#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 261 of 1
A is algebraic so Q(A)=Q[A]
You don't need to think about rational functions
Just polynomials
I know. Look at the proof they wanted to understand, which is why I mentioned rational functions.
As an additional challenge (maybe you already know this): Try proving that the kernel of any ring homomorphism is an ideal, it's a very useful result for questions like these. (For your example just regard the homomorphism mapping any polynomial to it's constant part)
well i guess your example is not too difficult to do directly but it's still useful to know lol
conversely every ideal is the kernel of some ring homomorphism (there's an obvious choice) so that the study of ideals is really the study of ring homomorphisms
not sure if Lie algebras go in here, but I think it fits better than advanced algebra
the second image is the official answer for (ii)
Why does $\rho (h)$ having three distinct eigenvalues necessarily mean that $V\cong V_2$?
thou_art_an_egg
I understand that with three distinct eigenvalues, its eigenspace will have dimension 3 and so its eigenvectors span $V$, but I don't see why this necessarily implies $V\cong V_2$.
thou_art_an_egg
Oops, my bad
hey random question but
would U(R) necessarily equal R
let me pull up the question rq
specifically question #22 (very bottom)
Why do you suppose U(R)=R?
if R is a commutative ring then wouldnt that imply that U(R) is just all of R
I think there might be some confusion about the definition of unit
Do you remember the definition of unit?
Is 0 a unit?
dont think 0 is
Now consider the integers Z. Z is commutative. Is 2 a unit?
would a unit mean an inverse under two sets of binary operations?
i havent covered much ring theory
For multiplication.
oh ok
I want to show that if in the abelian group, a and b has order m and n then there is element of order lcm (m,n).
Now first I showed that if gcd(m,n) = 1 then it is true.
Let a and b have the order m and n respectively such that m and n are relative prime.
Now ab has a finite order because of abelian we can show it.
Now let ab have order t then t divides mn.
and (ab)^t = e implies b^t = a^-t. But | a^-t| divides both m and n, therefore a^-t = e, and b^t =e.
Thus, m and n divides t thus mn divides t.
It shows that t = mn.
Yes maybe it is not so good proof.
Now I want to show it in general case, if a and b has order m and n and their gcd is d.
Then (a^d)(b^d) has order mn/(d^2)
And a^(m/d) has order d
Any idea?
To prove that infinite group is cyclic if and only if it is isomorphic to every proper subgroup. Here {e} is not a proper subgroup.
First direction: let G be an infinite cyclic group then G is isomorphic to Z then we can use the structure of subgroups of Z.
Second direction: So G is infinite then if there is g such that < g> = G then we are done.
Let there be g≠e in G such that < g > ≠ G so and since G is isomorphic to its proper subgroup so G is isomorphic to < g >, then by isomorphism G is infinite cyclic group
if p is prime then the non-zero elements of Z/pZ form a group of order p-1 under multiplication.
I know it makes a group but how can I show that it makes a group of order p-1?
Count them
Actually question is if a is relatively prime to p then | < a > | = p-1
But that comes from field theory
So?
No I don't want to use field theory here
But that’s exactly what you’re doing
The units are the things which make a group under multiplication
That's false; you can take a = 1 for example. If you mean that |<a>| divides p-1, you can use Lagrange's theorem for groups or Fermat's little theorem to conclude that. If you mean that |<a>| = p-1 for some a, well then, you need that result (existence of primitive root modulo p) whether you count it as field theory or number theory or anything else.
This is kind of cheating, but: for every prime p dividing lcm(m, n), let k_p, l_p be the number of times that p divides m and n (i.e. p^k_p divides m but p^{k_p+1} does not, etc.). Then lcm(m, n) = \prod_p p^{max(k_p, l_p)}. Now, |a^{m/p^k_p}| = p^k_p and |b^{n/p^l_p}| = p^l_p, so we can find a group element x_p of order p^{max(k_p, l_p)}.
You can now apply your proof of the coprime case (inductively) to \prod_p x_p.
I’d say calling 1 coprime is kinda 
I'd say you have to do it to be consistent.
The set of common divisors of 1 and p is {-1, 1}. The ideal generated by 1 and p is the principal ideal (1). The set of numbers coprime to p wouldn't be invariant under the "equal modulo p" equivalence relation if 1 wasn't included.
But in fairness, you can take a = -1 instead (unless p = 2, 3 - incidentally I now realise I was wrong and |a| = p-1 for all a if p = 2).
Truly a small number moment
Yes it is wrong because group of units of Z/pZ is isomorphic to Z/(p-1)Z
So for every prime p we get an element such that p^{ max(k_p, l_p)} now since we had proof for co-prime case so we can do for distinct primes.
Thank you ❤️
If H and K are subgroups of group G, then [H v K: H ]≥[K: H intersection K].
They define H v K as a subgroup generated by H union K.
Now if I define mapping between set of all right coset of H and intersection K in K and set of right cosets of H in H v K.
Let f be the mapping such that ( H and K)k-> (H)k.
It is well defined because if ( H and K )k_1 = (H and K)k_2 implies k_1k_2^-1 in H implies Hk_1 = Hk_2.
Now it is injective, if (H)k_1 = (H)k_2 then k_1k_2^-1 in H implies k_1k_2^-1 in H and K therefore (H and K)k_1 = (H and K)k_2.
Hence because of injective [K: H and K]≤[H v K : H].
Is it correct?
Yes! In fact, you can exactly characterise the range of the mapping f and prove that [K : H \cap K] = [HK : H], where HK = {hk | h in H, k in K} (this may just be a subset of G, but it's a union of right cosets of H, so "number of right cosets of H in HK" is well-defined and that's what I mean by [HK : H] on the RHS).
Yes cardinality of range is [HK : H], thank you ❤️
If I have a finite generator of a group and there is some relation between it, what are the ways to count the element of that group?
You mean something like taking a group with presentation <g, h, k | g^3 = h^2 = gkghk^{-1}> and computing its order?
I don't think there are any general strategies for doing this. In fact, it's undecidable whether such a group is trivial (i.e. you cannot even in theory write a computer program to take a presentation and even figure out whether the group is trivial, much less its order).
Yeah it’s like… there are some special cases that you can do this for, but definitely no general strategy
good luck even verifying it's finite
Presentations help you define group homs out of a group
But not really into a group
Yes
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Group_isomorphism_problem this is mentioned here for example (I thought there was a Wikipedia article just about deciding whether a group is trivial but I guess not 🤷).
In abstract algebra, the group isomorphism problem is the decision problem of determining whether two given finite group presentations refer to isomorphic groups.
The isomorphism problem was formulated by Max Dehn, and together with the word problem and conjugacy problem, is one of three fundamental decision problems in group theory he identifie...
word problem
Wait wdym
Not quite the same thing. That asks whether two words in the generator are equal. Triviality would require a yes/no answer in finite time to whether all pairs of words are equal.
So if I have some relation between generators then I need to do computation
something something homomorphisms are exactly the maps preserving, but not necessarily reflecting, atomic formulae
Actually the question hint that group is isomorphic to Q_8 but what if there is no hint then ?
An explicit group with unsolvable word problem 👀
Depending on the presentation, you might be able to figure it out. For example, if you can simplify the presentation to <r, s | r^n = s^2 = (sr)^2 = 1>, you know you have a dihedral group. (Or if you get the same with extra relations, you can express it as a known quotient of the dihedral group.) Or, if you can show that the relations imply that all the generators commute, then you have a finitely generated abelian group, and there's a probably a way to explicitly write down what it is in terms of the presentation.
But IG for an arbitrary presentation it might not be possible to do any better than guess (and get stuck if your guess isn't right).
Textbook hints, making exercises not unsolvable since 1842.
if you have a map f:A -> B and an atomic formula \phi(\bar x), then A |= \phi(\bar a) => B |= \phi(f(\bar a)) iff f is a homomorphism (by definition)
What is an atomic formula?
something like R(t) for a relation symbol R, term t
I’ve heard something like this in logic, but not really in group theory
Hm…
I still don’t quite understand
Do you mean that it's good for checking whether a map specified on generators is a group homomorphism?
like a map from generators to generators
It preserves equations?
Okay thank you ❤️
Right, but then you’re doing a map from generators
does a bit more, generally, but yeah
And presentations help with that
I did say this
I’m confused
I said originally that presentations help you map out of a group
But not really into a group
And then… you seem to be saying something about how you can map from generators to generators
But that’s an example of this, right?
yeah, into the group
But the presentation of the codomain doesn’t really help you map into it
It’s the presentation of the domain which does this
my face when verification
The presentation of the codomain defines the group, of course
And so you use it to verify that a map out of the domain is a group hom
But you’d do that regardless of what the codomain was
In all cases, when mapping out of a presented group, you check the relations hold in the codomain
The codomain doesn’t need to be presented for this to be true
What the presentation does is help you map out of the group - you need not define the group hom on the entire group, merely the generators, subject to relations
In particular, I don’t see how the presentation helps you map from a non-presented group to a presented group
the point was verifying an arbitrary function is a homomorphism
Beyond giving a definition of the codomain
Yes, but my point is that you always do this when mapping out of a presented group
It’s not really anything to do with the codomain
You always check that the images of the generators satisfy the relations
thats in the codomain
Yes, so the presentation of the codomain gives a definition of the codomain
That’s the only sense in which it helps you map into the group
Whereas the presentation of the domain allows you to specify an entire group hom with a lot less information
I give up
And if you’d defined the codomain a different way, e.g. as a subgroup of GL(V) or something, you’d use that definition
It’s just that… the universal property for presentations is about mapping out, not mapping in
oh boy universal properties, here we go
but you also immediately, from the presentation, get subgroups, groups which surject onto it in a sorta lattice above it topped by F(gens.), things like that
Which subgroups do you mean?
there are more ways to see math than your categorical proselytizing
And - which surjections?
I… I think that’s an unfair accusation
I wasn’t proselytising anything
for one, subgroups generated by subsets of generators
now we have a lattice of those which decorate P(gen)
Yep, but you can do that for any group, right?
You pick some elements, and find the subgroup generated by them
indeed, but these are special as we know it covers everything
these generate G after all
yeah
You mean all the generators?
there is a subgroup for each subset of generators
Yes
I see I see
This is because it includes G itself?
well, finite subsets are enough
Ah, that is neat!
even if its not finitely generated
Mhm mhm, i see that
and this is immediately obvious, in fact
since x can only be a finite product of generators
Though - these aren’t homomorphisms into G, right? Unless you’re talking about the inclusion maps?
So it’s like - for any group G, presented or not, you can take subsets of G and produce subgroups that’s been generated by them
But a presentation gives a canonical choice of subsets to try out - subsets of generators
Is that about right?
R is the set of relations, and lets deductively close R, so anything you can derive from them is in it
I'm discarding niceness like finiteness etc, but it means everything is there
for any subset R' of R, we have a surjection <S|R'> -> <S|R>
Ah, yes!
F(S) is the empty
Right, yeah
And - we know this works cause of how <S|R’> is defined
this, in fact, essentially describes all surjections onto it generated by the set S
Mhm mhm
so its every surjection, excluding those from doing S u {x} and adding x = 1
every surjection generated by S elements
Right, I completely agree with that
If you want more, add redundant generators
Sure - or choose a different group altogether
well its every surjection onto our original G
Yes
I suppose im saying that - there are other surjections that occur
Onto G
That might involve a group wholly unrelated to S
those all occur from expanded presentations, i.e. S u (x_i)_{i<\kappa}
S is not a set of elements
its a list counting how many generators we have
I don’t quite understand…
<S|> = F(S)
S, on its own, does not actually say anything
all the structure is in R
So S is not a set?
Ah, so an isomorphism class of sets you mean
Right, well
but it is not a "set of elements"
its more like, its a set of symbols
Don’t all sets contain elements…?
Right - I haven’t really heard this terminology before, so it was confusing
I was under the impression that sets just contain elements
So every surjection occurs in this way
And nothing more complicated than that
because we can just add "unused" symbols
So - how do we know this?
take a surjection
Mhm
K = <K|R(K)>
Sure sure
right?
pick any generators of choice for G, call it S
Mhm
by surjectivity of the map, and choice, there is some element k_s in K for each s in S, and f(k_s) = s
Right - that makes sense
You’re taking a preimage of each generator
Which may not be distinct, but that’s ok
Wait, no
well
f(k_s) generates G, so just order them at the front of an order on K
Wait, order them?
yeah
probably isn't but I'm thinking of it
yeah this is completely unnecessary
I have not slept
anyway, f[K] generates G obviously
and we can just add redundant symbols for each point in K that isn't a k_s
Mhm mhm - but won’t these satisfy their own relations too?
sure, we can add those to our presentation
I see - I think I was misunderstanding your statement, then
if you want all our redundant symbols to have the relation "x=1" instead then like
Then your statement makes perfect sense to me
But this one does not
If you allow arbitrary relations on redundant symbols, im happy
if k_s generates K, we can call it a day
Mhm
because like, you're already where you don't need any extra relations to make surjection
I don’t imagine this will be true in general, though
indeed
After all, you have a surjection G x H -> G for any group H!
yeah we probably wanna allow "x = y" between em rather than just "x=1" I'm too tired
That’s alright
or some similar such
Mhm mhm
point being, the relation gives so and so data about surjections onto it
Yes, so I think I can summarise what’s happened as follows:
and you get em all among groups of a bounded size, basically
If X is an arbitrary group, then there’s a nice description of homomorphisms <S|R> -> X. Namely, functions from S to X which satisfy the relations R uniquely determine such homomorphisms
However, there’s not a nice description X -> <S|R>, beyond the definition of one
It’s still true, though, that expressing a group as a presentation gives a large family of homomorphisms Y -> <S|R> for some groups Y that depend on S and R - subgroups and quotients, as you described.
Is that fair?
it gives all the surjections, assuming you know what maps to what generator
because the relations exactly describe, like the positive atomic diagram
Not sure what that is, but that’s ok
The middle part is what I meant when I was talking about universal properties
I still think it’s unfair to call that proselytising, but I can also understand you’re tired
I’d kindly request you avoid calling it that in the future - im not trying to dismiss your maths or anything, I don’t tend to ask questions in bad faith
this one in particular isn't bad, but you don't always need to present it as if the universal properties are the end-all-be-all way to see things
I didn’t!
In fact, I don’t think they are
But I think they’re a useful perspective
In general, the lesson I learned from category theory is not that there’s One True Perspective on things; instead, it’s useful to have multiple perspectives, so long as you have ways to translate between them
This applies to the categorical perspective itself, too - it’s not the One True Perspective on anything
its a useful tool
Exactly! That’s how I think of it
I do think category theorists in general can get a bit… overzealous
But I don’t try to be like that
Seeing yoneda mentioned while trying to solve a linear system seems a bit much
Oh? What do you mean?
#linear-algebra message this. Its not like it's a long drawn out spiel, but it's ultimately like a
"ok, but why?"
Ah, well that is one of my favourite applications of yoneda
So, the reason why is that I find it cool!
But again - I don’t think yoneda is the One True Perspective on row and column operations
I just find it neat that such an abstract lemma has such a concrete corollary
It seems less an "application" and more "it just so happens you can make a category where this can be shown as such"
I mean, I actually gave a talk about this
Theorems aren't really a "why," ever
It’s possible to prove this using the idea of yoneda, without actually needing to introduce categories, functors or natural transformations
theyre the "what"
Hmm, I think id disagree
For me, maths often tells me “why” something is true
Not merely “what” is true
Which is what I did, and it was quite well received
if its without categories I do wonder just how yoneda it is
Very much so!
It’s essentially the proof of yoneda for that category
But fully unfolded so that you don’t need any categorical language
And it’s actually pretty short too
Not much you can say about "why" choice is/isn't true, or why Darboux's theorem is true
a proof can show "how"
You’ve given me examples of places where maths doesn’t show “why”
This doesn’t mean that maths never shows “why”
Seems like quite a complication
Would you like to see it?
I don't think it ever does
Well, I think learning category theory has shown me the “why” on a lot of things
For me, a proof is a reason why something is true, after all
Otherwise, we’d only need lists of already-proven statements
Proofs are more like a mechanism, how something occurs, what it does
It's really just RowOp(A) = RowOp(Id A) = RowOp(Id) A =: EA.
Well, that’s not how they feel to me
Yes, exactly!
Knowing how to make an epoxide doesn't tell you why it's stable
That’s the proof I used
Again, giving an non-example of “why” doesn’t mean “why” never occurs
I'm saying yoneda-fication is a complication of the proof
Calling it an instance of Yoneda's lemma really just amounts to recognising that this proof and the proof of Yoneda are strikingly similar.
But that is the proof with yoneda
Fully unfolded
You show that row operations satisfy RowOp(AM) = RowOp(A) M
And then you use the trick that A = IA
That’s it
it's less "proven with yoneda," more "if I draw a category and used yoneda, I get this same proof as if I just did it"
This follows from the definition of matrix multiplication
I think we’re just arguing over small details at that point
its an unnecessary overhead to call it yoneda
Well, it’s just a name
it complicates matters, obfuscates
You could call it “Bob” and it’d amount to the same thing
I don’t think it obfuscates as much as you claim
Noticing patterns across different existing proofs can be helpful if you can formalise a generalisation which you can then apply in other contexts where it wasn't obvious that the same technique was applicable.
And indeed, based on the feedback I received on my talk
It didn’t obfuscate anything!
Though the way I did it was actually with column operations, then transposing
It's not a harmful overhead though.
I think its not too far from being one, since it gives the impression of a handful of matrix manipulations being deep
Well, what’s deep is subjective
And it's interesting to some people (myself included), so might as well let them notice it and be excited about it...
Indeed, lots of people found it interesting!
Call it "not deep" if you want, but people should also have a way to say "this can be seen as a special case of Yoneda's lemma" without being interpreted as claiming that that's deep.
fair
I like how both of you reacted with
BTW 
Anyway 🥱 let's have some actual group, ring or field theory in here
I reacted with a
in the same sense that FLT proves the 4th root of 2 is irrational
Wait, you can do that non-circularly?
Yes, I realise you probably meant to imply very different things by the reaction.
(which that one is a bit lame since those simple equations being the way they are is a step in the proof)
I do think people tend to overestimate how hard yoneda is
It's not FLT because it's hard,it's because its a sledgehammer
And I think that’s fun!
oh boy wreath products
wew I finally used a theorem about wreath products are you proud
(restricted wreath, that is)
which one
restricted wreath products are just wreath products because all sets are finite
so based, so forward thinking
uh one from a 2023 arxiv, which is based on like amenability
Products = coproducts
co = 1
coconut = nut
Now buy a pack of nuts, put it in a box and recite this proof to cause an explosion.
thanks for the mystical spellcasting tips and tricks
basically one exploiting some DST nonsense to show some representation theoretic MALARKY for wreaths
I know about representation theoretic malarky for wreaths but considering you're actually making a difference between an underlying direct product/direct sum does not fill me with hope
lamplighter moment
.... who?
uhhh C_2 \wr G shenanigans
anyway I used stupid wreath theorem #7675776576456454 to prove something
:3 I am now a wewist
so... permutation matrices on a F_2-vector space...
[hl2 scientist voice] fascinating....
Basically tbh tbh
Anyhow, there’s relevance to the stuff I do because maps which are close to being reps are nice on some groups
what on earth do you mean "close to being reps"
But these are INFINITE groups so
Stuff like, uh, the specific flavor here is like, making \sup_{x,y} || f(xy)-f(x)f(y) || small for unitary reps
Yeah basically
interesting, never seen that before but I'm not sure why
cause it's a natural thing to think about
There’s variations where you ask that a map on generators is close to satisfying so and so relationd
Sounds interesting
Which this is not uniform in x, y, and is free group quotient-y
And has wildly different behavior
(Z^2 is uniformly nice, but if we do this generator approach we’re screwed)
Because the goal is “it’s close to being a homomorphism” -> it’s actually close to a representation
and it’s relevant to like, quantum checking stuff since verifying on generators is way easier then over the whole group
Make this small, then we have a rep g with \sup_x || f(x) - g(x) || small
So it’s close to a rep uniformly, if it’s close to being a rep
some representation
There’s a bunch of analogues, sofic and hyperlinear groups are a similar class of things
But the one I’m working on is the above one
ah now I see the difference
(There’s also p-adic versions somehow, with ultra metric trickery doing a lot)
aprori there's nothing stopping you from constructing such an f that's miles away from any actual representation
Indeed
And F_2 you can make explicit maps so that you get like
1/n error in an n-dim rep
But it’s 1/10 away from a real rep
And you can do this with some fundamental groups of surfaces
Compact surface groups, that’s what it was
ok that's uhhh what's the word I'm looking for uhhhh HORRIFIC?
yeah
Basically, the things where it fails however are: F_2, Tarski monsters, and like
Things which contain F_2 in a measure-y sense of orbits

absolutely zero idea what that means
markov chain ass sentence
yeah neither do I but I just accept it as “F_2 is always the problem”
Even if it’s not a subgroup
Anyway, this is obviously a very stinky property
Because it doesn’t tell you anything about the rep
The generator based or approximability ones you have a bit of structure in limits but uh

This uniform one? Nothin
Let G be an abelian group of order 2n, where n is odd, show that there is only one element of order 2.
I used the normal subgroup concept, is there another way to prove it?
sylow
Well, if we ask that this is small uniformly in all finite dimensions for unitary reps, we get a lot of interesting groups with this property
all sylow subgroups are normal, hence there's only one of each. And the sylow 2-subgroup is size 2, hence there is a unique involution
of course this is a stupid way of proving it and there's probably a far more elementary way but that would require me to think
Like, lamplighters or SL(n, A) for n\geq 3, A a localization of a ring of integers in a finite extension of Q
Well, the ones I care about are even nicer, in fact
I suppose - if there was more than one element of order 2, then you’d have a subgroup of size 4
And that violates Lagrange’s theorem
If we ask uniformity in every dimension, there’s basically only 1 class of known examples: amenable
yeah there we go that's a much easier way of doing it
Cauchy’s theorem would guarantee that you have at least 1 element of order 2
Which, what I think I’ve just proven, if we have some asymptotic decay estimates, they’re the only ones
reminds me i was idly browsing through the norwegian state library archive the other day (as one does), and found some early 20th century article by thoralf skolem (!) on the mathematics of sylow
i should read that
Though this depends on correctness of another paper etc
So somehow silly goofy combinatorial stuff = this density stuff of maps that are almost reps
????
I have no idea what’s going on outside that decay estimate though
I barely know what’s going on under it
Thank you
There is a kind of “product” of symmetric groups, like product of Sa and Sb, being a subgroup of Sab, by dividing ab into a many blocks of length b, Sa permutes those blocks. What is this product called?
for more elementariness we can even use cauchy's theorem for finite abelian groups which does not require sylow to prove
This sounds like the wreath product to me
Wreath product? Thank you I am searching it
wreath product mentioned TWICE in the same day you love to see it
How are you gonna survive wew, you might just explode with happiness
It's ok I'll temper my elation by thinking about Brauer nonsense
How are you gonna survive wew, you might just cry so much you'll wither into a tiny human raisin
important question
"sub G-set" or "G-subset"
vote now on your phones
I love them both, it's like choosing between my children
I think I find that "G-subset" sounds more natural even if I think that "sub G-set" is more pedantically correct
Oh yes it’s wreath product,thanks 😊
1000 years jail
subtract 1, out of spite and despair
Hey @topaz solar (sorry for pinging if you think this is irrelevant) but i actually found a close enough reason on how this equivalence relationship came to be , it's i believe how brauer proved frobenius' theorem
After reading that paper it actually makes much more sense
Also like it's been quite a while ......lol...
vibing with Burnside
What a lovely diagram
Oh this is a lovely way to think about normality, I think
compare my viz of klein’s icosahedral invariant with fig. 13
mwahahaha
(each of the regions in burnside’s diagram are conformally equivalent with a complex half-plane)
How to prove this?
Is this ok:
<x> ,<x'> subgroups of Z_n of order k. From the theorem before subgroup of Z_n of order k is exactly when k|n. So for both x and x' I can write: kx = n and kx'=n (in Z) and in Z it follows that x = x'. So the subgroups are generated with the same element, so they are the same.
Why do you write kx= n and kx' = n ?
Because I get the result x' = x and im done
Oh HELLLLL nahh!!!
Wait this is for sure wrong... cause in Z_6, <2> and <4> are both order 3 but 3x2 = 6 and 3x4!=6
ahh idk
they're both 0 mod 6 idk what ur smoking
what are we doing?
That in Z_n there is only one group of order k
yeah there's one for each divisor
I already proved this: k|n <=> there is a subgroup in Z_n of order k
I need to prove that its the only one
right so you're stuggling with uniqness
yes
<x>, <x'> both subgroups of order k in Z/nZ. See if you can show that x = mx' for some m coprime to n
alternatively show that they're both equal to <n/k>
I did this:
Because Z_n is cyclic I can write x = n*1 for some n. let m, m' smallest positive integers that x = m and x' = m'. then I can do m = qm' + r... x = qm' + r = qx' + r where 0<=r<m'. Because x element of <x> so is qx' + r ...
and I wanted to conclude that qx' element of <x> and r element of <x> but because smallest integer to be in <x> is m and r is smaller than m it must be 0, so x = qx'
but r is smaller than m' and not m
And also I don't think from qx' + r in <x> follows qx' and r in <x> so im wrong there too probably
any subgroup of Z/nZ is of the form <k> for some k that divides n - this can be seen as if we chose <m> , then there are integers a, b such that gcd(m, n) = am+nb, so <m> = <gcd(n, m)>
I tried to understand your argument for a solid 10 minutes and I still don't get it
why are you writing x as n*1?
What
I mean its wrong don't worry about it
How do you conclude ... so <m> = <gcd(n,m)>
reduce what I said mod n and you get that gcd(m, n) = am, so gcd(m, n) is in <m>
if it didn't generate all of <m>, that would imply that there was an integer smaller than gcd(m, n) that divides both m and n
Im sorry but can you show me the proof where we have two subgroups and we shows they are the same
Idve Googled it after an hour ngl
lol
Better things to spend your finite life doing
you think I didn't
You’re expecting me to believe there aren’t any clear proofs of this on the internet
yes
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2930733/finding-all-the-subgroups-of-a-cyclic-group this answer is fantastic
Even better than my hack fraud proof using bezout’s
There’s a 9 page document entirely about cyclic groups https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/grouptheory/cyclicgp.pdf see theorem 3.6
Okk nice 3.6 saved me from || kissing myself||
Ok is there an easier version for Z_n tho?
mwah
....
all cyclic groups are Z_n (or Z (which is just Z_0))
that's all of them
OOO omg
Z_n is only topologically cyclic
Someone ban this guy
And why would you call a prime n???!?!?!?!
Sorry for using normal notation
Does he know? Oh no no no no
Do u know how much will power it takes me to not write C_n
shut it nerd
I can construct Z_n I don't CARE
Construct it then
No
I imagine it's the usual construction with Z/n ← Z/n^2 ← Z/n^3 ...
But for any number n
just a guess
Ye
suppose m is a proper nonmaximal ideal of a ring A. is it always true that there exists a in A\m, such that m is properly contained in m+(a) and m+(a) is properly contained in A?
(a) is the principal ideal generated by a
Yes
Indeed since m is non-maximal, there's an ideal n with proper inclusions m < n < A
Now any a in n will work!
n\m ig? and thanks! i get it now
yes sorry lol
Horrible
@delicate orchid no I’m just an idiot, I blame \wr for my agony
how has blud done this
and don't give me the details using a shit ton of words I have to google just. Da overview
For A \wr G, I can move A around by multiplication by A pretty freely. I made a mistake and moved an A by the G action in the middle of it, which is not “safe”
And, to clarify, it’s the restricted wreath
it's essential rank 0 and thus INCREDIBLY boring
Because it definitely doesn’t work unrestricted
Average thing I think about
like I completely solved the representation theory of them back in 2022 levels of boring
Based
then found out two mexican guys were also doing the same thing
But are they as based? Didn’t think so bub
feel that? that's true
Lmao why is this so funny
- N is normal in G
- | G: N| is finite
- H< G
- | H | finite
- | G: N| and | H | are relatively prime numbers.
Now I want to prove H < N.
Take | H | = n and | G : N | = m, since N is normal so the Quotient group by N makes sense.
Let h in H then h^n = e and (h+N)^m = e + N.
Now use m and n are relative prime so we get h+N = N implies h in N.
Thus H < N
Is it correct?
can you classify the 1 dimensional Lie groups (over R or C)?
and should they be locally isomorphic? (for example, R and R/Z are locally isomorphic)
The Lie algebra in all those cases should be R, or C if the Lie groups are over C. Right? So they should be locally isomorphic?
I'm given a Noetherian module M. I want to show R/ann M is Noetherian.
Suppose for a contradiction that I_0 ⊂ I_1 ⊂ ... is an infinite chain in R/ann M, all containments proper. This gives a corresponding chain in R, I_0 + ann M ⊂ I_1 + ann M ⊂ ..., all containments proper. This allows us to produce a chain of submodules of M:
(I_0 + ann M)M ⊂ (I_1 + ann M)M ⊂ ... or I_0M ⊂ I_1M ⊂ ...
However, I dunno if the containments are proper here. I've tried proving it, using the generators for M and some version of Nakayama. But yeah, kinda stuck here. Am I on the right track?
Suppose you have a field F. Let F↪️F[u] be a ring extension such that u is invertible. Is F[u] a field then?
No: consider F[X, X^{-1}] inside F(X).
Also F[X]/(p), provided p is reducible but has invertible constant term.
On the other hand, if F[u] is an integral domain which is finite-dimensional over F, it's a field.
That’s what I was thinking since F[X] localised at {1,X,X^2,…} has more than one element in its spectrum
I’m pretty sure it’s just the points which don’t have a root at 0
if F is a field then yes, Spec F[X]_X is identifiable with the monic polynomials indivisible by X
You need to show that for any n, (g^k)^n = 1 iff m/gcd(k, m) divides n.
and why from this it follows that order of <g^k> is m/(k,m)?
Well, assuming you have shown that, the smallest positive integer n such that (g^k)^n = 1 is the smallest positive integer divisible by m/gcd(k, m), and I think you can guess what the latter is.
Ok im sorry I don't get it...
Why you said any n before and now its smallest positive n
And i don't guess what the latter is 😩
smallest n >= 0 that g^n = 1 for some g in G. Then n is order of element g
Ohh yeah it is n >0 mb
So you can further prove that if n is the order of g, then for any integer m, g^m = 1 iff n divides m.
Yeah I proved this
So using this, in your problem, what is the condition on n for (g^k)^n to be 1?
smallest positive integer?
Well If i look atthat statement: if n is the order of g, then for any integer m, g^m = 1 iff n divides m.
If x is order of g^k then for any n, (g^k)^n <=> x | n
but idk what x is
Try to use the order of g (which is called m in your problem).
Ooh huh, I suppose one could call that a universal property…
Don't i just get: if m is order of g then for any n, g^n <=> m | n
g^n <=> m | n
On the left of the equivalence you have an element of the group, and on the right you have a proposition. This is meaningless.
You mean g^n = 1 <=> m | n
Ah, so you want the order of g^k given the order of g, hmm
Pseudo, don't spoil this question.
Ok! I’ll think about it on my own though
I wasn’t planning on spoiling it, dw
Ok cool, you can indeed solve this using yoneda if you want
That’s neat!
m is order of g and also g^k.
So looking at this then: ...then for any integer x, (g^k)^x = 1 <=> m divides x
So I need to find a integer x that divides m? Can't that be any number that divides m, why is gcd(k,m) special?
Yes, and (g^k)^n = 1 <=> ???
Can I make a suggestion?
PLEASE
So, given $g \in G$, $\text{ord}(g)$ is defined to be the smallest integer $k$ such that $g^k = 1$, right?
I.e. it is $\min { k > 0 \text{ such that } g^k = 1}$
Pseudonium
Yes
We also have an additional property - that $\text{ord}(g) | n \iff g^n = e$
Pseudonium
Yes
So far, you’ve been trying to attack $\text{ord}(g^k)$ with this definition, as far as I can tell.
My suggestion would be to instead start from the additional property
Pseudonium
Is it clear what I mean by that?
What I mean is - start from $\text{ord}(g^k) | n$, and see what you can deduce
Pseudonium
Actually, there’s more! Try applying the additional property of order
I don’t think g^n = 1 is correct
order of (g^k): m is smallest positive integer that (g^k)^m = 1.
and ord(g^k) | n => (g^k)^n = 1
I don't see how to conenct them together
Yes, so actually we have $\text{ord}(g^k) | n \iff (g^k)^n = 1$, right?
Pseudonium
Yes
And then - what can you deduce further?
Idk im trying to use the proprety of the order but idk how
So - we can deduce $g^{kn} = 1$, right
Pseudonium
yeah
Then - use the property of $\text{ord}(g)$
Pseudonium
how?
Well, what is the property of $\text{ord}(g)$?
Pseudonium
its the smallest positive integer that $g^{ord(g)} = 1$
OHHELLNAH
I mean the other one
This
Do you see how we can apply that?
ord(g) | kn
Indeed! So, just to recap
We’ve done $\text{ord}(g^k) | n \iff (g^k)^n = 1 \iff g^{kn} = 1 \iff \text{ord}(g) | kn$
Pseudonium
nice
I think this could help you prove the statement you want
Note that we’ve actually reduced this to a problem about integers
We have that $a | n \iff b | kn$
Pseudonium
And you want to show $a = \frac{b}{\text{gcd}(k, b)}$
Pseudonium
Here, $a = \text{ord}(g^k)$
Pseudonium
And $b = \text{ord}(g)$
Pseudonium
But if i choose a then b is already chosen no? Because both depend on g
so they are not any a and b?
Well, what I mean is that
It is true that, for all naturals a and b, if you have a | n iff b | kn, then a = b/gcd(k, b)
At this point, we have reduced it to a number theory problem, not a group theory one
So you are correct that, once you know ord(g), then you know ord(g^k)
But what I mean is - you can actually forget about the group theory at this point, and focus on the number theory
Of course, if you’re not confident with the number theory, then this strategy may not be a good one for you to try
I get the transition but to me It feels like there could be problems because in "group theory" our "a" and "b" were kinda related and then in number theory they are any numbers a and b
Mhm - though even in the number theory, you can prove that a and b are actually related
if b=ord(g) then you can just look at the cyclic group Z/bZ and model it canonically on the elements {0, 1, ..., b-1}
You need not use a and b if that’s confusing, you can stick with ord(g^k) and ord(g)
What we have is that $\text{ord}(g^k) | n \iff \text{ord}(g) | kn$
Pseudonium
Yeah ill try proving it
Ping me if you get stuck
I suppose what’s neat about the universal property of $\text{ord}(g)$ is that
The definition gives you $g^n = e \implies \text{ord}(g) \leq n$
But the universal property strengthens this to $g^n = e \implies \text{ord}(g) | n$, and moreover you can replace $\implies$ with an $\iff$
Pseudonium
Very much like what happens for the universal property of gcd
Where may I learn Introductory category?
Category theory, you mean?
Or something else?
Yes
Hm…
For a book, I think Leinster’s basic category theory is good
Awodey’s book is also good
And if you know a bit more maths, Riehl’s category theory in context is very good
And prerequisite?
It’s honestly a little hard to say
How much maths do you know?
Like, a lot of the examples come from undergrad
Undergraduate, group theory, ring Theory, topology, analysis
But it’s not strictly necessary or anything
Ah, this will be good then
Do you know any universal properties?
Not exactly, but I heard it a lot
I can give an example of one, if you’d like?
The property which ones invariant under a different structure?
That’s an abstract description of them, but there are plenty of concrete examples
Have you heard about the universal property of product?
No
Ok so - given sets A and B, we can form the Cartesian product A x B
What it “is” is the collection of ordered pairs (a, b), with a in A, b in B
Okay
But we can also ask what it “does”, how it relates to other sets, and how to use it
In particular, notice the following - if you have a function f : Z -> A x B, then it has to take the form f(z) = (g(z), h(z))
And so you can “unpackage” it to two functions g : Z -> A, and h : Z -> B
Yes
Conversely, if you have two functions g : Z -> A, and h : Z -> B, you can “package” them into a single function f : Z -> A x B
Defined by f(z) = (g(z), h(z))
Yes
This is what the Cartesian product “does” - it lets you package and unpackage functions
Does that make sense?
Yes so what do we get here?
Well, that’s the universal property!
It’s an alternative description of maps into the Cartesian product
As an exercise - what does the identity map A x B -> A x B unpackage to?
I don't understand which property called universal property
Identity map I_A and identity map I_B?
I’ve described how A x B relates to all other sets in the “universe”
Namely, that maps Z -> A x B naturally correspond to a pair of maps Z -> A, Z -> B
Hmm, not quite - careful about the domain and codomain of the unpackaged maps
Other set means?
So, Z is any other set
It could be the naturals, it could be the real numbers, it could be the rationals
A×B -> A and A×B-> B such that (a,b)->a and (a,b)->b respectively
Yes! These are the projections
And you can relate the packaged/unpackaged maps using these projections, in a commutative diagram
But what do you mean by unpackage?
I mean that - if you have a map Z -> A x B, you can convert it into two maps Z -> A, Z -> B
Yes I saw some Commutative diagrams but in general I don't understand the use of that diagram
This operation I am calling “unpackaging”
Ok got it
Well, do you understand the packaging/unpackaging?
Yes
Yes
You can take their minimum, min(a, b)
Yes
What it “is” is the smaller of the two
We can also ask what it “does”, how it relates to other numbers, what you can use it for
And it’s this - we have that x <= min(a, b) if and only if x <= a, and x <= b
It “packages” together two <= conditions into one
Yes
And also lets you unpackage
Now, what happens if you set x = min(a, b)? What does this unpackage to?
Can you ask me in briefly?
So, this is true for all numbers x
In particular, it is true for x = min(a, b)
And - when you do that substitution, what happens?
It’s quite similar to when you “unpackaged” the identity function A x B -> A x B
Means change a and b order?
No, I think - let me go through it
When we substitute x = min(a, b)
We get that min(a, b) <= min(a, b) if and only if min(a, b) <= a, and min(a, b) <= b
But we know that min(a, b) <= min(a, b) - this is called “reflexivity”
left Ore localisation got me like
So, we can deduce that min(a, b) <= a, and min(a, b) <= b
These are quite analogous to the projections A x B -> A, A x B -> B you found earlier
Does that make sense now?
Another example you may have seen are free groups (or more generally, groups with presentations).
If G is the free group on a set S, then for any group H, any function from S to H extends uniquely to a group homomorphismm from G to H. This is also a universal property.
Sorry but what do you mean by substitute x=min(a,b), where do you substitute?
So, the expression holds for all numbers x
E.g. it holds for x = 1
So I can replace everywhere I see an “x” with a “1”
To get the statement that 1 <= min(a, b) if and only if 1 <= a, and 1 <= b
Yes I read this result
We also have 24 <= min(a, b) if and only if 24 <= a, and 24 <= b
Or -27283746 <= min(a, b) if and only if -27283746 <= a, and -27283746 <= b
Now maybe I am getting
We can substitute any number into this
Yes
To get min(a, b) <= min(a, b) if and only if min(a, b) <= a, and min(a, b) <= b
Yes
But we know the left-hand side is true, because every number is equal to itself, so in particular is less than or equal to itself
So, we can deduce the right-hand side is true
That is, we can deduce min(a, b) <= a, and min(a, b) <= b
Yes
I.e. min(a, b) is indeed a lower bound of {a, b}
Yes
It turns out this idea of “packaging and unpackaging” is common to many notions of product
Products of groups let you package and unpackage group homomorphisms
Products of rings let you package and unpackage ring homomorphisms
Products of metric spaces, and of topological spaces, let you package and unpackage continuous functions
Products of manifolds let you package and unpackage smooth functions
What the product “is” changes from place to place, but what it “does” is always the same - it lets you package and unpackage
Does that make sense?
There are even examples like min(a, b) which don’t look at all like products!
But in general, category theory focuses on what something “does” rather than what something “is”
So Cartesian products are universal property
How it relates to other things, what you can use it for
These are usually called categorical products
Okay
But yeah - it’s a universal property
This is the kind of thing that category theory studies
If it seems interesting, I’d recommend reading about it
I think I did it
Oh, well done!
from here
There’s a way to simplify your proof, if you’d like to hear?
Yes
So - you successfully show that $a | n \iff \frac{b}{\text{gcd}(b, k)} } | n$, right?
Pseudonium
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$b | kn \iff \frac{b}{\text{gcd}(b, k)} } | n$
You mean $b | kn$, surely
Pseudonium
Ohh yeah
OHHELLNAH
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We get this by chaining the result $a | n \iff b | kn$
Pseudonium
chaining?
As in - $a | n \iff b | kn \iff \frac{b}{\text{gcd}(b, k) } } | n$
Pseudonium
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And you can deduce this
Ok yeah
Now, what happens if you substitute $n = a$ here?
Pseudonium
truth $\iff \frac{b}{\text{gcd}(b, k) } } | a$
OHHELLNAH
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Yep! So - we can deduce that $\frac{b}{\text{gcd}(b, k) } } | a$
Pseudonium
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Okay thank you for all the information ❤️
And then - what happens if you substitute $n = \frac{b}{\text{gcd}(b, k) } }$?
Pseudonium
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where?
Back in here!
oh we also get that a divides b/gcd(b,k)
It’s generally true that if c | n iff d | n, then c = d
This is an instance of a very general result called the “yoneda lemma”, also from category theory
No need to look it up, just a fun tidbit
Note that we never actually had to use the definition of ord(g) or ord(g^k), as the minimal integer where g^ord(g) = e
We merely focused on their “universal property”
How they relate to all other naturals, through divisibility
hm cool
I’m glad you find it cool!
challenge: go one day without mentioning category theory
level: impossible
Why do you propose this challenge?
i just associate you with category theory as much as you mention it to students who are not learning it
it’s not a bad thing or an attack on you just an observation
Right right, I think that’s completely fair
But I mean, I mention it cause it’s useful
WHAT
Yep! It totally is
I hate to admit it but it kind of is
Oh okay I sorta see it
Poset category of Z ordered by divisibility
Yeah
I wonder if you can go about doing a lot of Galois theory due to independence of characters
I also wonder if a lot of Galois theory stems from group algebras over the automorphism-stabilizer groups
Let F be a field, G be a finite automorphism subgroup and F^G be the fixed point subfield, I wonder if you can prove shit off of F^G[G]

Let F be a field, then F* (the set of nonzero elements) can be regarded as an abelian group.
The F-vector space V = F^F (set of maps from F to itself) can be equipped as an associative, unital, commutative F-algebra (which I will call a commutative F-ring) by multiplication.
Every nontrivial ring-morphism from a field (simple ring) is injective, so every nontrivial endomorphism of F is injective, and can be forgetful’d to a monoid endomorphism of F*. By independence of characters, End(F)* (excluding the 0 morphism) is a linearly independent set in V.
Pseudonym boutta start explaining how sup inf <= inf sup is actually a special instance of limits and colimits commuting or some shit
I mean, it is - though it’s them not commuting
Yeah ik it’s why I made the joke
But it’s a very obnoxious way to learn that fact lol
Well it’s like
You don’t really need limits and colimits for this
Just the universal properties of sup and inf
Riehl has a proof of this fact near the start of CTiC if I recall correctly
I am really pondering some algebraic crap
Yes I’ve read this
In general I’ve found that like
It’s harder to recognise something is an example of a general categorical thing, than it is to just… quickly reprove it yourself
I don’t usually remember things like “limits commute” or “right adjoints preserve limits” or anything like that
I’m just familiar enough with cat theory that I can very quickly reprove these whenever I need to, in a specific example, and then later realise “oh I just redid that proof”
Sometimes I even forget the statement of the yoneda lemma, but I can quickly reprove it whenever I need to
Miz pondering about field stuff again
I am going to ask about the following:
Yes Sir
Let $R$ be an infinite integral domain, then is the set of monoid morphisms (characters) from monoid $M$ to $R$ \textbf{algebraically} independent as a subset of $F^M$
The Library of Babble
actually
you could let R=C, M=Z/2Z. There are two characters, one that sends 1 to -1 and the identity
squaring the first gives you the second
Ah, thank you
in fact
if you take any finite group, Hom(G, C^x) is isomorphic to G (noncanonically)
wait you needed G abelian I guess
ahdshajf abelian
Algebraic independence only exists over infinite fields unless you like, say modulo (X^|F| - X) for each of the indeterminates
Lol
afaik
and no, for finite G and abelian it's somewhat easy. Pontryagin duality is much more difficult
That makes more sense
and also pontryagin duality only gives an isomorphism with the double dual
I am trying to think of a different way to prove Artin's Lemma
and it turns out there's a lot of structure I didn't realize was there in generality
Kinda sad it isn't canonical lol
C'est la vie.
WEll I mean
It gives us a beautiful world of Galois theory of characters <3
Yes
What is that
Galois groups act on characters
This tells u things about the reps
over smaller fields
Galois stuff is one of like, the 3 flavors of algebra it feels like
I was thinking the other day that it really is a fantastic motivation for group theory
You can really see why people got excited about these things
Interesting take
Hm
To me it feels like more of a smaller area but very intertwined w arithmetic considerations
The motivation :3
yeah exactly lol
It almost feels like pedagogically, we should start with Galois theory. But of course this would be asking a lot of learners.
Well, Galois-y stuff about automorphisms fixing XYZ subsets are certainly a point in model stuff
Hm is there enough motivation for fields at that point though
I guess you could do it via number theory lol
Isnt it half of Langlands
Sure but that should fit into like arithmetic stuff and representation theory
rather than like galois theory being the area in itself
I said flavor not field :3
Like the methodology, focus, etc
Start with polynomials :3
Galois theory can also motivate algebraic geometry, btw
it’s almost like orbits = types
Why care about polynomials
Different from?
The standard way using descent\
Which way is that?
