#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 266 of 1
Not yet, we have the Inverse Galois Problem for example. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_Galois_problem
right right i've some reading queued up on this
glad i made it here
so i'm wondering how it follows that ker(phi) is a normal subgroup
guys, can you help me?
If I have a group of order 4p and it is not simple, how can I show it is a solvable group? I mean, the approach. Because I have no ideia
I know that a group of order pq (p and q prime numbers) is solvable, but this does not help me
Take a normal subgroup
(proper)
It has to he solvable
And the quotient has to be solvable
ok I will think about it
thank you very much!
I've got everything except f is irreducible
I've ruled out the possibility that a = p, b = p^2, p prime
But if that's not the case idk how to apply Eisenstein for example
sorry my bad i meant to ask why is it non trivial
like how does the 11 and 8! argument work/help
have you tried the rational root theorem? I don't see how the gcd nonsense would come into that though
G / ker is a subgroup of S8 is what that argument needs @median pawn
Yea I got nothing from that
ahh cool! thanks
If you wanna be really concrete assume ker is trivial and go from there
I'm dreadful at ENT so I couldn't tell you what that gcd condition is giving us
that if p^2|a then p cannot divide b and vice versa?
like ok?
I'm also dreadful lol
these sorts of questions just require a way of thinking I do not possess
isn't it irreducible by Eisenstein
is it?
if p^2 divides a then we know p^2 doesn't divide b
I've been trying but how
if it were that simple then why have they given a paragraph of nonsense
what if you can't find p such that p^2 divides a?
then a would have to be a factor of b
no?
a = 3 x 2 and b = 3 x 5
gcd(a,b) = 3, can't find p such that p^2 divides a
that's probably the obstacle
I guess the problem is that b could be divisible by gcd(a,b)^2. But in that case maybe you can contradict that the discriminant is a square?
good point tbf
you don't need p^2 to divide a
Been trying that for a while but couldn't find a suitable contradiction
oopsie
If this comes up on my qual I'm cooked
but yeah this seems to be the move
Ya and in particular we have an odd prime
If that helps
what's that stupid result about roots mod p
¿
same
yeah, it does help
I think you can just write things down, but I can try to write it to make sure I'm not yapping
So you mean b?
||Let g=gcd(a,b). If you can't apply Eisenstein is because g^2 divides b. Say a=gx, b=g^2y then 4g^3x^3-27g^4y^2=g^3(4x^3-27gb^2) should be a square. This means that g should divide 4x^3-27gb^2, but then g divides 4x^3. g and x are coprime (because g is square-free), and g>2||
here you mean the quotient is abelian, right?!
abelian implies solvable
oh no, it is indeed solvable
sorry
yeah this seems correct. But what does this get us
that f(x) is irreducible
like is it a contradiction?
ok it is
mfs who can solve these questions always impress me way more than mfs who waffle on about abstract nonsense
to show that the Galois group is Z/3Z I believe you just need that the discriminant is a square
@barren sierra hint: ||Maybe try proving in general that if F is a field of char!=2, P in F[x] is irreducible of degree n and with discriminant a square then the Galois group is a subgroup of A_n||
Ahhh interesting
oooh
More like just a “twisted” semidirect product
So I have been solving problems from the rings chapter and the geometric series came up. I know the sum of geometric series is $1+q+q^2 + \dots = (1-q)^{-1}$ But that only holds for $|q| < 1$. Why can we use this result in abstract algebra if q is some element of the ring and in ring I don't have ordering (as far as ik)
OHHELLNAH
Where are you using the result?
(I suspect you may be using it in a case where that sum is actually finite)
Because in rings there are only finite sums, not infinite sums
You need a topological ring or something like that to talk about infinite sums. Or, you can also make sense of this particular thing in a ring of power series because the elements are formal infinite sums.
So first problem was to show:
$x$ nilpotent element of the ring $\Rightarrow (1-x)$ is invertible
And here the result is nice cause in geometric formula x^n = 0.
But the next one is $1-xy$ invertible $\iff 1-yx$ invertible. I could not solve it and I found this (https://mathoverflow.net/questions/31595/how-would-you-solve-this-tantalizing-halmos-problem) and he used the infinite geometric series
OHHELLNAH
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For the nilpotent one, the sum is actually finite so it doesn’t matter
Yes
I don't understand sorry
Yeah, for the latter it’s kinda “extend to a formal power series esque ring, it holds there, so it holds in the ring”
Yea modifying my proof for the n = 3 case was easy for the general n case
What does something like 1+2+3+4+... mean?
-1/12
"formal sum"? but idk what that means just that ig. I know it doesn't have a value
Exactly, it has no meaning for rings in general
Rings only tell you how to do finite sums
To define "infinite sums" you need more than just a ring
The infinite sum is more of a tool to guess what the solution should be, rather than something actually need for the argument.
Alternatively, you could think of it like, imagine xy was nilpotent, what would the inverse of 1-yx be then? Does that also work if it's not nilpotent? Great, you're good to go
Yeah okk, I buy that
Like if z is the the inverse of 1-xy.
(1 + yzx)(1 - yx) = 1 - yx + yzx - yzxyx = 1 - yx + y(z - zxy)x = 1 - yx + yz(1 - xy)x = 1 - yx + yx = 1
No infinite sum needed, except for how would you guess that 1 + yzx is the solution
You get that equality by considering a power series and showing that (1-q) has a power series inverse the geometric series. The power series is a polynomial when q is nilpotent so it actually makes sense in the ring
You can make this precise by dealing with topologies for the ring and using the universal property of a power series ring and the fact that the (q)-adic topology is complete because q is nilpotent
I think it’s most natural to go through \bC
Yes
Yeh
Let M be a module over commutative ring R. Then the tensor algebra T_R(M) is a graded ring (R-algebra). If J is a homogenous ideal of T_R(M) disjoint from M, then does the quotient algebra T_R(M)/J have the property that each linear endomorphism of M allows endomorphisms of the n-th levels / modules of the quotient algebra?
i am quite fond of this book (allan clark) but it could be a bit more explicit about some things, like this :S
I don’t think this is true because you would need some sort of condition like having that the endomorphism preserves J\cap M right?
Like just thinking on the part of the tensor algebra in degree 1
I said it’s disjoint from M
Well
Trivial intersection ofc
Well I can impose the condition that it fixes the intersection to generalize it a bit, thanks
Oop
${(x,y,z)\in \mathbb{R}^3 | x=y=z^2 }$ This is a set which is not a vector space over field $\mathbb{R}$.
In my book it says this set is a vector space over field $\mathbb{Z}_2$. But this set has elements $(x,y,z)\in \mathbb{R}^3$, so when say over field $\mathbb{Z}_2$ does the definition of the set change to $(x,y,z)\in \mathbb{Z}_2^3$?
OHHELLNAH
Yes
the proof for this feels like cheating 
assuming a is a complex root of the pol f with real coefficients, then we use that f(a) = 0 = conj 0 = conj (f(a)) = (conj f)(conj a) = f(conj a)
This is how it goes
This is something pretty unique to R and C and requires the analytic parts
Agree! And it begs the question (or even proves?) whether complex conjugation is the only function that distributes over addition and multiplication
That doesn't sound right, but those are the only properties we use, right?
there are other ones
They are not well behaved though
Over a commutative ring R, is a set of elements linearly independent iff the annihilator of the collection of all finite wedge products of elements in the set is trivial
Ah, we also use the fact that the reals are unchanged under conjugation. And presumably this property along with distributivity uniquely characterizes complex conjugation
Thats basically like saying that the galois group of ℂ/ℝ has one nontrivial element (i.e. order two)
Which is indeed true
(and you're right in that you need to fix the reals)
For a proof of that just use the fact that f(i)²+1=0 if f is such a function
I haven't done galois theory yet, but that sounds interesting!
I see. If 0 is absorbing than by your argument 0=1 so 1 is absorbing and then from there it follows the entire semifield is a single element. Thanks!
What’s the easiest way to show that there exists an $r : r \bigwedge_{n = 1}^{N}{m_n} = 0$ if and only if the $m_n$ are linearly dependent for general modules over a commutative ring
The Library of Babble
I keep coming back to this article and it feels flat out wrong
because multiplication by R is NOT an R-Endomorphism

I don’t think by itself you can say anything about D besides it being a division ring
Multiplication by R on the right is a D-endomorphism
(where you see U as a left D-module)
Well yes I know that but how can you say anything else about D itself
As i said besides D being a division ring
That depends on R i guess
(i dont know if there's something specific you want since you seem to be mentioning previous discussion)
In mathematics, more specifically non-commutative ring theory, modern algebra, and module theory, the Jacobson density theorem is a theorem concerning simple modules over a ring R.
The theorem can be applied to show that any primitive ring can be viewed as a "dense" subring of the ring of linear transformations of a vector space. This theorem fi...
Several parts of this page feel wrong
Such as?
This should be DX i guess
No like conceptually
Everything else seems fine
This part is seems faulty
Why
I still don’t see how you can say anything about it being in the span of D
Without other assumptions on the ring R
Assuming the density theorem is true, do you see why this makes sense? (I agree that the theorem in itself is quite a surprising result)
The density theorem doesn’t make sense to me because we are using statements about the simplicity of the module to state more info about the endo ring
If x and y are linearly independent then their annihilators have trivial intersection
But that’s D-linear independence
Not R-linear
What the theorem says is basically saying that the action of R on X as D-endomorphisms is basically the same as the action of the whole End_D(X) ring
If R were just End_D(X) then this would be trivial linear algebra, wouldn't it?
I hate the right module thing ngl
Because thus far I tend to just assume U is an End_Z(U) module, which gives it both the structure of an End_R(U) and R module
They just commute, and End_D(U) is the double commutator of R
It’s just I’m unsure how to logically assert stuff about D as I said
Like for instance
Assume x and y in U are D-linearly independent
This is the reference they give btw
Well, U is a simple R-module
Well I know that lol
So you know R acts "transitively" on it
Yes, it’s cyclic (but not necessarily faithful unless R is primitive)
This means you might expect R to be quite a large subring of End_D(U) (and the theorem quantifies this "large")
For artinian rings you can conclude that it’s actually equal from this theorem
Which was my end goal
Well then i dont get what the issue is
This is a consequence of the density theorem (if R acts like the whole End_D(U) ring then given a bunch of vectors you can find an element of R which kills all but one of them, given the one it does not kill is linearly independent from the others)
And the density theorem is true because it is (again, quite surprising to me and the proof kinda reflects that - not very insightful, more of a "manipulation" type of proof if you know what i mean)
It's probably better if you've seen some examples
If R is a finite dimensional k-algebra for algebraically closed k then you get D=k
So it's basically a statement about rings of matrices
(if you've done some representation theory this should ring a bell)
Like here’s what I mean
Let’s say for a general module M instead viewed as a map from R to End(M) by left multiplication (where M is an abelian group)
then the centralizer of R is End_R(M) (additive maps where we can factor out R)
So by that logic, any central element of R is also an endomorphism by left multiplication
Yes, but there might be more (since the centralizer might be small)
Wdym
Centralizer of R_l is by definition End_R(M)
Centralizer of centralizer of R contains R but might be larger
Well yes ofc
But my point is
We are narrowing down our scope here
To considering D-linearly independent sets, namely their annihilators
For artinian rings, ofc gives us the fact that descending ideals (annihilators) terminate so we can extend our conclusion to all of R
No longer bothering me
Nice
I am more comfortable with rings evidently
So just handling it within the scope of End(M) helps me
You can handle it absurdly if you tried to force A to commute with some r
What is the unit group of $\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-5}]$
a.b.s._.0.
I feel like it’s only {-1, 1} but I am having trouble proving it
Hm
That’s nice
Curious, is there a more algebraic way to see it
Like Z —> Z[x] —> Z[x]/(x^2 + 5) type of thing
idk
You mean: An element a/b is invertible in the subring iff 1/a is in the subring iff a/1 is invertible. So if we consider all these elements in Z, they form a multiplicative system S such that xy in S implies x and y in S. The complement of them is closed under multiplication by ring elements and if two elements are not in S their product will not be in S?
So the complement of S seems to be related to prime ideals, but I dont know exactly how. I could look it up, but If I dont have a long way to go to the answer, I would like a hint.
Show that a finite-dimensional complex algebra A without zero divisors is 1-dimensional.
How do I solve this?
Rn im thinking about vector space R^2 over C and yeah if I look at complex numbers as vectors then multiplying them can give you 1 dimension...
How did you define complex algebra?
When we say complex or real algebra we mean algebra over the field C or R
Right, how do you define algebra?
And i guess finite-dimensional would mean that the vector space (V,+,x) is finite dimensional
Algebra is a vector space with inner multiplication
Do cyclic rotation groups always have an odd number of sides?
or idk if that the correct term but that and the proprety x(uv) = (xu)v = u(xv)
What do you mean by sides?
Yeah but that is a requirement for a vector space
sorry, not sides, vertices
something like this:
where we have only rotational symmetry, no reflective
oh, i just answered my own question
Sorry that was a mistake. You don't require associativity or unitality?
but what about this shape makes it only have rotational symmetry?
There are shapes with only rotational and not reflective symmetry, yes
i can tell by looking at it, but it's just intuition
Ok so with these labels:
F field, A a set
x: scalar multiplication F x A -> A
*: multiplication A x A -> A
+: addition A x A -> A
A is algebra over F if
(A,+,x) is vector space
(A,+,*) is a ring
for all x in F and u,v in A: x(uv) = (xu)v = u(xv)
I guess associativity and unitality comes with the ring
Do you require your rings to have identity?
Alright
So let A be a finite-dimensional complex algebra
What can you say about it when the dimension is 1?
OHHELLNAH
for all a actually
and it will be a = a1
So you can say that as a vector space A = C
Okk yeah
Can you say what will the vector product be?
I don't know about your shape, but maybe it's easier to prove it for a shape like this (hopefully it's clear what I mean by this drawing).
It will be the same as scalar multiplication?
Up to isomorphism, I believe so
Anyway, let A be a complex algebra of dimension >1 now
im not really struggling with the idea that shapes can have only rotational symmetry, i am just wondering if there is a proof somewhere i could look at or if someone here knew the reason. i tried searching for something like this, but the results were somewhat obscure. if you google rotational symmetry there are a lot of different results.
If you look at my drawing, any reflection that doesn't align with the two arms will send the arms somewhere where there is not arm. And if the reflection aligns with the arms, the hands will become upside down
Any complex algebra of dimension >0 will have a copy of the complex numbers, which we will identify with C. Pick some x outside C. Then C and x generate a subalgebra B of A
So if the dimension is n then x is a vector from C^{n-1}?
x is a vector from A
if the dimension is n, you can see A as having underlying vector space C^n not C^{n-1}
Ok I see, so then this subalgebra B is one dimensional
It's not
It would only be one dimensional if x was in C
Since x is outside C, 1 and x are linearly independent
So it is at least 2 dimensional
(it could be more, it could happen that 1, x and x^2 are all linearly independent for example)
Oh sorry, I thought we are talking about the product Cx.
We are talking about the subalgebra of A generated by C and {x}
(Actually we can just say generated by x since we are talking about unital algebras so C will automatically be there too)
so x is just an element of A
Ok wait this is in my brain idk if its right:
x = [c_1,c_2,c_3 ... c_n] if A is n dimensional. and x would be in C if all components are the same
So x is just some element where at least 2 components are different
components depend on a choice of basis
for example, if your basis contains 1, that is not true
I don't think it's useful to think about this in terms of basis rn
Could you show me how x outside C looks like in an example
I think it might help me cuz rn idk what is x
Well, since we'll need this for later. Consider the following "cyclic" C-algebra
$\frac{\mathbb C[x]}{(x^2)}$
Bequi
Does this notation make sense to you?
You don't know about quotients of rings?
No
It's very weird that you're doing stuff about algebras without knowing basic ring theory..
Well, hmm, you at least know what polynomial rings are, right?
Well this is a chapter called "introduction to ring theory" and its just definitions and some examples and then fermat little theorem
next is homomorphisms and then quotients
Which book is it?
Well its not a published book yet but its a book my professor is writing but its not in english
This might not be the intended way to prove this, but its an adaptation of what I was going to say without directly mentioning quotients
For an example of a complex algebra. Consider the polynomials in one variable with coefficients in C
Does it make sense that that is a complex algebra?
Yep
I won't be using it, but the idea of what I am doing could be explained using the algebra of complex polynomials and quotients of that
Anyway, again, let A be a finite dimentional complex algebra
And x an element of A outside of C
And consider the subalgebra C(x) of A generated by x
The elements of C(x) will be everything obtainable by evaluating polynomials in x with coefficients in the complex numbers
Does this make sense?
That is always just C?
No
Maybe my phrasing was not the clearest
I'm not replacing the x by complex numbers
It doesn't have to lie in C
Then what?
It doesn't need to be an integral domain
By itself
Like you have your element x
You can do stuff like i*x^2
You will get a new element on your algebra
All the ways you can use the operations on your algebra to obtain new elements from x
Is the subalgebra generated by x
And those ways are called polynomials
Depending on your x, it could satisfy something like x = x^2
That's what I mean by evaluating your polynomial
as polynomials, x and x^2 are different
But as elements of your subalgebra, it might be that x = x^2
(It's not obvious a priori because your algebra could be noncommutative but it turns out that singly generated algebras are always commutative)
x is just a symbol that we are adding to a set to form a new structure
Hey Boytije, do you know a way to prove this without using quotients of rings?
OHHELLNAH doesn't know about quotients yet apparently
I was trying to rephrase it without directly using the word quotient but seems a bit messy and confusing for him so maybe my approach is not the best
Thank you a lot for helping me, Ill take some time to re-read the things about ring polynomials and look what you said again, cause now i don't wanna waste anyone time
Basically the idea (for the way I'd prove it) is
Let α be an element of your algebra outside of C (using a different letter so that maybe that's less confusing)
If the algebra C(α) generated by α has vector basis (1,α), it means α^2 = x+yα so α satisfies a polynomial equation
If not, then α^2 is linearly independent from (1,α)
So we ask again if (1,α,α^2) is a basis
We can't keep going forever because our algebra is finite dimensional (subspaces of finitely generated spaces are finitely generated. We are also using that C(α) is commutative, else there could be a non-polynomial way to obtain new elements. It turns out that algebras over a field generated by a single element are commutative and it's not hard to prove it but this is already long.)
Therefore we will have some basis (1, α, .., α^n)
So α^(n+1) = c_0 + c_1α + ... + c_n α^n
Therefore α satisfies some polynomial equation!
To be precise, it satisfies x^(n+1) - c_n x^n - ... - c_1x - c_0
But C is an algebraically closed field
Therefore this already had n+1 complex solutions
So it now has at least n+2 complex solutions (x is a new one)
Therefore C(α) is not an integral domain
Therefore it has a zero divisor
Therefore since A contains C(α), it also has a zero divisor.
@rain grove Idk if this is helpful and maybe there's a more elementary way to prove it I don't know of that your professor intended. And don't worry, you're not wasting anyone's time, I'm here because I like talking about math :)
I think you can sidestep it quite easily.
Like take x some element in your algebra and consider
1, x, x^2, ...
Since the algebra is finite dimensional, these most be linearly dependent. So there is a polynomial f with f(x) = 0. And take f to be of smallest degree.
If f has degree > 1, then f = gh for polynomials of smaller degree, and then 0 = f(x) = g(x)h(x), so g(x) is a zero-divisor.
I guess this is what you already said
Yeah, you wrote it much more concisely and cleanly tho
Is there anything that can be said about uncomplexifying an algebra over the complex numbers?
For instance, $M(2, \Bbb C)$ uncomplexifies to $\mathbb H$ or $M(2, \Bbb R)$.
wlad 🌻
Let $R$ be a topological ring. Let $C$ be the space of all sequences in $R$ that converge. What more I need so that $\lim:C\rightarrow R:(x_{i})\mapsto \lim_{i\rightarrow \infty}x_{i}$ continuous?
J
That is not a function unless every sequence converges uniquely
And what topology are you putting on C?
J
Ok that is true, we do have convergence but not unique convergence. So let us assume that.
J
For a simple module
Is there a criterion that you can use to determine when there is an endomorphism sending x to y
maybe
It should always be possible, unless x=0
If one of x and y is zero then it's easy to determine, else ann(x)=ann(y)=ann(U), and so sending 1→x gives an isomorphism between R/ann(x) and U, do the same thing with y and them compose one of them with the inverse of the other to get an U→U isomorphism mapping x to y
Ah no this is just wrong
Ann(x)=Ann(y) is false in general (what is true is that both R/Ann(x) and R/Ann(y) are isomorphic to U as modules)
But you can save this
There should be an endomorphism sending x to y iff Ann(x)=Ann(y)
(in the case x,y≠0, at least)
Since automorphisms (i.e. non zero endomorphisms) preserve annihilators
Mattedy is correct that Ann(x) = Ann(y) works (at least if y is nonzero).
An equivalent condition that also works for y=0 is that for an r such that y = rx, you have that Ann(x)r is contained in Ann(x). (I'm assuming left modules)
I asked the professor and the way he intend it was with the endomoprhism L:A->A Lx = ax
Thanku! That makes sense
does anyone know of a good python library for dealing with groups?
I guess sagemath, though I guess it's a little more than a library
But you can run it like a normal library through conda I think
A symmetry transformation is an automorphism of the set
(Where automorphism is just bijective structure preserving, as usual)
that is significantly more meaningful ty
it will be rigorous once u define "action on a set" properly lol
What book is this?
this tbh, the wording is sus
lecture notes
he is a theoretical physicist in my maths dept
presumably this is the explanation for waffley definitions
Yea, this was extremely physicist-coded
wunderbar.....
That's why I asked
I can quickly define it now if you want
ngl i dont get why they ask physicists to teach pure maths courses
yes please wew
I don't either it's really dumb
That sounds like a super bad idea
like it makes perfect sense to get a maths dept theophys to teach maths student a qm module, but abstract algebra is used by pure and applied mathematicians so it shld default to pure
actually wait I don't need to define group actions in general for this
Let Sym(X) be the set of all bijections from a set X to itself, an action on X is just an element of this set 
the definition was so waffly I thought it was more general than it was 
how is a symmetry different to an action as you've defined it here?
an action isn't an actual thing in the physcists mind
you must understand that physcists dislike actually defining things
"Symmetry" is just a catch-all term for a group action by automorphisms, generally
What other kinds of group actions are there?
group actions that aren't explicitly described via an automorphism ig
Such as?
like I ain't writing out D_8 as pairs in C_2 and C_4
even though it's defined as a semidirect product
You can have a group action that doesn't preserve all of the existing structure
What is the canonical Lie group action on S^(n-1)?
It's just not very useful
I wouldn’t call that a group action
it's literally a map C_2 -> Aut(C_4)
idk what a group action is if it isn't that
Like I can have a group action on a group that doesn't act by group automorphisms
Hmm
shin's point is better anyway
left multiplication is only a set-wise automorphism but it's still an action
but I think it would be disingeuous to call it a symmetry of the group
it's like how you can have a group action on a pointed space that doesn't preserve the point but that is certainly not a symmetry of the space
It's an element of Sym(G) 
(or more generally, G-complexes vs complex with a G action)
so true bestie...
A group can act on itself by left/right multiplication or conjugation. Furthermore, it can act on its own subsets (which always preserves the sizes of these subsets) by multiplication
For instance, if you consider order / stabilizer of subsets of prime power sizes (where the prime power divides the order), we get the ideas from Sylow Theory
Let $A$ be a finite-dimensional algebra. Prove the following:
(a) Every nonzero element $a \in A$ is either a zero divisor or invertible.
(b) If $a \in A$ has a left (or right) inverse, then $a$ is invertible.
(c) If $A$ is a division ring, then every subalgebra of $A$ is a division ring
OHHELLNAH
Does this generalize a tad bit
Like to cyclic or finitely generated modules
Like assume we have cyclic left R-module U where Rx = U
Then for some element y, is it sufficient for y to be in the orbit of x under End_R(U) if Ann(x) is a subset of Ann(y)
So Rx = R/Ann(x), so a map taking x in Rx to y in Ry is just a map from R/Ann(x) to R/Ann(y) sending 1 to 1. This is well defined iff Ann(x) < Ann(y).
This comment is supposed to prove that if -1 is a quadratic residue modulo p, then p-1 is divisible by 4
I don't understand the second step. How can they just carelessly divide by 2?
Actually I can understand it if p is not odd and that's one of the assumptions.
But what about the last step
p-1 Is always equal to 2 times (p-1)/2
It is senseless to raise to a fractional power
But we are assuming p is odd so that's actually ok
Well the theorem is false if you allow p=2
Yes
So (p-1)/2 Is always an integer
Yeah, forget about that, I realised it after writting
Why does 1 = (-1)^{(p-1)/2} imply (p-1)/2 is even tho?
What is (-1)^k?
If G acts on X, is there a natural action for G x G on X x X?
just defining (g, g) (x, x) = (gx, gx)?
and if so, does it follow that Stab_(x, y)(G x G) is equal to Stab_x(G) x Stab_y(G)?
Yes
Nice
so then this means that product homogeneous spaces are naturally defined this way
I really hate to ummm aktually you here but it isn't
the thing you described is a G x G -set
X x Y with the diagonal action is the product of G sets
Ye
how does this transfer to the permutation representation
not very well I don't think
oh okay
disjoint union of G-sets corresponds to direct sums of G-reps
what are G reps?
composition of (G,G)-bisets is the tensor product
maybe there is a nice way of viewing it though there has to be
oh duh it's just the product of course it is
I was way overthinking it
sorry could you clarify
the corresponding permutation representation of the product of two G-sets is the direct product of the representations
i.e.
$R[X \times Y]\cong R[X] \times R[Y]$ as $R[G]$-modules
Wew Duck Tbh
Okay
Then also, of course if we have a haar measure on G then the natural haar measure on G x G is just the product measure.
R characteristic 0 btw
it should hold in positive characteristic but I'm scared
ok I'mma be real ur on your own now. I'm a character theorist
S^{n-1} is a homogeneous space, so we can write SO(n)/SO(n-1)
I do not deal with infinite groups
Oh okay haha
How much work do you actually need to do?
Set $A^n B^m \mapsto a^n b^m$, and then per that construction (obviously bijective) we have $\phi(A^n B^m) = a^n b^m = \phi(A^n) \phi (B^m)$.
Douglas
I was kinda expecting there to be more work involved but apparently not
What I would do is probably a bit more formal and something you won't have necessarily been taught (this is kinda the problem with working with presentations before formally defining them)
I'd say that reasonably works at the level you want given that you prove that A^3 = B^2 = E and AB = BA^2
What's your more formal method?
Working with free groups and quotients
Basically a lot of universal property mess, if I want to use the presentation given
I've seen quotient groups but not free groups
On the topic of quotients...
I'm not sure how to approach the final part of this, i.e. finding $H\setminus G$. I know that $H\setminus G={Hg | g\in G}$ but in the lecture notes the only examples are of finite groups, whereas this matrix group has got infinitely many elements so you can't just list it exhaustively in the way you might do with $S_3$ for example
Douglas
Maybe you can list it exhaustively ;)
It’ll take some thought but you can describe representatives of the cosets in a nice way
Essentially, if A, B are in the group, you want to consider when AB^-1 is in H
||So let A(l, m) be the matrix given at the top
Then A(l, m)^(-1) = A(1/l, -m/l^2)
So we want to know when A(l, m)A(k, n)^(-1) = A(b, 0)
Now we want A(l, m)A(1/k, -n/k^2) = A(b, 0)
So A(l/k, -nl/k^2 + m/k) = A(b, 0)
So nl = mk, or l/m = k/n
So we can pick a unique representative of the class where l = 1
Ie it is in bijection with the set A(1, m)||
(This looks messy, but it's the intuitive result we get by only caring about the matrix up to a constant multiple)
that looks good to me
Uh so I'm with you until penultimate line.
- Why are we setting l=1?
- Given that we have set l=1, are you saying that H\G is the set whose elements are those of the form H A(1,m)? H\G={H A(1,m) | m in R}
Uh so setting this allows you to take any element in G and then place it in exactly one coset depending on the upper right entry?
Yes
Okie, I think that makes more sense. I will try doing some practice questions along these lines to consolidate
is it true that $R/(a,b)\cong (R/(a))/(b)$?
inconspicuous old man & mime
trying to prove it but i wanna make sure im not on a wild goose chase proving something false
the map r+(a) -> r+(a,b) doesn't have any issues does it?
Yes
I’d do this with the universal property ig
im still rusty with rings. so like... what exactly does it mean for r+(a) to be in (b)? that r+(a)=b(r'+(a))?
What is C[a,b]?
okay yeah that makes a lot more sense
Polynomial ring
Could it mean something else if C is not $\mathbb{C}$ but just regular C?
OHHELLNAH
We'll need more context, I think.
Show that the ring C[a,b] has divisors of zero.
But C has no divisors of zero So ring of polynomials also has no divisors of zero right?
The generic hand-wavy meaning ought to be something like "the smallest ring that contains C (whatever that is) and a (whatever that is) and b (whatever that is)".
Not enough context yet. Scan upwards to find somewhere that explains what C and a and b are.
It could also be the ring of continuous functions from [a,b] into the reals or into the complex numbers
Oooh.
Ohh yess
I thought this referred to continuously différentiable functions on a, b
Ig I got sniped oop
That would probably be denoted C^1[a,b] instead
I'd have expected C([a,b]) for a function ring, but that makes sense.
Let $R$ be a ring, $U$ a left R-module. Assume we have two R-linear maps $\phi, \psi$ of $R^N$ to $U$, where $\mathrm{Ker}(\phi) \subseteq \mathrm{Ker}(\psi)$ and $\psi$ is endomorphic.
Does $\psi = \rho \circ \phi$ for some endomorphism$\rho$ of $U$?
The Library of Babble
so the example i'm working with is Z[x]/(bx-a,p(x)) which is apparently isomorphic to (Z[x]/I)/(p(x)+I) where I=(bx-a). if im not mistaken Z[x]/I is isomorphic to Z[a/b]. so what happens to the p(x)+I? (Z[x]/I)/(p(x)+I) is isomorphic to Z[a/b]/(?) what ideal are we quotienting?
What does endomorphic mean?
Rather incredibly, if C(R) is the ring of continuous functions of R to R, then a function is a zero divisor iff it's preimage of 0 is not nowhere dense
is it p(a/b)?
silly whacky proof
ty for this but this picture is enough for me
The idea is that f(x)g(x) = 0 iff whenever f(x) =/= 0, then g(x) = 0 and vice versa
yepp
It does not contain idempotent elements that are not 1 or 0?
f(x)(f(x)-1) = 0, but I can't find a non zero continuous function that satisfies this
I know that finitely generated groups are countable, but is the converse true?
If not what’s an easy example
I’d expect it to be false but I can’t think of something easy
The free group on countably many generators is countable since its elements are all finite words
For an abelian example: Q
if we have a constant n in the ideal J=(p(x),q(x)) of Z[x], then can we say Z[x]/J is isomorphic to Zn[x]/J? where we're abusing notation and J is like appropriately mapped into Zn[x]
Yea and I think you should be able to prove this with some work + isomorphism theorems
I was messing around and I think I stumbled on a proof but I wanted to sanity check. thanks ❤️
Let $R$ be a subring of $\mathbb C$, and let $U \subseteq R$ be the set of elements with norm 1. Is $U$ a group under multiplication?
a.b.s._.0.
I think this is true, but I’m not sure how to prove it
You just have to prove each of the group axioms
Inverses is the tricky part
The inverse is just the conjugate
But I can’t explain why the conjugate would need to be in the ring
If U is finite, then we’re done, since it’s multiplicatively closed and has identity
@mighty kiln
You can pick any transcendental element with norm 1 and generate a ring
Generate a ring by doing what?
Did you mean group
Under addition, subtraction, multiplication
Like smallest ring containing it?
Yea
What would that look like
The collection of values P(x) where P is an integer polynomial
And x is your transcendental element
?
Well if it has norm 1, add it to itself over and over
You get bigger norms
So it’s an unbounded subset of C
Why would its restriction to the unit circle not be a group
Well x has no multiplicative inverse
Ok I’m a bit rusty lol
I’m trying to think why
Wait but does this ring have 1? @mighty kiln
There’s no way right
Cuz then x wouldn’t be trans
Yea cuz constant polynomials
Oh 😭 that makes sense
implying x is algebraic
ahh ok hm
With this conversation I realize any subring of C must contain Z, and therefore be an extension of it
I wonder what kind of condition would be necessary and sufficient for U to be a group
yo guys
consider the free module Z^n over Z
and consider K to be the submodule generated by elements f_i, where f_i = sum(a_i,j*e_i)
e_i is the standard basis
such that det(a_i,j) !=0
why is |Z^n/K| = det(a_i,j)
|det(a_i,j)|*
do you mean f_j = sum_i(a_i,j*e_i)?
and what is meant by |Z^n / K|? It's possible the order of the group is finite or infinite
not sure what |det(a_i,j)|* means either
Any finitely generated abelian group is of this form, and the subgroup K is also finitely generated and free of a rank at most n. For example Z/2 has order 2, and is a quotient of n=1. The matrix defining is simply the number 2 but it is also the number -2. In absolute value these are the same.
oh wait not all finitely generated abelian groups have this such that the deterimant is nonzero
I guess I mean when adding enough elements to make it a square matrix
And it's certainly true if it's nonsingular that the quotient is a finite group, because tensoring with the field Q will always make it 0, and one applies the structure theorem for finitely generated abelian groups
And it is also easy to show by taking the quotient directly, for any upper triangular, that the order of that group is going to be the absolute value of the determinant, because that's the absolute value of the product along the diagonal values
of course also for lower triangular
Going from this to an arbitrary matrix feels tricky, maybe there's another approach
is this easy?
define R-->Rx with r-->rx then Rx is R/Ann(M)? Ann(M) being prime
idk where i used the fact that R is a pid tho, i really just used that its a domain
this is not true.
Ann(M) being prime
not so easily
or is it idk
i just remember proving b4 that M is simpple --> Ann(M) is prime so yeah
Rx is tho
Well PID => noetherian
So now assume that Ann(M) isn't prime
Then there is a, b such that a, b \notin Ann(M) but ab \in Ann(M)
So now consider the module M_1 = R(ax), which has <b, Ann(M)> \subset Ann(M_1)
Continuing in this way, we get a chain of ideals of R which must stabilise
Now what can we say about the "final" module?
Let x_n generate M_n
Suppose Ann(M_n) isn't prime, take a_n, b_n\notin Ann(M_n) but a_n b_n \in Ann(M_n)
Consider the module M_{n+1} = R(a_n x_n), which has <b, Ann(M_n)> \subset Ann(M_{n+1})
Then the chain of ideals is I_n = Ann(M_n), and x_{n+1} = a_n x_n
my groups lecturer says "one to one" and "onto"
i dont like this
"one to one" sounds like it means bijective but it actually means injective
and sticking to -jective means there's consistency
Isn't saying "$\psi$ is onto its image $\psi(G)$" somewhat tautological? Like uh, he's basically saying "were the range of $\psi$ to be $\psi(G)$, then it would be surjective", but that is literally just the definition of surjective
Douglas
It's trivial, but it is something that should be remarked upon
Hmmmm. And how does $\psi(G)\subset S_n$ work? If $\psi$ is an arbitrary element of $\mathrm{Perm}(G)$ and $\mathrm{Perm}(G)=S_n$, shouldn't $\psi(G)=S_n$?
Douglas
\psi isn't arbitrary
it's the permutation induced on the underlying set of G by some element of G
Right so something like $\chi_g (h)=g h g\inv$ would be in $S_n$ but is clearly not in general an element of $\psi(G)$?
Douglas
Yes
(Under the identification of S_n with Perm(G))
Well, under a chosen identification of the two
Wdym? If G is a group of order n, isn't S_n always equal to Perm(G)?
Becuase the permutations are bijections from G to G, and that is equivalent to reordering its elements
There is a (set of) non-canonical bijection(s) between the two
Because you need to choose a numbering of the elements of G to get an identification of S_n with Perm(G)
does a group have to be nonempty?
The axiom of neutral element says that there exists an element in the group such that ... so it must be non-empty
yeah, that's why i was asking - thank you
that was also how i interpreted it
Is this the universal property of product and coproduct for Modules just stated in Homset language? I have only seen it in words like "the product MxN is universal in the sense, that given the two projections for every Module A and homs from A to M and N, there is a unique hom from MxN to P that makes the diagram commute".
I think the picture is saying the same thing, is it just a different perspective or is there more to it?
Yes it is the universal property
This is the “representability” perspective
You’ve likely seen the “initial/final” perspective before
Right, iirc you like the representability perspective better, why is that?
I think this is not quite true
They’re both useful perspectives to have, and indeed some universal properties are much easier expressed in terms of initial/final
That said, I have often found that it’s psychologically easier for people to understand the representability perspective when meeting universal properties for the first time
I also think it’s a lot more “freeing” in terms of letting you discover universal properties
Since some of them are rather awkward to express in the initial/final perspective
quick question, in the group $GL(2, \bR)$, i noticed that the determinant of the members must not be $0$... is this because the members need to each have an inverse?
proofman
Yes essentially
Initial algebras of endofunctors come to mind for this
And the tangent bundle comes to mind for this
Thanks for the clarification. I dont know these examples yet, but I can just compare the perspectives when I come across more universal properties.
Mhm!
Cat theory taught me that there’s not One True Perspective on anything
It’s often useful to instead have multiple perspectives, so long as you have the ability to translate between them
Indeed, there’s a systematic way to convert a “representability” formulation into an “initial/final” formulation, using something called the category of elements
You can go the other way too but it’s kind of dumb
Let K be any ring, then prove that for odd n there exists such polynomial f(X) from K[X] that f(X)(1+X) = 1+X^n
I proved this by "guessing" with geometric series but whats wrong with even n?
Choose your favourite ring K and show that it's not true that you can find such an f
(or evaluate both sides at X=-1 and find out for which rings you can have your f)
I see, it has to be characteristic 2
(or characteristic 1 aka the zero ring)
So here’s some batshit insanity:
Assume we have a ring R, and a left R-module U that is finitely generated (say by N elements)
Let (x_n) be a generating set of size N
Then we have an epimorphic map R^N to U sending e_n to x_n
Now let’s say that we have another map from R^N to U, psi, who’s kernel contains the latter map’s kernel
Then you’d think that psi factors through an endomorphism of U and the first map right, it’s well defined.
But does every endomorphism of U arise this way, as if two morphisms are equal on the generators, then they are equal as maps
I don't understand the question. If two morphisms are equal on generators then surely they are equal as maps right? Because you can obtain any element from the generators using the module operations and that commutes with morphisms
It was a criterion to determine wether there’s a map that sends the generators to a specific tuple
But it turns it that the whole kernel inclusion thing hints that it’s due to the isomorphism theorems lol
Im not sure I understand, what exactly is kind of dumb?
It’s just “initial/final iff it represents the singleton functor”
Which idk I think that’s kinda silly
Let’s say we have two maps, f and g, of A to B, where f is surjective/epi, and Ker(g) contains Ker(f).
By FIT, u: A/Ker(f) ~ B provides an isomorphism, of which contains Ker(g)/Ker(f). Thus g factors through this isomorphism, and you can conjugate by it to get the endomorphism
I dont know what the singleton functor is, but it doesnt matter right now. Ill look into it at some point and see why its silly. The keywords are: category of elements and singleton functor?
It’s just the constant functor that sends every object to a singleton set, and every morphism to an identity
That’s the singleton functor
But yeah those are the keywords
Let $A, B$ be left R-modules. Let $S \subseteq A$ and $H_S = {f \in \mathrm{Hom}(A,B) : S \subseteq \mathrm{ker}(f) }$, then I’m pretty sure $H_S$ is also a left-R module, and that if $\phi : A \twoheadrightarrow B$, then $\mathrm{End}(B) \cong H_{\mathrm{Ker}(\phi)}$
The Library of Babble
This is true actually
Do you mean \phi is a morphism from A to B?
If $\phi$ is an epimorphism of $A$ to $B$, then there is the isomorphism $\lambda: B \rightarrow A/\mathrm{ker}\phi$. Now if $f$ also maps $A$ to $B$, and $\mathrm{ker}\phi \subseteq \mathrm{ker}f$, then $f$ factors through $A/\mathrm{ker}\phi$ as $f = f’ \circ \pi_\phi$. Then $f’ \circ \lambda$ is an endomorphism of $B$ determined uniquely by $f$. Furthermore, this provides a bijection as if $\rho$ is an endomorphism of $B$, then $(\rho \circ \phi)’ \circ \lambda = \rho$ \\
To show uniqueness, $\lambda$ and $\pi_\phi$ are both epi and thus are right-cancellative under composition. So if $\rho_f = \rho_g$, then $f’ \circ \lambda = g’ \circ \lambda \Leftrightarrow f’ = g’ \Leftrightarrow f’ \circ \pi_\phi = g’ \circ \pi_\phi \Leftrightarrow f = g$. All of these are two-way. \\
One can show this is actually $R$-linear using the fact that all of the above maps are $R$-linear and using the definition of $\mathrm{Hom}(A,B)$ (excuse the bad Tex, I am on my phone lol)
The Library of Babble
H_S is not a left R-module btw
If both f(x) and g(x) vanish on S, then af(x) + bg(x) vanish on S
af is not well-defined
what is not well defined?
Ok not precisely this
H_S is the set of R-homomorphisms between A and B that vanish on S, which is definitely a module since it is closed under sums and scalings (consider the valuation morphisms too if you want)
It's not closed under scalings
Is what i'm trying to say
I mean it is but the scaling action is not a module action
(it's not associative)
If f(x) vanishes on S, then so does rf(x)
(rf)(sx)=rsf(x), if rf were a module map then (rf)(sx)=s(rf)(x)=sr(f(x))
Oh wait yeah it’d be a right module
i need some hints for 2 implies 3
Oh it’s an abelian group
Or on the domain as well
Yeah
I forgot, it’s like the tensor product
Yeah
adjoint go brrr
So it’s an abelian group isomorphism
Which is a module with R commutative
Thank you
My brain flat lined on that fact
This proof makes proving Jacobson density theorem almost trivial
Since every set of elements in a simple module is a generator, so we have an epimorphism from R^|S|
And we can use End_R(U) linear independence
the only simple cyclic groups are of prime order
so i need to extract more subgroups in between each H_i+1 and H_i until the consecutive groups give a simple quotient group?
Probably a stupid question...
Suppose f:G->H is a surjection and that ker(f)=K. Then by the homomorphism theorem, G/K=H.
Does it follow that G is isomorphic to the product group K*H?
so something like H_0 < G_0 < G_1 < ... < G_k < H_1 < G_(k+1) < ... < G_t < H_2 < ... < H_s = G
Consider f: Z -> Z/2Z given by f(x) = x (mod 2).
Yeah thought so
U is not necessarily simple as a End_R(U) module though
basically yeah. Whenever you just have a cyclic quotients in a subnormal chain , when you extend it out to a full composition series the quotients will remain cyclic but must be simple (as it's a composition series) and so you'll end up with prime order factors
And?
My point is that being generators of U allows you to determine, in a sense, what kind of endomorphisms there are
There is something called the “splitting lemma” that addresses when this is true
oh nice
I believe it only addresses when G is a semidirect product of K and H (if you don't asume abelian)
Ooh interesting
I misread it as semidirect lmao
I usually assume semidirect with regular groups 
It’s a quotient by a normal
Quotients are always by a normal
For the canonically part: R/m is a field, but a R/m Module has to kill every element of m, hence we have to take the quotient M/mM to make sure?
That’s my point
In the ring of formal sums R[[X]], when is f'(x) = f(x)?
ODE moment
I'm not sure what answer you're looking for, but if f(x) is given by
a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + ...
then the derivative is
a1 + 2a2x + 3a3x^2 + ...
So this happens exactly when a[i-1] = i ai
I.e. when f is a multiple of the power series for e^x
Yeah exactly but thats never unless f(x)= 0 no?
the e^x in question:
I'm not sure what you mean
what is an example where f is not a 0 function and f'(x) = f(x).
z mapsto y x^-1 z should work as a bijection between cosets xH and yH right
If you start with an arbitrary a0, you can solve for a1, and then for a2, etc
my brain is currently refusing to verify this
But e^x is not element of ring of formal sums
thank jagr
If it is a polynomial (by which I mean it has finitely many nonzero terms) then it must equal 0. But otherwise it needn't be 0
But its power series is
It is, it is equal to
1 + x + x^2/2 + x^3/3! + ...
Any constant times that also works
my exam is in ~ 22 hours and i still haven’t to look at any galois theory
luckily they really don’t expect much, i should just be able to do the bare minimum with the very simplest examples
which should be doable
ohh ok
Is it like miscellaneous abstract algebra?
yeah first course in abstract algebra, titled «grupper, ringer, kropper»
I Oslo?
mhm
Yeah, I've taken that course
though from what i’ve gathered (which is not a lot as i didn’t attend lectures, but i’ve glanced through the lecture notes), they haven’t talked much about rings at all
lovely
I think just saying what homomorphism, ideals and the isomorphism theorems are is the extent one would expect from such a course
Then one can learn more about rings in another course
looking forward to it, if i can survive non-study things until that points
gonna maybe try giving tutoring another try next semester…
though the pay is pretty shit and much of the work that goes into it is not even counted as work hours
ahem but that’s off-topic sry
hmm i'll just gamble that they won't ask about fields of a non-prime number of elements
my shaky elementary number theory is really haunting me here ehehe
though simple examples in group theory has also increased my appetite for ent and provides some lovely new perspectives
I showed that a formal power series from the ring K[[X]] is invertible <=> leading term is invertible element of K
does that mean K division ring <=> K[[X]] division ring?
npnp, but I feel one side is ok. If K is division ring then all elements of K[[X]] are invertible because all have the leading term from K
yeah a_0+a_1X+a_2X^2 + ...
what if that term is 0
ohh yeah then its not invertible
Note x generates a non-trivial proper ideal
Hmm ok Idk what ideal is yet.. A problem wants me to show that ring of formal Laurent series K((X)) is division ring <=> K division ring and thought I can just cheat it out with that lol
whew this is pretty fun stuff, sad to have put myself in a situation where i have to rush through it
The way that I'd think about it is as follows. Let M be an abelian group, and let End(M) denote the set of all group homomorphisms M -> M. This is naturally a ring, where (f + g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) and (fg)(x) = f(g(x)). Then an "R-module structure on M" is the same as a ring homomorphism R -> End(M). In this case, if M is an R-module, then so is M/mM. Moreover, m is contained in the kernel of the map R -> End(M/mM), and so the map above factors through R/m, giving you a canonical R/m module structure on M/mM
Ooh neat
So just as a group action of G on a set X is equivalently a group hom G -> Sym(X)
An R-module structure on an abelian group M is equivalently a ring hom R -> End(M)
The centralizer in End(M) are the R-endomorphisms of M :3
Well the left module structure, so the right module structure is a map from the opposite ring of R
R maps into End(M) if M is an R-module by left multiplication, right
Uh, sure
The set of additive maps (endomorphisms) of M that commute with the left-multiplications are R-linear endomorphisms of M
I.e if a_l(x) = ax
Then f(a_l(x)) = f(ax) = a_l(f(x)) = af(x) :3
Quick clarification: $\ G_{1} \times G_{2}$ forms a product group. call it $G$, and $p_{1}: (x,x’) \mapsto x$, where $x \in G_{1}$ and $p_{2} : (x,x’) \mapsto x’$ where $x’ \in G_{2}$. $p_{1}$ and $p_{2}$ are surjective, since they’re just projections. (Likewise, if we wanted to, we could exhibit homomorphisms which I imagine we could denote $p^{-1}{1} : G{1} \to G$ and $p^{-1}{2} : G{2} \to G$ and show they’re injective and can be used to identify $G, ; G’$ with subgroups $(G_{1} \times e). ; (e \times G_{2}), ; (G_{1} \times G_{2})$. The first two are normal subgroups of $G_{1} \times G_{2}$ since they’re the kernels $\mathrm{Ker ;} p_{1} = (e \times G_{2}), ; \mathrm{Ker ;} p_{2} = (G \times e)$). However, is $\Phi$ necessarily an isomorphism?, since $\mathrm{Ker ;} \Phi = \mathrm{Ker ;} \varphi_{1} \cap \varphi_{2}$ and it’s not a given that it would equal ${e }$, right? Simple example I was given would be $C_{6} \cong (C_{2} \times C_{3})$
[\begin{tikzcd}
& {\tilde{G}} \
{} & {G_{1} \times G_{2}=G} \
{G_{1}} && {G_{2}}
\arrow["\Phi"{description}, from=1-2, to=2-2]
\arrow["{\varphi_{1}}"', curve={height=12pt}, from=1-2, to=3-1]
\arrow["{\varphi_{2}}", curve={height=-12pt}, from=1-2, to=3-3]
\arrow["{p_{1}}", from=2-2, to=3-1]
\arrow["{p_{2}}"', from=2-2, to=3-3]
\arrow["{p_{2} \circ p_{1}^{-1}}"', curve={height=12pt}, from=3-1, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}]
thimg
I see
\Phi definitely doesn't need to be an isomorphism, I'm not sure where or how you're concluding that
Ish
Just wanted to make sure
centraliser of what exactly, the image of R in End(M)?
let G_1 G_2 be trivial and G tilde be non-trivial
I think what made me doubt myself for a bit was knowing that homomorphisms \Phi from G tilde to G1 x G2 are in bijective correspondence with pairs of homomorphisms phi-1 from G tilde to G1 and phi-2 G tilde to G2 (phi-1, phi-2)
But yeah nvm
yeah so there's an isomorphism of hom-sets, not the underlying groups
Very nice, this perspective is very slick. Just like you can show every abelian group is a Z-module in one way in a similar manner. These are cooler to state lol, but I guess it cant hurt having done it by hand aswell. Thanks
affirmative 🙂↕️
Let’s say we have a left R-module M. The Annihilator of M is the (two sided) ideal of R where xm = 0 for every m in M. It should make sense that then (r + Ann(M))m = rm for each m, r
So obviously we can interpret M as a R/Ann(x) module, or an R/J module if J is an ideal in the annihilator (because essentially Ann(x) is redundant). But the problem is that the maximal ideal here might be greater than our annihilator. Let’s call our maximal ideal K here because ASCII lol
So what we can do is consider the submodule KM, like the “orbit” of M under K. This is a submodule and we can quotient out M by it, forcing any elements that are a “K-multiple” to go to 0. Suddenly we have a module who’s annihilator IS K, so we can quotient out the redundancy in R to have a vector space if R is commutative :3
Nice this makes sense
This is basically identical to the “left R module is when R maps into the endomorphisms of abelian group” approach because the kernel of this map is the “annihilator” as defined above. In essence we can view it as a “R/J” module because of that map factoring through R/J if J is in the annihilator by the isomorphism theorems
Though the quotient group M/mM being a module and that map can be a bit fucky but you can use FIT again
Some things might be easier to prove one way, some might be more intuitive another
Pick your poison lol, use both if you like
I think its good to have many perspectives anyway
for this lemma can you not just set a_2, \ldots, a_n = 1 and then a polynomial in k[x_1, \ldots, x_n] becomes a polynomial in k[x_1] which we can use the root bound on that since k is infinite.
h(x_1,1,...,1) could be the zero polynomial
What is known about the asymptotic complexity of calculating a primitive root of the group of units of a finite field?
ok having looked at a couple of previous exams, they are definitely going to ask about finite fields 
oh well time to look at finite fields
Is there a connection between Jacobson Density Theorem, Jacobson Bourbaki Theorem, and double centralizer theorem for artinian rings
"tikzcd": what tex lib does that come from?
I just use quiver latex editor
what is $j_N$? Am I right in thinking it is just the map $n \mapsto 1 \otimes n$?
Spamakin🎷
does neutral element mean the same thing as identity element?
yes
does anyone know why the elements in group $SL(2, F)$ must have a determinant of $1$? you might know this group by a different name, but it is the group of $2 \times 2$ matrices with entries from $\bQ$, $\bR$, $\bC$, or $\bZ_p$ (where $p$ is prime)
proofman
i am thinking that this has something to do with the elements of the inverse being fractional (if the determinant were not 1), but i am not 100% certain
Is this not by definition
The special linear group consists of those matrices with determinant 1
i think there is a reason
You might be thinking of the general linear group
Which consists of invertible matrices
the specialized linear group also consists of invertible matrices
I think the requirement to be in the special linear group is to have determinant 1
i acknowledge that it is in the definition, i am not trying to disagree there, i am just wondering why that is the case
Oh yeah idk the etymology
my hunch is that it has something to do with not being able to have fractional inverse elements due to allowing elements from $\bZ_p$ and $Q$
proofman
which obviously may be wrong!
Are you asking why the subgroup of GL(n) with determinant 1 is interesting enough to have a name of its own?
Or asking why that name happens to be "special"?
sort of - why do texts go out of the way to say "the determinant is 1", as well as giving it its own specialized name?
Huh, that doesn't really tell me which of the two questions you're asking.
"Are you asking why the subgroup of GL(n) with determinant 1 is interesting enough to have a name of its own?" - this is closest to what i am asking, an answer to this question may be helpful @tribal moss
thinking more about your question, this is more or less what i am asking
there's obviously some reason, why texts would go out of there way to separate out this group
I don't think there's a single answer to that -- the special linear groups turn out to be useful to consider for several separate reasons.
Having a common name for them is then useful for quickly connecting to their properties when you come across a group that happens to consist of determinant-1 matrices over such and such field (or ring).
I guess they’re the kernel of the determinant homomorphism
So a useful normal subgroup
For simple Lie groups you usually need determinant 1, for this reason
i guess this answer makes sense, because there is $GL(2, F)$ does not require a determinant of 1, so it's not like groups that use elements from the sets i named necessarily require a determinant of 1
I think you mean nonzero determinant
Zero determinant would be non-invertible
Also, GL(2, F) does require nonzero determinant
are you saying that these groups with nonzero determinants and determinants of 1 come up often later?
Both nonzero determinant, and determinant 1 (which is a special case)
Yes.
I remember doing the rep theory of GL_2(F_q) at the end of my course
Would’ve much preferred S_n I think…
i goofed up a couple things
hopefully fixed now
can $SL$ be a subgroup of $GL$?
proofman
Not only can, is a (normal) subgroup of GL(n).
Mhm, cause it’s the kernel of the determinant homomorphism
going back to what you said originally, i think this was correct
it really is just taking that specific subgroup and calling it its own thing, for purposes which will become clear later
thank you all!
What is a good way of finding the conjugacy classes?
That [e]={e} and [a]={a, a^2, a^3} is obvious, but then finding the other(s) seems like you just have to go case-by-case
What conjugates a to a^2?
Basically think about what this does on a square, and which ones “look the same from different angles”
You have some pretty strong geometric intuition here though. Like D4 is the symmetries of a square, and two symmetries are conjugate if they're the same "type" of symmetry.
(Like reflection along a diagonal, reflection along a side, 90 degree rotation)
Like 90 cw and 90 acw look the same up to flipping the square
I don't really know a good way of doing these sorts of questions, because the way the conjugacy classes have been defined are as $[x]={ gxg\inv | g\in G}$, so for every $x$ you have to try conjugating by every element, and that doesn't seem like a very time-effective method
Douglas
Once you know that they should be it's not so hard to show it case by case
@quiet pelican Is it correct that elements in the same conjugacy class must have the same order?
Or rather, elements are in the same conjugacy class if and only if they have the same order?
Yes
Conjugation by an element is an isomorphism and so preserves elements and stuff
This is very false. E.g. consider abelian groups
Huh? If the group is abelian then isn't each element's conjugacy class only itself?
Yes
Elements can still have the same order
Conjugation is an automorphism for each x you’re conjugating by. Assume the order of conjugate of g or g is greater than the other. Observe what happens.
Oh I see what you're saying
Yeah
Like all nonzero elements of Z/pZ have the same order
Hmmmm. Going back to D_4, I still don't know a good way of determining the conjugacy classes.
My best attempt would be finding the orders of each element (there are only 8 so this is practical if not ideal), and then that narrows down the possibilities
So you know that only a and a^3 have order 4, so either [a]={a, a^3} or they are on their own
And I think (ab)a(ab)^-1=a^3, so you shown that a^3 is conjugate to a
Hence [a]={a, a^3}
Then the order 2 elements are a^2 and a^n b
But yeah then it's just case by case
And I feel like there must be an easier method than conjugating each of those 5 elements by 8 different elements
The "worked" solution just says "by computation [conjugacy classes]" without actually showing any of the computations
Which is massively unhelpful
Well, you don't really need to conjugate by 8 different elements.
You know all elements are of the form a^n b^t, so you could just conjugate by that and see what you get.
For example you see that
a^n b^t a^2 b^-t a^-n = a^2
because b^t a^2 = a^2 b^t
Just using a^n b^t = b^t a^[(-1)^t n]
the main speed up I’ve found for these questions is focusing on what conjugating by generators does
but yeah these Qs always sucked for me
Also you can't have conjugate elements with different properties (for the right notion of properties) so that can be a quick way to see two elements are not conjugate
yh ngl i know D_n is the set of the symmetries in the regular n-gon, but ive never actually been taught this and havent got a great intuition ofr it
i think in my undergrad i remember being confused by this a little
for some reason it seemed like the “fundamental” description was preferred to be these generators with relations
and that the geometric picture wasn’t the “true” D_n
just found the bias towards thinking with symbols and disavowing geometric intuition weird
I used to be confused too for a silly reason. They told me a symmetry is a transformation that keeps the shape invariant. So I thought it could be an arbitrary transformation (rather than one that preserves the metric) and that therefore there'd be infinitely many symmetries of any polygon
right yeah that makes sense
i hope aluffi can actually teach me algebra
if i ever get around to it
exam in 47 minutes
Best of luck!
can i have a hint for how to construct the field of four elements

as in, how could i have arrived at it myself
gl gl
Do you know about maximal ideals
uh hmm is that Z_2[X]/(X^2 + X + 1)
irreducible polynomial of degree 2
That's not a hint, that's straight up the solution lol
aluffi?
well yeah idk how you come up with this
it’s a textbook on algebra
There aren't a lot of degree 2 polynomials over F_2
and probably my last chance to ever understand algebra

