#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 257 of 1
Just bumping this cause another discussion took place
Lol this came up in my masters thesis and has given me flashbacks
This came up in my research lol
Such a nice combinatorial object
Absolutely horrendous in other ways but it’s nice enough for now
Tbf you were the one who mentioned the trees iirc
Yeah. This is the case even outside of S_p^k
For S_n with p-adic expansion n = \sum_i=1^k a_ip^i, The p-sylow subgroup is a direct product of the sylow subgroups of S_p^i, so it acts on a forest of p-ary trees
can you consider infinite p-trees
On a related note does anyone recall what the representation theoretic correspondence between GL_n and S_n is called? I think there’s an nlab page but I can’t find it
Yeah but I’m not sure if it still works
Is it S_n being the Weyl group of GL_n?
No. It’s the F_1 nonsense one
Weyl groups can supposedly be thought of as algebraic groups over F_1
Although I don’t see why it shouldn’t
Is that it?
Yeah that sounds like it lol
I don’t think I’ve heard of it like that but it makes sense
Oh
Did you know that quaternionic reflection groups are a thing and that they have been classified?
Googling rn
There’s a question on overflow about octonionic reflection groups this is crazy
They defined f: A->B and I want to show that if f is surjective then there exists g:B->A such that gf is identity function on B, yes they define composition in that way.
But I am not sure how they can say that g is well - defined? Does it fix that a ?
If it is a permutation group then it is always transitive and if X has more than 2 elements then that group will be non-abelian so X contains at most 2 elements. Thus it will be regular because there is no other element.
Is it correct?
Actually they defined the permutation group as a subset of Sym(X), now it makes sense
is it Q(i, sqrt 2)?
with a silly little , in there
yeah, since that has i <-> -i and sqrt 2 <-> -sqrt 2
which seems preeeeety C_2^2 looking
yeah
theres Q(i sqrt 2) which is in there too though yeah?
theres another subgroup of C_2^2 that isnt the left or right copy
the one generated by (1,1)
which is isomorphic to C_2 yet again
How do I know this
Like Q( some combinations between alpha and beta)
Here P= x⁴+aX²+b for some rationnls
When are two matrices of SL_2(R) similar?
signature? Im having a problem with some definitions... matrices $A,B \in M_n(\mathbb{R})$ are similar, if there exists an invertible matrix $P$, so that $A = PBP^{-1}$. If $A$ in $B$ invertible, we can equivalently say that $A$ and $B$ are conjugates of group $GL_n(\mathbb{R})$. Find similar matrices of $SL_2(\mathbb{R})$ that are not conjugates of group $SL_2(\mathbb{R}$)
OHHELLNAH
- Why only if A and B invertible we can equivalently say that A and B are conjugates?
A,B in SL_2(R) are similar when there exists a invertible matrix P from M_n(R) so that A = PBP^{-1}
is this right? cause im thinking maybe this invertible matrix that has to exists has to be from the same group
and M_n(R) is not even a group
This is the problem im trying to solve
can i get some hints for the example part?
If they're not invertible, they're not in GLn, so then it doesn't make sense to say they are conjugate in GLn
Maybe consider like S_4 and a certain subgroup of index 2
Yes, this is right. So the question is asking you to find A and B such that there is such a P, but no such P in SL2
i got D_8 / <r>
that works right?
Ye
oki thanks
should i think of homomorphism or of normal subgroups when forming a quotient group?
i know N is normal iff N is a kernel of some homomorphism but when forming quotient groups, which pov is better?
Just think about normals
Nobody really thinks about normals as the kernel of a homorphism
I will have to disagree with Irony, it's usually much easier to think in terms of homomorphisms.
But it depends, if you want to understand the quotient group abstracly, then the homomorphisms for which N is the kernel is the quotient map G -> G/N. So that would be putting the cart before the horse.
But if you have some normal subgroup and want to find out what G/N is, it's usually best to try to find some homomorphism with kernel N and see what the image is.
Thinking about homomorphisms is more about considering what the quotient group “does”
isnt it more like how the quitoent group is formed instead of what it does?
So what I mean is the following
it does nothing right? it is formed as a result of the homomorphism
How would you think about GL_n(R)/SL_n(R) without using the determinant homomorphism?
It actually does do something, but I’ll explain
What it “does” is about it how it relates to other groups, and what you can use it for
Namely, there’s an alternative description for group homomorphisms out of G/N
Specifically, group homomorphisms G/N -> Z naturally correspond to group homomorphisms G -> Z that send N to the identity
You can interconvert between the two
In a bijective manner
Have you seen this?
havent exactly read about this in dummit and foote so far but they briefly mention this at the end of the quotient group chapter
and it makes sense as G/N is a group iff N is a kernel of some homomorphism
So, I can be more explicit
Given a group hom G/N -> Z
We have the quotient map G -> G/N
If you compose these, you get a group hom G -> Z which sends N to the identity, right?
yes
One important property of G/N is that this process is reversible
So if you have a group hom G -> Z which sends N to the identity
You can construct a corresponding group hom G/N -> Z
Do you see how?
send 1N to 1 and mN to m?
So explicitly, you have $\varphi : G \to Z$ a group hom
Pseudonium
And what I’m looking for is a group hom $\psi : G/N \to Z$ constructed from $\varphi$
Pseudonium
This looks like a combination of fundamental theorem of galois theory, and the constructive primitive element theorem proof.
I’m not entirely sure what this means
what i wrote is just the natural proejction homomorphism from G to G/N
youre asking something different
That would be sending 1 to 1N, and m to mN
ah yes
But you seem to be trying to do the reverse…?
yes
And in general there’s not a reverse, cause you can have mN = rN
But m not being equal to r
ah right
Despite this obstruction, what I said is still possible
.
i was gonna say take the inverse of the natural projection and apply phi
but inverse of the natural projection is not how i thought it would be
Mhm, that’s what you’d like to do, but you can’t quite take the inverse as a function
It’s a relation - a single coset gN is related to many elements of G
Would you like to see?
yeah
Here’s how you do it
You just define $\psi(gN) = \varphi(g)$, and you check that this is “well-defined”
Pseudonium
this looks so simple lol
Indeed, we wanted this to be the inverse to composing with the quotient map
So it better be the case that $\psi \circ q = \varphi$
Pseudonium
Otherwise it’s not inverting the process
And if you plug an element of g into this
You get that $\psi(gN) = \varphi(g)$
Pseudonium
So all you need to check is that if $gN = hN$, then $\varphi(g) = \varphi(h)$
Pseudonium
yes
That’s what it means for the map to be “well-defined”
And after that it’s not very hard to check this is a group homomorphism too
then not all homomorphism from G to Z would lead to a homomorphism from G/N to Z right?
Yes
You need the homomorphism to send N to the identity
cuz phi(g) = phi(h) is not always a must for arbitraty hmomorphism
Indeed
i ll try to prove if this is the case then the homomorpishm from G/N to Z is well defined
but i have to go to class now
Ok
So I feel like this is not true and I have been trying for a counterexample
So they haven't specified G , H to be finite or infinite so I think it breaks in some infinite weird group
Yeah but H is not necessarily given normal
that's the issue lol
If it helps this is in the group actions section
If you consider g, g^2,...,g^n then one of the g^i will fall in H
Oh
Wait okay so of group is finite then uh maybe we can do sth to get that g^mn is e
But what if the group is infinite
if G is infinite then H has to be infinite too
Okay?
Infinite groups can have like an exponent that anhilates all elements tho right?
Actually @rotund aurora I think I might need one more hint
croqueta's idea works in the infinite case as well. Just to convincee myself that his statement is correct:
If g, ..., g^n are all in different cosets of H then there is some g^i that's in H by the pigeon hole principle, if there are two g^i, g^j in the same coset g^iH, then g^ig^-j is in H?
Ok, now. Let g^i in H, then g^im = e... what I fail to see is why i needs to divide n
note that H is of finite index, we don't care if G is finite or not. I did not use that G was infinite
yeah so the problem is that i need not divide n, but if you take i minimal I think it does divide n
This only proves that g^km = e for some k<=n though
yeah I'm not seeing why i minimal would divide n, lemme think some more
I believe it's an Euclid style argument, g,g^2,...,g^k are in different cosets, g^(k+1) is in the same coset as g, etc
It won't
this might also not be the intended solution. If we want to use group actions then perhaps the fact that G acts freely on G/H Gibberish, obviously false
C2 in S3 is a counterexample, but it still satisfies the original question
an infinite group acting on a finite set freely makes me raise an eyebrow personally
How tf did u think that up so fast 🔥🔥😭
Damn
It's the smallest non-abelian group
open problem
Why is it like that?
Don't know how to attack the original problem though
Why not similar from SL_2{R}
Fr?
yeah nobody knows what the smallest n0n-abelian group is
Huh 💀
That's just not what the word similar means I guess
jagr are you trying to find two matrices non conjugate in SL_2 but are in GL_2
like what's the deal here
Yeah, or ohhelnah is anyway
No I found them
Im a bit confused why this matrix that has to exists for the other two to be similar is from a different set of matrices
oh yeah it doesn't work. I thought it would work, mb
Ok so yeah I guess I'll be skipping this problem
Ohh nvm I think I got it its just from definiton it has to be a n*n matrix
Thanks for the efforts y'all 🙏
Do groups have to be of the same "type" to perform the external direct product of them? Would G and e_H have to be of similar structure in this question? e.g. e_H happens to be an identity element for a group of permutations and G is a subgroup of Z_n.
there is no "type"
although writing it as direct summation implies that all groups involved are abelian
but that's probably just non-standard notation
So $G\bigoplus e_H$ I can write as $( g_1, e_H),(g_2, e_H), ...$ ? I'm wondering if $e_H$ is just a singleton or if I use the "elements" of $e_H$ in the product such as $G\bigoplus e_H= (g_1, e_H_1), (g_2, e_H_2), ...$
there are no elements of e_H, it's not a set
ok I suppose it could be but that language is concerning
Soap_Opera
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but you're correct in that you can write $G \times {e_H} = {(g, e_H) \colon g \in G}$
Wew Lads Tbh
That questions doesn't seem very interesting then...isn't that similar to saying prove that a group is isomorphic to the product of itself and {1}?
or any singleton for that matter
yes that's exactly what they're asking you to prove
what if you take the normalizer of H?
N(H)={ g in G : gHg^{-1} subseteq H }
Alright, so I know you said you stopped working on this, but I had an idea.
||G acts transitively on G/H. Then for an element g consider the action of (g) on G/H. If the orbit of H has size k1, then we already argued g^k1m = e.||
||Now consider the orbit of some other coset xH. Then if it has size k2, then g^k2 x is in xH, hence x^-1 g^k2 x is in H. Since x^-1 g x has the same order as g we have g^k2m = e.||
||Now let ki be the sizes of the orbits. Then g^kim = e implies that g^gcd(kim) = g^gcd(ki)m = e.||
||Since sum ki = n, any common factor of them is also a factor of n, hence g^nm = e||
wait nvm you could have N(H)=H
(g) is subgroup generated by g?
Yes
let ki be the sizes of the orbits
These are the orbits of the action of (g) on G/H correct?
Correct
What happened in g^(gcd(k_i m)) = g^(gcd(k_i))m
Oh wait nvm
Ok great
Thank you so much @rocky cloak
The solution actually dosent seem to have anything very non trivial
I guess the key is always to observe from the "right" group actions
But idk when I'll get that skill 😭
No, nothing fancy. Just quite a few steps one would have to stumble into
I feel like i always have been weak with group actions 😔
Basically my thought process came from looking at why it works for C2 in S3.
Like you have elements such that g^3 is not in C2, but only when g is conjugate to something in C2.
So okay, maybe in general you can find like a conjugate of g to make it work.
Then setting up the group action, looking at a conjugate of g is just the same as thinking of a different orbit of g. And from there the argument made itself I guess
Oh okay so looking at a concrete example
And then you found the right action
I never did that
Actually tbh all my examples are abelian 💀
Well, you're given that G/H is finite, so that's really the only action to consider I guess
No but in all the actions I considered I was acting them up by G or by H
Or sth
I should have actually stepped back to find some non abelian example and see why it works
very nice solution jagr
Anyways thanks for sharing your valuable insights also @rocky cloak
Given a commutative ring R and a module M over R, I am asked to prove that if M is free then Tor(M) ={0}.
Do I have to assume that R is an integral domain?
My proof is as follows:
M is free so for all y in Tor(M) there is a unique representation: y = r_1 b_1 + ... +r_n b_n.
y is in Tor(M) so there is some nonzero scalar r in R such that ry=0 => r r_1 b_1 + ... r r_n b_n=0 => since M is free, r r_i =0 for all 1<=i<=n.
Now it seems to me that I have to assume that R is an integral domain to get that r_i = 0 (for all i) and then y=0.
Idk how you defined Tor but I think r should be a non zero divisor
It depends on how you define Tor(M) if R is not a domain
So this claim is flase if R isn't a Domain?
I mean, could* be false.
Meaning, unprovable as long as algebra is consistent.
By that definition it would be false yeah
I see...
So they probably expected us to assume in our HW that R is an integral domain
Since when we defined Tor(M) is said "let R be an integral domain..."
Let $G$ be a group, $H$ its subgroup, and $a$ an element from $G$. Suppose that $a^m = 1$ for some $m \in \mathbb{Z}$ and that $n$ is the smallest natural number with the property $a^n \in H$. Show that $n|m$
I started with proof with contradiction but idk what to do
OHHELLNAH
assume that n didn't divide m, then m = kn + r for some 0 < r < n and integer k. Now try thinking about a^ma^(-kn)
Are you using additive notation but with 1 as identity?
Oh Hell Nah!!
Idk that is the problem, im confusef about that too
don't use additive notation for non-abelian groups
I think 1 is multiplicative unit
a^m?
omg sorry guys
Let $G$ be a group, $H$ its subgroup, and $a$ an element from $G$. Suppose that $a^m = 1$ for some $m \in \mathbb{Z}$ and that $n$ is the smallest natural number with the property $a^n \in H$. Show that $n|m$
OHHELLNAH
damn i mistyped in my document and didnt check sry, i think i can solve now lol
i was able to get through a but am stuck on b
[redacted]
i think theres a more group theoretic solution that dosent actually require looking at this equation
U_n is by definition the set of n x n unitary matrices.. But in my problems we use U_n as that group connected with the unit circle, solutions of z^n = 1 I think... Is this the same thing or?
U_1 is the unit circle
oh nvm I see what you're saying
they're absolutely not the same thing
rather obviously in fact, U_n is uncountably infinite, your group is finite
Okk so in this problem:
Describe the sections of the group $U_{12}$ by the subgroup ${1, -1, i, -i}$
What is U_12?
OHHELLNAH
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Well it looks like it's a subgroup of the group of roots of unity in C
So I imagine it's the 12th roots of unity in C.
Ok then in abstract algebra the same notation is used for these groups
Sometimes people use overlapping notation
But notation for these groups is not totally agreed-upon
in a first course people tend to use bespoke notation for some ungodly reason
I would just call this group the cyclic group of order 12 C_12
because that's what it is
Yeah I like this ty
I get that they're trying to draw on objects you're already familiar with but it ALWAYS leads to confusion later
I might be having a bad brain day, but why is concatenation of {e, a} "automatically" associative?
We haven't been told that e is the identity element yet (i.e. in the first paragraph), so how do you know that (ae)a=a(ea)?
This is pretty much by definition of words
(aa)a = aaa = a(aa)
Like this is just for free by the definition of concatenation. It's defined specifically so that it's associative.
oh nvm haha I just read the 2nd line. Yeah it's what Boytjie said
You could spend time explicitly constructing this but it's not really helpful
da associatorrr
Simply define words over an alphabet as being the free monoid 
circular...........
NOOOOO
can somebody help me solve this question : Give an example for a group (G,* ) and a sunset H of G that (H,* ) satisfies all the axioms of a group except for the Identity element
good luck having inverses without an identity element
We talked about this before...
Did you think about this hint I gave you at all? #discrete-math message
oh wait yeah good point, I forgot about the ol \varnothing
I tried it was nearly impossible 
I disagree.
So ok let's re-copy my hint to make things easier.
Second hint: suppose x is an element of H. What do the closure and inverse properties together imply?
So what do you think of it. Tell me what comes to mind.
sub group
Let H be some subset of G that satisfies all the axioms except identity.
Suppose x is some element of H.
What does the inverses property tell us?
This is not a trick question and has an extremely simple answer.
for every x in H there exists x**-1 in H such that x*x-1 is the id element in G right?
^
sorry I don't respond quick
So what does this property, that $x \cdot x^{-1}$ is the identity, tell us about $H$, since we have the closure property?
Boytjie
That the condition is false in the question?
No
Not quite
But why are you saying this? Say the reason explicitly.
Then we will talk about why it's not quite correct
Can I tell what I tried to do since the beginning ?
Ahmed I am trying to bring you through this logic step-by-step, can you please just work with me?
Damn I feel dump
We'll talk about the whole picture later
The logic so far is:
- Suppose x is some element of H
- Then x^-1 is in H by the inverse property
- Then x x^-1 is in H by the closure property
So what's the next step?
What is the next thing that tells us something very important?
we have shown that the id element is in G then it must be in H so if H satisfies both the inverse and closure
we have shown that the id element is in G then it must be in H
This is faulty logic.
No, we have just shown the id element is in H.
So what does this tell us now. Remember, I made a key assumption in the logic:
suppose x is some element of H...
for any group G, there is exactly one set H that might have this property
You just copied my message! That's really insulting.
If you're not going to use your own words and reasoning I'm not going to engage you.
We'll try one more time
bruh
thanks
dont get tired with me
I will try to ask someone maybe understanding the question in english is not the best way was
I appreciate your help and I took your time
In my logic, I looked at some set H that satisfied the inverse and closure properties, but not the identity property.
I then assumed that H had some element x.
Then I showed that all together, this shows that H has the identity property.
What does this tell us about my assumption that H had some element x?
If you do not use your own words, we're done here.
That's right
damn
Don't delete your messages
assumption was flawed
It's better if you keep up your mistakes
yes
Indeed I assumed that H had some element x, and found a contradiction, so in fact H has no elements.
So what is H?
empty set
That's right.
There you go, you've found the only set H with that property
It's the empty set.
Don't do this again, it's incredibly rude and completely defeats the point of this. I don't want to hear my messages repeated back to me, I want to hear your thoughts – even if they're wrong – otherwise I cannot teach you.
I apologize for that I just didn't know how to translate it in my mind
in english
I forgot to add something in the question
H is not empty
Well good, you still have an answer.
Is there a shorter way to say "the quotient group of G by H" or "the factor group of G by H" for $G/H$?
Soap_Opera
G over H
When I read G/H is there a shorter phrase for the symbol?
G mod H
Thanks!
or even "G quotient H"
Describe cosets of $\mathbb{R}^3$ over subgroup ${(x, y, 0) | x \in \mathbb{R}}$
OHHELLNAH
In solution it says they are in form ${(x,y,z_0) | x,y \in R}$ where $z_0$ is a real number
OHHELLNAH
Not a mistake
The subgroup is not the whole group, so there is a coset other than the subgroup.
but my understanding of cosets of group R^3 over that subgroup are sets (a,b,c)*(x,y,0) for every (a,b,c) in R^3
so then its always (ax,by,0) and because ax and by are again in R all cosets have the form (x,y,0) for some x,y in R
Idk where am I wrong
The group operation is not multiplication.
Why?
Because it's not?
But anyway, if it were, what would be the identity, and what would be the inverse of (0, 0, 0)?
The group operation is vector addition
Ohhh and if it said R^3 - (0,0,0) that would imply its multiplication
No, it wouldn't.
Not necessarily
Not even multiplicatively closed
I see ty
Let G be solvable. Is the minimal number of generators of G the same as that of G^ab?
wait nah
The abelianization of S3 fails
I still wonder if you can relate these two numbers somehow
Btw, I know this is true for p-groups (Burnside basis theorem)
Hadn't heard of this theorem lol thanks for sharing
is S_10 X S_2 likely to be the largest proper subgroup of S_12?
it's the largest parabolic ig uhh
actually no it isn't
S_11 is bigger lol
I'm kinda cooked 2nite...
oh right yes
sorry i totally forgot to mention S_11 and A_12 so i'm pretty cooked too
thanks! i'm gonna eat dinner
I've come across some comments suggesting that there is some redundancy in the definition of a group, since in the characterizations of the neutral element and inverses, it is not necessary to state their respective conditions for both sides of the product, but rather it is sufficient to have it on one side only, and the other can be deduced.
To be more precise, what I mean is the following:
Given a non-empty set $G$ and a binary operator $\cdot : G \times G \to G$ on $G$, the pair $(G, \cdot)$ is a group if the following properties are satisfied:
\begin{enumerate}
\item The product $\cdot$ is associative.
\item There exists an element $e \in G$ such that for all $x \in G$, $x \cdot e = x$.
\item For each $x \in G$, there exists $y \in G$ such that $x \cdot y = e$.
\end{enumerate}
I have already verified that with these three conditions the remaining details can be derived to get the usual definition of a group. Now, what I am interested in knowing is whether these conditions are truly minimal and independent of each other, and this is where I need some help. I think that to prove this, I should find concrete examples of sets and operations that satisfy conditions (1) and (2), but not (3); another example where (1) and (3) are satisfied, but not (2); and another where (2) and (3) are satisfied but not (1). Is that correct? Can you think of any such examples? Or maybe there is a simpler way to justify it? Now I'm wondering if this should be posted on logic or foundations since this is really about axioms independence...
アンドレー
those objects are called, in order:
- monoids
- not possible, how are you defining 3 without the existence of e?
- loops
you also need xe = ex = x
example of a monoid: the natural numbers (with 0) under addition
loops, like the ones for defining homotopies, right? 🤔
absolutely not whatsoever
example of a loop? UHHHHH
natural numbers under subtraction?
thanks for the reference 
Why are (1 2 3)A_3 and (1 3 2)A_3 not left cosets of A_3 in S_3?
aren't they?
ProofWiki and other sources say that only A_3 and (1 2)A_3 are left cosets of A_3 in S_3
Also, does [S_n: A_n] = 2?
(That's why I'm trying to work on the cosets of A_3 in S_3)
Here is what I have written...
$S_3={(), (1 2), (1 3), (2 3), (1 2 3), (1 3 2)}$ $A_3={(), (1 2 3), (1 3 2)}$ $(1 2)A_3={(1 2), (2 3), (1 3)} = (1 3)A_3 = (2 3)A_3$ $(1 2 3)A_3={(1 2 3), (), ()}$ $(1 3 2)A_3={(1 3 2), (), ()}$
Let me fix the LaTeX
Soap_Opera
Isn't each element in (1 3 2)A_3 its own inverse? And there is an identity. And the elements are associative.
(I'm asking, not telling...)
you got two identity elements in (132)A_3
there should only be one
(132)(132) is not ()
Oh, that is only for two cycles
So (132)(132)=(12)(13)(12)(13) and they are not commutative
Ok, that makes much more sense now, thank you!
you're welcome
I'm trying to understand this proof
this stuff in red brackets
how do they get this?
everything beforehand makes sense, standard Sylow stuff and whatnot
ok nvm you can get it via cardinality considerations
K = Z/25 so H has order 11, so H = Z/11 and Aut(H) = (Z/11)* = Z/10, so we are studying maps Z/25 -> Z/10. These must send 1 to smth with order dividing 10 and 25, hence dividing 5. I.e. we must send 1 to +-1 or +-5. (And all these options work and determine the map). Lastly, flipping sign is an auto of Z/25
Oh lol
smth with order dividing 10 and 25
yea I came to this realization after sending
is {0,1}^4 with xor is isomorphic to Z_16 with addition?
ok, well, what do you know about Z_16
it the same size as {0,1}^4
so some homomorphism between them exist but it probably not the easy one
No
Or well yes it’s the same size, and there is a homomorphism
But like, sending everything to 0 isn’t good
What do you know about Z_16’s addition
Like, what’s the order of an element n in Z_16
16 , I think I will sit on this on on my own later, though about it because of one-time-pad cryptography and who it can just use other groups
Well, consider
For a homomorphism, f(g^n) = f(g)^n yes?
So orders can’t be messed up too much
The over of 1 in Z_16 is 16
But if we tried to map any element of {0,1}^4 under xor there, we know x xor x = 0000
ahhh {0,1}^4 is not cyclic group
So it’s order 2
Yeah that’s the most immediate killer, but the orders mean you can’t do much homomorphism stuff at all
Much less isomorphism
ok thank you for the help
If you see something like $ab^{-1}$, do you ever pronounce that $a$ divided by $b$, or is always $a$ multiplied by $b$-inverse?
Douglas
I'm not assuming that a and b are rational or anything, just elements of an arbitrary group
I don't think I ever pronounce anything as "a divided by b". In special circumstances I might say "a over b", but then I'd probably write it a/b aswell
Okie. Slightly different, but what about G/H where H is a normal subgroup of G and this denotes the set of left cosets?
I know you can call that the quotient group, so saying "G divided by H" seems somewhat natural, but idk if that actually happens
"G mod H" would be the most common I think. I might also say "G over H".
Makes sense
My group is a free group F2 = <a, b> quotient out the normal group generated by <ab^2, ba^2>, how do I show if it's an infinite or a finite group?
My intuition is that the normal group <ab^2, ba^2> is equal to the normal group <aba, bab>, and somehow I want to show a^n is not in the group for any n. The problem is that I need to consider the normal closure of the group generated by generators.
Let N be the normal subgroup and let G = F2/N and f: F2 -> G the projection map.
Then G is generated by f(a) and f(b). Since f(a) = f(b)^-2, G is generated by just f(b), hence G is cyclic.
f(b) = f(a)^-2 = (f(b)^-2)^-2 = f(b)^4 so f(b)^3 is the identity
thanks a lot. I'm really rusty at doing this.
I did end up thinking about this map but I'm still a little lost. In particular, I'm not convinced this map is bilinear, hell, I'm not even sure what f(x, ei + ej) would be.
Well, you want the map to be bilinear, hence it should be
f(x, ei) + f(x, ej)
I would like to say (x, ei + ej) = (x, ei) + (x, ej) but I can't justify this jump, because we are just in the cartesian product
oh, we just define it to be bilinear
Like the task is to cook up a bilinear map
and I am playing god so I can just declare it bilinear
Yeah, you can define it however you like. Just as long as it's well defined
right
You know a general element of MxN looks like
(x, sum_j rj ej)
so you define f of that to be x*ri
in some sense then, a general element of M \otimes N is entirely defined by the x \in M and the scalar in front of ei
phi = f \circ i (the inclusion MxN -> M \otimes N) is an isomorphism between M and M \otimes N I feel
Yeah, so M(x)N is in fact isomorphic to the direct sum of copies of M (same amount as rank of N)
oh that would make more sense actually
So I should define an n-multilinear map in a similar way, Claim there is an isomorphism to M + ... + M, and show it to be so by jsut writing an inverse
Let me write up what I'm thinking more fully
You might be able to do something like that yeah. But it's a little clunky for my taste.
At that point I would rather throw some machinery like left adjoints preserve colimits onto it
Unfortunately i have no such machinery at my disposal
Constructing maps to a tensor product is always pain
I'll give it a go and if it's too much pedantry then I'll just move on haha
I appreciate the help jagr
Does this just follow from ( mr ⊗n) = (m ⊗rn) in the tensor product? So, (a mod I ⊗ b mod J) = (1 mod I(a) ⊗ b mod J) = (1 mod I ⊗ ab mod J) where the first equality follows because R/I is an (R/I,R)-bimodule and the second follows from the relations imposed on the tensor product?
I'd do it like (a+I) (x) (b+J) = a((1+I) (x) (b+J)) = (1+I) (x) (ab+J) so u don't need to worry about bimodule nonsense but either is fine
the "commutative" is doing a lot of heavy lifting here
wait
waiting
i was going to ask why we can left multiply by "a" but here the left action on R/J is defined by first mapping a : R -> R/J by the canonical surj. then multiplying as per usual (in the ring R/J)
okie dokie
thanks wew
np boss
left/right structure doesn't really matter cause R is commutative btw. Everything is a (R,R)-bimodule
mhm
but not every (R,R)-bimodule is a two sided R-module 
R not commutative i guess
no even for R commutative
the example I know is to let the subring of diagonal matrices in M_whatever(R) with R commutative (which is itself commutative) act on M_whatever(R)
the left/right actions are different 
wati waht do you mean by left/right actions are differnet
so like, given a diagonal M and some matrix N, it need not be the case that MN = NM
oh right
maybe "two sided module" is the wrong terminology for what I mean
so what we're saying is that M_n(R) isn't commutative
I'm saying that the centre of M_n(R) is strictly smaller than some commutative subring
oh we're acting on the whole matrix ring
yurrr
i'll let that sit in the noggin
Another example: let R = k[x] be the polynomial ring, and let M = k be the module where f(x)m = f(1)m and mf(x) = f(0)m
This example feels very constructed but I still quite like it
I mean it's just there's no reason they should be the same
And this is just an easy couple of homs
It is in some sense a general example. If R = k[x] then any (k-linear) bimodule is given by a vector space M and two commuting linear endomorphisms A and B such that
f(x)m = f(A)m and mf(x) = f(B)m
In general a bimodule is exactly the same as a module over R(x)R^op. So for R=k[x] a bimodule is just a k[x, y]-module
What exaclty does this problem from Atiyah mean? https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/1260434282644504646/1265198559611846676/image.png?ex=66a0a37a&is=669f51fa&hm=4c5359f43c04a5c0319827b1100299731766422461ce8bcd4c78ff43104fc514&
Find the points and "draw" the topological spaces
What would that look like for spec(z), assuming thats the simplest
I'll come back to this message once I know what the words mean haha. Thank you
The maximal ideals are (p) and there is a generic point (0)
So it would be infinitely many closed points indexed by primes plus a generic point over them
And I guess it's nice to think about dimension/codimension. Like the maximal ideals are points, and then (0) is curve passing through all those points.
“Over” in the sense that (0) is a subset of (p)?
Idk much topology yet so some of this goes over my head haha
just proved the homomorphism from G/N to Z is well defined if ker phi = N. now i see that quotient groups actually do something (they bring another homomorphism to the table)
Yay! Do you want a challenge?
sure
oh
lemme check my proof again
yeah
okay just inclusion
not necessarily equality between kernel phi and N
but G/N is a group iff ker phi = N
phi : G ---> Z
psi : G/N ---> Z
psi(gN) = phi(g) iff N \subseteq ker phi
but G/N is a group iff ker phi = N
That definitely belongs in #algebraic-geometry rather than here, by the way.
so already we have ker phi = N no?
I'm guessing for this you can just say that 2n≠n! for n>3, so it is impossible to have a map from a dihedral group to the symmetric group that is surjective, let alone bijective
You only need N to be a normal subgroup of G for this
but we have this proposition:
hmmm
so phi is just any homomorphism
N is a normal subgroup, because there exists some homomorphism f ( f != phi) with kernel f = N. but if we take any other homomorphism phi: G ---> Z, then we get a homomorphism psi: G/N ----> Z iff N \subseteq ker phi
okay i think i get it now
Soz
one of the strangest exercises I've ever seen
literally
Tbf it was from lecture notes rather than a textbook
So it's prolly intended more as a "is your brain working?" type exercise
yeah
Ok so, I talked about the “universal property” of the quotient, right? How it relates to all other groups in the universe?
Specifically, a group hom G/N -> Z naturally corresponds to a group hom G -> Z sending N to the identity
yes
What about if we just have an arbitrary subset S of G? Is there some group “G/S” such that group homs G/S -> Z naturally correspond to group homs G -> Z sending S to the identity?
That is, S is contained in the kernel (but not necessarily equal)
"G/S" becomes a group only when S is a normal subgroup. what is the definition of G/S for an arbitrary subset S?
cuz if G/S is a group, then S is necessarily a normal subgroup and G/S is a quotient group and then we have the same question as before. so i dont properly understand what youre asking
they want you to say G/<<S>>, the quotient of G by the normal closure of S. Calling the group that satisfies the universal property stated "G/S" is misleading
Nice
In this video, they call 1 + 5Z a coset, but in the book I'm reading, they say a coset is a subgroup. Which is correct?
Nowhere do they say a coset is a subgroup
There is only one coset of H which is a subgroup, namely H
Yeah
Are you forgetting that the group operation for Z is +?
So cosets of a subgroup H of a group with additive notation look like g+H, not gH
Ok, you're right. I misread the paragraph
You should elaborate on your confusion if this doesn't answer your question
Yeah G/S wouldn’t be the right notation, but giving the correct notation would also be a spoiler…
Here is hopefully an easy question....but why is Z/Z_5 not a subgroup of Z if it contains all the elements of Z?
{Z_5, 1+Z_5, 2+Z_5, 3+Z_5, 4+Z_5}
What is Z/Z_5
What does this notation mean
Z_5 is not a subgroup of Z so I don't know what this means
Is the abelianization of SL_n or GL_n known?
I can't remember for sure but I think SL_n is perfect over big enough fields, and GL_n's derived subgroup is SL_n with quotient the field. But there will be some conditions on the field.
Algebraic closure should do the trick
Z/Z_5 is the factor group of Z by Z_5. So it is the set {Z_5, 1+Z_5, 2+Z_5, 3+Z_5, 4+Z_5} where Z_5={...,-10,-5,0,5,10,...}
No this is meaningless
Z_5 is not a subgroup of Z
Do you mean 5Z?
Z_5 is defined as Z/5Z
Furthermore, your claim that Z/5Z contains all elements of Z is not true
Cosets of 5Z are not elements of Z
They are sets of elements of Z
Z contains infinitely many elements. Z/5Z contains 5 elements.
Ah, ok, so it's not a "combination" of all the cosets
No.
btw, @coral spindle it is actually true that every p-group embeds in a p-group generated by 2 elements (all groups here finite). There is this statement about countable groups that say that you can embed them in a group generated by 2 elements, if you watch out the construction for a p-group you can make the resulting group a p-group. This is done in this paper, it uses wreath product twice it is pretty nice https://londmathsoc.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1112/jlms/s1-34.4.465
I thought maybe you would find it interesting.
Thank you very much again
Neumann and Neumann paper spotted 
Wow this is powerful
oh that's interesting. But what about SL_n(Z)? (I forgot to include the ring fo coefficients, mb). iirc, the abelianization of SL_2(Z) is Z/12Z
I have no idea, the classical groups over non-fields is beyond my ken
I’m pretty sure the abelianization of SL_2(Z) is Z/4Z
Oh
See theorem 3.8 here: https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/grouptheory/SL(2,Z).pdf
all groups are 2-generated this is true
@rotund aurora he doesn't have anything on SL_n for n>2 :(
I was about to ask that 😦
yeah, what a nerd
NO.
What about Sp_2n(Z)
do you think
I have any idea
what the fuck a "sympletic" is 
Do you know what a unitary group is?
ok don't patronise me
I'm a symplectic for you
wait SL_n(Z) is a quotient of SL_2(Z) for n>=5
A symplectic group is a special case of that
What the fuck
What if you changed it to Sp_2n(Z/pZ) haha what if
This just means SLn(Z) is generated by an order 2 element and an order 3 element right
what's the character table
that would be so wild
,w character table of Sp_2(2)
idk ask me about normalisers
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Perhaps try rephrasing your question?
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Sp_2 \cong SL_2 and Sp_4 \cong Spin(2,3)
ok I actually know the character table for that one
If you ask me to do Deligma-Lusty theory one more time I will beat ur ass
you would have to pay attention to the relations too tho
yo my supervisor has complained to me about t hat before. No idea what it is
Isn't this like universal property of coproduct
huh?
Universal property
Vile algebraic geometry (rep theory)
Since SL2(Z) = Z/2 ⨿ Z/3
Étale
Blocked and reported
idk what the cup means, but I think you should factor by +-I first? then I think PSL_2(Z) has presentation {x^2=y^3=1}
(also on kconrad)
kconrad
In group theory we write this as * and people call it the free product
PSL_2(Z) is also D(2,3,∞)
No but like the statement feels more reasonable when phrased this way
yeah
You can write the surjections explicitly
but also, you know what x and y are. You just have to make sure that there is no relation between them. The proof is just a page in kconrad
Oh that’s so cool
And then it makes perfect sense why (2, 3) generated groups are quotients of SL_2(Z)
Oop it's PSL2(Z)
Bruh
I guess that’s a quotient of SL_2(Z) already though
And a quotient of a quotient is a quotient
Is it true that if the permution groups of two sets are isomorphic then they are g isomorphic
But I don't think looking at the map G-sym(X) would be of help here
use the mark homomorphism :troll_face:
What's mark homomorphism
it would be circular to use marks here

what I'd do is decompose each G-set into a disjoint union of it's orbits, then use the fact that each orbit is isomorphic as a G-set to G/H for some H <= G, then prove the result for those transitive G-sets. Then it's simply a matter of showing that if two G-sets have the same orbit sizes, then they're isomorphic
oh and you'll need to show that Fix plays nicely with disjoint unions of G-sets but that's pretty easy
Oh I did try decomposing into disjoint union of G/C(x)
Oh wait
👍
Yeah
Thanks ❤️
Also sorry to bother again but after we've reduced the case to transitive G sets the wouldn't just considering the action of {e} on both would give that they have the same cardinality
So they should be G iso ?
I'm gonna be real I have forgotten how the argument goes
but yeah I believe that would work
wait
is G finite
ohhh lorddd I've done it againnnn ohhhh heavens
ok then yes that definitely works 
Theyve mentioned it before the question
I don't even want to think about marks for infinite groups @coral spindle u know anything about this? I forget if ur burnside ring pilled or not
Does this fail for infinite G
You just need to check all the finite index subgroups right
And you get the decomposition
finite G-sets
yeah it should work
I'm sorry I don't know
what is the absolute galois group of C((T)) (Laurent series in T with coefficients in the complex numbers)?
the algebraic closure are the Puiseux series
Okay @delicate orchid sorry for the ping but apparently I'm stuck on why if I have two disjoint unions of G sets for the for G/C(x) and they satisfy the property in question then they should be g-iso, I was able to show it for transitive ones but I am really lost on why given two decompositions we can find a way to like match their components ??
If youve forgotten the problem here it is
maybe this solution isn't the intended one. But the idea is that if you define a function taking in a H \leq G (up to G-conjugacy) and a transitive G set G/K (with K up to G-conjugacy) and gives you Fix_H(G/K), then these functions are linearly independent allowing you to "match their components"
In hindsight this approach is a lot more effort and you can probably do it via something dumb like Burnside's fixed point lemma
if you actually write out the values those functions take you get a lower triangular matrix after reordering, fun fact
but perhaps I should try and think of a better way of doing this
No tell me more about it pls
no problem lol
the function I described is most often denoted m(H, K) (which is just #Fix_H(G/K)) and is called "the mark of H on K" for some reason
these marks are ring homomorphisms in the sense that m(H x H', K) = m(H, K)m(H', K) and M(H u H', K) = m(H,K)+m(H',K)
they're like characters but for G-sets rather than G-reps
Oh
Wait im a bit unclear on what the function is exactly
f takes what was input
it sends H and K to #Fix_H(G/K)
Ohkay
these functions are linearly independent
But we only have one such function?
here's this matrix for D_8
as K varies
Oh okay
really I should write m(-, K)
Okay so let me try proving their linear independence
it suffices to show that the matrix M_{H,K} := m(H,K) is lower triangular, which it is
Thanks for your patience but i might ping you again if i fail 😞😭
be warned ⚠️ two G-conjugate subgroups will give you the same mark
but that's ok because G/K \cong G/K' as G-sets for G-conjugate K, K' so it's all fine
Woah you use matrices for this?
there's almost certainly an easier way to prove it but I take any opertunity to talk about marks and the burnside ring
and it requires me to think less
What is a mark
I should really know the proof
but like, can anyone remember why characters classify G-reps up to iso? fuck no!
actually yes I can but that's besides the poin...t...
wait
Huh
yeah nvm it's the same argument, conjugate subgroups have equal marks and G quotiented out by them are isomorphic as G-sets
identical argument just over F_1
I'm going full babble mode now chat 🐺 🌕 🌙
I had a thought
Homogeneous spaces can be thought of as elements of Burnside rings of Lie groups
are they just a space with a lie group action
They’re a space with a transitive Lie group action
then not only are they elements, they form the basis of the ring as a Z-module
Wait okay so why is this true
ok we'll need a finiteness condition in order for that to be true
m(H,K) is only non-zero when H is conjugate to a subgroup of K
m(K,H) = #Fix_H(G/K) = #{gK in G/K : for all h \in H, hgK = gK} = #{gK in G/K : HgK = gK}
HgK = gK <=> g^-1HgK = K <=> g^-1Hg \leq K
in hindsight why the fuck did I choose this route to try and prove it
there's way more machinery here than I thought
Yeah I guess this will be really useful later on 🔥🔥
so now we just order our conjugacy classes of subgroups so if H_i is conjugate to a subgroup of H_j, we put H_i before H_j in the table
Really cool stuff 🔥
boom upper triangular, and it's clear that m(H,H) = |G/H| so the diagonal is non-zero
have you encountered characters in rep theory before?
that's ok, when you do you'll see a LOT of parallels between them and these marks
and now finally....... it is no longer circular....
Okay so now that we've established that these functions are LI
Ow what do we do
Now
I don’t think they do
we need some finiteness condition on the sets the lie group can act on
like, there needs to be a finite number of orbits
Closedness*
I have no idea what the difference is
I haven't seen a topological group in 2 years
That gets rid of stuff like SO(3,R)/SO(3,Q)
write your two G-sets as $X \cong \bigsqcup_{i=1}^{|X/G|} G/K_i$ and $Y \cong \bigsqcup_{i=1}^{|Y/G|} G/K'_i$ where the $K_i, K'i$s are some representatives of conjugacy classes of subgroups of $G$. Now letting $H \leq G$, $#\text{Fix}H(X) = \sum{i=1}^{|X/G|} m(H,K_i) = \sum{i=1}^{|X/G|} m(H,K'_i) = #\text{Fix}_H(X)$. But by linear independence of marks, we therefore have that $K'i = K_i$ for all $i$, and so we have $X \cong \bigsqcup{i=1}^{|X/G|} G/K_i \cong Y$
it's crying at me but that's literally what I wanted
Hi, I am just wondering about a compact way of writing the identity element axiom of groups. $\exists e \in G \implies \forall a \in G \implies a \ast e = a$. I want it to not use any words like such that. So I thought first-order logic style was a good bet, but is my expression ambigous? Like do I need ∃e∈G⟹(∀a∈G⟹(a∗e=a)) nested parantheses or the parenthetical scope thing ∃e∈G(∀a∈G(a∗e=a))?
Optima
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Wew Lads Tbh
Apparently I wasn’t the first person to consider this https://www.heldermann-verlag.de/jlt/jlt18/fauskla2e.pdf
I've thought of a way to do it but it's gross
Wait so we have for all subgroups of H the sum of those marks are same , then how by the linear independence part comes in
if they weren't linearly independant that decompistion might not be unique so we can't conclude that K'_i = K_i for all i
really what I should write is instead of K'_i = K_i is "G/K_i \cong G/K_i' as G-sets"
slight blunder on my part
actually no I haven't and I'm not sure it's possible. I remember @topaz solar chatting about this a few months ago where you needed to include the identity element as a special thing in the F.O.L for groups but I don't remember the rigorous formulation of any of it lol
All good just that I am still stuck on
The sums to be equal in each subgroup of G and m(_,K) are LI so why are the marks of each respective component same
by linear independence? If they were different then we'd immediately have a linear depencence of marks
we're saying that the sum of two "basis vectors" is the same, so each "basis vector" must appear the same number of times in the sum
$\exists e.\forall a.(ae = a \land ea=a)$ works, but note that this lets you have substructures where things are no longer groups (since you’re now looking at subsemigroups), and if you don’t specify e of G maps to e of H in a mapping, you can have groups mapping to subgroups of semigroups
Sharp for President 2036
oh yeah you just use a .
also sharp u really need to learn to tailor ur responses to an audience dawg
Yeah probably
but that's ok, it'll make you sound smart during talks
Okay thanks @delicate orchid i got to learn a lot of new things , as for the marks part maybe I'll understand this problem better aftee maybe like spending some more time with marks
I doubt they'll come up again for you
but sure
lemme find a good source
just kidding!
Thank god
To make this more clear, @normal oasis, there’s a subtle difference between “there is an identity e” and “we pick out an explicit identity e”, but if the question is just notation, you do not use the => arrow between quantifiers no
I definitely go into silly digressions too much
I can't believe this there are NO good sources.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burnside_ring is unironically the best one I've found so far
section 1 of this is our new winner...
this is DIRE.
anyway I'm gonna get distracted reading this now
Make one
I should at some point but there's probably some paper by tom Dieck or whomever from the 1820s that covers it all
found it:
https://www.lamfa.u-picardie.fr/bouc/burnamscorr.pdf @marsh scaffold Bouc is cracked at this sort of thing so this will probably be great
Make a new one that someone could actually find
omg his proof is basically the same as mine
am I... swag?
nah now THIS is the swag way of doing it
Ok this kind of homotopy trickery going into finite group combinatoric-y things I’ve recently seen some comments on wrt logic
No I don’t have cursed theorems stashed, it’s more like someone asking if homotopical combinatorics could be used/could arise from so and so logic nonsense
(Which a lot of logic nonsense is related to silly finite combinatorics locally)
well it definitely exists as far as group actions go

Any tips for this guys? feels very finicky. So far my approach consists of showing that the size of H is less than the size of the subgroup of A_n which fixes 1.
So those before 5 are trivial😂🙂🙃🫠
Oh and above 2
Btw for 2 elements is the only possible operation a cycle? Like a 2 cycle bidirectionally?
that and the identity
So part (a) is easy and G is abelian implies H is normal is trivial, but proving H is normal implies G is abelian has been difficult for me. I spent a long time doing scratch work and got nowhere. The best I could do was create a homomorphism between GxG and G where H was the kernel only if G was abelian but I do not think that is sufficient.
Isomorphic is the best word in math no?
So you need to prove a biconditional. Then it has to be something that is scalefree. Because it needs to be an extension of the normal subgroup (if it isn't the other way around) maybe at least to 4 times that
If I am trippin' just tell me btw
Well, is this an exam
What is bro on about
No it’s old practice qualifying exams. I can send a link to the webpage I got them from if it’s important.
Very well then
Abelian -> normal is trivial yeah
But here’s a q, whats the definition of normal
By scalefree I mean something that is true for the normal subgroup and for a transformed version of it by a scalar-like thing to make it into abelian group
What
I mean this as a leading question of course
yH=Hy for all elements y in GxG
Qualifying Exam Archive Spring 2024MathStatFall 2023MathStatSpring 2023MathStatFall 2022MathStatSpring 2022MathStatFall 2021MathStatSpring 202...
here's the list of exams
Ok so, let’s say yHy^-1 = H is equivalent yes?
yes
Suppose G is not abelian
What does that mean
As in, how do you know a group is not abelian
if xy does not equal yx for some x,y
ahh ok I get it.
Indeed
thank you for the help. It's been a while since I have done abstract algebra so my skills are rusty
If we make truth table it would be:
...
jk, I am too lazy
Anyway just the complement of equals in the permutation space
Wow I was way overthinking it.
0,1 for all variables ya know
Nah, proof by negation are annoying and doesn't ever give you insights, jk
Yeah it’s one of those
Wait I don't think this is enough
Indeed
Well, care about the diagonal, so we’re conjugating (x, x)
But g1, g2 can be different right?
yes in my scratch work,since we haven't shown abelian yet, g1 and g2 can be different
Let’s pick some pair of elements where xy and yx are different
what can we do about conjugating (x, x) with this
conjugating (x,x) with (y,y)?
(yx(y)^-1, ex(e)^-1)
what do you mean by the diagonal?
oh H
it is not in the diagonal
(e, e) is in the diagonal but (yx(y)^-1, ex(e)^-1) is not
done
I get the idea that I am supposed to show x1x2=x2x1 but every time I try to manipulate the original formulas I come up with nothing
Why not
Why is (yxy^-1, x) not in the diagonal
That’s not true, but yes we chose x and y such that they didn’t commute
So (yxy^-1, x) is not (x, x)
So the diagonal is not normal
You could prove this directly without contradiction, right? Since (yxy^-1, x) is in H, we have yxy^-1 = x?
Yes
Ahhh
Yes
Consider the cyclic group of order 3
{0,1,2} basically right?
yes
Having multiple isomorphisms is less “how same-y are they”
It’s more like, “how homogenous is one of them”
Since it’s really just like, Aut(M)
because an isomorphism composed with an automorphism is an isomorphism
Is (Z_p,*) isomorphic to (Z_p,+)*Z/(p-1)Z?
Also, for cyclic groups, there is one automorphism for each generator, which in this case are 1 and 5
thanks
Can you elaborate more on the homogeneous part please? In the sense of how is "homogeneous" intuitively measured, and would more heterogeneous groups have lower aut groups?
Yea
Sorta
I mean, if I have more automorphism that move a point x, there’s more points in x which look the same
Ahhhh
You can like, get more explicit about this with logic stuff, but similarly for pairs of objects etc etc
I understand thanks!
I mean, contrast with R, where every point is distinct
Because you can pin em down by exactly what rationals are above it, below it, because you have to preserve being positive, etc
you can't negate them?
On the other hand, there’s the Rado graph, where any isomorphism between finite subgraphs extends to an automorphism
No, try and prove that there’s no field automorphism of R except the identity
oh fields have more operations
Ye
i was thinking of a group
Yeah fair, there’s a lot of automorphisms as a group
(It’s a very large Q vector space!)
I've proven that $|Z_k(G) | \geq p^k$. Basically what I used is that $Z(G)$ is a $p$-group and so $|Z(G)| \geq p$. Then each $Z(G/Z_i(G))$ is a $p$-group. Thus $|Z(G/Z_i(G))| \geq p$ which gives that $|Z_{i + 1}| \geq p \cdot |Z_i(G)|$.
Spamakin🎷
But this only shows that the nilpotency class is $\leq a$ not $\leq a - 1$.
Spamakin🎷
My only other intuition for this fact is that if $|G| = p^2$ then $Z(G) = G$ and the nilpotency class in that case is $1 = 2 - 1 = a - 1$.
Spamakin🎷
Ok so, you know |Z_i(G)| \geq p^i
Yes?
Once you reach p^{a-2}, you have p^2, so you jump up 2 at once
Or you already did, in which case you’re already on pace, because you add at least 1 to the exponent at each step
Yeah?
iirc, being nilpotent or solvable of (ofc finite) length n is first order?
oh I can do this?
ah yea I can ok