#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 260 of 1
ChiliLion
Trying defining a homomorphism out of KN into K/(K cap N)
actually this holds in general for order p, p >2
p prime
im sure it can be weakened to nonprime as well
but its basically due to the fact that you can embed the cyclic group
I'm looking for some intuition for the BCH formula. I don't need to know how to prove it exactly, but I am looking for an argument for why the correction terms only involve nested commutators. Does anyone have a good argument for why this is?
Here is the BCH formula https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baker–Campbell–Hausdorff_formula
In mathematics, the Baker–Campbell–Hausdorff formula gives the value of
Z
{\displaystyle Z}
that solves the equation
e
X
e
Y
=
e
...
it is just from taylor expanding the exponential
not sure what would be a satisfying argument for why the commutator shows up
hello again!
yeah ok i think im seeing how that works now
i guess your question was about why there isnt extra stuff
beyond the commutators
but idk commutators measure the degree to which things commute
and BCH is a reflection of the failure of the binomial formula when computing the taylor expansion of the log
i am sure there are more sophisticated interpretations of what is going on here, probably many in the pdf i posted
but if your aim is an explanation that doesnt require reading a proof of the formula, those are probably a bit out of reach
yes exactly
ok yeah i will look at this
also prop 2.7 and remark 2.8
yes
the usual one for numbers (x+y)^n = sum_k n choose k … implicitly uses that xy=yx
yeah ofc
so basically I expand that out, but use yx = xy + [y, x] to get everything into the form of (elementary school expression) + (commutators)
i think so
ok great, thanks
and then if you write down the entire taylor series
and expand everything
and then rearrange it
i guess you get bch
look at these though
maybe it will be illuminating idk
yeah these are nice
similar to e^A B e^-A = exp(Ad_A) B
yes that would be nice haha
i mean i think your comment about the binomial theorem basically does it, so im happy
ok
maybe there's a slick argument in terms of thinking of commutators as derivatives, but idk
well
i am sure there is
taylor series can be viewed in many ways
they allow to turn the operation of differentiation into an algebraic thing
i found a kinda cool argument, though it is not for bch but just for arguing that the exponent is just made of commutators
what pg
look around equation 3.4 on page 80
kind of a purely formal formula because it involves a time-ordered exponential, but it only involves commutators explicitly
i see
is the time ordering even important
for this thing being a sum of integrals of e^{t ad_A}
ok i guess it is
seems like a nice argument that id appreciate better with more physics experience
start at eq 20, if you are interested
one thing though, regarding your original comment on binomial theorem, is that it is highly non-obvious (at least to me), that \emph{all} you get are nested commutators, and not terms like $[A, B]B + [B, A]A$
nay
@rose prism
you’re right
i guess the fact that exp(ad) = Ad_exp is playing a big role here
i think that is allowing to convert everything into powers of ad
\includegraphics
thank u
but, it is not just a graphic
I mean, the content of the graphic is written by latex
I have seen two perspectives on representations:
- A representation of G on V is a group homomorphism G->GL(V)
- A representation of G on V is a functor from the one object category corresponding to G to to the category Vect that takes the object to V, and this lets us describe the category of representations where objects are such functors and morphisms are natural transformations
For some reason, translating back and forth between these feels hard for me. Is there a way to take a one object groupoid and "find" the object in Grp which it corresponds to, and vice versa?
obviously the connection between the two can be described, but can it be described categorically?
Well, mapping • in G (category) to Hom(G, G) in Set, and considering the morphisms acting on it appropriately (which is also sorta G < Sym(G) after all) should suit this?
Something something yoneda idc
And G |-> category of G is easy by just specifying the object as •, morphisms by elements of G, and composition law from G
what are the elements of G
and what is their composition law
This relies on this being a small category but if your category isn’t small you should feel bad
??? It’s a group
it's an object in the category Grp, is what I mean
this gives you elements, how do you get composition
Refusing to acknowledge a group as having a composition law built in is insanity I’m gonna be real
Don’t reinvent the wheel
This map I’ve described is functorial
And whether I can define it in terms of more elementary functors or operations on Grp is entirely up to what you take as elementary
But it’s a functor nonetheless
fair enough ig
And further, Grp is a subcategory of Set
It is a set
Alternatively, take the isomorphism with Grp and Grp(Set) and go that way
If the idea of elements and sets is heretical to you
Do note that this category stuff doesn’t really “give” you information as-is here
It’s a different language carrying it
I understand, the information is already in the categories. Was just curious if there's a purely categorical way to recover the one object groupoid from an element in Grp, if there isn't that is fine
You can get new information with category tools, like sheaves and such, but this one is just a reformulation
yeah
“Purely categorical” is a bit silly imo, since it’s a lot more effort for not much payoff
But you probably could
Should is a different question
This is probably the closest I can think up
But it’s not my purview, so to speak
@delicate orchid where the fuk in James & Kerber do they talk about Sylows and reps of normalisers???
Like surely they prove McKay for the symmetric groups
Gonna be real with you boss I read 1.5 chapters of that book and then never looked back
Also McKay is proven for S_n???? Based
Wew…. McKay is a theorem
Britta Späth announced she had proven the inductive conditions
No paper is out tho
Who? 😹
Wtf wew
Britta is a super prominent rep theorist
Recently she was involved in proving a reduction for Navarro-McKay?
Navarro
Who? 😹
Can someone inform wew I shan’t be talking to him anymore
I literally have his block theory book 2.5cm away from my hand as we speak
Let H be a normal subgroup of a group G and K be any subgroup of G. $HK={hk | h\in H, k\in K}$ is a subgroup of G. Show this using a subgroup test.
I actually went through and proved it was a subgroup by showing closure, identity element, and inverse. But I want to prove it using a subgroup test. Namely, if $ab^{-1}\in HK$ then HK is a subgroup.
What I have so far is just the basic idea of $ab^{-1}$.
$Let a=hk, b=h_1k_1$, where $h\in H and k\in K$ Then $ab^{-1}=hkk_1^{-1}h_1^{-1}$
My idea is just that since $k and k_1^{-1}$ are both in K, then their product is also in K. But then what other manipulations do I need to do to show that this is an element in HK?
Soap_Opera
Soap_Opera
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Evidently this is of the form (something in H)(something in K)(something in H). If you can change the (K)(H) term to a (H)(K) term you would be done (and by setting h = k_1 = 1, you can see that this is necessary; in other words, for any subgroups H and K, HK is a subgroup iff KH \subseteq HK).
So given kh with k in K, h in H, how might you write it as (something in H)(something in K), given that you know that H is normal?
Create a conjugation of H by writing kh = khk^-1k?
This is the solution but not sure how they create the last equality
$ab^{-1}=h_1k_1k_2^{-1}h_2^{-1}=h_1(k_1k_2^{-1})h_2^{-1}=(h_1h')(k_1k_2^{-1})$ for some $h'\in H$
Soap_Opera
Ok, so since H is normal then (k_1k_2^-1)h_2^-1 = h'k_1k_2^-1 for some h' in H because xh=h'x by normal definition
(Incidentally, you don't necessarily need that H is normal (i.e. that gh = h'g for h in H, g in G) only that it's normalised by K (i.e. kh = h'k for k in G). The set of k such that k normalises H is always a subgroup N_G(H) of G containing H, and it suffices that K is contained in N_G(H) for HK to be a subgroup.)
Awesome, thank you @tough raven
My idea is to find a homomorphism from GL_n(F) to {1, x, …, x^(q-2) }
With its kernel equal to SL_n(F)
Where (x, q) = 1
I tried phi(M) = x^(detM) but it’s not a homomorphism and doesn’t give 1
I suppose that the latter refers to a cyclic group of order q-1 generated by x?
Although this is technically possible, note that you don't need a cyclic group, any group of order q-1 will do.
(and the homomorphism should be surjective).
Yes
Yeah the cyclic group is the easiest example of such a group I could think of
So I used that but I don’t see other more convenient groups of order q-1 to work with
It's the easiest to think of, but not the easiest to actually construct the homomorphism for.
Well, since the group clearly will depend on F (even its size depends on F), try to come up with some group related to F.
F - 0 under multiplication?
F^x elements of F with an inverse
Since q is prime
Only 0 would be excluded so order would be q-1 right
Oh I think phi(M) = detM works
Okay this was way more natural than my first thought lol
Thanks
(As it turns out, F^x is actually cyclic of order q-1, so your first approach could have worked as well, but that works much less naturally - you have to go and find a generating element of F^x somewhat arbitrarily.)
does anyone have a further hint for this problem? not sure how to proceed
In group (Z_n, +) what order is 0?
I'd go with 1
Why not 0?
because it generates a subgroup of order 1 not 0
o(g) = |<g>| is a nice result and I wouldn't want to ruin it
also the definition of order is "smallest positive integer"
Ohh really? In my book is just smallest natural number
Ohh right yeah its not, I keep having my logic course in mind cause we there we said 0 \in N
alas... it is not to be...
Hey Wew what happened to you ? You were gone for a bit there
You missed my module theory grind
a grave blunder
Which part are you having a problem with?
anyone in here that might be interested in helping me trying to make sense of the contents of this book?:
the entire book?
i’ve done some scattered reading in it but there’s lots of seemingly unifying things i don’t understand
hmm... I do like coexter groups...
more like anything in the book tbh
also i’m not sure how representative this book is of the literature
😂
some of the notation is surprisingly sumilar to something as old as burnside’s 1911 theory of groups
perhaps posting the contents page would allow me to make more astute quips irregards to the co0peatnmi0mrbeuy[hto'pinm
could you imagine if burnside was real? that would be so cool...
whar
ty
except maybe the term "linear fractional group"? never heard of that in my life
oh they're like mobius transformations. Sure
I cuold help with pretty much any chapter other than 7+8, but I'd struggle with some parts of 5 and 9
whole book is so beautifully typeset
amazing then i’ll definitely pester you mwahaha
Mecejide would be good to ask about this stuff as well I think
I guess both and I'm not sure whether the given hint applies to both directions or only one
maybe struggling more to show that given G -> Z such a presentation exists
my approach would be to observe that the map F_n -> Z (or even G -> Z) factors through the abelianisation, so it's enough to consider maps G_{ab} -> Z and Z^n -> Z. But I can't get any further atm
Yes, that's more difficult. Since in the other direction, you map all generators to 1, an idea is take for generators elements mapping to 1 in Z: if you do this, any relation will have to have exponents summing to 0. So it suffices if G is generated by elements mapping to 1.
So given an arbitrary g in G, can you write g as a product of elements mapping to 1 (or their inverses)?
we're trying to show that a presentation exists given a surjective homomorphism phi : G -> Z right? and you are saying we can try taking the generators to be {x in G | phi(x) = 1}, and then if x1 x2 ... xn = e, we would have phi(x1 x2 ... xn) = phi(e) = 0, so the exponents in x1 x2 ... xn would sum to 0.
am I understanding correctly
Yes. All you need to make sure this works is that the supposed generators actually generate G.
Why?
in trying to write g as a product of elements that map to 1, my idea was to look at the image of g, which would be some integer, and since Z is generated by 1 I could find some product of our generators that has the same image of g, but I can't guarantee that it equals g itself (without injectivity)
maybe I am missing something
Why is Z_2 not a subgroup of Z
I meant obv. its not because 1 + 1 = 0 and in Z 1+1 = 2
But why is it like that? Is + defined differently or is 1 in Z_2 not the same element as in Z or smth else
Z is torsion free and abelian so it can't have a torsion subgroup
torsion?
if it were a subgroup, you should be able to name two elements that act like Z_2 in Z, under Z's group operation
suppose there was a map f : Z_2 = <g | g^2 = 1> -> Z
this is defined by the image of g, so say f(g) = n in Z, then f(g^2) = f(1) = 2n = 0
implying that n is 0, so f was the zero map all along
this map isn't injective, and any embedding of Z_2 into Z clearly must be. So if there was a subgroup of Z isomorphic to Z_2 we would have a contradiction
you're right to say that 1 in Z_2 is not the same element as in Z
Z_2 is better named Z/2Z, the quotient of Z with 2Z if you're familiar with quotients
but essentially you take every multiple of 2 and set it to zero, and in Z_2 (the quotient group), 1 is a representative of every number with remainder 1 when divided by 2
you could very well call 1 "3" or "-11187281742585"
ohh yeah in Z_2 elements are equivalent classes and in Z they are just whole numbers
that's not particuarly important
You could define Z_2 such that its elements were literally the integers 0 and 1. Then it would be a sub_set_ of Z, but still not a subgroup because the group operation wouldn't be a restriction of the group operation of Z.
exactly
I interpreted the question to mean "why are there no copies of Z_2 in Z" because not thinking about things up to isomorphism is an alien concept to me by this point 
Hmm ok i get it
a simple point is that in Z every non-zero element has infinite order, while in Z/2Z every element has finite order
That is a better way of phrasing this
Do you need abelian?
I clarified that simply because I didn't want to run the risk of being "ermmm acktully"ed
it was a protective measure
thought torsion was a modules thing, not group
specifically, shouldnt a torsion element be a non zero divisor? if it applies to groups how do you define zero divisor for a group
abelian groups are Z-modules, if you want to think of it that way
ermmm acktully you don’t need Abelianness
oh is that why you need abelian
youre still adding extra structure that isnt given rigjt
one could define torsion in a non-abelian group, it just won’t be a subgroup and also no one cares about that case (?)
Torsion just means non-identity elements with finite order
like you only have Z and +, but you need other operations for it to be a module
"Torsion" can be used about non-abelian groups -- but with care because the torsion elements are not necessarily a subgroup in that case.
Some people care about that case
Whether all Artin groups are torsion-free is an open problem
okay i see
they're isomorphic as categories, there's no extra structure
Z-mod and Ab, that is
idk what that means but you need Z to have multiplication right
ok and what does that have to do with our abelian group
that's just saying that (a^x)^y = a^(xy)
which is counting
np np
so is repeated addition the only multiplication that makes Z a ring with standard addition?
are we really doing this
sorry its still not entirely clear how we can treat Z and Z2 as modules without loss of generality here. im sure youre correct its just not clear to me
I said Z
I didn't say Z with a wacky multiplication
a different multiplication structure gives a different ring, and hence a different class of modules
okay i will revisit this later when im better at algebra
thanks for the explanation
Is the principal ideal generated by an element of a ring just the product of all elements of a ring with other elements of the ring?
there isnt necessarily just one principal ideal
a ring generated by S is ideal iff S has only one element
so its the set of products of one particular element in R with all the other elements
Ok, so then what about this one
Let R be a commutative ring with unity and let $a_1,a_2,...,a_n$ belong to R. Then $I=<a_1,a_2,...,a_n>={r_1a_1+r_2a_2+...+r_na_n | r_i\in R}$ is an ideal of R called the ideal generated by $<a_1,a_2,...,a_n>$
Soap_Opera
Is it like the cross product of the set with itself?
this is an ideal but not principal
wdym cross product?
not sure what that means
R x R
no?
thats cartesian product, but no its not
I don't fully understand where your confusion is arising from
elements of a cartesian product are tuples, elements of an ideal are still elements of the ring
for example the set of even numbers $2\mathbb{Z} = {\dots, -2, 0, 2, 4, 6, \dots}$ is an ideal of $\mathbb{Z}$
esca (@ with reply)
and this is the ideal generated by {2}, written $\langle 2\rangle$
esca (@ with reply)
It should be mentioned that (bizarrely) ideals generated by some elements are also written with normal parentheses, e.g. (2)
But what about the ideal generated by all the elements in the Ring
As in the example I posted
Or obviously, tell me if I'm not reading it the right way!
Well, not "all" the elements in the ring, but multiple elements
Smh
The element 1 is a generator of that ideal. What ideals contain 1?
Welp this is irrelevant anyway because that wasn't the question
Yeah it's literally explained right there idk what the question is
Like, if someone said, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 all belong to a commutative ring with unity. Then the ideal <1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9> = what
described above
But would it be like {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ...}
Or would it be a set of the squares of each element
It would consist of all sums of multiples of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9
Like
I still don't know what the confusion is
The description is in the screenshot here
I'm just trying to turn it into an example
I don't know what that means
An example with a discrete finite set of integers
Not a definition with arbitrary elements
You wanna know what the ideal <1, 2, ..., 9> of Z is?
Have you thought about what I am pointing out?
I didn't say this for no reason
you really are just plugging things into a definition here
Ok, so using 1 you get <1> = {1a_1 + 1a_2 + ... + 1a_n}
you get <1> = {a1 : a in R}
Why the definition is confusing is because when you have <1, 2> is it {1a_1 + 2a_1 + 1a_2 + 2a_2 + ... + 1a_n + 2a_n}?
why are you putting n things in there?
read the definition
n is the number of generators
read this definition again.
And you don't need the definition of <a, b, c...> for this question. Use the definition of an ideal.
What are the two properties that ideals have.
Three if you count non-emptiness, who cares
Ah, ok, so <1, 2> is just {1a_1 + 2a_2}? Not {1a_1 + 1a_2 + 2a_1 + 2a_2}
non-emptiness is automatic based on the first property
Indeed.
||depends on if you're saying closure under addition or being a subgroup||
||but yeh||
subgroup u lil nerd
No fighting!!! NO fighting allowed !!!!
I can't have my seniors fighting like this 😭
Let $R$ be a ring and $I \unlhd R$ be an ideal. Suppose $1 \in I$. Describe the elements of $I$.
Boytjie
Wew and I are like brothers.... we hate each other and fight all the time
So what's your answer?
Love that
I answered it wrong, but the right answer would be <1> = {1a | a is in R}?
OK that wasn't the question
(1) I wrote the ideal I, not <1>
Well yes that's it for now actually there's no (2).
What are the elements of I
bro copied my homework 😭
Mhm
I = {1a | a is in I}?
You have just told me that I = {i | i in I}
Give me a description that isn't trivial.
Remember: what properties define ideals
Hmmm
You literally have two things you can do
A subring is an ideal if its left and right cosets are subsets of itself?
Subring?
Soap, do you know the definition of an ideal?
Better be true
get this man a true
Gallian said it
idk who that is I'm pretty sure that's an element
Like you have a question mark on the end
OK fine I will say that much of the mathematical world does not consider ideals to be subrings, but we'll move on from that because it's technical.
you can weaken subring to additive subgroup, which is the normal definition
What I care about is the "absorption" property.
This is the strong property that ideals have.
Use it.
.
i think gallian's rings are not assumed to have 1
thats why he writes subring
I still think this is a poor way to define and introduce ideals, but hey ho.
It's redundant, makes it seem like you have to prove more than you actually do.
they're the subsets of R that are equivalence classes under a relation invariant under multiplication and addition
Everything is in the question I wrote
Well, if it contains 1....then when the elements of the Ring are multiplied with it, you just get the elements of the Ring
So I = R?
Yes
The sum of the elements of R
So let us now go back to our question
If it's in the example we were looking at, sorry
The ideal <1, 2, ..., 9> of Z
Do you agree that it contains 1, 2, ..., and 9?
This should be very clear from the definition
Absolutely
open problem
a real thinker
equivalent to CFSG
Might be independent of ZFC
me 30 minutes ago was so naive, so young, so innocent...
me 30 minutes ago was playing a lil boogie woogie rag time jazz
Yo that's cool
now I've hopped on the 'craft (2011)
Sorry, power outage
So 1 is in the ideal generated by 1, 2, ..., 9. Is that what you are saying? Just making sure before I try to answer it using sums haha
<1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9> = {r_1(1)+r_2(1)+...+r_9(1)+r_1(2)+r_2(2)+...+r_9(2)+...} or is it {r_1(1)+r_2(2)+...+r_9(9)}?
Or nilpotent
1: what does your textbook say
2: Since r_1, ..., r_9 are arbitrary, you can just combine r_1(1) + r_2(1) + ... r_9(1) = (r_1 + r_2 + ... + r_9)(1) so the two sets you wrote are equivalent, can you see?
Why are you doing insane sums
Literally what are you doing
Here is the book definition again
You need to actually look at it
Ok, so it says that a_1, ..., a_n belong to R
But those aren't necessarily the same elements as the r_i's in the ideal generated by the a_i's
For example lets consider a polynomial ring
R[x], polynomials with real coefficients
What is (x^2), the ideal generated by x^2?
just apply the definition
what sorts of polynomials live in that ring
I am stuck on smth I think is easy sad.
sure, but you can simplify this considerably
Stop doing multiple coefficients on each generator
also notice in the definition the number of terms in the sum is n = the number of generators
which hints how to simplify
The definition says that the r_i's are elements of the Ring
also + ... is not well defined, infinite sums are not well defined
The issue being that like okay say A/I has (A/I)[p^n] = (A/I)[p^oo], then if p^k a is in I^m, it is in I lol so in fact p^n a is in I. But then I don't see how to do anything without multiplying by a again lol
Like ideally you'd want to show p^mn a is in I^m or smth
where does the p^oo come from?
Oh I see I've never seen that notation before (although idk of any notation in the first place ig)
hmmmm
Come on man. We just covered an EXTREMELY relevant result regarding this
We proved something extremely relevant
I mean one thing that should be possible is using the SES 0 -> I/I^n-> A/I^n -> A/I or smth
I didn't have you prove that thing for nothing!
The hint I have is 'devissage' lol
am I dumb or can you not like just apply the hypothesis of A/I after you say "so in fact p^n a is in I"
never heard that term before
idk I'm just spitballing here idk the answer here either
Maybe I should ask in advanced alg lol idk
maybe cause other help is going on in here
I'm just confused...
Does anyone know any good resources to learn about tensor products (of modules)
OK
Chapter 10.4 of dummit and foote covers them but its a bit difficult for me
I liked the coverage in Rotman's Introduction to Homological Algebra. I'm not sure if its easier than dummit and foote, you may just have to work with the definition and get used to it a bit
I learnt via atiyah-macdonald's commutative algebra which was fine
Rotman is good yea
Dummit and foote doesn't really use definitions LOL
they are being very verbose
I haven't read D&F 
D&F is very verbose yea (I don't like it lol)
it's a good reference for UG algebra after you already know it and need to look at it again for refresher
i've heard the opposite since a lot of stuff is worked through in the exercises
so far i've enjoyed it though chapter 10 has been great
I havw never rly used D+F 😌
this is the same as your first definition
So I think why I'm confused is because which r_i goes with which s_i? Is there some sort of order imposed on these sets?
Luckily for you, most alg top books hand-wave the point-set stuff, so you basically only need the basic notions of topologies, connectedness and compactness. U might like Hatcher - whom I hate lol
e.g. If Z[x] is our ring and 4Z is our subset then <4z> = <..., -4, 0, 4, ...> = a sum of products of elements, but that sum could be different depending on which elements you multiply together
I would more just say you don't really need much point set stuff regardless of what you're doing
(For most things in algebraic topology)
can you elaborate what you mean?
Like if you multiply 100 from 4Z with a polynomial vs multiplying 1000 with that same polynomial
Isn't Z[x] a ring of polynomials with integer coefficients?
Oh, gotcha
take 2x
Ok
What about 2x^2? It's in there too, so does it also get multiplied by 100 and 1000?
Is 2x^2 of the form r * s for some r in Z[x] and s in <4Z>?
100*2x^2 and 1000*2x^2 are both of that form, so those elements are in <4Z> but what about just 2x^2?
Here is an answer that shows what I"m talking about
Why is r paired with x and s paired with y?
Won't that sum of products be different depending on what you choose for each variable?
can you answer my question first?
2x^2 is not in <4Z>
to answer this, ok lets make this more concrete
uhhhh lets say we're in Z
and lets say r = 2 and s = 5
so then (2, 5) = {2x + 5y | x, y in Z}
it's the set of all possible sums of this form
I could also write {2y + 5x | x, y in Z}
ordering is arbitrary, I just need to give those variables a name
Oh
does that clear things up?
set of all possible sums of that form
yea!
That is terrible notation
that's exactly what this definition says
how is it terrible notation 😭
it's just basic set notation
Wdym
Why should it be a set of sets
I mean okay it isn't 100% formal but it is unambiguous what it means and something worth getting used to
It should be { {r_i_1a_1 + r_i_2_a_2 + ... + r_i_na_n} }
Why?
remember these ideals are subsets of the original ring
Ok, I think what I mean is they shouldn't use numbered indices in that definition
so each element of the ideal should be in the ring
oh
I mean for arbitrarily many generators you need some way to label them
how else would you label them
I guess so, it's just that Gallian's definition makes it look like r_1 can only be multiplied by the same indexed a element
Almost like the sets are ordered and then each element has a specific product element in the other set
Could you say the ideal generated by S is kind of a linear combination of S with coefficients in R?
…it is
that's exactly what it is
It’s just sums of multiples. You get one coefficient for each of your generators
What
Tf you mean, no there aren’t
not sets within the set, but sums within the set
So it becomes a set with many different sums of different combinations of coefficients
All possible linear combinations
For every object in the ideal, there are coefficients that give it as a sum of generators
It is the set of elements which can be written in the form r_1 a_1 + ... r_n a_n foor somoe n>=0 and r_1,...,r_n in R
The elements don't care what you call them when you're quantifying over all of them
Right, but just like in the example we looked at <r, s> = {rx + sy, ry + sx | x, y \in R}
So it's the set of all possible linear combinations
Yes
r is just a letter being quntified over
So the indices should not be assigned strictly
These definitions with numeric indices make it seem like r can only go with x and s can only go with y because the order is (r, s) (x, y)
Definitely answered my question though
I was literally gone for an hour and mfs still can't substitute things into a definition
Wow I really like Rotmans explanation of tensor products
tensor products are when you compose bimodules
Havn't gotten there yet but I like how (specifically for tensor products) Rotmans book gives a definition and immediately follows up with concrete examples
wasn't Poincaré a hater of point set topology
Lol idk
Based
but idk more
I must be looking at the wrong book cause this ain't "immediate"
Real
I age greatly when I use this server
fret not........ for the reaper will come for us all
Ok so the map F(u) is just u
I've got left exactness
So all that's left is to show if A/pA = 0 then F(v) is surjective
Let c in C[p], so pc = 0. Then c in C means there is some b in B, v(b) = c. I would like to show that pb = 0. We have that 0 = pc = pv(b) = v(pb) which means pb is in the image of of u. Thus there is some a in A, u(a) = pb
But A = pA so there is an a' such that a = pa'. This implies that u(a') = b
aaaaaand then I'm stuck
This only implies that
p u(a') = pb
Which means that p(b - u(a')) = 0.
Now think about v(b - u(a'))
Note you can also prove this with the snake lemma, as F is the kernel of multiplication by p and G is the cokernel
Or note that F = Hom(Z/p, -) and show that G = Ext(Z/p, -)
Hmmm I need to understand Ext more so I may try to work that out myself
This, but also
The only other possibility is m * n := -mn (which is isomorphic to Z with the standard multiplication by n |---> -n). For any multiplication, if 1 * 1 = x then m * n = xmn by repeated addition. This is valid for any x if you just want a rng, but if you want a multiplicative identity e, then e * n = xen = n => xe = 1 => x = +-1.
i see, thanks
i think my main question is that if someone talks about $\mathbb{Z}$, can i assume we have it as a ring with all its normal properties? "subgroup of Z" makes me think of it as only an additive group, with no preconceived notion of multiplication, is that wrong interpretation?
esca (@ with reply)
Yes. Absolutely. Without thinking twice or even once. No-one ever refers to ℤ as a ring and means another ring structure unless they very clearly say so first and if someone violates this, you can probably raise a mob to lynch them.
okay tysm
And subgroup of ℤ probably means an additive subgroup, i.e. subgroup of the additive group (ℤ, +).
I wonder if there’s a way to justify G = {1H, …., y^{p-1}H } without using a homomorphism
Can someone check my proof for the third problem?
Hi, is there a correct channel for me to discuss the Unified Field Theory of Everything? My model maintained dimensional consistency across quantum scale - celestial scale objects and I now need to model and predict model with my Unified Field Theory of Everything Theory. Thanks in advance
Have you tried vixra
Hi, no I am not familiar. I am searching for others to work with, in all honesty I can code the system environment needed, but I’m sort of so excited about resolving the UFToE I’d like to find someone who can ensure me that I’m not going insane.
What children think mathematicians do: "I just proved the theorem that says that we're living in a simulation... checkmate elon musk"
What mathematicians actually do: "Can someone please help me work out the 69th cohomology of the piss ring, a ring that I defined for no reason and that nobody but me cares about"
Speak for yourself. I just proved that the universe has the geometry of Spec(pissring)
what mathematicians actually do: "what if I took this construction...... and made it into a category...."
Dude
Shut up
Stop trying to advertise
You are going to get advanced access removed
Sweetie, he's making fun of you. It was a joke.
Getting laughed out of the room is not even close to being persecuted for your beliefs; this is an incredibly offensive comparison
It's this kind of takes that get you laughed out of the room
The reason you're not being taken seriously is that every two weeks or so someone comes into this server and claims they have a proof of the Riemann hypothesis or some other long-standing math or physics problem, and then proceed to demonstrate zero actual knowledge of math or physics above high school
This is why we need applications for advanced math channels.
Thanks lol
I was going to timeout but I looked at their short post history and figured it's not worth it
isn't the theory of everything about like.... physics?
Such a promising career so prematurely cut short
Bold to assume it was meaningful at all
so it might make more sense in #geometry-and-manifolds or something

Just another crank with a persecution complex.
90 messages btw
They just started having a fit and compared themselves to someone who got burned alive
lol
This is literally pissring cohomology
I miss that high schooler who invented the best prime-generating function one day and solved RH the next, and compared himself to Galileo.
Similar vibes but more entertaining.
I miss Jesse. Rip. He didn’t die, he just never is around
It's about everything, duh.
Z_n has a subgroup of order k <=> k | n
Both => and <= follow from lagrange theorem right?
No, only => is from Lagrange
Lagrange does not guarantee the existence of any subgroups
But couldn't I also say: if k does not divide n then there is no subgroup or order k because every order of subgroup (of a finite group) divides the order of group
Yes, that is called contraposition.
This has nothing to do with algebra. The proposition A => B is logically equivalent to the proposition not B => not A.
Ohh wait so im proving => again
Yes.
You will need to use properties of Z_n specifically to prove this, because this is false for groups in general.
You cannot make some slick argument using Lagrange here.
hm ok
Hint: n = kx for some x. Can you use x to produce a subgroup of Z_n?
kx = n * 1 = 1 in Z_n, so x is an element of Z_n that has order k. And then <x> is a subgroup of order k
kx = n * 1 = 1
?
that has order k.
Remember that the order of an element is the least n for which it goes to the identity. You've not shown that your k is the least such number yet.
Remember the identity in Z_n is 0, not 1
ahh yeah damn wait
Can I just say: let k'<k, then k'x = 0 and kx = 0 and so k'x = kx => k' = k
No this is confusing Z and Z_n
k'x = kx => k' = k
This is false in Z_n
k'<k
This is meaningless in Z_n
k'x = 0 and kx = 0
This is true in Z_n, but if you want to use k' < k you need to work in Z.
Hint: use the theorem on the division algorithm
Let's work in Z.
Suppose that there were some integer 0 <= k' < k such that k'.x = 0 in Z_n
Then k'x < kx = n
So the remainder of k'x upon division by n is k'x
(by the theorem on the division algorithm)
But k'x = 0 mod n, so the remainder is 0.
So k'x = 0 and k' = 0
Edited to add positivity assumption
In this step you say n = a * k'x + k'x for some a \in Z?
No this is backwards
k'x = nq + r for a unique pair of integers (q, r) such that 0 <= r < n.
But k'x = n0 + k'x so r = k'x is the remainder.
??
or natural number
OK but 0 can't be order of the group?
It cannot be the order of x because the order is always positive, yes.
So in fact there is no positive integer below k that kills off x in Z_n, and we are done.
nicee
i’m a bit surprised… i can’t find any intuitionistically valid proof that over a field xy = 0 implies x = 0 or y = 0
at least after staring at it for 15 min
the proof by contradiction is clear though
Intuitionistically, it probably depends on your definition of field.
E.g. if "for all x, x = 0 or there exists y, xy = 1" holds, then apply that to x. In the first case, you're done; in the second case, you can multiply by the inverse of x to conclude that y = 0.
@coral spindle just had to use the Zassenhaus lemma dawg I'm cooked
you don't even wanna know...
ok I trust u 
I'm not sure if it even works because it's fuckin Zassenhaus
I just have the Zassenhaus set up so like...
it's like when u have a quotient by an intersection u always raise a lil eyebrow ykwim
like mr dwayne 'the rock' johnson
yeah it didn't really do much
we may never know
This is what I thought lol
oh
Let P = (x - 1) in R = K[x, y]/(xy) with K = the reals. I'd like to show that the localization of R at the multiplicatively closed set R\P is K[x]_{(x-1)}.
Intuitively, K[x, y]/(xy) consists of polynomials with no mixed terms, i.e. polynomials of the form f(x, y) = f_x(x) + f_y(y). Elements in the localization R_P look like f(x, y)/g, where g ∉ (x - 1), while elements in K[x]_{(x - 1)} look like f(x)/g, where g ∉ (x - 1). I don't quite see how to construct a homomorphism... Hints? (Also tried using the universal property -- but it was kinda messy, so I think constructing homos is the way to go.)
Or even the physics server
Continuing from here, I need to prove that is the only group of order k
You should try this on your own first.
let <x> <x'> both be subgroups of Z_n of order k
im just dancing around this formulas for some time now and idk what it means:
kx = 0 and kx' = 0.
there exists r and l natural numbers that for g in Z_n: rg = x and lg = x'
krg = 0 and klg = 0 so n divides both so then...
ok so i've probably done a silly here and need some help... the exercise is: from a field F, form E = F x F with addition given coordinatewise and with product (a,b)(c,d) = (ac - bd, ad + bc) and determine conditions under which E is a field
that (E,+) is an abelian group is obvious, and i checked that the product is commutative though i forgot to check inverses exist oops, but what i'm wondering about is distributivity
i expanded (a,b)((c,d) + (e,f)) = (a,b)(c+e,d+f) and compared it with (a,b)(c,d) + (a,b)(e,f) but if my calculations check out (which i would never take for granted) they're the same without any additional conditions
coordinatewise
OK
This is just Cayley-Dickson right
is perhaps the inverses where the missing condition is?
That is certainly the most restrictive condition on a field
because i haven't found any ehehe, but i assume it may be may brain is just so used to working over a fields that i just used one without realizing
oh ok
I believe so
so this may actually be one of those rare cases in which my algebraic manipulations do check out (i just forgot the most important one) mwahaha
also i've waited way too long before having like a proper look at these things
i've just taken my fields for granted for years 
I think you can just define the norm and use that to form inverses
Oh actually
This only works if you have a notion of conjugation on F (which might be trivial). I think if F=C then E would have elements with 0 norm
Not sure if that means they're non invertible but i'd imagine so
ooh say no more sounds fun lemme figure the rest out myself
||If the field F is R then you're looking at C, right? 1 = (1, 0) and i = (0, 1).||
||So right, you need some condition. I will say no more.||
yeah now i only have to see whether or not i have my basic linear algebra in order, i have two equations and two unknowns... Mnemosyne be with me
Would you ever use a CAS to carry out some of those calculations? I would hate doing those by hand
ok now i have explicitly found that every nonzero (a,b) has an inverse and i... still don't see the condition, other than like a^2 + b^2 ≠ 0
i quite enjoy doing these things by hand :S
the inverse is (a, -b)/(a^2 + b^2), but i'm not sure where the condition on F comes in
oh
I get so nervous I'm making a mistake, and the nervousness increases as the calculations get longer, so I love having the computer just tell me the answer
(i,1) very suspiciously does not satisfy i^2 + 1^2 ≠ 0

sorry for the double negation
well i find it very instructive to keep track of the symmetries in your expressions as you go... then it's somehow intuitively clear when something is off
conclusion: silly brain currently too reals-minded and forgetting a^2+b^2 may be 0 even if (a,b) ≠ 0 in arbitrary fields
thanks for the help Boytjie and Shin 
yeah, that's true I guess, maybe I should get better at doing things by hand
did you check associativity of the product btw?
You get associativity for free if ||you see this as F[x]/(x^2+1)|| so we can alleviate jens' suffering a bit 
But you are right in principle
phew 🙏 associativity would've been the most tedious I think
oopsie woopsie! ;3
no it isn't
shut up i hate you
lemme see if i can type out a verification of assoc with my left hand as i eat walking omw home…
n o
this skulduggery cannot persist.... verify the associativity or PERISH
actually nvm i’ll just take in the scenery as i walk 
i suppose one could also represent E* as a matrix group, from which assoc would follow immediately
if it can be represented as such, which i admit i do not know

I meant in the case F=C but F isn't considered with its involution
So E=C^2
But yea if you start with R you just get C
Anime protagonist activities
I think we can represent E as ||[a -b; b a]|| because of how ||E = C when F = R||
yeah i think that checks out but i can’t be bothered to actually check rn
When you have a factor group G/H, then do you consider H to be the "zero element" of the factor group G/H?
I'm learning about factor rings and this proof says to suppose R/A is an integral domain and ab \in A. Then (a + A)(b + A) = ab + A = A, the zero element of the ring R/A.
So when you have a factor ring R/A, then do you consider A to be the "zero element" just like in a factor group?
Z mod n is just Z/(n) = Z/nZ
You probably should have seen factor groups before this though
Oh, yes, definitely. I'm just trying to compare factor rings to factor groups
Well, as far as addition goes, it’s exactly a group quotient
Because an ideal is an additive subgroup
If L, M are Galois extensions of K and L cap M=K then G(LM/K)=G(L/K) x G(M/K) right? (even when the extensions are infinite)
You say that because a ring is a group under addition?
Yes
Thank you!
It should certainly contain it, right? So it would be if we can’t have any extra weird automorphism yeah?
I think
Infinite extensions are a bit spooky though, so, take my “I believe yes” with a grain of salt
But if I’m correctly thinking about orbits & types, then uh
well I think the proof is the same as in the finite case, you don't need to use finiteness or anything
send sigma in G(LM/K) to (sigma|_L, sigma|_M). This is obviously injective, so it is enough to show it is surjective. But given sigma in G(L/K), since every x in LM can be written uniquely as x=lm with l in L, m in M, the map lm-->sigma(l)m is well defined and is an automorphism
Working on this first part of the proof that R/A is an integral domain if and only if A is prime.
Suppose that ab \in A. We know that ab + A = A by closure under addition. ab + A = (a + A)(b + A). So why does either (a + A) or (b + A) have to be equal to A?
Is it because A is the zero element of the factor ring which means that since it's an integral domain, either a + A = 0 or a + A = A (or b + A = 0 or b + A = A)?
Well, I need to fix the "= 0" part because A is the "zero element"
=0 is fine
Ok, gotcha
call it abusive notation
I think you don't even need the quotation marks here
the element A is precisely the additive identity of the quotient ring R/A
No worries
Should be fine yeah?
In the second half of the proof, why are they saying (a + A)(b + A) = 0 + A? Wouldn't that mean that ab = 0?
They're proving by contradiction that R/A is an ID
So assume two nonzero elements of R/A multiply to 0, and show a contradiction
ab is in A, so ab+A=A which = 0 in R/A
And ab \in A since 0 is the additive identity?
(a+A)(b+A) = A is exactly equivalent to ab in A.
And A is the 0 in R/A. So this (a+A)(b+A) = A would be two elements multiplying to 0
Ok, I was just thinking about the definition of (a+A)(b+A) = ab + A so if ab + A = 0 + A then ab = 0
No, ab need not equal 0.
You only have ab in A
Oh ok, I'm just wondering then what the 0 + A means and why they didn't write just A
Just to emphasize that this is the zero element in R/A
I'm not sure if I'm just missing an important part of the text but I'm not sure what this means:
"write down the elements of the group generated by (123456)..."
(123456) here is a permutation in cycle notation
I'm not sure what "the group generated by (123456)" would be
I don't see how that function generates a group (or what exactly "generates" means here), but I doubt the author would use the word group in a loose way (since it's a book on groups)
So are we viewing the cycle as an element of S_6?
Nope!
So, the subgroup generated by the cycle would be the smallest subgroup of S_6 which contains the cycle
I'm not sure what a subgroup is yet although that is the next section of the book
Ah, I see
is there an informal notion of it that I could reasonably use for now, or maybe it was a misplaced problem?
I think…
Suppose you wanted to include that cycle in a group
What would be a good group operation to try?
I mean, a subgroup seems pretty intuitive, and I can work with this probably, but I figure I'm not intended to be using that ideology quite yet
ok so if this cycle were an element in a group...
since it's a function, function composition seems like a reasonable group operation
I'd say the other permutations of length 6 if you didn't already tell me it wasn't S_6. maybe cycles that can be combined to produce (123456)?
that's a good place to start yeah. loosely:
closure - if a and b are in S then ab is in S
associativity
identity
inverses
Mhm - and, at the moment, those aren’t satisfied with (123456) alone, right?
What I would suggest is - using these axioms alone, see what other group elements you can deduce must exist
I think that's a great idea. thanks! I'll come back if I'm at a loss again
hmm. (for functions a and b) should the existence of ab (a compose b) in the group imply the existence of a and b?
hm nevermind this was a premature thought. I'll stew on this some more
let k = k' k", where k' is odd and k" is a power of two.
Why then does CRT imply F_2[x-1]/(x^k - 1) = F_2[x]/(x^k'-1) (+) F_2[x-1]/((x-1)^k")?
what have you tried so far
Well F_2[x-1] = F_2[x], so I can rewrite this as
F_2[x]/(x^k - 1) = F_2[x]/(x^k'-1) (+) F_2[x]/(x^k")
So I guess it's just a matter of showing x^k'-1 and x^k" are relatively prime and that they multiply to x^k -1, unless I screwed up everything above
I feel like relatively prime should be obvious but there's probably some result about how the degrees of the polynomials are related in this situation that I'm forgetting. But these polys don't multiply to the original poly
You mean rewrite as
F2[x]/((x+1)^k - 1) = ...
So you need to fiddle with when binomial coefficient are even or odd yeah
Oh whoops, yes
Give an example of a non-abelian group of order 120 and an element in it that has
order 6. Has anyone an idea? or how to approach this exercise?
The first thing to do is to notice that 120 is a factorial...
Then you just need an element of order 6.
thats more tricky
Do you know some ways to determine the order of a permutation?
Does "cycles" ring a bell?
yes
by just looking how many permutations we need in order to get the identity?
for example (a b) has order 2 because we need to change a b then change it again
so 2
Right. And how about, say, (1 2)(3 4)?
i think i have to refresh permutations
maybe 4?
ord((1 2)) *ord((3 4)) = 2 * 2 = 4
would be my first thought
A reasonable first guess -- but try to write out the powers of (1 2)(3 4) explicitly.
what do u mean by powers of ?
I mean if you have a group element x, then by definition its order is how far in the list x, x², x³, .... you need to go before you meet e. The entries in that list are "powers of" x.
or by just determine the lcd(ord((1 2)), ord((3 4)))= 2*2/2=2?
lcm, but yes!
So, as we're looking for an element of S5 with order 6, we need to divide 5 elements into some cycles, such that the lcm of their lengths is 6.
so maybe it is useful to have one with order 3 and one with order 2? because both are coprime soo 3*2/1=6
but how does a element with order 3 looks like lol
(a b c)?
Yes.
soo (a b c d) has order 4 and so forth?
yes
soo ( a b c)( d e)
an n cycle has order n which makes sense
your english is fine
i have another question
soo
if we have a non cyclic group
and arbitrary many cyclic groups
sure
and we do the cartesian product of them then the product is not cyclic right? because one of the entry is not cyclic
yes this is true
but note that it's very rare for the product of only cyclic groups to be cyclic
This is very important
x^0 is the identity e for any element x in any group… it is an instance of the more general identity that x^(k ord x) = e for all integers k
So there is Lucas's theorem you can apply to determine the parity of the binomial coefficients in my case. Suppose k = 2^i(2j+1). Then all the even coeffs vanish and the smallest odd (k choose m) is when m = 2^i
Though there are also higher m's with the property that (k choose m) is odd I believe
so we know that ZmxZn is cyclic only if m and n are coprime. Does is only work for the product of two finite cyclic groups? or does it also work for arbitrary many finite cyclic groups with the condition of coprime orders
It is more complicated for the general case, but it does not matter, because you can reduce to the case of two.
Well actually now that I think of it properly, what I say is misleading.
It simply reduces to the case of a product of two and generalises how you'd expect.
sooo it works for arbitrary many?
Try proving it
this really is a rn_image_picker_lib_temp_9575f55f-df3e-4c6f-affe-8 moment
I am not downloading that
Given how this proof of "showing every finite group G with a normal subgroup H has a composition series containing N" works:
It seems as long as you exhibit a non-trivial, proper normal subgroup H of finite group G, you can take any chain of normal subgroups with a property on its factors and prove it on such a group G by induction by piecing togther the chain and using the induction hypothesis on the small subgroups H, and G/H
i feel like my thinking must be wrong, could anyone correct me in pointing out on how the above mentioned proof must be limited to composition series, rather than any chain of normal subgroups? Or maybe the proof (from stack exchange) is not correct?
You need simplicity in the factors for it to be a composition series
Otherwise if you just want to show every group has a chain of normal subgroups there's a pretty trivial one: {e} ≤ G
or in this case a chain of normal subgroups containing H: {e} ≤ H ≤ G
but this has 0 guarantees of simplicity in the factors
yes i know this, but im saying that for example if you want to show every finite group has a series/chain where very quotient is abelian, you could use the same logic as long as you come up with a non-trivial normal subgroup of G
I'm confused can't you just take 1 < G/[G,G] < G
or are we doing the "factors have to be simple" woke mind virus
why are we talking about abelian now
could you not use strong induction?
What's the base case?
I am aware we are using strong induction
Let me elaborate
u can order the finite groups 
haha how silly of me forgot you still need base case
Every group has a composition series because of the base case: if a group has no normal subgroups, it is by definition simple
fake news woke math
But you cannot do the same with Abelian groups because there is not the same thing
well i'm assuming you can exhibit a non-tribial normal subgroup, but yes you still need to prove a base case if you impose pproperty on the quotient, correct?
Thank u for the trivial group xoxoxox
All horses are the same colour
Is the following way for showing Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3))=Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)) valid? (From a book). We need to show that Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)) is a subset of Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3)) and that Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3)) is a subset of Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)). The first inclusion is obvious, for the second one let A=sqrt(2)+sqrt(3) equiv to A-sqrt(2)=sqrt(3), implies A^2-2Asqrt(2)+2=3, equiv to sqrt(2)=(A^2-1)/(2A). This implies that sqrt(2) is in Q(A), since sqrt(3)=A-sqrt(2) also sqrt(3) is in Q(A)=Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)). Together this implies that Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3)) is subset of Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)). Combined with the inclusion Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)) is a subset of Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3)) it follows that these are equal. This method of introducing an "A" and defining it as A=sqrt(2)+sqrt(3), I'm not sure why it works, don't we have to show that sqrt(2) and sqrt(3) can be written as a linear combination of positive powers of (sqrt(2)+sqrt(3))? (am confused)
We introduce A to more compactly write sqrt(2)+sqrt(3) AND to show in a clear way that sqrt(2) and sqrt(3) can be expressed as rational functions in A (=sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)). Remember that Q(A) can be thought of as the set of rational functions in A with coefficients in Q.
Would it make sense to say that Q(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)) is isomorphic to Q[x]/(m(x)) where m(x) is the minimal polynomial for sqrt(2)+sqrt(3), since m(x) is by definition irreducible it follows that Q[x]/(m(x)) is a field. So divison by powers of A=sqrt(2)+sqrt(3) is defined makes sense (I assume this is what you mean by rational functions in A)?
Unfortunately I have to go. But the way to see it is that Q(A) is the field of fractions of Q[A], and Q[A] is polynomials in A.
I have to read more about field of fractions then, not comfortable with them, ty anyways
what you did works, uginp
Only trying to prove that A is an ideal of R[x]. Here is my proof so far.
Let $a \in A$ and let $b \in A$. Then using the ideal test, $a - b = (a_nx^n+...+a_1x)-(b_nx^n+...+b_1x)$. So simplifying this gives $(a_n-b_n)x^n+...+(a_1-b_1)x$ which is an element of A. Does that seem correct? Other answers use other ways of proving it, but this was my own version
Soap_Opera
This is assuming that a_i != b_i...I guess...so maybe that proof doesn't work
Oh, wait, yeah I was thinking zero/nonzero constant term
Ok, so I guess I'm wondering if that proof works? I just need to also check that ra and ar are both in A when r \in R and a \in A
the proof shows that A is a subring (gallian subring)
i will mention that you havent said A is nonempty yet
What is a good way to say that A is nonempty besides saying A is nonempty haha. Is it ok to provide an example like x \in A so A is nonempty? (I'm also working on my proof writing skills)
0?
0 * r for any r in R is 0 which has a 0 constant term so 0 \in A
So A is nonempty
yes
this was not needed btw