#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 256 of 1
Show the tensor product is trivial?
That works lol
OH NOES
OH YESS
Division by 2 is a crime
it is
You can never divide by primes
Wise
so a (x) b = a (x) b(x^2+1) = a(x^2+1) (x) b = 0 (x) b = 0
weow
and we need k[x] module structure to be able to move stuff around on the inside of the product
Can we uh
Actually do that’s
Yeah the x isn’t in the ring
We’re censoring over
*tensoring
i suppose we can have (x^2+1) = 1 in Q[x]/(x-1) in the same way we can reasonaly say 1 = 3 in Z/2Z because they're representing eq. classes on Q[x], resp. Z
so I stand by that
it works
if in doubt, the tensor product is 0
Yeah that's right
Isn’t like
R/I (otimes)_k R/J ~= R/(I + J) if R is a ring containing the ring we’re tensoring over or some shit
Can we still prove the tensor product is 0 in char 2 or nada
Yeah
Welp back to being brain melted by noncommutative matrix shit and opposite rings
sounds cringe
Endomorphism ring of R as a left R-module is isomorphic to it’s opposite ring :3
What did you do?
Thank you! And yeah this makes sense I think the only one I’m having trouble understanding is the one generated by the four cycle that fixes all the vertices. I’m not sure why all the edges aren’t the same.
But I’ll take some time later to reason through it and I’ll probably be able to figure it out.
If you mean the one in the lower right hand corner then yes. This problem made a lot more sense once I realized my mistake and it was talking about edges instead of faces.
I bet if I draw it out, it will make sense.
Oh yeah of course! Thank you.
A bit confused by 1. Here
How are we saying f_i = some sum over e_j
If they lie in different modules
How many homomorphisms are there from Z/2Z × Z/2Z to the S_3?
Since G/ker isomorphic to subgroup of S_3. But if ker is trivial then there is no subgroup of order 4 in S_3.
So if the kernel has order 2 then there are only 3 subgroups of order 2 in S_3.
And if the kernel is the same as G then mapping is trivial.
So total 4
e_1 and e_2 are involutions that generate Z/2Z^2
Yes
The image of them must have order dividing 2, thus either 1 or 2.
So they must be sent to involutions in S_3
Or the identity
So i think there’s more than 4
Restating
R^n and R^m aren’t the same module here
So how are we saying f is equal to some of e in a different module?
Unless it’s like, the image of f_i or smth
Where does it say this is the case
Wait
Like it just seems like an abuse of notation or smth
Idk what bit you mean
I can’t parse what it’s intent is
Oh I'm blind sorry lol
To me it kinda feels like a mistake lol
I think it’s meant to be an image or smth?
like mu(f_j)
Of mu from R^m to R^n
With the associated m x n matrix A
I’ll do the problem under that assumption lmao
Should i go about the problem using a base we know a priori for R^m
And then show f is another base?
This definitional bullshit is really fucking with me
How?
I know for a fact there is more than 4
there should be 10 I think
Yeah
under what map
Well it won't be ome random map
Because matrices are relative to bases
I think it is just very badly written
And we don’t know f is a base a priori
So we can’t say shit about the matrices, no?
Unless we assert it’s like an image
Got it, thank you
nah I think this is bull. See e_1 and e_2 commute but the centralisers of each involution in S_3 are trivial
so their images can't commute
Because that sum doesn’t make sense because they are in different modules
Ergo what the fuck is this problem asking me to do
Yes
I agree with your answer now, Mr. Notknow
Should i skip this problem?
I just agreed with @dull ginkgo answer 😂
Now I got it your point
So both e_1 and e_2 must be mapped to the same transposition
OH YEAH
if they get mapped to different ones
Then their image’s product would be a three cycle
But the product in Z_2^2 is an involution
So that’s a contradiction
like (1 2) (2 3) = (2 3 1)
Composition order 
For a p-group of order p^4, assume the centre of G has order p^2. How many conjugacy classes of G?
Any hint?
G/Z(G) = Inn(G), orbit stabiliser?
Conjugacy classes are orbits under conjugation
I have another hint if you need it
So your non central elements, p^4 - p^2 = p^2(p^2 - 1) = (p - 1)(p + 1)p^2 many, are divided amongst your remaining conjugacy classes
or this guy could just say it anyway
I feel like this should have been its own prop/theorem with a proof. Seems important and it’s taking me a while to think about
Can we consider 0 as the prime element in ring Z ?
@crystal vale what can you say about the size of a conjugacy class in a p-group?
long winded way of saying that D has to be injective
*projective
Divisor of p^4
And what are those divisors?
Oh ok, yea they introduce projective modules on the next page
Yeah
I think you can use this
I think?
you can
but you need something else to narrow it down to one case
why can't there be one conjugacy class of size p^2? that is the question you must now answer
||p-nary representation?||
no idea what that means
I take it back this might still be possible
No because we define prime as non-zero element
you know that Inn(G) is C_p x C_p is what I was getting at
because if it was cyclic then G would be abelian
don't be a slave to definitions, the idea of the zero ideal being prime is important
k = 0 then pick C_{p^n} for a gigantic n
Yes I thought but then I am confused
What is F| psi(L)
F restricted to psi(L)?
but psi(L) is in M, and F is D -> M
Both of these make NO SENSE
Relative to “a basis”
But we need two!!!
Oh wait misread :3
I used
I don't get it
Miz wrote out the exact same stigma that very explicitly I’m not sure what you’re not getting
*argument
iPhone 6 on that good zaza
If I define action on X such that a(g,h) = (aga^-1, aha^-1).
But if G is abelian group then | X | = | G| × | G|, right?
But the number of Conjugation classes in G is |G| × | G|, right?
How G/Z(G) = Inn(G) ?
That’s a very standard result
Inn(G) is a subgroup of group of automorphism, right?
Consider the homomorphism sending g -> (x -> gxg^-1) and then apply first iso
Maybe he didnt
then that's a skill issue
Lol
🥲
Number of conjugacy classes in what? The group?
Oh wait yove written G
Mybad I'm blind sometimes
Why is the number of conjugacy classes in G |G|x|G|?
It's just |G| for abelian G
X = {(g,h) \in GxG : gh = hg} ||= {(g,h) \in GxG : h = ghg^-1}|| ||=> (g, h) \in X <=> g \in C_G(h)||. ||Apply burnside's fixed point theorem|| 3 different levels of hints
But I defined operation on X so number of conjugacy classes in G means ?
Then you're talking about orbits here
And in the question they mean conjugacy classes in general
Theyre called conjugacy classes under the conjugation Action i think
Yeah but he's calling his orbits conjugacy classes
And getting confused with the conjugacy classes given in the problem
What does it mean by conjugacy classes in G ?
the conjugacy classes of G
you can't let a slightly different preposition throw you off
You mean when we define action on G by Conjugation
what
are you under the presumption that "orbits" and "conjugacy classes" mean the same thing
When operation is Conjugation
Still stuck on this blurb if anyone can help explain it
Im confused on F | psi(L) = psi’(g) and how it all relates to the exactness and the bijection of F and f,g etc
I was told that this blurb does not make sense from some other guy
Got it, thank you and || you mean C_G(h) as stabilizer of h ||
I do
Yes that notation is the center of h , which is the same as the stabilizer of h under Conjugation
centraliser, not centre. Otherwise yeah that's right
Yes
Poo
X^N denotes fixed points of X under N action
N/X denotes set of orbits
Now I have two issues with (a)
If they're saying that there is a g action on X^N making the inclusion map g map
Then using that logic i(g*x)= g.i(x) -> g*x = g.x
But X^N is not stable under G action is it?
It seems maybe wohever wrote the excerpt mixed whether F was D -> M or M -> D midway.
I don't think there is a super natural way to express F in terms of f and g anyway. Like I think it's better to just think about it like every f: D -> N factoring through M -> N
can grobner basis help for computing free resolutions over quotients of polynomial rings
the entire point is that you need to construct a new G-action on X^N
but yes you're correct, X^N is not always invariant
Is t this true
I feel uncomfortable claiming that equality holds
well no it definitely does hold for x in X^N you're right
the idea here is to split G into cosets of N with a transversal {t_1, ..., t_k} and then, given a g \in t_iN, g*x := t_in.x = t_i.x = g.x
at least I think so
let x in X^N, n.(g.x) = ng.x = gg^-1ng.x = gn'.x = g.(n'.x) = g.x, where n' = g^-1ng \in N
so X^N is indeed invariant under the original G-action
cool, everything works
Wait sorry where did we get that
here
From what I understand any element of G can be if the form some ng g is from your choice of transversals
yus
So you've used normality to get that this is basically just an action of the transversal
yus
And why is this action in X^N
you only have g*x = g.x on elements fixed by N, which as you pointed out is required for the inclusion to be a map of G-sets
also I don't think it would be well defined on a larger set
like, determining which coset a product of two elements of G lie in is highly non-trivial (google "transfer") and almost always won't give you a group action on X
like I am very much using the fact that x is fixed by N in the "t_in.x = t_i.x = g.x" step
Okay but where exactly are we mapping a g*x , g is a representative
Ok yeah, thanks. That surjectivity is the only new thing here I suppose. The overarching question here from what i understand was, to what extent do properties of L and N imply related properties of M. All homomorphisms from D to L are related to homs from D to M, since L is a submodule of M, so that one is kind of trivial. So the main problem here is what D->N can be lifted to D->M, and that Hom sequence is exact iff every D->N can be lifted
@rocky cloak
Was in reply to jagr
g*x is defined to be t_i.x, so we send it to t_i.x
maybe try working through it yourself, I kind of gave the entire thing up really quickly to assure myself that it worked 
no worries
I will now learn projective modules
Also there are problems like what if X^N is empty or stuff
Isn't that a possibility
Group actions on empty set 
but there isn't like... a map into the empty set
so G x empty = empty -> empty can't even exist
Yeah
no that doesn't work
yeah u raise a really good point. I legit think this exercise didn't even think about that
Isn't this a valid point
Like solid af
Lenstra done fcked 💀
assume X^N is non-empty 😹
Naww
Yeah, so basically, lifts of D->N to D->M don't always exist, but if they exist then they're unique up to maps D->L.
So assuming you make some choice of lifts for each D->N, then you can describe every D->M as a combination of D->N and D->L
For those of you who are interested in group theory, I highly recommend The Finite Simple Groups by Robert Wilson if your university gives you access. It is very understandable for the topic it is on (at least the first 2 chapters are, I just started chapter 3) and is a very interesting read.
Oh so projective modules seem pretty powerful
If you have A,B,C in a short exact sequence, with maps psi and phi, and its a split sequence, are psi and phi necessarily the inclusion and projection maps?
You seem to be slightly misunderstanding what a split exact sequence is
There is no sensible notion of "the inclusion" etc in general
The point is that by definition a split exact sequence is equivalent to the inclusion then the projection
So the answer is "yes by definition" or "that doesn't make sense" depending on what you mean by your question
Oh ok yea i see
In dummit and foote they never showed how they are equivalent sequences
and how can I relate the polynomial t^3+t^2+1 with 1???
Let $H_i$ subgroup of group $G_i, i = 1, \dots ,s$. We can see that $H_1 \times \dots \times H_s$ pis a subgroup of $G_1 \times \dots \times G_s$. Does every subgroup of $G_1 \times \dots \times G_s$ have that structure?
OHHELLNAH
So i checked the solution on it says "No. ${(g,g) | g \in G}$ is a subgroup of $G \times G$". Ok but doesnt that have the same structure because G is still a subgroup of G?
OHHELLNAH
Can someone help me understand this
So we first choose H_i for i = 1..s and then claim every subgroup of G_1 x...x G_s is in the form on those choses H_i?
Thats what the question is asking?
If thats the case then yeah I can prove that
im doing this question. i proved A has a Q-vector space structure. End(A) must contain a subring isomorphic to Q and then u use this subgroup to define a left multiplication on A. i cant prove it must have dimension 1. there this answer on stackexchange aswell but i dont really understand it https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2673535/let-a-be-an-abelian-group-such-that-end-aba-is-a-field-of-characteristc
if |h| does not divide |g| here, that means |h| has to have a prime factor with an exponent larger than its exponent in |g|
Woah. Who are you people
so if that prime factor is p and |h| = p^n ∙ r without that exponent and |g| = p^i ∙ s then g^(p^i) has order s and h^r has order p^n and gcd(s, p^n) = 1, so g^(p^i) ∙ h^r has order s ∙ p^n according to the exercise above, which is larger than |g|, so we have a contradiction
from there it's very easy to prove that (Z/pZ)* is cyclic with that hint in the exercise
no because both the coordinates have to be the same in (g, g), so that's not the same as G x G
yea i ended up doing this following the exercise
right, although the hint basically solves the problem here
the toughest for me was proving that Z/pqZ* is not cyclic for odd primes p, q
I need to prove that if G is a finite group of order > 2 then it has non-trivial automorphism.
If G is a non-abelian group then there x and y such that xy≠yx. So let's map x->yxy^-1 then it is automorphism mapping but not identity mapping.
And if G is a finite Abelian group, then if there is an odd prime divisor of |G| then take mapping x-> x^-1, then there exists atleast one x such that x^2 ≠ e.
And if there is no odd prime divisor of |G| then |G| is isomorphic to (Z/2Z)^n for some n in N. Then map e_1,...,e_n are generators just non-trivial permute e_1,...,e_n, then it is automorphism which is non-trivial.
Is it correct?
why not just a permutation on its elements?
Need automorphism
oh i see nvm
Why do you want to relate them?
for the finite abelian case, note that Aut(Z_n) is ismorphic to the unit group of Z_n. the euler phi of n is never 1 for n > 2 so for each Z_n, there exists non-trivial automorphisms.
if there exists non-trivial automorphisms f,g on G,H resp, then (f,g) is a non-trivial automorphism on G x H
and then u get what u want by the classification theorem for finite abelian groups
can we talk in private?
Oh
But can you check if my proof is correct or not?
yeah its fine
If it's related to your question, it's better to ask it here so that someone else might chime in too in case they have other perspectives, or I say something that's wrong
ok
i dont understand
It (Notknow's property) is true for infinite groups too.
why this polynomial is generated by 1
Which result?
Oh
Okay, thank you
That polynomial is actually zero in the quotient module.
Was this your original question?
yes
so, every module of the form k[t]/p(t) is cyclic?
"Generated by" for a module means that you can get everything in the module by multiplying the generator by some element of the ring.
for every polynomial p(t
Every R-module of the form R/I where I any some ideal, is cyclic.
As a k[t]-module, yes.
You need to specify the ring to prevent confusion I think.
The professor's argument is that if [f] is any residue class in R/I then f·[1] = [f·1] = [f], and therefore [f] is in the span of [1].
Is there any result on automorphism such that aut(H^n) is isomorphic to aut(H)^n ?
the statament only say let k a field and A=k[t]
ooh, i see
They're not even the same size in the finite case ...
its discussed here what u can realise Aut(G \times H) as
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1236571/automorphism-group-of-direct-product-of-groups
I need to find Aut((Z/pZ)^n) where n is between 1 and p
and what about the module $k[t]/(t)\oplus k[t]/(t)$
jorge.534s
If p is prime, then that's linear algebra: invertible n×n matrices over Fp.
Okay, I am interested in the size of Aut(H) in a finite case ?
What do you know about H? I may have lost some context.
In general if H is a finite group then what will be Aut(H)?
I don't think you can say anything other than "it's the automorphism group of H" unless you know more about H than just "it's a finite group".
What do you think about this module?
Oh their size must be finite, yes
I know this is not cyclic, because if it is cyclic, it should be ismorphic to k[t]/f(t) for some polynomial f(t)
but as t is 0 in k[t]/(t), then t is 0 in k[t]/f(t)
and this happends iff f(t)|t so f(t)=1 or f(t)=t
this is correct?
Thank you, but where can I learn more about Automorphism on Direct products of the group?
I don't follow this part. Is f(t) the same polynomial considered in the previous isomorphism?
is my professor´s argument
yes
Yes, that sounds correct.
t acts as 0 in k[t]/(t)\oplus k[t]/(t), so t acts as 0 in k[t]/f(t)
Well, more or less correct -- you have shown that the ideal (f(t)) is either (t) or (1), not that f itself is one of those two polynomials.
so here is the contradiction but i dont get it
yess
the guideline says if f(t)=(1) the k[t]/(t)\oplus k[t]/(t) is isomorphic to (0), but this is absurd
exactly
It's not clear to me if it's you or your source material that keeps leaving out the brackets around principal ideals ...
its my source material
but
if (f(t))=(t)
then k[t]/(t)\oplusk[t]/(t) is isomorphic to k[t]/(t)
Which is also absurd if you view them as vector spaces over k -- one has dimension 2, the other has dimension 1.
but by first isomorphism theorem k[t]/(t) is isomorphic to k, then k is isomorphic to k\oplus k
on that post they recommend reading these
https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s00013-005-1547-z
https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s00013-008-2653-5
ahh, i understand
so this is the method to check if a direct sum of modules is a cyclic module?
suppose that is isomorphic to R/I and get a contradiction?
Well, yes, since "isomorphic to R/I" is more or less what "cyclic module" means. (Or close enough that it could be the definition).
Okay thank you ❤️
You could also have gone the other way around and said: k[t]/(t) is isomorphic to k, and gets a k[t]-module structure by saying that scalar multiplication by t always produces 0.
Then whichever element of k² we try to make a generator cannot be, because no matter what from k[t] we scale it by, it will still be parallel to the original purported generator.
the last question : if p(t) and q(t) are coprimes, then k[t]/p(t)\oplus k[t]/q(t) is isomorphic to k[t]/p(t)q(t) by chinese remainder theorem and then is cyclic as the first example
Is there ever a formula for determinant of n×n block matrix?
So that I can analyze it combinatorially.
Like, I would love it as linear combination of determinant & trace of product of a few matrices.
In my case, I only need to consider the case where each component is in G <= SL(2, C),
where G = <A, B1, .., Bk>,
B1, .., Bk commutes with each other.
I wish there was a determinant-preserving map
$$GL(k^n \otimes W) \to GL_n(GL(W))$$
Absta
If I take G = D_4 × Z then we can treat {e}× Z, where e is an identity element in D_4 , as a subgroup of G, right? Then its index is 3?
And then there exists an element in G such that a^n not in that subgroup, right?
We can take a = (r,1) then a^3 not in {e} × Z, r^4 = 1
Its index is 4
what do you think it is
24?
Number of distinct cosets of H, so one is e× 3Z , next we can work on e×{3Z +1} and e× {3Z +2}, similarly we can work on e
those cosets you list dont seem distinct
e × 3Z and r × 3Z are different?
We have {r^is^j } × {3Z + k} cosets for i = 1,2,3,4, j = 1,2 and k = 0,1,2
yes
I think all are distinct cosets
every element of D4 gives a coset
how did you get 3 here though
Mistake
Yes
Let G be a group and H be a subgroup of finite index n, then for any g in G g^n in H, I don't know this statement is true or not therefore I want counter example but I showed that g^k in H for some 1≤ k ≤ n
This statement is true when H is normal , I mean normal is sufficient condition
this is true
Ah wait, its a subgroup of finite index, not that the group is finite
Nvm I'm just silly and blind
Yeah, being normal would do it
So gH, g^2H, g^3H, ..., g^n H is a list of n cosets, that's all of them, hence at least one pair is equal and we can move g around, so one is H, so at least one of these powers is in H
Assuming $K$ and $L$ are subfields of some large field. I was trying to see if $!$ will exist?
It is clear that it will be unique if it does. But I am finding it difficult to show it is well-defined once we define it using representation of elements of KL as rational K combinations of elements of L. (Although, I am not sure if the main statement is true tho) (This is a stronger version of Corollary 7.16 in Milne's Field theory notes.)
J
I really should sleep more
If we do like, a square with Q extended by both Q(x) and Q(y), the KL = Q(x, y) yeah? but what if Omega is Q(x) with sigma(y) = x, rho = id?
Thank you. That explains the closure requirement on omega.
Yes but can we say that x^n in H for all x in G
What is the integral closure of Z/4Z? I'm confused cause it sounds like every ring has an integral closure. But what about rings that have zero divisors
I'm trying to think if theres any counterexample, but clearly you have to have something noncommutative
(Since it needs to not be normal)
I really need to get better at these algebraic things tbh
Typically you talk about the integral closure of a subring.
For an integral domain R one usually just says the integral closure of R for the integral closure of R in it's field of fractions.
So to ask about the integral closure of Z/4Z you first need it to be a subring of some larger ring
What was the definition of integrally closed again, solutions to monics?
The integral closure is the set of roots of monic polynomials. And an integral domain is integrally closed if it's equal to its integral closure
Yes
That's why I take D_4 × Z but no it doesn't work
Look at C2 inside S3
Means if I take H = (12) then (23)^3 = (23) does not lie in H, which is right
Thank you ❤️
I truly am the silliest of billies to not see it
Let G be a finite group of order 2k, where k is odd. Let a in G which has order 2 then T_a : G->G such that g->ag. Any hint to prove that T_a is an odd permutation?
Yes (T_a)^2 = T_e
So T_a ≠ T_e so T_a has order 2
I got it but if someone has any good observation then I am interested
T_a is the product of k transpositions and k is odd
Yes that's what I want to prove
First it shows that it has products of disjoint transposition
Then we observe that (x g(x) ) is forms of that transpositions
I don't understand
See they contain (a,a) not (a,b)
Pick representatives of G/(a), then Ta transposes them
So they are not the same as G×G
In G×G you have for a≠b (a,b) but in case of H = { (g,g) | g in G } , (a,b) not in H
And why is that NOT the same "structure" ?
Since you take G_1 = G_2 = G
And H is a subgroup of G×G such that H = {(g,g) | g in G }
Now have you H_1 of G_1 and H_2 of G_2 such that H = H_1 × H_2? and here G≠{e}
Sorry I don't get your point but let g(a) is a representative of G/(a) then T_a maps to g(a)
Like you pick representatives
x1, x2, ..., xk
Then T_a is
(x1, ax1)(x2, ax2)...
Got it, thank you
Let G be a finite group. Let N be a normal subgroup such N and G/N have orders relatively prime. Let f be automorphism of G. Prove that f(N) = N.
Since |f(N)| = | N| so if we prove that f(N) contained in N then f(N) = N.
Let there exist n in N such that f(n) not in N then f(n) + N in G/N.
Let |G/N| = s and | G | =t,
Then f(n)^s in N, by since they are relatively prime so we can write n = n^(as+bt) then f(n) = f(n)^(st) implies f(n) in N. Contradiction so for all n in N f(n) contained in N.
I think there is some mistake
Let G a group and H and K subgroups. Is it possible that H and K have some common elements as subgroups and H is not subset of K and K is not subset of H?
yes
consider the even integers, and the multiples of 3
they both contain multiples of 6
I haven't read most of it but I guess you have the idea , basically no element outside of N can have order that shares divisors with order of N , to see this just consider the projection map
G -> G/N there is a relation between ord(a) and ord(pi(a))
Use that with the fact that N and G/N have coprime orders
So for group additive group $(\mathbb{Z},+)$, that can be subgroup $H=(2\mathbb{Z},+)$ and $K=(3\mathbb{Z},+)$?.
But then their union $H \cup K$ is also a subgroup right?
No
OHHELLNAH
HUK contains the element which is divisible by either 2 or 3
But if you take 2 and 3 in H union K then 2+3 not in H union K
Okk I see
if I have element a in the group G that is conjugate only to itself. I don't understand way for any g in G we get that gag^-1=a.
the definition of conjugate talk only about the existens of some g in G and not for every G. is it because of the coset of a?
conjugate is an Equivalence relation so if a~b so b is in R(a)=aH
This is exactly what it means to say a is conjugate only to itself
The elements conjugate to an element b are (by definition) those of the form gbg^-1 for g in G
aH={a}={gag^-1|g in G} so for all g in G we have that a=gag^-1
something like this?
I'm not sure what you mean by aH and stuff here
Let G=S_3. Let H = <(12)> and K=<(13)> be subgroups of G. Then I wrote out that H={e, (1 2)} and K={e, (1 3)} but how do you compose HK? I am trying to show an example of two subgroups of a group that together (composed) are not a group.
I thought about HK = {e, (1 2), (1 3), (1 3)(1 2)} but not sure about the last element in that set
Hk= {hk | h in H and k in K}
Now (13)(12) = (123) but {e, (12),(13), (123)} is not subgroup
And in this case HK ≠ KH
Thank you! So it's not like function composition. It's just a simple "multiplication" of the elements
Yes
This is convention
Someone operates right to left and someone operates left to right
So here (12)(23) work as first 1 goes to 2 then 2 goes to 3 so 1 goes to 3
Some authors use composition as fg(x) = g(f(x)), (x)fg= ((x)f)g maybe you can find this notation in some books
Ok, thank you!
Ohh projective modules ultimately coming from free modules makes sense
Those free objects are a cool powerful tool
can i get some help on this?
Well, you know A is a Q-vector space, so all you have to do is show that if A has dimension more than 1, then the endomorphism ring is not a field.
Several ways to do this, you could find to endomorphisms that don't commute, or two nonzero endomorphisms that compose to zero, or an endomorphism without an inverse. The world is your oyster here.
how does (5) imply (2)? Shouldn't it say gNg^-1 = N instead of \subseteq?
Well if you move g^-1 and g to the other side you automatically get N ⊂ g^-1Ng
🤦♀️ thank you
For whatever reason, I'm struggling with this exercise. I've concluded so far that simple tensors have unique representation as such a sum because we have (m⊗n) = (m ⊗ r1e1 + .... rnen) = (mr1 ⊗ e1) + ... + (mrn ⊗en). The uniqueness is clear because N is the free R-module of rank n. I'm not really sure why I'm stuck here, but I don't know what the next step is. Any help would be much appreciated
Oh here's an idea. Suppose that representation isn't unique. Then we have (m1 ⊗ e1) + .. + (mn ⊗ en) = (m'1 ⊗ e1) + ... + (m'n ⊗ e'n). That implies that (m1 - m1' ⊗ e1) + ... + (mn - mn' ⊗ en). Claim: mj - mj' = 0 for all j.
If not, then we have at least one index j such that mj - mj' is nonzero. Then
(m1 - m1' ⊗ e1) + ... + (mn - mn' ⊗ en) = -(mj - mj' ⊗ ej), which contradicts the uniqueness of representation of simple tensors given above. So mj-mj' = 0 for all j and 10(a) follows.
I think you proved that if the representation isn't unique, the representation isn't unique
One thing that is often useful here is to use the universal property of tensor products. I.e. construct a bilinear map from MxN that maps (x, ei) to 0 for i different from j. And to something nonzero for i=j. Then you can reason about when such sums are non-zero at least
Is such map even possible? Consider fj : M x N -> L a bilinear map s.t. fj(x,ej) = l, fj(x,ei) = 0 (i neq j). then l = fj(x1 + x2, ej) = fj(x1, ej) + fj(x2, ej) = 2l. So, l = 0.
oh perhaps this map can't be a simple indicator. it should probably depend on the element of M as well
in some way
I don't quite understand what you're asking for jagr. In particular if you're asking for one map or a family of them
For the universal property of free modules, do we know what the kernel of that universal map is, or would that depend on the module we ‘re mapping into
Referring to this
Whats the kernel of F(A) -> M?
It will include all the phi(a) = 0’s plus maybe more?
Yes, it would have to depend on the element of M as well. I suggest you ponder a little more, but the map I'm thinking about is
||MxN -> M, f(x, ei) = x and f(x, ej)=0||
I think free modules are badly explained in D&F, and I would recommend taking a look at Aluffi's chapter 0 for them. The main idea is that one can think of a free module on a set A, as taking a direct sum of copies of R indexed by A. And thus you determine the map phi by where the basis elements are sent (varphi). It is explained in much more detail in Aluffi.
Determine the map psi based on where the basis’ elements are sent? Is that what u meant?
Basis elements are mapped by phi
It depends a lot on the module and the map phi. I don't think there's a particularly simple way to describe it
Thanks
If you label the elements mapped to be phi: A -> M, then the elements of the kernel are usually called the relations between those elements.
I think the morphism on the right is a $\Phi$ and diagonal a $\varphi$.
kibocchi
Ohh ok, i guess im not totally familiar with the letters still lol
I feel like im comfortable with d&f explanation, i think they just take a really abstract viewpoint with the elements of the free module being those set functions. I liked that point of view though
But i will check out aluffi’s explanation too, thx
I guess ur right maybe its kind of confusing the crucial point that free modules are like R^n
What about the kernel of phi here? We do know exactly what the kernel is here right? Is it all representations of 0 in M as a linear combo r1m1+r2m2…+… ?
That is exactly what it is.
But of course determining what those are is pretty complicated
how do u do that
Well, if you pick a basis, then you can map the basis vectors wherever you want. From there you just play around, it's easy to construct examples
Why in a morphism $f:V\otimes V\longrightarrow K$ , if $f(a\otimes b)=0$ then $a\otimes b= 0$?
jorge.534s
no, the full question is: Let k a field and let V:= k[t]/(t) a k[t]-module. Prove $V\otimes V\neq (0)$
jorge.534s
in the solution, my professor proved $\overline{1}\otimes\overline{1}\neq 0$
jorge.534s
I think maybe the thing you're thinking of is that
f(a(x)b) =/= 0 implies a(x)b =/= 0.
Simply because 0 is always mapped to 0 by linear maps
by the universal property, there is a morphism $f:V\otimes V\longrightarrow k[t]$, and then get $f(\overline{1}\otimes\overline{1})\neq 0$ so $\overline{1}\otimes\overline{1}\neq 0$. I dont understand the last step.
jorge.534s
so this is an equivalence?
I'm not sure what "this" you're referring to, but there are no equivalences here.
Linear maps satisfy f(0) = 0, so if f(x) is nonzero, then x cannot possibly be 0.
i mean, if f(a(x)b)=0 then a(x)b=0 too
Well this is simply false in general so this is not going to help.
Is there any relation between the derived length of a group and its minimal number of generators?
Oof well I mean no
because an Abelian group can have arbitrarily many generators but derived length 1
But if you look at the length of a group – that is, a length of the derived a composition series – we do get something
since every finite simple group is generated by 2 elements
G is generated by 2l elements
you meant the composition series, right?
Woof! What a typo
Indeed I mean a composition series
and certainly not 'the'
The fact that every fsg is generated by two elements is mysterious. I think the current understanding of this comes soley from the classification of fsgs and ongoing research aims to show it without the classification
Right, but I am more concerned with the other direction. That is, if G is generated by "few" elements, can its derived length be "large". By the way, I am assuming that G is solvable. Also, I am mainly interested in the case that G is a p-group, maybe the results are nicer for p-groups
Right you want to bound the derived length in terms of the number of generators
Well I don't know
maybe someone else can comment
There is this result. It doesn't say anything on the number of generators tho, but it's just to show that maybe there are results
Note that the minimal number of generators is the dimension over Fp of G/Phi(G) where Phi is the Frattini subgroup
Honestly, I just want to know the following: Does there exist a p-group with derived length >=5000 that is generated by 4 elements?
the number 5000 is just an example ofc
I feel like magma could tell you this 
I assume this is very true, because of what you said about simple groups. But I'm not sure how one could show this
I honestly don't think it would follow, just bc p-groups are nasty little buggers
check the above theorem. The order of such a group would be >=p^(2^5000+10000-2), I don't think magma can handle this
Idk I think there are nice things that the computational algebraists (read: saints) have worked out for us
But yeah Idk the answer to this and I don't really know how one might find one
yeah, I just mentioned it as an heuristic
what even is an easy way to construct p-groups of very large derived series length (the order or anything else does not matter, as long as it is a p-group)?
The set of permutations that fix the first element should form a subgroup, right? For example
(234) and (243) would be elements but (1234) wouldn’t. But is this a stabilizer subgroup?
I feel like it should be, but when (234) acts on a set, it moves every element of the set - for example, it moves 1234 to 1342
so 1234 is not fixed by (234)
but hold on i feel like there might be a way to define the group action such that this would be a stabilizer subgroup
btw, isn't the composition series length of a group of order p^n just n (or n+-1, whatever)? Because the only simple p-group is Z/pZ
like, can you say the set is {1, 2, 3, 4} and if g=(234), then g(1)=1, g(2)=3, g(3)=4, g(4)=2 ?
yeah that seems to make sense...
that's the definition, yes
oh, um
but it's up to you to define, isnt' it?
you could say the set is {(1, 2, 3, 4), (2, 1, 3, 4)...} and g((1, 2, 3, 4)) = (1, 3, 4, 2)
idk maybe the other way is more standard?
i got confused because i wasn't sure if there's a standard way
When looking at A_4 as the alternating group of even permutations of {1, 2, 3, 4}, why is (1) an element? Technically the identity is (1)(2)(3)(4) right? Is it just written as (1) to show that it is the identity? So really it has 0 two cycles which makes it an even permutation?
identity can be written as (12)(12)
Any specific reason why they use (1)?
well you basically have to write something down
but i could choose (2)
it's just simpler to write (1)
Ok, and then the three cycle permutations can be written as non-disjoint two cycles, correct?
in cycle notation anything thats not written is assumed to be fixed but then if we follow that for the identity we can't write anything which... is bad
so we write something
you can always decompose a permutation into a product of 2 cycles yes
not necessarily in a unique way
Ok, thank you very much!
Why is C(S) = C(C(C(S)))
What does C(S) mean
Centralizer, so if $S \subseteq T$ then $C(S)$ are all $t \in T$ that commute with $S$
OHHELLNAH
I managed to prove the $C(S) \subseteq C(C(C(S)))$
Yes
OHHELLNAH
but idk how to do the other side
For this side I first had to prove $S \subseteq C(C(S))$ and then also $S \subseteq T \Rightarrow C(T) \subseteq C(S)$.
OHHELLNAH
Do you have any more assumptions on the group T or is this all?
Is it finite, for example?
It's not specified
So there are no additional assumptions.
Show that .... and that from ... it follows ... From here show that ....
Boytjie
Lol this is a bad proof
Isn't it true in general that A subseteq C(C(A))?
But more straightforwardly
If x centralises CC(S) then it must in particular centralise S so CCC(S) is a subset of C(S).
Man I had such a mental block with this that I just gave it away. Sorry, I'm not being a good pedagogue.
Note that S \subseteq T implies C(T) \subseteq C(S), NOT C(S) subseteq C(T)
You can argue directly: Suppose a in A. Then by definition of C(A), a commutes with everything in C(A). But that means that a in C(C(A)).
ohh wow yeah
That's why I used a different letter and said A subset C(C(A)). Just set A = C(S).
Mhm
If there are 3 left cosets of H in A_4, then does how do I know there are 6 left cosets of H in S_4? I know that |S_4|/2 = |A_4| but not sure how that applies to the order of the left cosets
I also know that by Lagrange's theorem, |H| divides |G|
There is another part to Lagrange's theorem
Oh, the theorem has a second statement that says left (right) cosets of H in G is |G| / |H|
Yes.
Thanks!
$a, b \in G$ and $H, K \le G$. If $aH=bK$ prove that $H=K$. So far, I have $aH=bK \Rightarrow H=a^{-1}bK$ and by properties of cosets, $a^{-1}b \in K$ How can I conclude that $a^{-1}bK = K$?
Soap_Opera
Hint: It's a coset of K and it must contain a special element of K
If an element of one coset is in another coset, then they are equal?
$aH=H$ if and only if $a\in H$
Yes
Soap_Opera
Thank you both
But why a^-1b in K?
Oh
And this a and b are arbitrary?
Because of the property $aH\le G$ if and only if $a\in H$
Soap_Opera
Yes, arbitrary a, b in G
Then why you just don't take a = b = e ?
I just figured that wouldn't have been an acceptable answer, but I guess it doesn't say you can't use that haha
Oh, and also, the question asks to prove so I guess an example doesn't count as a proof
example?
By letting a=b=e that is just an example of aH=bK.
It says to prove, so I guess it would need more than just that example
No it is not an example
If it is given that aH = bK for every a and b in G then you just take a = b = e
Actually they want to tell us that a and b doesn't matter here
H and K are subgroups
So a and b are fixed by question
I just figured it was asking for a formal proof, so I did a proof, but if it really is as easy as using the identity element, then that is super easy
No
Ok, so not "arbitrary" a and b
It is not same as aH = bK for all a b in G
If $R^+\subseteq H\subseteq R^*$ then we can say that $R^+ = H$ or $R^+\subset H$ which could mean that H can have an element less than 0 right?
Soap_Opera
Why?
Got it, thank you
what is the minimal number of generators for the group of upper triangular nxn matrices with unit diagonal over F_p?
Order of matrix?
nxn
I cant understand the definition of "monomial ideal", to me it just looks identical to the concept of Ideal
Because the definition of monomial ideal is basically an infinitely or finitely generated ideal, but all Ideal are finitely/infinitely generated
As far as I know
Also im studying monomial ideals in K[x1, ... xn], and every ideal in this context is finitely generated
So I really cant understand the difference
Someone willing to explain?
It's generated by monomials
not generated by polynomials that might be sums of them
Let me think of a simple example
Lets say we have the bivariate polynomial ring over the integers
and consider the principal ideal (X^2 + 2Y)
every element in that ideal is of the form p(X,Y)(X^2 + 2Y) right? but we can't necessarily say it's generated by monomials (yes we can write every element as a sum of monomials ofc, but not the same monomials)
Because this is a counterexamplr
Ok I got it thanks
Consider (2 + x) in Z[x]
A more intuitive way to write it
Let’s say we do have a monomial ideal
Generated by monomials (m_1 … m_n)
Then if we have f in the ideal
If we break f up into monomials
each of the monomial summands
Must be a multiple of one of the generators :3
E.g the ideal is a sum over the principal ideals
Every element is a sum of polynomial-scaled generating monomials :3
N AND NOW J
big day for letters
Can someone explain why when completing a topological group it is important that the group be first countable?
I am unsure tbh but at first glance we probably want countable neighborhood basises so we can lift the group operation to the Cauchy sequences
Well Cauchy defined in a weird way here
I wouldn’t say weird actually, just generalizing how you’d say something is Cauchy in R :3
like for N > n,m |x_n - x_m| < epsilon
Instead we can say
N > n,m implies x_n x_m^-1 is in U
Where U is a neighborhood of the identity
I have done basically nothing with topological groups but this is what immediately jumps out to me
So countable neighborhood basises
Kinda is like epsilon = 1/n
:3
This works without countability assumption, as here:
oh okie :3
But you need to describe a topology on the Cauchy sequence group
shouldn't it just be the subspace topology of the product topology
Hm yeah i guess so
Can someone give me an example such that f is irreducible in Z[x] but not in Q[x] and f has degree 2
Well basically take smth irreducible in Q[x] and multiply it by an integer so it lies in nZ[x] or smth
Yeah
5(x^2+1), say
Yeah
Thank you
But is 5(x^2+1) irreducible in Z[x]
the completion should be complete no? maybe if you have too many open sets it's not complete? But idk
there is nothing wrong with the definition tho
I think it is reducible in Q[x]
Really? If a quadratic polynomial is reducible over a field then it must have a linear factor, i.e., a root. So what's the root that it has?
No sorry I mean it is reducible in Z[x]
I need an example such that f is irreducible in Z[x] but not in Q[x]
That is impossible
Unless f has degree 0
Well okay sure by the convention that units aren't irreducible
But they say that if f is primitive and f is irreducible in Z[x] then it will be irreducible in Q[x]
So I think they want to use primitive somewhere
I don't understand this comment
It’s very uninformed so i would ignore it
I’ll delete it
Hm irreducible in Z[x] should imply primitive anyway
Since if some prime divides all the coefficients then that gives you a proper factor
No maybe because 5 is irreducible in Z[x] not primitive
Okay I guess that is the only exception
Yes non-zero constant are not irreducible in Q[x]
I never dealt with this concept of completion of a group. Maybe try to see what your book does with it, and try identifying whether some proof uses first countability
Heyy
I'm stuck
Trying to prove that Gal(Q(i,fqrt(p))/Q) is isomorphic to D4
p is prime
And fqrt is ^1/4
I think there's a few ways to do this. Have you computed the order of the extension?
It's 8
Well it matches that noice
I thought we could take two morphisms s and r and verify that srsr=id
Where s has order 2 ans r order 4
Well, is the Galois group commutative?
Because like, how many order 8 groups are lying around, after all
Well like, is this Galois group commutative
Well I guess not cause D4 is not
I think at this point we can check the group structure directly, since we have an automorphism that moves i->-i, and another automorphism that moves the fourth roots of p. We notice that the automorphism that moves i->-i also moves some of the fourth roots of p.
Since the degree of the extension is 8, and by building a tower of fields by first adjoining the fourth roots of p, and then i, first adjoining square roots of p and i, and then adjoining the remianing 4th roots, the galois group should be determined entirely by these two generators
alternatively i think we can also count number of subgroups of different order
I think a sequence of the type 1-->G(L/K)-->G(L/Q)-->G(K/Q)-->1 is always split?
Take L to be Q adjoin a fifth root of unity. Then G(L/Q) = Z/4. And let K be the real part of L. Then the sequence is
2Z/4 -> Z/4 -> Z/2
:3
Is this doable by induction easily with these recursion formulas? This is in a field over the reals and < , > is a bilinear form. The other notation isn’t relevant to solve the problem, just the inequalities
I haven’t really done 2 variable recursion so I’m somewhat loss for this
ah, okay I see my mistake. But yeah, I did not believe it, but I didn't see an immediate counter-example
like the action on G(K/Q) is given by zeta-->zeta^3 or zeta-->zeta^2, which is not complex conjugation, but when squaring you get complex conjugation
I think in the example of Moh you could see it splited, K being Q(i), you can lift the nontrivial element from G(K/Q) to G(L/Q) by complex conjugation, which is of order 2 in both groups
Another method is that for a polynomial of degree n, the galois group must be isomorphic to a transitive subgroup of Sn. And for S4, the only non abelian transitive subgroups are D4, A4, S4. And again by degree considerations it must be D4.
i'm trying to understand extensions and stuff - i'm looking at the quaternion group Q_8 - am i to understand that Q_8 is an extension of some smaller groups? But what kind of extension?
Idk what you mean by that exactly
Yes, Q_8 has a normal subgroup which is isomorphic to C_4
So it is an extension of C_2 by C_4
That's really it, it's hard to say very much else unless we talk about group cohomology, and even then that is not always helpful
is it a semidirect product?
is it a central extension?
I'm not super familiar with central extensions, but if I'm not mistaken, no it isn't – the normal subgroup is not central
It is a central extension of C_2 x C_2 by C_2 though
But the extension C_4 → Q_8 → C_2 is not central
Of course
A group may have many normal subgroups which induce many quotients. I hope this isn't a surprise!
yes... i'm not sure why i was surprised
i guess because C_2 was in both of them
is the semidirect product of two groups unique?
No
Ah!
a direct product is a semidirect product
Are you aware of the data required to build a semidirect product?
Like have you seen semidirect products constructed
no
OK well the data needed is an action of one group on another by automorphisms
That action determines the product
It could be trivial, which produces the direct product.
There are typically many ways that one group acts on another and therefore many different semidirect products of those groups.
The wikipedia page explains how the 'outer' semidirect product is constructed fairly well
oh i see... okay on the list of small groups on wikipedia they sometimes show like Q_12 = Z_3 ⋊ Z_4
this means Q_12 is a semidirect product of Z_3 and Z_4, but doesn't specify the action?
Sorry to bother, but do you happen to know about this @coral spindle ?
(In this example, Z_4 is going to act on Z_3. That's indicated by the direction that ⋊ is pointing)
I don't know off the top of my head but I'll give it a look in a bit
It really ought to be n-1, but I will think about it properly soon
i don't really know, just that Aut(Z_3) is a morphism from Z_3 to Z_3?
i'm not sure if it's unique
Aut(Z_3) is the set of all automorphisms on Z_3.
okay
I'm surprised you don't know this, this is extremely important to know about
OK
So I'll just say this instead
Aut(Z_3) is isomorphic to Z_2
I didn't really verify it thoroughly, but I think the subgroup where the diagonal above the main diagonal is zero is normal. When you quotient, you get something isomorphic to F_p^(n-1), so the number of generators ought to be >=n-1
So a semidirect product is going to consist of some map f : Z_4 → Z_2
Now furthermore if we're writing Q_12 = Z_3 ⋊ Z_4, we're certainly not talking about an Abelian group here
I.e., this is not a direct product
So we have some nontrivial map f : Z_4 → Z_2 which determines this semidirect product
And in fact there is exactly one nontrivial map of this kind.
So in fact the semidirect product is uniquely specified by writing Z_3 ⋊ Z_4.
This is quite common to do; often when people write this there will be more than one such map, but they will all produce the same group up to isomorphism.
Well you are missing context so I'm not surprised.
Are you working through a textbook?
no
You should work through a textbook
I like Fraleigh personally. People here seem to like Artin but I haven't tried it. People also often talk about Dummit and Foote.
note that Artin doesn't touch extensions nor semi-direct products (iirc)
But I'm sure it covers the notation Aut(G)!
oh i have fraleigh
So right let me think about this
note this
Croq do you happen to know how this group corresponds with a root system?
no
But yes what you wrote here is totally correct
Well ok so
When we work with an ACF of characteristic p instead of F_p, you're looking at something called the unipotent radical of a Borel subgroup
And it turns out that these have nice properties related to the root system of the reductive group
But the long and short of it is that yes, indeed, the composition factors look like F_p^{n-1}, F-p^{n-2} etc in this case (unless some weird shit happens in A_n, but I don't think it does)
Chevalley's commutator formula allows you to calculate this kind of thing if you need something to google
But yes I do believe it should be exactly n-1 generators, since as you say the quotient needs at least n-1 and if I'm not mistaken (I will have to look up Chevalley's commutator formula for type A_n) you can just choose the matrices with entry 1 in the obvious squares and 0 elsewhere
So what I mean is
if $e(i,j)$ is the matrix with $1$ in entry $i,j$ and zeros elsewhere, I think that the group should be generated by matrices of the form $I + e(i,j)$ where $i-j=1$
Boytjie
This actually shouldn't be too tricky to show inductively lmao
I think there miiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiight be issues if p=2 but I would need to work this out on paper
But yeah the subgroup you were looking at was the F_p-span of everything of the form I + e(i,j) where i-j > 1
That was badly phrased but I hope the intention is clear

interesting stuff
indeed the subgroup of upper triangular matrices is the first example they give in Wikipedia
no, for Borel subgroup
Right right
Yeah in general we even fiddle with the definitions of classical groups to make this nice
I could not find the chevalley thing tho
Like the symplectic group is defined independently of the choice of symplectic form, but algebraic group people will choose a different one to what differential geometers do, just so that the maximal torus and Borel subgroup can be chosen nicely
is a standard reference for all of this Milne's book on algebraic groups? I am not familiar with any of this, but it sounds interesting
I don't know if there's a standard agreed-upon reference. I've been recommended Springer and Humphreys – I think Springer's book is good – but if you just kinda want to get started with algebraic groups quickly, then I recommend Malle & Testermann's book which is a good reference.
They also include an amazing collection of results on finite groups of lie type, which is really what we care about if I'm feeling cheeky
btw if G and H are (finite) solvable groups then the (regular) wreath product G wr H is also solvable. Can you say anything on the derived length of G wr H in terms of that of G and H?
I mean more specifically a lower bound
If Im not mistaken, an upper bound is just dl(G)+dl(H)
Oh I worked this out a while ago
Oh no wait I assumed that H was Abelian. Nevermind.
That's still interesting
Let me get my notes
So if $H$ is Abelian -- so here I mean the group $H$ acts on $G^n$ by permutations -- then you can argue that there's a subgroup of $(G \wr H)' \leq G^n$ which is isomorphic to $G$. I think you have to look at some diagonal embedding stuff. So you do get that $dl(G \wr H) \geq 1 + dl(G)$
Boytjie
I was interested in this because I wanted to construct groups of arbitrarily large derived length
And I only checked this really for H = Z_2, but I am confident that the argument generalises.
yeah, that's what I'm trying to do
Aha well I have kinda spoiled things
If H is non-Abelian this would get very messy and I can't see a straightforward way
But yeah one way of getting groups of high derived length is to keep on wreathing by Z_2
no, because I also want to keep the number of generators bounded
Right ofc
and when you take wreath products, the number of generators goes up by at least 1
I will say that I think you want nonsplit extensions if you want to keep the number of generators low. Like you want some generator of a group not to lift perfectly, so that you get some extra elements for free by choosing a good lift
well I saw this result for nilpotent groups, but I'm mainly interested in p-groups
well it is possible that when taking just one wreath product the number of generators stays the same, but if you keep taking wreath products, it will be unbounded
Wow that's a strong result
Though I guess some of the strength is presumably in the fact they're using a very particular action for the wreath
here is the paper if you want to check it out, it's short but I haven't read it https://archives.maths.anu.edu.au/people/Kovacs/K071.pdf
also, are there nice bounds for the size of the commutator subgroup of a p-group G?
if |G| = p^n then 1 <= |G'| <= p^{n-2} 
but for example, I don't think it can equal p^(n-2) when n is large?
you can embed any (finite) group into a (finite) group generated by 2 elements right
oh yeah
Sn
yeah the symmetric group can be generated by 2 elements
but the Sylow of Sn needs lots of generators I think
Yes S_—nvm lmao
Right it's a product of things of the form C_p wr C_p wr ... wr C_p
So it should need a lot in general
I can give a more precise description if you'd find it helpful
what else could you say?
The precise description in terms of n 
But yeah the long and short of it is that it's probably not going to be a good example for what you want
I'm just wondering if any p-group can be embedded inside a p-group generated by 2 elements
every p-group embeds in a Sylow of S_n, but C_p wr ... wr C_p doesn't seem easy to handle
does an automorphism need to send elements to elements of the same conjugacy class?
or is that something different
also, maybe you can write a stupid presentation, but then idk if the resulting thing will be finite. Consider the free group generated by x,y, say the p-group G has p^n elements, then you can consider p^n "independent" words in x,y and basically copy the multiplication table of G. Then try adding more relations and hope that you get a finite p-group?
No
See: automorphisms of Abelian groups
crazy counter-example

c.f.
I am self-conscious that I am doing the mathematician thing of "For example, take a nonspecific thing"
oh, i don't mind lol
If you have time, yeah, I am interested
Oh like Sylows of S_n?
Sure
Let $n = a_0 + a_1p + a_2p^2 + \cdots + a_np^n$ be the $p$-adic expansion of $n$. So in particular $0 \leq a_i < p$ and this is the only such expression for $n$ of this form.
Boytjie
I know how to calculate v_p(n!) if you are going there
Oh yeah well this is helpful for both
Then writing $\wr^k C_p$ for the $k$-fold wreath product, the Sylow $p$-subgroup of $S_n$ is isomorphic to $(\wr^1 C_p)^{a_1} \times (\wr^2 C_p)^{a_2} \times \cdots \times (\wr^n C_p)^{a_n}$
Boytjie
but i thought abelian groups only have 1 conjugacy class - so an automorphism would take every element to the same conjugacy class
Hm is there a big wreath product symbol? This works fine ig
There is only one group with a single conjugacy class
I think you need to think about what the conjugacy classes of Abelian groups look like
That's right
sorry
(To clarify: \wr^1 C_p is just C_p)
ah, that's nice. I only knew it for S_p^n
no it doesn't
:kek: it's not too bad after this
I mean you can't just look at an abstract isomorphic copy of the Sylow to determine its normalizer
Oh yes
Yes I see what you mean
In my head this is the same as the actual Sylow lol
Yeah it's just a bunch of p-cycles
so wr^n Z/pZ acts on {1,...,p}^n=[p^n], for the case S_p^n

You just need to add the extra a_0 '1-cycles' haha
But yeah like the normaliser mod the Sylow looks like S_{a_0} x S_{a_1} x ...
I know that every group of order pq for primes p < q where p does not divide q-1 is cyclic. i also know that a group of order n is cyclic is (n,phi(n)) = 1. what is the first instance (if any) where the (n,phi(n)) = 1 result realizes a cyclic group that isn’t found with the sylow theorem result
i feel like one should exists, and there would need to be 3 prime factors
So you're asking for n with phi(n) coprime to n with at least 3 prime factors
yes
Like yeah just look for it man
In fact literally the smallest result works doesn't it?
2 * 3 * 5
Nah lol my bad
it can’t have a 2 i don’t think
3 * 5 * 17, there ya go
3 5 17 works actually
I think I see better now why this is true from this drawing. Like the normalizer modulo the Sylow should permute this trees (there is only one in the case S_p^n)