#groups-rings-fields
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The answer says that $Aut(Z_1)\approx Aut(Z_2)$ but $Z_1={0}$ and $Z_2={0, 1}$ so it is not one-to-one which means it's not an isomorphism right?
Soap_Opera
What's not one-to-one?
Any function (mapping) between $Z_1$ and $Z_2$
Soap_Opera
Yes, but this isn't the claim
Yeah, so there is no isomorphism between Z1 and Z2
Nobody said that Z_1 and Z_2 are isomorphic. The question is that Aut(Z_1) and Aut(Z_2) are isomorphic.
These are very different statements.
This is the first condition of G and H, now consider their automorphism groups
In fact they specifically say in the question that G and H are not isomorphic!
Ah, good point. Thank you @coral spindle and @dull marsh
Remember the mantra!
Read the friendly question!
The question is your friend, and friendly means nothing else!
Haha, so true
Is there a way to calculate the number of automorphisms possible for a group?
For a permutation group, we can just use n! where n=# elements right? But what about other groups like Z_10?
There is no easy general method that I'm aware of.
e.g. in Z_1 since the only element is 0, is there only 1 possible automorphism which is the identity to itself?
As it happens calculating the number of automorphisms of Z_n is extremely easy because of results in elementary number theory
Well. It's easy in the sense that we know a straightforward way to calculate it. Ofc calculating the number of automorphisms of Z_123217387957983721847329714983271463962785963872164987321 is actually quite lengthy
lol
I think it underlines the point
For a permutation group, we can just use n! where n=# elements right?
What do you mean by this?
That's rarely the number of automorphisms of a permutation group
There are only n! ways of permuting n objects so that is the number of automorphisms available in a permutation group. I'm just asking obviously
No this is false.
It's something that I know well
Hahaha nice
The number of set automorphisms of {1, ..., n} is n!
This is a fact called Cayley's theorem
Yes, I actually just learned that. Every group is isomorphic to a permutation group
when i learned cayleys theorem i was like yooo!!! cool!
No that's not the statement hk
But yes I'm about to mention this
Even if we take the group of all permutations on n elements -- the symmetric group S_n -- we still don't have Aut(S_n) has n! elements
Let me see if I can remember the complete statement
I believe for n >= 3 and n =/= 6 this is true
But for n=2 this is obviously false, and for n=6 there is a very mysterious (to me) phenomenon
Ok, but it's true for many permutation groups?
No, it is almost never true.
I can embed a group as a permutation group on as many letters as I like
S_n is a subgroup of S_n+10000
But it has only n! automorphisms, not (n+10000)!
(when n>6)
Remember Cayley: any group is a permutation group.
But if the question says what is the order of Aut(S_n) it would be n!. But if it asked what is the order of Aut(S_n+10000) it would be (n+10000)!
Provided n>6 yes this would be correct
But this is not what is going on
If I have some permutation group -- i.e., a subgroup of S_n -- it will typically not have n! automorphisms. This is what you were claiming (as written) and it is false.
I see what you're saying...I was just saying a general n lol. Not the giant permutation group itself
What do you mean a general n
|Aut(S_7)| = 7!
Okay
Same for 8, 9, 10, ....
Sylow subgroups arriving for silly and fun
S_5 has 6 Sylow-5 subgroups which S_6 can act upon i think
@chilly radish one last question, does the fact that if a matrix K acts on, for R-module M, M^n with nontrivial kernel, then does that mean det(M) = 0, or is that something special for vector spaces
No idea, actually
are you asking if K has nontrivial kernel then det K=0?
Rings with zero divisors?
the adjugate matrix still makes sense
If rs = 0 then r acts on R with kernel at least (s)
if the ring is commutative
I think you can only say that det(K) is not a unit
well
consider multiplication by 2 in Z/4Z
Consider the ring $R = \bZ/4\bZ$ and the module $M = R \oplus 2R$ then note that the map multiplying by $2 \colon M \to M$ has a nonzero kernel, since its image is $2R \oplus 0$
\bigskip
So the diagonal matrix $\operatorname{diag}(2, 1)$ has determinant $2 \neq 0$ but nontrivial kernel on $M^2$.
Boytjie
Dammit croq I was writing that up!
And yeah nvm I literally didn't need to look at M^2
My thought process here was that we need something with a nontrivial maximal ideal
Then some module which has structure not viewed by the residue field
Yeah lol
We all got there eventually 
btw Arki was first
I was scrolling up so didn't see that you mentioned it @mighty kiln
Arki too smart, too op
Fox supremacy
What if the adjugate is 0
the formula is A * Adj(A)=det(A)*I, it works over any commutative ring iirc, no division is involved in the proof
so if Adj(A)=0 then det(A)=0
Yes but that makes it so i don’t know if i can gauruntee the existence of a v such that Mv = 0
Or the existence of such implies det(M) = 0
Boytije catboy confirmed?
Worst superhero ever
the two are equivalent
Hi, hope you’re doing alright.
I was solving problems from menini 2004 and got a little stuck on this one
nice
I solved it thinking about $\langle x\rangle$, it is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z}$, say the isomorphism is $f$.
𝕋℟𝕀𝕍𝕀𝔸𝕃
ok
Because the gcd(m,n)=1, the equation $ny’\equiv x’ (mod m)$ (where x’ is a representative of $f(x)$) has solutions for y’. Therefore $y=f^{-1}(\overline{y’})$ is a solution.
𝕋℟𝕀𝕍𝕀𝔸𝕃
My question is: is there any other more direct way of proving the statement?
For general modules?
Over a commutative ring?
For vector spaces they are
I feel like this is not the intended way for proving it
slightly more direct, but this is fine
since m and n are relatively prime you have a, b such that am+bn = 1, so bn = 1-am, so (x^b)^n = x*x^-am = x
yours is aesthetically better I'd say
although in fact ⟨x⟩ is isomorphic to Z/mZ where x maps to 1
so you're solving ny = 1 mod m
That sound more like it, thank you
Oh yeah, that’s true, I didn’t notice haha
but this is really the same thing - solving bn = 1 mod m means you have integer a such that bn = 1 + am
and ⟨x⟩ is isomorphic to Z/mZ where x^n maps to n
Yeah, I realize now I wasn’t that far, thank you again
Okay if adjM=0. Let k be the rank of M, take a non zero determinant sub square matrix N of rank k(there has to be one), let I be the set of indices associated to it. Since k<=n-2, you can add a column and a row to it
call the new matrix N and the new index set J
then det N = 0 but it has a non zero minor so that adj N != 0, finally take any v thats zero outside J but non zero in J such that adj N. v|_J is non zero (there exists one since adj N is non zero). Finally N.(adjN.v|_J)=0, by extension M.v=0
Okay that argument is not complete it's not clear why M.v=0, the reason is that if you take your initial N. You can add any row and column to it, changing the index set J. Suppose you want to know if your i'th entry (in M.v) is 0, then if i is in I you are good, otherwise simply add the i'th column and row to N and do the same argument
In order to show that the fields Q[x]/(x^2-2) and Q[x]/(x^2-3) are not isomorphic is it enough to just note that the multiplication is different in them? In Q[x]/(x^2-2), if we let theta be a root of x^2-2 the multiplication looks like (a+b(theta))(c+d(theta))=ac+2bd+theta(ad+bc), while in Q[x]/(x^2-3) it evaluates to ac+3bd+theta(ad+bc). Or is some other property needed?
no
the former has discriminant 8 while the latter has discriminant 12, that's probably a clearer way of saying it
I haven't learned about that 😦
then why is the multiplication by a generator an invariant?
(Asked this yesterday but it got buried) I just worked out some proofs of my own for these but I’m not entirely sure if they’re correct - are these statements true?
(1) Given a free group G and a subgroup H, if G is generated by generators g_a and H by h_a, and if g(h_a)g^-1 is in H for all g in G, then ghg^-1 is in H for all g in G and h in H
(2) If (g_a)h(g_a)^-1 is in H for all h in H, then ghg^-1 is in H for all g in G and h in H
(3) (both (1) and (2)) If (g_a)(h_b)(g_a)^-1 is in H (for all g_a generating G and h_b generating H), then ghg^-1 is in H for all g in G and h in H
And lastly, is there any efficient way to compute quotient groups knowing just the generators of G and H (assuming H is normal)? It would seem there must be if (1)-(3) are true.
in your argument you are assuming that a square root of 3 has to get sent to a square root of two, but clearly that can't happen since the morphism is a morphism of fields
Instead suppose there is an element a+b.sqrt(2) such that (a+b.sqrt(2))^2=3 and find a contradiction
oh ok
because an isomorphism would mean there is a square root of 3 in Q(sqrt(2))
Essentially this just amounts to saying if we know only the generators of G and H, we can find if H is normal in G
I think I got it,ty
np!
@dull ginkgo I wrote an argument there
Thank u
What is Aut(Z_1) and Aut(Z_2) and why are they isomorphic?
OK so Aut(G) is the group of automorphisms of a group G, I hope this is all clear.
Let's try and work out Aut(Z_1)
What're your thoughts. Talk me through it. What comes to mind.
Just like – what are we looking for, what might we do to find it
🦗
Just gonna shout out to the void here...
!noans
The purpose of this server is to help you learn, not to hand out answers. Do not ask someone to give you the answer directly.
Boytjie what is your research area?
I do representation theory of finite groups, in particular I care about things related to the McKay conjecture and I look at some finite groups of lie type too
Cool
In the definition here and the statement of (2) for jordan holder
Should these be proper subgroups?
I'm thinking if not, i can just repeat subgroups in (2) to get a counterexample?
I suppose so but this is implied by "... are two composition series ..."
since the trivial group is not a simple group
(I.e., N_i+1/N_i being simple means that in particular N_i+1 is not N_i)
This is why the trivial group is excluded from the definition of a simple group btw.
Okay I see it now. So even if I picked a composition series, repeating any subgroup more than once to try and produce a new composition series violates the simplicity part of the definition which forces proper inclusions?
Ah that makes sense. I was getting really turned around by this worry lol. Thanks!
No worries. Now if/when you see simple modules you'll be ahead of others in remembering that 0 is not a simple module :)
is it hard to write a permutation in a permutation group as a product of generators?
Of which generators? Can you be more specific about what you mean?
maybe in some cases it will be easier than others
generators of the permutation group
Your question doesn't seem to have anything to do with permutation groups so it confuses me why you're referring to them
OK let's put it this way
The moves of a rubik's cube generate a group of permutations on the squares of the cube
Now if I have scrambled a cube, solving it is the same as finding a way of expressing that permutation in terms of the generators.
That's pretty hard, isn't it?
I think that answers the question
How do we know that there is only one permutation that can solve a given scramble?
That's the definition of a scramble. That is precisely a permutation.
Update: I figured it out
Inverses in a group are unique
The rubik's cube group acts faithfully on the squarelets of the cube.
So the element is described by the permutation.
Man I miss Wew. He hated the term 'faithful.' What a king.
can you tell if a particular permutation is an element of a particular subgroup of a permutation group?
I was going to say that there are 4 edge pieces and 4 corner pieces of each color, and they’re interchangeable, but then I remembered that they’re all attached to other colors
Given what description of the subgroup?
hmmm
This is in general a hard problem even if you know the generators of the subgroup
Otherwise you're basically asking "how do I tell if something is in a set"
He returned recently
i was thinking of generators of the subgroup
No this is a bit misleading, like it really depends on what the description of the subgroup is. Like if you are given some straightforward predicate for it then this is easy.
But yeah like as you alluded to Spamakin
If you just have generators, it's extremely difficult yes.
If you know just the generators I'm pretty sure it's hard
I'm forgetting if it's undecidable hard or not
I think there might be some absurd algorithm that can do this in MAGMA with relative speed (for permutation groups specifically)
Well we are assuming finite permutation group lol
Oh right
But yes the infinite analogue has all the hallmarks of an undecidable problem
I'm not sure if this comes directly from the undecidability of the word problem
Maybe
But I can't see immediately how to derive it
(Word problem for finitely presented groups*)
thanks
ChiliLion's been cookin' for a while I'm excited to see what they have to say
oh oops
Haha
im just trying to work through a problem im having until im satisfied with asking it
are there lots of big finite groups that have no subgroups?
like prime cyclic groups
i mean like, aside from the trivial one?
yes
And themselves?
yeah
if so then yeah all of the cyclic ones with prime order shouldn't have any subgroups
oh really?
I want you to try and work out all the groups that have no (nontrivial) subgroups
😮
You've pointed out that all the cyclic groups of prime order have no nontrivial subgroups
Are there any more?
Hint: if you have an element g of G then <g> is a cyclic subgroup of G
yknow what im just gonna ask it so someone can give me a direction to start
one of the questions i got wrong on a homework was as follows:
Let p be prime. Find a subgroup H of $G = \mathbb{Z}{p^2} \oplus \mathbb{Z}{p^2}$ s.t. G/H is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}{p} \oplus \mathbb{Z}{p}$
My initial answer was H = $Z_p \oplus Z_p$, but that's not even a subgroup of the former (no clue what i was cooking), so im reattempting
ChiliLion
You're right to say that it's not a subgroup of G, but perhaps it is isomorphic to a subgroup of G. Think about this maybe?
so it's only prime cyclic groups
Yeah exactly. G must be cyclic, and the only cyclic groups with no proper subgroups are those of prime order
In fact these are the only groups of prime order, but we don't need to prove that yet
So it's really like
there are very very few groups with this property, and they're all kinda boring lol
right, wow, thanks
Like just to put this in perspective
How many primes are there of size less than 2000?
Like
not that many right
right
certainly less than 1000 lol
Now
Just groups of order 1024
there are 49,487,365,422
In fact over 99% of the groups of order less than 2000 are of order 1024
(Counted up to isomorphism of course)
😮
So in a very real way there are very very few groups with this property
Power of 2
makes sense
Yeah exactly
Lookin at those 2-groups
It is conjectured that, in plain terms "almost all" finite groups are groups of order 2^n for some n, but I don't believe this has been resolved.
I wouldn't really have my finger on the pulse though.
99% of the work in that sounds like trying to characterize "almost all"
Oh no that's the straightforward part, like they're just saying that the proportion of finite groups less than n that are 2-groups tends to 1
It's just really hard to work with asymptotic bounds on groups
Like afaik most of the arguments for showing bounds just go "here's a bunch of groups we constructed"
Well, you’re looking for a word which spits out 0 yeah?
I mean yes but the problem is given some set of generators of a subgroup of a group, right
So it's a word but in a different set of generators
Sorry I need to make myself clearer
if i construct some valid G1, G2 which are both isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}{p} \oplus \mathbb{Z}{p}$ and which I can direct sum then is $G1 \oplus G2 \cong \mathbb{Z}{p^2} \oplus \mathbb{Z}{p^2}$?
ChiliLion
I'm imagining we have a finitely presented group, a secondary finite set of generators of a subgroup, and a word that we want to decide membership of the subgroup for
No.
hmm ok
right, makes sense
Look for subgroups of Z_p^2. What are subgroups of Z_n in general?
Maybe even write out some small examples like Z_4
Well that’s exactly asking computability of spitting out a word that sends an element to 0, sorta?
It may even be simpler to just look at G = Z_p^2 instead of Z_p^2 (+) Z_p^2. The direct sum is a red herring.
I don't really see how
Oh no wait
I misinterpreted you
Well like, if we can say g is in <x1,…,xn>, then that means there’s certainly a word that gives you g
yes that's just computing the inverse, sure
So it’s like, not too far from decidability of word problem for <x1,…, xn, g>?
Maybe
That gives a c.e. thing rather than decidable tho ig
will do boss!
For anything in that subgroup, we’d have an algorithm to spit out a word for the inverse from it
sorry I was busy for the past 3 months trying to find subgroups of Z_n
I think?
WEW YOU HAVE AN ALBUM?????????
I have like 7
bro makes music
Wew be honest with me. Wew. Have you been to any conferences lately.
two conferences
My god
unfortunate, you could be awesome and go to 0
what do u know that I don't
Idk
I've only been to one conference recently so I'm losing ig
But I did see a really good talk on fusion systems at it
Hmm that might be too much what I’m suggesting, since we just want decidability of being in the group, which implies a partial algorithm for inverses, but if we have a group with undecidable word problem we shouldn’t be able to determine decidably if a word is equal to any word in a subset of the generators necessarily?
I ain't gonna give a talk I'm too scared cold and alone in these dark times
I love giving talks. It allows me to stroke my massive throbbing ego
i haven't been to a conference :3
what did they discuss
i mean if we're looking at subgroups of $Z_{p^2}$ iso. to $Z_p$, every single element of $Z_{p^2}$ except for multiples of $p$ is a generator, and the ones that are multiples of $p$ generate groups of order $p$(?)
ChiliLion
lol
Okay so S_6 having a nontrivial automorphism isn't as interesting as the other ones not
I wonder if there's a way to narrow it down beyond it having 6 sylow-5 (cyclic) subgroups
It really went over my head... but it was essentially a description of a classification result. The guy kinda motivated it by implying fusion systems might help with the classification of FSGs but unfortuantely relied on the classification of FSGs during it
It was a really impressive talk, I wish I understood it better
that's baby shit. PSL_2(4) is isomorphic to PSL_2(5)
I'm not a group theorist you punk
society if we could find exotics without CFSGs
That is pretty fucked up tbh
okay that's actually kind of neat
yeah the derivation of the iso is a lot like how u find the exceptional outer automorphism of S_6
it's some bizarre combinatorial coincidence
wait isn't that also iso to A_5
yes
don't worry about that part sweaty
that part is trivial to see if you draw an icosahedron then take so many edibles it'd kill an elephant
I'm so glad you're still the same, wew
or amphetamines if you're studying sheaves
here's a page of cursed bullshit
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exceptional_isomorphism
Using the sylow-conjugation action is a silly way to blast through problems using stupid ways
See this is why people say that finite groups suck
I just wanna do character theoryyyyy is that so badddddddd
ok then do character theory lil nerd
ok wait so if i have $H = <(p, p)>$, would tht work?
I got the cde triangle tattooed onto my forehead
ChiliLion
What do you think? What's the order of this group?
what group are we trying to find subgroups of
orig. question
That was a bad prompt
What I mean to say is
Let's see, let's work it out
What's the order is a good start
Maybe write down the elements in a different way
alternating groups really like to be projective special linear groups
Ah but we're looking for a group of order p^2 aren't we
sounds like a sylow action
we are...
only up until A_9 or somesuch
Proving it's the END sounds like the worst
why yes, they do induce isomorphic fusion systems for every prime - what an astute observation!
what's a fusion system, papa wew
nah it's just an order argument
boytjie what's our supergroup here please respond
And also it is 1 fucking am wtf
who knows wew, maybe u should spend another 3 months
smell u later
what a nerd
,rotate you fuck
oh, neat
this isn't including the saturation axioms but I am not subjecting you to that bullshit
thank you papa wew for the kuhnowledge
What's Inj
set of injective maps
And Hom_S
transporter set :trollface:
As group homomorphisms?
I bet Bobby defines this stuff earlier in the book
Hom_S(P, Q) := {c_s \in Inn(S) : c_s(P) <= Q}
I'll just take a gander
he does, and yes
Ah ok makes sense
all fusion systems are subcategories of FinGrp
Ye
omg hi ShiN how is u
lol
i don't CARE
I'm tired
yeah that matrix multiplication is hard!
End(K^n) ~= M_n(End(K)) still making me think
and the K-linear endomorphisms of ring K as a left-module being iso to it's opposite ring
F_1
Can there exist a torsion, finitely generated, finitely presented, infinite group?
In the area of modern algebra known as group theory, a Tarski monster group, named for Alfred Tarski, is an infinite group G, such that every proper subgroup H of G, other than the identity subgroup, is a cyclic group of order a fixed prime number p. A Tarski monster group is necessarily simple. It was shown by Alexander Yu. Olshanskii in 1979 t...
I think they're finitely presented
why do you think so?
yeah good point
hmm
yeah they can't be I take it back
all but one adjective is pretty good though
lol
I think that what I said is not possible, but I have no idea
im having trouble thinking of one that gives me the result i want;
if i have $H =\langle (1, 0) \rangle$ as my subgroup, then im pretty sure the quotient space sort of be represented solely by the second digit, which means its equivalent to $Z_{p^2}$(?), which is a dead end as $G/H$ would be $Z_{p^2}$ by first isom. thrm
i think $H =\langle (1, 1) \rangle$ can be thought of as the difference a-b between (a, b), which im pretty sure still maps to $Z_{p^2}$
ChiliLion
Sorry about that....was in an area with no signal
I'm not just trying to get answers. I'm not even in a math course. I am just self studying abstract algebra.
Z_1 is the set {0} with binary operation of addition modulo 1
Z_2 is the set {0, 1} with binary operation of addition modulo 2
So the Aut(Z_1) is simply phi(x) = e right?
I have been resummoned
OK so
Lol
the Aut(Z_1) is phi(x) = e
I'm spooked by this language again
Let me be extremely clear
Aut(Z_1) is a set of things. It is not a function, it is not an automorphism. It is a set of automorphisms.
Aut(Z_1) = {phi} where phi(x) = 0, that is correct.
But it is wrong to say what you said there. I am not sure if you have misunderstood something or you are just using language imprecisely, but I need to point this out.
OK, so you are totally correct so far.
I'd like you to think about Aut(Z_2) now
I understand that Aut(G) is the set of all automorphisms on the group G
Let's simplify. Let G = Z_p^2. I want you to find a subgroup H of G where G/H is isomorphic to Z_p.
Verbiage will be better from now on
Hint: this is going to be equivalent just to finding a subgroup of G of order p, which (even stronger hint!) you actually already know how to do.
Then we can move on to Z_p^2 (+) Z_p^2.
i mean the only subgroup of order $p$ should be similar to $\langle p \rangle$ no?
ChiliLion
OK so this is true, and more specifically you mean just IS
sorry my brain is frying 😭
The only subgroup of Z_p^2 of order p is <p> = <2p> = ... = <(p-1)p>
No it's not equivalent, it's literally equal.
Aut(Z_2) = set of automorphisms of Z_2.
that's what i meant im just bad at speaking 
OK
oopsies
So great, you have a subgroup of Z_p^2 that works for this simpler problem, namely <p>
Now can you think about how we might extend this to work for Z_p^2 (+) Z_p^2?
If it's not clear, I'd like you to try and determine the elements of this set
I'd like a description of the automorphisms. Hint: think about some nice properties that automorphisms – or more specifically homomorphisms in general – have
(Not the defining property, but some other nice property)
Tarski monster my beloved
hmm ok
Generating sets are a huge help :3
ok so basically i need all elements that can be represented as (mp, np) for some m,n in this subgroup. No idea how to notate that, but it's a subgroup nonetheless because it passes all the subgroup tests
this is what was happening in my head when i said <(p,p)> teehee
oops
There is a nice way to write this subgroup using the same (+) notation
Can you see it?
pZ_p (+) pZ_p?
That’s right
i see
Or wait no
oh this makes sense to me now
thanks a bunch 💀 i probably walked like half a mile pacing back and forth trying to vizualize thing and figure out what i was doing
Well, Gallians book covers homomorphisms after isomorphism so I haven't gotten there yet but what I'm thinking is that for phi to be an automorphism of Z_2 then phi must map 0 to 0 or 1 and phi must map 1 to 0 or 1 right?
So an example of an automorphism could be phi(x) = x + 1?
Another could be phi(x) = x as the trivial one?
well like
if you map 0 to 1
you neccesarily must map 1 to 0
and vice versa
Ok definitely understand that
So then why is Aut(Z_1) isomorphic to Aut(Z_2) if Aut(Z_2) has more than one possible automorphism in Aut(Z_2)?
It's in the solutions for Contemporary Abstract Algebra by Gallian
There’s a pretty big difference between having two possible automorphisms and actually having two
You have just listed bijections, not checked that they are automorphisms. Do so!
They are isomorphic. I wouldn’t call them equal
hmm i see
i will go eat before i spread any more misinfo 🙏 also boy didnt you say you were sleeping...
go sleep!
Have I detected unitaries
What is U(n) here? It clearly isn’t a unitary group.
If they are bijections then I just need to show that there is operation preservation, right? So for phi(x)=x+1 we need to show that phi(ab)=phi(a)phi(b)
phi(ab)=ab+1 so it is not an automorphism since ab+1 does not equal a+1+b+1
Group of units of Z/nZ
Do you know what “finitely generated” means is?
Gl miz
They are isomorphic because they only have one possible isomorphism.
There is only one group up to isomorphism of order 1
If the "identity" mapping counts as an automorphism of Z_1 then why doesn't it count as one in Z_2?
Well there is a single identity morphism per group
That is an automorphism, the identity amongst them
They are distinct “things•
So Z_2 has one automorphism as well as the 0->1, 1->0
That’s not an automorphism
A homomorphism, a well-structured map that respects the group structure, must fix the identity
Namely 0
That is not an automorphism because f(1+1) = f(0) = 1 but not f(1)+f(1)=0
That is a bijection of the underlying set, yes (there are two set bijections) but ONE automorphism
The ONE automorphism being the identity which is the same as the one in Z_1
Well not the same
Well
Yes they are both identities
Sorry...verbiage again
Well i see what you’re saying
Same type of morphism, no
Yeah i see what you’re trying to say
I am highly medicated and still so 
Sorry im saying it here because you guys are familiar to me
Im sorry if its off topic but pls bear with me for a bit
I have not been studying much the past two weeks
Yeah idk ive just been having a tough year
Lots of like, needs on the hierarchy not being met due to circumstances
Anyway sorry this is quite random but just wanted to say something here
I feel ya
A lot of us do
Thanks
@shell pilot anything else you are stuck on?
That helped a lot, I really appreciate the help!
Now I see why 0->1, 1->0 is not an automorphism
It is a bijection, not an automorphism of groups
what is a direct proof of this fact
What. The. Hell
Using algebraic structures to visualize geometry in like an isomorphism?
Is that right? What field of math is this
I am a little high right now, but even still, thats genuinely so cool to me
Sorry, random i know
Analytic structures often have an algebraic side to them
Wow i never really learned that before
I need to learn that but idk if i even have the chance to
Like the entirety of functional analysis basically
Wow
There’s sometimes cool problems that can be done with it, there was a problem i did in Jacobson that combined that idea
Math is so weird
This
Okie :3
Yeah i need to learn that stuff and discover what my true math interests are
Unfortunately i got into the good stuff too later
Like, anything is possible, but i shied away from this stuff in undergrad
I am too much of a perfectionist
It would overwhelm me too easily
In terms of i can always keep learning and see where i want to go with it, but im still quite far off
And dually
Same
But i have the sorta luxury of doing it as a hobby and being able to follow my own constraints
At the cost of less motivational resources and more paranoia about my performance
I don't know of a proof that doesn't use some Lie theory. The sort of key thing to understand here is the exponential map, which goes from the Lie algebra to the group. Under the given hypotheses, it ends up being a surjective group homomorphism with discrete kernel, so by first iso theorem for Lie groups, G is a compact quotient of R^n by a discrete subgroup, hence a torus.
Unsurprisingly, you could say this is Lie group theory. But I guess this is part of topological/analytic algebra (analytic for the smooth part). I am a fan of topological algebra, but I admit analytic algebra sounds weird.
Oh wow I just kind of understood what u meant a bit with analytic algebra
i mean tbh my analysis is so lacking but like
what is that, using metric space theory to get properties of algebraic structures?
does it use measure theory?
The dihedral group D_2n with 2n elements is isomorphic to a semidirect product of the cyclic groups C_n and C_2.
does this mean that either C_n or C_2 isn't normal in D_2n?
is a group the direct product of its composition factors?
Cn is normal
Since the action of D2n on the orientation of polygon has kernel Cn
i'm not sure i follow but
A polygon has two orientations {0, 1}, and each element of D2n will either flip the orientation or not, therefore permuting {0, 1}
i think there's some confusion apparent in how i posed my question
oh that's what you mean by orientation
i think i see
No
Not even semi-direct product I think
i'm confused because like, on one wikipedia page i see Z_12 = Z_4 x Z_3
but i also see elsewhere that C_12 has composition factors C_3, C_2, and C_2
and i see that Z_3 x Z_2^2 is different from Z_12
"Composition factors" refer to factoring via short exact sequence
0 → H → G → K → 0 can be considered "factoring" G into H and K
If G → K has right inverse then it's a semi-direct product
If H → G has left inverse then it's a direct product
Extensions are very complicated, (un)fortunately
(And building a group from its composition factors is just performing repeated extensions)
does Z_3 x Z_2^2 have the same composition factors as Z_4 x Z_3?
so like, these are more detailed descriptions than the composition factors?
Z_2^2 is neither a direct product nor a semi-direct product
i guess i need to look at extensions
Yes there is an SES 0 → Z/2 → Z/4 → Z/2 → 0
Which is just quotienting out the subgroup {0+4Z, 2+4Z} ⊂ Z/4
is using the Tensor-Adjoint isomorphism enough to prove that the tensor product of projective modules is projective over a comm unital ring
i just said Hom(M tensor N,-) is exact cuz its just Hom(M,Hom(N,-))
literally
thats all i did
does it work
That works. You can also just use that projectives are summands of free modules, and that tensoring with free modules is just direct sum
yeah i didnt think of that
when there are many like characterizations of shit u sometimes get tunneled vision into one
hahah i got lucky ig that it works i wouldnt have thought of the sumand of free
mod
ty
They define contraction such that f: A->B be a ring homomorphism, if b is an ideal of B, then f^(-1)b is always an ideal of A, called the contraction of b.
To show every prime ideal of A is the contraction of a prime ideal of A[[x]].
I need to show if f: A-> A[[x]] is a ring homomorphism then for every prime ideal p in A there exists prime ideal q in A[[x]] such that f(p) = q, right?
If it is right, then if I take identity mapping then for prime ideal p in A we can choose q = p such that p is an ideal in A[[x]], right?
Not quite, you need to show that for every p there is a q such that f^(-1)(q) = p.
Note that if p is an ideal in A, then it's not an ideal in A[[x]] (unless p=0)
Yes 🥲
But can we generate prime ideal in A[[x]] by the set p ?
You can yes, but there is something to check, whether the ideal you get is still prime or not
Yes we can generate ideals but can we generate prime ideals ?
What if q is generated by p and x ?
That would do the trick yeah
You can't generate prime ideals in general, because the intersection of primes need not be prime.
But you can generate an ideal and hope/check that it's prime
<x> is the prime ideal in A[[x]], right?
It is prime precisely iff A is a domain
Ah, I thought so
Yes because if it is not domain then there exists non-zero element a and b in A such that ab=0 but a and b not in <x>
I am not sure about how the ideal looks generated by p.
<p> = { finite sum of a_nb_n | a_n in A[[x]] and b_n in p }, is it correct?
Let A be a ring and R its nilradical. Then if A/R is a field then A has exactly one prime ideal.
If A/R is field then R is maximal ideal in A.
Let p_i are prime ideals in A then R is the intersection of all p_i.
Now since p_i ≠ (1) there exists maximal ideal M_i such that p_i contained in M_i.
But it shows that R contained in M_i implies that R=M_i. Thus p_i = R for all i.
Is it correct?
And here ring is commutative with unity
Yes, though you don't need to invoke maximal ideals. Just note R is maximal (as you said) and for any prime p, R is contained in p so R=p
Got it, thank you
Dont you love when youre tryna sleep and then suddenly think of something that makes a concept you were trying to learn make a lot more sense
Woo!
I was thinking more about split sequences , splitting homomorphism and i understand that concept better now
I was confused the first time i saw it
In a ring A, let S be the set of all ideals in which every element is a zero divisor. Show that the set S has maximal elements.
But I don't understand how S can be non-empty? We don't count 0 as zero divisor
no other assumptions on the ring A?
and maybe they just mean every non-zero element is a zero divisor
A is a commutative ring with unity
meaning the zero ideal is included in A vacuously
Got it
Thank you ❤️
I mean I don't know for a fact that's what they mean but it's the only way that their claim makes any sense
Yes
You can also just allow 0 to be a zero-divisor
But the book does not allow
Simplifies things a bit
A zero divisor kind is like the failure of (0) being a prime ideal
Don't be a slave to the book
Okay
😵💫
What do you mean “maximal elements”?
I wonder, are there any other big math servers like this?
That are active like this one
Not big but yeah there are
SoME is pretty big I guess
This is like my damn home 😂
Are there invite link u can send me?
I really do appreciate resources like this. You guys are so helpful
Maximal element with respect to inclusion order
There is one more server, if you want to join I can invite you
Thx
Inclusion order isn’t over elements, it’s over subsets?
Yes so S contains ideals
Very confused what you mean here
S is a set of ideals
Okay and so S cannot contain another ideal?
what?
Actually the book defined 0 as a zero divisor so my mistake
You’re not making sense here
dude S is the poset in question here
the elements of S are ordered under inclusion
But I don't think it makes any difference
Oh S has maximal elements
Assuming Zorn’s lemma or whatever choice equivalent of choice
That seems like the easiest way
||Because it’s chain complete. If we have an increasing chain of ideals where each element is a zero divisor, then the union over all of them has the same property, because every given element in that union must lie in one of those ideals and must be a zero divisor, no?||
wow that's boring but yes I think that works
It is always Zorn and taking unions
Taking union and union is an ideal and if a in union then a belong to some ideal I then there exists b such that ab = 0, so every element of that union is a zero divisor so union of chain element is in S. By Zorn's lemma, there is a maximal element, right?
This
"tHiS" goofy
Goofy
Isn't left, right action just a convention or is there more to them than that
Like what do they mean that a left action is a right action in (b) here
From what I understand an action is just a map from G to sym(X) that is a homomorphism
So how are left and right actions different
right action is an antihomomorphism from G to Sym(X), but really there isn't that much difference at all
like as you prove in part a, any left G-set is isomorphic to a right G-set
Yeah but I dont understand what I have to prove in (b)
you need to prove that the action x.g := g.x is a well defined group action iff [G,G] acts trivially
where ":=" means "defined as being equal to"
not sure how standard that notation is
So I already have a right action given to me?
well your notation is strange to me because everything seems to be acting on the right anyway
My notation, you mean the notation in the problem?
yeah
Wait so what is the problem with just saying that define a right action by mapping x Sigma to sigma x
so I'm guessing you have weird definitions of left/right actions - something along the lines of "a left group action is a map GxX -> X such that x(ab) = (xa)b and a right group action is a map GxX -> X such that x(ab) = (xb)a"
?
which is idiotic and I will not be adopting
Yea
to solve this problem, you basically need to see what you can say about x(ab) and x(ba) using the fact that [G,G] acts trivially
The distinction is between things that satisfy f(g,f(h,x)) = f(gh,x) and things that satisfy f(g,f(h,x)) = f(hg,x).
yeah but like... write left group actions with the group elements on the left? like everyone else in the literaure?
you would never do this for left/right modules
(I may have missed some context; my goal was to explain to Redacted that it's not just a notational difference).
Wow , it's just a lot more times clearer now ig
ah sorry, my mistake - I thought you were replying to me
Yeah now with this brilliant notation it's clear to me why commutator acts trivially
it's even clearer if you do it the standard way:
left group actions are maps GxX -> X with (ab)x = a(bx)
right group actions are maps XxG -> X with x(ab) = (xa)b
So how would left group actions become right
like this
Like idk why this is somehow uncomfortable to me
but if you can see it clearer with tropo's explanation then just ignore me
Cause x is an element of the set
I think what can make that notation confusing is that you're using the "." to denote two different operations, and defining one in terms of the other.
Okay thank you @tribal moss @delicate orchid this was quite insightful to me
Also this antihomomorphism thing
From here also I believe we can get that commutator acts trivially
the commutator doesn't always need to act trivially at all
consider G acting on itself via right multiplication
(If [G,G] acts trivially, then the action G->Sym(X) factors through the abelianization of G, which mean that f(gh,..) and f(hg,...) must be the same permutation).
unless you're saying that assuming the action is both left and right then the commutator must act trivially? which is true
there's a much easier way of seeing it, x(ab) = (xb)a = x(ba) = x([a,b]ba)
I suppose I should write it clearer:
x(ab) = x([a,b]ba)
x(ab) = (xb)a = x(ba)
<=> x([a,b]ba) = x(ba) <=> x[a,b] = x
this is basically the decategorified version of what you said I'm aware
Ngl, this notation looks confusing to me too. If we're talking about two distinct actions in the same argument, then I think they ought to have more notation than just juxtaposition.
issue with that is I'd have to latex it
but the entire point is it's the same action
there's only one action
Fair, I should have read the original problem more closely.
This is more of an off beat question but for this excercise 2.4 is there a way to think about what exactly is the action that is defined the way it is here doing to the function
Ps: I was able to get through all the verifications asked in 2.4 I was just looking if there is some nice interpretation to think about this
Hello I just wanted to ask about the coloring of a tetrahedron. I know the symmetries of a tetrahedron are isomorphic to S_4 and that I need to use Burnside's Lemma, but I am unsure of how to apply it. Can I calculate the colorings of the faces as permutations of S_4 and the colorings of the vertexes as permutations of S_4 and multiply them together? I was thinking something like this. (Work in pdf)
Hi, i have a doubt about cyclic modules. I was trying to prove that $K[t]/(t^3+t^2+1)$ is a cyclic $K[t]$-module. My professor told me this module is generated by the class of the constant polynomial 1, so is cyclic, but I dont understand why
jorge.534s
This is why modules are better. Right vs left matters
group actions are modules over F_1 they're the same structure. Keep coping
F_1 isn't a ring
and you are not swag
I'm a commutative bioperad
Ah yes this thing that doesn't exist. It's not a ring
I'm a symmetric biset
What is the absolute Galois group of F1
Doesn't exist yet
The category of Motives not existing never stopped anyone
you see chat it's funny because
How do you define the exterior algebra of a module?
Tensor algebra modulo anticommutativity
how do you define it for vector spaces?
For 9 here I am stuck. I've worked it down to r=2 so that I have two composition series 1 < N < G and 1 < M < G which I have isolated to the case (N cap M)=1 and N, M are distinct. Then I showed G=MN. I see that by second iso this should give me G/N iso to M and G/M iso to N I think. Now I need to show the bit about isomorphisms between composition factors from Jordan Holder but I'm not sure how that follows?
Feels like I'm missing something easy here. 
Oh yah here is how df states jordan holder fwiw
noncommutative matricies fry my brain
You are done
Note that (2) says that you can permute the composition factors
You could take N, M simple and consider the product NxM. You have the series 1-N-NxM and 1-M-NxM
Oh wait is the permutation just NM/N -> M/1 and N/1 -> MN/N?
Okay yah I see it
Man I am dumb as hell sometimes lmao.
Hey chat once again returning to this
If we have a ring R
We can view R as both a left and a right module over itself
but is End_R(R) for RIGHT module morphisms isomorphic to R, but isomorphic to R^op for left module morphisms?
a_r(b_r(x)) = a_r(xb) = a_r(x)b = xab
but a_l(b\l(x)) = a_l(bx) = b a_l(x) = bax
Actually i need to think a bit more about left vs right modules
Let G be an abelian group, and R a ring
Then can G be equipped with a left module structure for a morphism from R to End(G), and a right module structure for a morphism from R^op to End(G)
a_r(b_r(x)) = a_r(xb) = x(ba)
a_l(b_l(x)) = a_l(bx) = (ab)x
I told you this
I think i misremembered that, thanks for the clarification
So it’s because (R^op)^op = R
Morally yea
i don't think you can just multiply them, because there could be a vertex coloring and an edge coloring that could be combined in more than one distinct way
perhaps you could use a group that represents the symmetries of both the edges and the vertices?
hm no, i don't know
maybe the group should act on the set of both vertices and edges
you only counted how many vertices were fixed, not edges
oh but then the bases of the exponents wouldn't match
In general for a ring R with 1, R will be will be a cyclic R module over itself (r*1=r for any r). But then it's also easy to check that the image of that generator generates the quotient.
Ah I’m so dumb I thought it was faces and vertexes not edges and vertexes. I’m going to have to go back to the drawing board.
But S_4 should act on edges and vertexes because it’s just a representation of a symmetric change in the tetrahedron.
i think i got it
If I want an example such that A group G with a normal subgroup H such that the factor group G/H is not isomorphic to any subgroup of G.
So if we take G = Z and H = 5Z, then there is no Subgroup of Z which is isomorphic to Z/5Z, right?
Yes, good
any nontrivial subgroup of Z will have infinite order and any quotient of Z by a nontrivial subgroup will have a finite order
Yes, thank you
I don't know if my proof is correct or not
If p_1,..,p_n are primes which divide |G| no other prime divide |G|.
Since there exists an element of order p_1 then take K_i is a cyclic group of order p_i.
Then what if I take H_i as a direct product of K_1, K_2,...,K_(n-i+1)?
Hm is that necessarily a subgroup?
It's easiest imo to use induction and the "correspondence theorem"
which i think is smetimes called 4th iso or smth
Oh
Induction on what?
Size
Okay, thank you
Does "quotient field" mean field of fractions?
tf does Q/R mean here
quotient module?
hmm. I'll allow it just this once
yeah true
Yes in this context
No it's not!
Yes it's the torsion subgroup of the circle group
its close enough
One is countable, the other is uncountable 
yeah they're both infinite. same thing
So this problem would be equivalent to showing every pair is a bilinear combination
?
with a difference being also that Q/Z has much more automorphisms than S^1 as a topological group
Q/Z is not topologically cyclic but R/Z is
this. So much this
How would you show a tensor product is trivial
look at elementary tensors and show they're all zero
Um 🤓 because the splooge-zucker spectral sequence vanishes on the 69th page we can clearly infer
Elementary tensors?
Do you mean tensors of the form a (x) b
yeah, the elementary tensors
elementary tensors? you mean an arbitrary element of the tensor product
no I don't
No
WAKE UP
😭
yeah that's not his job is it
Also like 1) ||in fact Q/R (x)_R Q = 0, which implies your result (why?)|| 2) you can view|| Q/R (x)_R Q = (Q/R)[S^-1] where S = nonzero elements of R, and it is clear this guy vanishes||
uh oh!
I need to learn about tensors
oy gevalt this message is fucked up
I forget how you show a tensor is 0 outside of using the “bilinear kernel” construction
😭 it's being carved up
u literally just move shit around
Very helpful (not at all)
The hard part is showing smth is nonzero
It is lol
start with a/b (x) c/d
r balanced map moment
show it's zero
Move around how wtf you mean
Z/2 (x)_Z Z/3 = 0
then move shit around
Because 1 (x) 1 = 3 (x) 1 = 1 (x) 3 = 1 (x) 0 = 0
Yes but when is a (x) c 0
da /dc (x) c/d = a/dc (x) 0 = 0
Real
????????????
its just multiplication. when a or c are 0
Think about it lol
miz have you ever actually worked with tensors
Why did 3 just become 0 wtf
BECAUSE IT'S Z/3Z
Not for a while
LOCK IN
OH
LOCK INNNNN
Thought we were working in Z
But you were fine with 1 = 3... curious
well yeah that's just obvious
curious
we're working with the Z-modules Z/3Z and Z/2Z
....
oh okay i misread
Lmao
so its kinda Z
I'm seeing all these Zs and I'm thinking ZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZ
Every abelian group is kinda Z
real x2
What
Can’t spell
Now do the same for R = k[x] and R/(x^2+1) (x) R/(x-1) [tensoring over k]
Yes
So 1 kills it
surely thats 0
Rahh
ok prove it bih
Almost every time someone writes = k[x] I just work with k[x]
What was the method for Z/2Z (x) Z/3Z that generalises
My brain gets confused when I see R/(x^2 + 1)
I mean didn't swiftee solve the problem lol
Idk why I did it like that, it came to me in a dream a bit like your mom
if k= R then this is the free module of rank 4?
Bit inappropriate, especially depending on how you read this
But I just said R = k[x]
Define the annihilator of an element of a module. Let’s say we have two R-modules A and B, then a (x) b = 0 if the annihilators of an and b have nontrivial intersection no?
This may have been deliberate... I can delete if the mod hat says no
Might actually be an iff lol
So what if I pointed out that 3 - 2 = 1 is what makes the Z/2Z (x) Z/3Z thing work
uh
oh yeah, coprime ideals
We add 2 – which is doing nothing in Z/2Z – then we transfer over the tensor, whence it becomes 0 because 3 is nothing in Z/3Z
So this really works because 3 - 2 = 1
yes bezouts means we can move stuff around. Z/mZ (x) Z/nZ = 0 for m,n coprime
Well you could but you can also just spot a Bézout identity
Lol
Chungus
Hint: difference of squares
Assume Ann(a) and Ann(b) be coprime ideals in R
then there exists x in Ann(a), y in Ann(b) such that x + y = 1
a (x) b = (x + y)(a (x) b) = (ax) (x) b + a (x) (by) = 0
actually probably can use ideas like this to find annihilators of tensor products
i've forgotten how to work with k[x]
good lord
but we should be able to move stuff from the left hand side to the right and by considering degrees it should vanish
@south patrol Lets say we are working with R modules A and B
If Ann(A) = I, and Ann(B) = J, then is I + J a subideal of Ann(A (x)_R B)?
Cursed notation
Sure
No I meant like
"The R module A"
Is that actually an equality
I don’t think so?
r(a \otimes b) = ra \otimes b = a \otimes rb = 0
For each a,b
Probably not an equality no
Actually we already have an example
Q/Z (x)_Z Q = 0. Annihilator of Q is 0
But Q/Z is not 0
Thanku
So let a/b \otimes c/d in the above product
Can’t we use denominator gcd lo
x^2 + 1 = (x-1)(x+1) + 2 is the identity I assume you're referring to? I don't see where this could go. My idea is to consider ax+ b mod (x^2+1), divide ax+b by (x-1) to get ax+b = p(x)(x-1) + r(x), then I wanted to move the (x-1) over but that only works if r(x) is 0
We're taking the tensor over k
I guess I do need to assume it's of char 0
why not just say k = Q
u = a/b \otimes c/d
(bd)u = da \otimes bc = 0
Actually I’m stupid
Factor out the 1/bd
as a Frac(R) vector space
You are right and this is bugging me, I'm suddenly having a mental block
Oh lmao yes I am taking the tensor over k like an eejit
when in fact we need it over k[x]
Waoh
ok. so we are considering k[x]/ (x-1) as a left k[x]-module, and the idea of the tensor product is to multiply by elemts of k[x]/(x^2+1)
how does it being a k[x] module change the situation. (i am writing to myself here)
In the module $\bQ[x]/(x-1)$ we have $1 = 1 + (x-1)(x+1)/2 = (x^2+1)/2$
Boytjie
Like this is almost too much to say lol
Do what here btw?


