldn’t tell you anything about them nor do I really want to
BUT H O W D O I
KNOW WHAT TO DO
Idk put it in a computer
WITH THE NORMAL FORM
I just told u boy
, SBCRHyga,bkjw e.ynk.hqEAKFNUD;M ealk <o{
w
Apparently according to Jacobson that's relative to another basis
so you would have to return to the original basis no?
Doing it over Z and u got (3.4.5.0) diagonal elements woaahhh
so can you just "slice out" the null column/row of the diagonal
We’re in Z there’s only one basis of a free Z module up to sign
Let M and M’ be in M_2(Z) in different bases iff exists a X in GL_n(Z) such that XM = M’ taking determinants we have det(M) = \pm det(M’)… ok maybe this isn’t a complete proof cause but like cmon now just visualise it 😭
Ur acting on a cube u can only reflect things by changing signs cause it’s like S_n 
Point is I don’t care about this basis shit. Does it give the required submodule? Yes.
that's WHAT THE PROBLEM IS ASKING F
Are the terms written in the standard basis e_i = (0,…,1,…0)? Yes
Also don't i have to invert the very last matrix
in order to find the actual basis elements
Dunno what that means but good luck inverting something that will usually have both non-units and zeros on the diagonal
I mean
The deal is like, fix $n \ge 1$ and put $p_k(x_1,\dots,x_n) = \sum_{i=1}^n x_i^k$ and $e_i$ the ith symmetric poly [in $n$ variables]. The newton thingy identities say $ke_k = \sum_{i=1}^k (-1)^{i-1} e_{k-i} p_i$. Now note that if $T: V \to V$, $\dim V = n$, has eigenvalues $\lambda_1,\dots,\lambda_n$ [i'll assume diagonalisability for ease...] then $\chi_{\Lambda^k V} g = e_k (\lambda_1,\dots,\lambda_n)$. So ig ur question then becomes like why the Newton identities and iirc the easiest waya is some identity with $1/1-t$ lol
LRX^-1 = D
Prismatic Potato
Uhhhh
so LR = DX is a basis?
i am super fucking confused
trying to go between what jacobson is stating and what you are
I remember doing this stuff in third year ug
Would’ve been fun if I didn’t have to compute SN form by hand
i mean I did it for the matricies given but got stuck on the second one
Just using elementary invertible column and row operations
We’re in U(n) it had better be diagonalisable
i think like yeah $\prod_{i=1}^n (1-tx_i) = \sum_{k =0}^n (-1)^k e_k t^k$ and then uhhh how do you get the identities
Prismatic Potato
but the problem is
it doesn't generalize apparently
I think ur meant to take 1/ everything lmao
and you have to use Bezout property and IDFK how
In general I don't think you can write out every invertible matrix as a product of elementary matricies
SN form uses bezout’s everywhere
it seems to be a Euclidean ring quirk where that is true
Yeah
Doesn't even hold over PIDs
which smith normal form calculation DOES use it
so idfk
if I just have to
allow a fourth type of elementary matrix
Appaaarently differentiate aand mess about lmao
in the standard gauss-jordan methods
Which makes sense given the ke_k
Trying to think of a way to actually like
describe this fourth type of elementary matrix
What the sigma is going on
The matrices in SN don’t even have to be invertible dawg
The matrix in the last question will have a kernel of rank 1
Sorry, 2
Ok? Who gives a shit
The matrix you start with doesn’t need to be invertible
Ur opps are elementary atm
and I am trying to describe a fourth type of elementary op that incorperates the Bezout Lemma
U mean multiplying a row by a number
If this is really bothering you just solve them as a set of simultaneous equations like ur in highschool lol
Should work
Messy as fuck and I'll only be more screwed over in the next section
It’s the same algorithm you’re just putting the coefficients into a matrix I don’t get it
you can't just scale a row/column by a nonunit willy nilly
you can add a scaled row/column
Uhhhhh yeah u can actually
nonzero determinant?????
I’m kinda crazy like that I’m kinda insaneeeee
I might even make the matrix bigger for no reason who’s gonna stop me
Like ok it’s nice that the matrices turn out to be invertible but u should just try and diagonalise it all costs
Who cares just get it in the diagonal form
Let M be the relator matrix, then we have
R M C = D, where R is the composition of the row ops and C is the composition of the column ops, and D is the diagonal
jacobson says the matrix R M (C^-1)^-1 generates the submodules as the relation matrix relative to the basis vectors of C^-1?
so wouldn't RM be the basis then apparent fucking ly
R M C^-1^-1 or a I like to call it R M C
C^-1 = P is how Im stating it's instead relative to the basis of the INVERSE
for my own sanity because this is already confusing as it is
You’ve confused me about your confusion now
Is 2am so I’m just gonna once again reiterate. There is a algorithm. Use it.
There is a finite procedure with zero thought required that will generate you infinite explicit examples of this theorem. Use it
Do way more examples over Z
that defeats the fucking point of me trying to understand what I am doing
instead of just doing an algorithm willy nilly without knowing why
like the algorithm gives me a goddamn diagonal sure
but idfk how to find a matrix off of that given what jacobson states
USE IT FOR WHAT DUDE
I have a diagonal matrix cool yeah wtf am I supposed to do with it
i have a huge tension headache now so i am going to sleep

A monoid represents the endomorphisms of an object in an arbitrary category, under composition.
A group represents the automorphisms of an object in an arbitrary category, under composition.
Do abelian groups represent anything in this sense too ?
That is a good question. I've wondered about this a lot and haven't found a satisfying answer yet. One thing you can see is that it turns out that abelian groups are the same thing as group objects in the monoidal category of groups with cartesian product. But I don't think that's very satisfying or explains their importance very well
I doubt there could be something like this.
Like being an automorphism is a specific property of a morphism. But a group being abelian is more of a global property. There's nothing that could set something that's an element of an abelian group apart, because every element of a group is also an element of an abelian subgroup.
Of course you can cook up some abelian groups associated to an object if you want though. Like the center of the automorphism group for example.
Also minor quibble but I wouldn't rly say represents here - I assume you essentially mean the "endos naturally form a monoid"
Unless I misunderstand
Another perspective is that when you're concerned with endomorphisms, you're really thinking about how monoids / groups acts on objects.
But the action of abelian groups is not really significantly different from general group actions. Abelian groups are more prevelant as the thing being acted on (i.e. modules)
Hello everyone, I have a quick question. Why isn’t the ideal $\mathbb{Z} \oplus 0 $ of the ring \mathbb {Z} \oplus \mathbb {Z} a free \mathbb {Z} \oplus \mathbb {Z} module? Isn’t (1,0) a basis of it?
(1,1)*(1,0) = (1,0)*(1,0) so there is no uniqueness
Moreover {(1,0)} isn't linearly independent
Since over Z oplus Z you have non trivial (0,1).(1,0) = (0,0)
Oh yeah you’re right I forgot about uniqueness
This means that the anhilator of (1,0) is non zero right?
But what do you mean it’s not linearly independent. If it’s one vector, how can it be linearly dependent?
Well it's not a vector, which is how
I gave an example of $r.(1,0) = 0_R$ where $r$ was not $0_R$
Edward II
Where in this case $0_R$ is $(0,0)$
Edward II
Hmmm okay I think I got it, thanks!
And I mean Z oplus Z by R
Might be stupid but can we see (1,0) in another way like (1) oplus (0) right?
And you showed that (1) and (0) are linearly dependent? That’s what’s happening here?
idk what you mean
Yeah tbh I don’t know how to express it. Don’t worry I think I got it
So whenever a certain finite set like (1,0) here contains the 0 element of the module it can never be a basis right?
{(1,0)} doesn't contain the 0 element
It has a nonzero linear combination that gives 0
That is what it means not to be linearly independent
Is there a natural way to define A_\infty?
Like we can define S_\infty as the permutation group of a countably infinitely set
If you take S_infty to be the union of all the symmetric groups - which is to say, permutations of N with finite support - then A_infty is the obvious thing inside that.
This is more often what people refer to as S_infty
Except I don’t want to do that (I’ve already thought about it and that’s an easy case)
MO is saying there is none, but just stated as a fact in the question
https://eudml.org/doc/217873
Reference, apparently
You could still define the subset of permutations that are a finite even amount of transpositions away from the identity. Idk if that's natural or useful though
That’s just the direct limit of S_n
Is there any particular reason why you want to define something like this?
i have a question regarding krulls principal ideal theorem and dimension theorem
in the dimension theorem: can we start the induction with the empty generated ideal?
in the principal ideal theorem if (x) isnt a unit or a zerodivisor, and p is a minimal prime ideal over (x) then hight(p) = 1
ht(p) leq 1 is clear by the dimension theorem but i dont get the hight of p is bigger then 0
Because I want to
what is the connection between units and invertible Elements?
isnt it just unit only if when its also invertible?
per definition
A unit is an invertible element basically. But there are also left and right exclusive units
Ones which have a right inverse or a left inverse (like retractions and sections for the function analogues)
ahh ok tyyy
clubsoda14
Am I doing this right? Seems kind of fishy to me
I don't even know that by showing this I answered the question
What is Hom_F(F, F)? F-Vector space homomorphisms?
Yes
You want to show that given an endomorphism T, T(v)=alpha*v for some alpha
Not show that T(v)=alpha*v is a endomorphism
Can you think of any nice basis for F as a F-vector space?
Yes, that is a very good basis
Well
I'm just having trouble seeing why, in this problem, its necessary that I find a nice basis
I don't have that intuition
Do you know about any relation between linear maps and bases?
No
But given a basis of a vector space V
And another vector space W
Linear maps from V to W correspond bijectively to functions from the basis of V to W
This is a very important proposition of linear algebra
Okay I should have probably mentioned
I've taken two semesters of abstract algebra
But its probably safer for you to assume I've had 0 linear algebra
I took it a very long time ago and I don't remember the basics
That's unfortunate
Yea...
viewing F as a dimension 1 vector space over itself, you can write every element f in F as 1 * f
more generally, for any non-zero element b of F, {b} will be a basis for F as a dimension 1 vector space over itself
this is really all you need
as a suggestive hint, break it into two cases:
either T(1) = 0 or T(1) != 0
Sorry, misread
all good LOL
Not sure why cases are necessary here
they arent
its just to set up for use of this.
its not the slickest way to go about it
I’m not sure bases are necessarily how I’d think about this either
The idea of a basis is not necessary here yeah lol
There are kind of two separate Qs here
Unless you are seeking to generalize to like
Dual of direct sum is direct product of duals
sorta business
- If T(v) = alpha*v for some alpha, how can we find alpha using T?
- How can you show that any T : F -> F takes the form T(v) = alpha*v for some alpha?
did I not show 2) in my proof
What was your proof
this
That’s not a proof of “2”
You’ve shown that, for any alpha in F, the map sending v to alpha*v is linear
But this isn’t what I’m asking with 2
i see
“2” is essentially the following statement
$\forall T : F \to F \text{ linear, } \exists \alpha \in F \text{ such that } T(v) = \alpha \times v \space \forall v \in F$
Pseudonium
@nimble folio if T is linear, then what is T(xy)?
Yes!
Yeah that’s right
Wait
x and y are BOTH vectors and scalars
Why is it not xyT(1) then
It is lol
Wtfffffff
Yep
But the vectors are the scalars
Thats so weird
Wait before you guys continue to hold my hand through this problem can I post what I've written
Im working on a whiteboard
(This trick is called “applying the yoneda lemma”)
Blackboards are too if the chalk isn’t like writing with a chunk of granite
Morita
Let $\alpha \in F$, $\alpha \neq 0$. Then ${ \alpha}$ forms a basis for $F$ (as an $F$ v.s.).
Let $v \in F$. Then $v = \alpha v_0$ for some $v_0 \in F$.
Hence $T(v) = T(\alpha v_0) = \alpha T(v_0) $
clubsoda14
No but I'd still like to know for pedagogical reasons
Literally it’s me just magically interpreting set builder notation that wasn’t there
The biggest problem with making something foolproof is underestimating the ingenuity of complete fools
~Douglas Adams
Ok....
Im just gonna say
I don't fully understand why I was able to write v = a v_0
Im guessing its since {a} forms a basis and so every element of F can be written as a linear combination of the basis
Yes
Ok
y = (yx^-1)x
But that doesn’t help us determine that T(x) = ax, just that T(x)= (x \alpha)^-1 T(\alpha).
but \alpha^-1 is a scalar, so what can you do with it?
You can pull it out
T(x) = xT(1)
:3
And there you go
And T(1) is just an arbitrary scalar Im guessing
T(1) UNIQUELY determines T
It’s an element of F
Woah
Think about if F(1) = T(1)
Yes
The idea is that F has a multiplication
I just got flashbacks from group theory
So given an element a of F
You can ask what it “does” to other elements of F
So you can look at the function f(x) = a*x
You’ve converted a, an element of F, into a function F -> F
You can also go in reverse - if you know what an element “does” you can deduce what it “is”
And the way you do this is by “following the identity” element for multiplication
You follow where 1 gets sent, and that gives you a, since f(1) = a * 1 = a
Of course, if g : F -> F is any function, you can always find whatever g(1) is
But there’s no reason to expect that g(1) determines all of g
This leads to an approach to show that the F-linear endomorphisms of F^n (maps to itself) are matrices, a vector space over the matrices who are 1 in one spot and 0 elsewhere
It turns out that if g is linear, then g(1) does determine all of g
Like constructively
Simple consequences of “functions equal over generators are equal”
So essentially, one thing that identity elements are useful for is allowing you to convert from “does” to “is”
And if you have a general function, there’s usually some analog of linearity you have to impose so that “following the identity” really gets you the whole function
Which in a sense is the “is” to “does” direction
Im so sorry
I don't understnad whats happening here
T(v) = T(a v_0)
yes but what is a
How do I get to T(v) = (v a)^{-1} T(a) ?
Trust me it happens
I promise I'll read your guy's explanations after the fact
I was close to slamming my head on my desk yesterday due to my intro alg textbook
oh?
The end of it
okay
I think i figured it out
its really confusing since these are F-vector spaces over F
am i just able to decide what I want to behave as a "vector" and what I want to be able to behave as a "scalar"
$T(v) = T(\alpha v_0) = \alpha T(v_0) = v v_0^{-1} T(v_0) = v T(v_0^{-1} v_0) = vT(1)$
clubsoda14
Shit gets conceptually fucky at first when your base scalar ring/field can be embedded right into your module / vector space
Yea thanks guys I appreciate it
I'm gonna reread the cool explanations you gave after the fact I just had to figure out what was going on
It takes a bit sometimes also to get used to the difference between inclusions and embeddings
Like an injective map from A to B let’s you say that “A is a subset of B” via A’s image but
You can have many other embeddings (especially with automorphisms of B) of A into B
Thats cool
Not quite sure what the difference between inclusions and embeddings are but I'll look it up
Dude it took me eons to process
I don't even know what an embedding is LOL
An injective map
I say map because we want it to respect some structure
Oh
Exactly, an inclusion is being a “subset” of another
Ohhhhh
Like R is a subset of C (inclusion) But R can be embedded into R^2 via x to (x,0) OR (0,x)
Okay
I think I understand
Its like
If $A$ is just a set contained in a $B$, but $B$ has added structure (like if it were a group), then $A \subseteq B$ is just an inclusion
clubsoda14
It is still an inclusion,
Like an injection is an embedding of sets
But if A is a subset of B that doesn’t mean it necessarily is the ONLY way it embeds
Like for instance, the evens are included in the naturals right
Yes
But the evens are bijective to the naturals, so the naturals embed into themselves
And sending the evens to the odds within the naturals by adding one is also an embedding
Namely the IMAGE is included
sometimes it is a canonical embedding, or a “special” one
Like a ring R into it’s polynomial ring R[X]
But that’s because that inclusion is critical to how R[X] behaves
I'm gonna have to really think about this more
Maybe we'll talk about it in my analysis class
It’s funny because you’re basically ridding yourself of what you’ve expected to be concrete
Slowly you just accept what you see and see how it’s useful and why, and work with it
It’s complicated but you get used to it
It’s like learning a different way to think or a different framework
Oddly similar to object oriented programming
Which made me understand category theory a LOT better and vice versa
Unsurprising because programming is very similar
The problem is though sometimes you get used to these frameworks and start craving generality and understanding exactly why things happen which is frankly a luxury in algebra lol. Sometimes there is insight to dropping the specifics
I was super enthralled by an alternative way of handling Galois theory (Jacobson-Bourbaki) and frankly it makes more sense but takes a bit more effort
Also helping me understand the structure of modules and endomorphisms
Yeah so for example, A being a subgroup of B is the same as saying the inclusion map A -> B is a group homomorphism
Find integers solution of x^2-2y^2=+-1
To solve this problem I should use ring theory apparently
Anyone manages to do it?
consider Z[sqrt(2)]
:/?
You can identify the integer solutions of this equation with the units of some ring
I think you can prove that every element of a minimal prime is a zero divisor.
If your ring is Noetherian then localizing gives an artinian local ring, so then it's straight forward. But it should be true in general as well.
Hmm, yeah I guess the argument generalizes quite nicely. If you have a dimension 0 local ring, and a non-unit that is not nilpotent, then you can invert that element and get a non-zero ring. But any ring has a maximal ideal, so then there would be a prime properly contained in your height 0 prime
Our lecture notes says that if R is a division ring then 0 is the only nilpotent element. Isn't this true even if R is an integral domain?
Division rings are not integral domains. But it is true for domains, yes
Domains are like integral domains but without the commutativity requirement
Oh, right, forgot about commutativity. Thanks 👍
If x was nilpotent then x^n=0 for n>1 so x(x^(n-1))=0. If x^(n-1) is not 0, then x is a zerodivisor. Else use induction until base case xx=0
Also should be noted there are non-domains without nilpotent elements like Z/6Z
Yep, that was the proof I found too (assuming you meant x^(n-1))
Oops, of course
Not being a zero divisor means multiplication by x is injective, and the composition of injective maps is injective
Lol
True, that is a nice perspective
In general such rings are called reduced
I see. Is there a concept of elements in a ring for which a^n = 1 for some number n? Since we have both the characteristic and nilpotency which talk about how elements return the additive identity after some number of operations
Torsion usually
But that implies that a is a unit
So yeah it’s torsion within the group of units