#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 254 of 1
Let A be a G-module, G a finite group, and for each p fix a Sylow p-subgroup G_p. Is it true that if H^1(G_p, A)=0 for all p then H^1(H, A)=0 for all subgroups H of G?
Still am unsure why cosets of B/psi(A) need to be fixed under B->B
Wait bruh
(Referring back to the actual example i was looking at) The cosets of B/psi(A) need to be fixed under B->B, or else it would send stuff from B to distinct elements in C when it should be sent to the same element in C
Given the diagram needing to commute
I think i actually understand it now
In Boolean rings with unity is it always true that given an two different element there are different prime ideals containing them
Wait nvm
I meant to ask given x not equal to y is there a prime ideal containing X that does not contain y
,rotate is there an intuitive reason why the isomorphism has to pass through the transpose?
Is it due to the convention in which we multiply matrices in the first place?
What book is this, and what are you studying?
Jacobson I
This is an entire page of a book
Can you point out the part you're looking at
In the end?
Ok found it near the bottom of the page. It's because this is really an isomorphism to M_n(R)^o
and you can go between the 2 using the transpose.
The deeper reason why this is true is that
End_R(M^n) = M_n(End_R(M))
Where M is any R-module.
This means that the matrices that we are multiplying by are matrices of ENDOMORPHISMS.
Now in the case M=R one gets End_R(R)=R^o
(Check that this is true and understand why), so really you get
End_R(R^n)=M_n(End_R(R))=M_n(R^o)
Finally M_n(R^o)=M_n(R)^o in the obvious way
In the commutative case we have that End_R(R)=R so everything works out nicely, but it turns out that generally we need to introduce the opposite ring
It really all follows from this fact that endomorphisms of R compose the opposite way as numbers multiply,
Oh I see
So itās like almost over the dual
(Informally speaking)
Sure, in a sense
What is B even saying
I have no ideaš
I imagine it's "the number of left and right cosets of H in G are equal when H is a normal subgroup of G"
or that's what is trying to be said
No way they forgot to print that many words ;-;
I don't see any other reading tbh
Maybe there was an attempt to paraphrase A with the normality condition
If $I$ is an ideal of a ring $R$, is it true that if $n < m$, then $I^n \subseteq I^m$?
clubsoda14
yes
Sweet thanks
in general, I is always a subset of IJ
RIGHT
Does R have a unit?
Let $I$ be an ideal of $R$. Let $M'$ be the subset of elements of $a$ of $M$ that are annihilated by some power, $I^k$, of the ideal $I$, where the power may depend on $a$. Prove that $M'$ is a submodule of $M$.
clubsoda14
pretty sure I have to use this to prove that
In a way is this purely because of the convention we chose for matrix multiplication being in the opposite direction as function composition?
Wait sorry to bother you again but in Z/2^5Z can't we consider <2> then <2>^5 is 0 but <2>^4 is not?
Isn't it a counter to your statement
no, because 0 is a subideal of any ideal
Wait i m definitely messing n and m here
Let $m = n + k$ where $k>0$. Then $I^m = I^n I^k$ and $I^n$ is an ideal so what do you get?
LOL KET
Boytjie
For a counterexample to your claim take the ideal I = (x) of Z[x] or something idk
Yeah
n = 1, m = 2
It's not true
darn
In general you do get the reverse inclusion
as this demonstrates
Hey dude, what textbook r u working thru?
Dummit?
Yep lol
But this is not always true too?
Nice what section r u on rn?
what chapter of modules are you on?
High powers of ideals get smaller rather than bigger
No this is just incorrect
I see
I is always a superset of IJ
Yeah
The later sections look very scary im not gonna lie
Like bro I just gave a counterexample
Maybe I should stop doing every problem
Remember the mantra for ideals
"To Divide is To Contain"
a | b iff (a) contains (b)
so if you like the numbers get 'bigger' but the ideals get smaller
High powers of ideals are divisible by more ideals, i.e., they are contained by more ideals
They're smaller!
Not always but yknow sometimes
Wait so does this mean that if $m<n$ then $I^n \subseteq I^m$
Yes that's what we proved up here!!!!!!!!!!!!!
clubsoda14
Oh lol i missed this there were a couple of convos going on
how dare u not pay perfect undivided attention to me and only me 

wouldve totally shit my pants after reading this
Product of (two sided) ideals is between their intersection and the ideals themselves. Ideals absorb multiplication :3
Dw mine are permanently shidded
Pre-shat pants
Is this like a presheaf
Presheaf 
LOL
The one thing you donāt want coherent
Are all the problems in a section actually doable? I always just assumed that the later problems must be just extremely hard but to be fair i never bother doing them lil
Lol
but you should still try some harder problems
Ehhh
Some of them can be tricky
I was able to get through almost all of the problems in section 10.1 related to "proving things are submodules", problems 1-13
also this might be "cheating" but i always attempt a problem then check my solution online
and if i am completely stuck i ask here or just look it up online
i usually skip the problems that arent the most difficult but the ones that aren't worth the trouble
like im skipping problems 14 and 15, they might be important but i am over it
Well I had to ask, but can dummit just be used for it's problems and like if I am not reading it's theory but from somewhere else is there a chance I can go through the problems
Probably
I've read a lot online that dummit and foote does not make a good reference text because a lot of examples are taught through the problems
Find Aut(Z). I have looked online and some people say you have to map generators to generators but in the Gallian Abstract Algebra book, I do not see that anywhere in the Isomorphisms chapter. How do people "know" to just go straight to 1 and -1 for Aut(Z)?
I was trying to use only the methods of proving something is an isomorphism. So I was trying to look for a map that is one-to-one, onto, and preserves the operation.
Intuition š
There is no general method to prove anything, you have to get creative usually
Looking at the generators is a good first step, and Z is particularly nice because it's a so called 'free' group, meaning the homomorphisms out of Z correspond to any choice in the group
That is, you choose where 1 goes, and you have the rest of the map decided for you.
Remember that nobody 'knows' that one proof method will work without trying. You simply have to try things until something works. There is no algorithm to prove a general fact.
Ok, well my first "instinct" was to simply say for Z -> Z you just need n so the map is f(n) = n
Does that not work because it's not a finite group?
That's just not a proof, I don't get what you mean
It doesn't work because it's not true
It just says to find the Aut(Z)
Yes
So why can't our automorphism be phi(x) = x?
Every element is mapped to itself
Feed it 0, 1, 2, 3, ... you get 0, 1, 2, 3, ...
The identity map is in fact an automorphism but there is more than one automorphism of Z
In fact this is not saying very much at all, because the identity map is an automorphism for any group.
I don't really understand this answer I guess
Can you elaborate on what part of it you don't understand
The whole thing. Automorphisms are so easy but so confusing.
OK I can't help if you just say you don't understand the whole thing.
What's the very first claim you don't understand.
There are claims written in that screenshot, so read along and tell me the first one where you think you don't know why it's true.
I'm trying to match f(n) = nf(1) to the definition of an automorphism
An isomorphism from a group to itself.
OK great, yes, but more specifically what properties does it satisfy
so it's a bijection such that...
There is one very specific property that I am thinking of, the defining property even
The only thing I can think of is the operation preservation phi(ab) = phi(a)phi(b)
Yes that is the property
We're working in Z so we should write the operation as +
Now here's something. Let's assume n is positive. Then n = 1 + 1 + ... + 1 (n times) right?
So what's f(n)?
nf(1)
f(n) = f(1*n) = nf(1)
I don't find that satisfying. You haven't explained this in terms of the property we talked about
You haven't used the things I've pointed out to you
f(1*n) = f(1)f(n)?
I'm not convinced you've understood what I've been pointing out here
No, the group operation of Z is +, not *
so we have f(a + b) = f(a) + f(b). We definitely do not have f(a*b) = f(a) * f(b)
Is this clear? This is very important.
Ok, f(1+1+1+...+1) = f(1)+f(1)+...+f(1) = nf(1)
Why cant the map B->B not fix cosets of B/psi(A), but shift them over, bijectively? I am thinking its because we ALSO need to fix psi(A) under B->B
True?
For negative numbers, it's a fact that f(-n) = -f(n) for homomorphisms f so we're done
Clear, soap?
I'd like confirmation you're clear on this too. If you're not then we really need to discuss this.
Since we ALSO need to fix psi(A), our only choice is for B->B to restrict to identity on cosets of B/psi(A)?
This is as simple as yes or no, I'm not your professor, my job doesn't rely on your understanding
Ok, that helps, so basically we only took care of the positive integers with f(n) so we also needed to consider negative integers
Indeed, and I covered it up here ^
So is everything we talked about clear?
Or should I clarify
I think I need to just read more about automorphisms. I understand the idea but I can't understand Aut(Z) really
how to you describe / name a finite group that isn't simple?
Ok @coral spindle , So phi maps Z -> Z. So we know that phi(n) must be n*phi(1) because Z = <1> so phi has to map the value to a multiple of 1. However, it could be 1 or -1 multiple, so we have to consider n=1 or n=-1 and phi(1) = 1 and phi(1) = -1. But what is the actual automorphism? Like, what is the "function" that maps Z to Z? Do we just say phi maps n -> n and phi maps n -> -n?
We've just discussed how to describe the whole automorphism! If phi(1) = 1, for example, then phi(n) = n*phi(1) = n*1 = n.
N.b. there is going to typically be more than one automorphism! I fear your use of the word 'the'
alternating, symmetric, permutation, cyclic
Great that's really good
So in particular we could talk about a couple of groups here, but let's just talk about a really elementary class
Cyclic groups
They're Abelian, so every subgroup is normal. Are you familiar with this fact?
no
OK
but fair enough
What is the definition of a simple group that you know?
no normal subgroups
Exactly
Except the trivial ones of course :)
And what's the definition of a normal subgroup?
N is a normal subgroup of a group G if and only if what?
isn't it something like the left and right cosets are the same?
Hm this is true but I was looking for something more precise
Do you know the definition or should I remind you?
i'm not sure
OK it's fine just to say you don't know, it's much faster
A subgroup $N$ of $G$ is normal if, for all $g \in G$, we have $gNg^{-1} = N$
Boytjie
If by this you mean matrices multiply column vectors from the left instead of row vectors from the right, kinda?
In this case you'd need to consider R as a right R-module though. It's more about the fact that multiplying by r and then s from the left is not the same as mutliplying by rs from the left, but it is from the right.
(which is the same thing as a left R^o-module, which is the same as R as a left R^o module).
But what happens when $G$ is Abelian (i.e., commutative)? $gNg^{-1} = gg^{-1}N = eN = N$
Boytjie
So in fact every subgroup is going to be normal in an Abelian group
makes sense
Neat huh? This is very helpful in general and this will help us find a nonsimple group
OK so the cyclic groups are Abelian, so all we need to do is find a cyclic group with a nontrivial subgroup
What do you think at this stage, can you name one?
non-prime ones?
because they have subroups corresponding to the factors
That's exactly right
So there you go! You've just found an infinite family of non-simple groups
And in fact as a corollary, you've also found an infinite family of simple groups, namely those of prime order
Those cyclic groups of prime order* to be clear
(In fact every group of prime order is cyclic, but you may not have the tools to prove that yet)
thanks
i asked a general question but let me make my question more specific, if you don't mind
Go ahead
how can i name/identify this group?
Hm this cayley table is a bit nonstandard since we usually include the identity :)
right, sorry
I can see this group is of order 6, yes?
yes
OK so it's not exactly easy, but there are in fact only two groups of order 6, up to isomorphism!
It's either the cyclic group with 6 elements, or the symmetric group on 3 letters (i.e., with 3! = 6 elements)
And I can see it's not Abelian, so...
This is probably the easiest way but I appreciate it requires some knowledge :)
Yeah in general it's very hard indeed
It's actually not totally known exactly how hard it is, but it is a candidate for an NP-intermediate problem. A similar question for certain infinite groups is impossible.
okay thanks a lot
oh, that's not sarcastic
haha
but finding subgroups should not be too hard
you can select a member and compose it with itself
Yes you can find a cyclic subgroup very easily
But in general finding all the subgroups is extremely hard
I recently attended a conference where several of the talks were about progress in finding subgroups of certain finite groups :)
i was thinking interms of probability of finding a unit
And any non unit is in a maximal ideal
But i think that the events of an element not being in m and n are not independent
So it fails i guess
So pls help
Iāll try thinking of this
I am trying to think of a Legrange-esque way of doing this
As commutative rings are abelian group āacting on itselfā
A unit is something that is contained in no maximal ideals. Use inclusion-exclusion.
Yeah that's what lead me to believing that 1-1/R_m represents the probability of it not being in that maximal ideal m
But i guess inclusion exclusion is the way
Wait I'm suddenly doubting
Give me a sec
A term of the product is going to be 1/some Rms
so typically...
Yes, the probability of it being 0 in R/m is 1/N(m)
Well yes I suppose that does it
Now multiply etc
Yeah but these aren't independence events?
Or can we prove independence?
Hm
The trick would presumably be to use linearity of independence somehow right
Linearity of independence?
Perhaps I need sleep
Yes
Yes
So uh
I'll leave this to you cool folks
It is essentially just integration
Okay fair but what's our plan with the problem
The product expands to $|R|\sum_n \sum_{\mathfrak m_1, \dots, \mathfrak m_n} \frac{(-1)^n}{|R|^n} |\mathfrak m_1|\cdots|\mathfrak m_n|$, is there some way to interpret this latter thing as an expectation?
Boytjie
I really need to sleep actually tho
It's looks more like inclusion exclusion lol
Well yes 
Definitely can't use this but worth pointing out R is actually iso to the product of the R_m (localisations) and then it reduces to the case R has one maximal ideal where this is obvious
I wish evan almighty was real so my prayer to destory combinatorics would finally be fulfilled
details, immediately
oh ok nvm maybe later
Me when groups are so difficult 
Conceptually they are on easier side compared to other researches, but
I wouldn't be so sure
I am sorry for trivializing something I don't know
I did mean, it is relatively easy to think of groups. But that might not be true as well
yeah groups themselves are easy because they're really general
but they're hard because they're really general
It's easy to think of sets and axiom of choice too but oh boy the consequences of it
I found a ridiculous overkill way to do this I think
Let M_n be the nth maximal ideal, let J be the intersection of all maximal ideals
Then R/J is isomorphic to the direct product/sum of R/M_n. An element in this ring is a unit iff the nth term is a unit for each n. These are all fields, so the only non-units in F_n = R/M_n is 0 + M_n (congruence class). Thus the probability of being a unit in this ring R/J is the product over (1 - 1/|F_n|).
š¤Æ
The harder part is showing each x + J that is a unit as an equivalence class has a single unit within it
I think there must be a better way to do this besides my silly way
Oh this has a number field feel.
Jacobson
A -> B -> C is a split short exact sequence, this means B is a direct sum of A and C?
5 lemma ass mf
There HAS to be an easier way of doing this
R/Jac(R)
Oh wait
Misread
You can use that Iām pretty sure lmao
Why can we just take the 2 out of the function in this answer?
I thought that phi(2r/2) = phi(2)phi(r/2) but we don't know what phi(2) is
Isn't this a group homomorphisn
Thank you very much!
Trying to see if itās true that x + J is a unit iff x - u is in J for one and only unit u
Idk how to do this lmao
@chilly radish let R be a ring, be viewed as a left-module over itself. Then is End_R(R) isomorphic to Rās opposite ring due to the order reversal due to composition & linearity
Yes
Thanks
Thanks man
If you choose a right module structure you get R, but morally this is because this is the same as considering R^o as a left R-module (or R as a left R^o module)
I mean, kinda
I think of it as a deeper relationship between a ring and its opposite
You wouldn't expect a priori that left modules would be the same as right modules
So why should the endomorphism ring of R as a left and right module be the same
Same up to (anti)-iso?
For the case of R sure. It's more generally true that picking a side gives you different perspectives on a ring tho
Anti-homomorphisms seem like weirdly behaved objects
Like R-mod and mod-R may not be equivalent!
And why would they be?
Simple left R modules are quotients by left ideals, and similarly for right ideals, and generally a ring can have very different left and right ideal structures
Probably less so due to opposite rings being like tensors in a way where they āturnā anti-homomorphisms into homomorphisms through them, instead of multi-linear morphisms into linear
You can phrase it in terms of a universal property if you really want to
Iād assume for every antihomomorphism A into B it factors through a homomorphism from A^op to B
You can just compose with A^op->A, so it's not factoring through in this case, it's being factored through
Np. As a final note i'd say that I think the opposite ring is a more fundamental construction that left vs right modules, so to me viewing this as "choosing a different side switches the roles of R and R^o" is a better perspective
But I'm not sure how useful this perspective is to you.
Yea makes sense
I think if anything morita theory would cover this
But I have not gone too far into that yet so idk how much more insight there is to be gleamed
it explained a lot of my confusion
Right R-modules satisfy (xa)b = x(ab) right
Yes
that explains the opposite ring thing
Ye
R^op into End_Z(M)
Yea, and the opposite order fixes the associativity problem
this should be covered in intro alg books imo
I spent like a good 3 hours confused as hell about this, and that cleared it up a lot
I'm glad to hear
If you introduce it too early it can be confusing
But if you don't mention it at all that could be confusing too
Also you mentioned how for a right $R$-module $K$ that $\mathrm{End}_R(K^n) \cong M_n\left[\mathrm{End}_R(K)\right]$?
is that what you said?
Arzela-Açaà Theorem
Yes
that's a ring endo right
Yes
Let $F=\mathbb{R}$, let $V=\mathbb{R}^2$, and let $T$ be a linear transformation from $V$ to $V$ which is rotation clockwise about the origin by $\frac{\pi}{2}$ radians. Show that $V$ and $0$ are the only $F[x]$-submodules for this $T$.
clubsoda14
i dont know how to start this problem
I'll ask you what is the matrix corresponding to that rotation
Im guessing I have the find the subspaces $W$ of $\mathbb{R}^2$ such that $T(\mathbb{R}^2) \subseteq \mathbb{R}^2$
clubsoda14
{a,-b;b,a}
geometrically think about it
multiplying by i
every subspace would have to be generated by either 2 vectors or 1 vector
Why?
R^2 is of dimension 2
Uhh
Better question. If W is a 1-d subspace fixed by T, then what does that say about T?
No clue
It's generated by a vector v, so T(v) = sv for some v
ergo, it has an eigenvector
But what about rotations?
I'm a bit lost
I'll just summarise:
I showed, or rather told you that M_n(End_R(K))=End_R(K^n) and End_R(R)=R^o for left modules. This gives us an isomorphism M_n(R^o) = End_R(R^n)
In the commutative case this gives you the required isomorphism.
Do note that Jacobson's method is a little different. He proves the isomorphism to M_n(R)^o, which is easier if you do it explicitly like he did, but less "natural" than what you get abstractly. The reason there's an ^o is the same as before though, but now in the commutative we need the extra transpose which sends us to M_n(R^o)=M_n(R).
gonna try to prove that first isomorphism
Btw can K be an arbitary module
immediately, for \mu in End_R(K^N), i can split it into \mu_n maps from the indexed K_n to K^N.
Of course
First, notice that submodules of V are in particular vector subspaces.
What is the property that makes a vector subspace into an F[x]-module?
when a vector subspace W is T stable
It's a bit mind bendy
Trying to think it through
Follow how you'd do it for any vector space
I haven't done much linear algebra before doing this textbook lo
Anyway
Take \mu endomorphism of K^N, then we can break up \mu into \mu_n sending K_n to K^N. Can we then break up the \mu_n into \mu_(n,m) sending K_n to K_m?
through linearity
and describe \mu as a double sum over them?
Exactly. So your question becomes: what are the T-stable subspaces. Since T is a rotation in the plane, it shouldn't be too hard to figure out that no nontrivial subspaces are T-stable.
Now to show this, consider a F[x]-submodule W. If W is not 0, then W is at least one-dimensional. Now show that W=V by showing that you can get to any vector in V by applying an element of F[x] to a vector in W
If you think about it visually it should be more obvious
Rather the definition of a direct sum
But yea pretty much
You compose mu_n with each of the projections
Onto each component
okay kinda neat how it uses the direct product def for the first part and the direct sum/coproduct for the second part
biproduct go brrr
This is exatly what you do when finding the matrix of a transformation. You look at the image of a basis vector e_i then take the j-th component (aka projecting to Fe_j)
Yup, the beauty of abelian categories!
The univ property going both ways is SUPER fundamental
salamander lemma my beloved
actually some black magic shit you can do with complexes i figured out
anyway
i can't wait to do fun homological shit
You're almost ready
Could you guys give me explicit examples of finite extensions of $\mathbb{Q}$ of the form $\mathbb{Q}(u,v)$ for which $u+v$ is not a primitive element ?
MisterSystem
Feels like that shouldn't be possible, but probably is
What I know for sure is that when $\mathbb{Q}(u) \cap \mathbb{Q}(v) = \mathbb{Q}$, then $u+v$ is an a primitive element. Also, it is always possible to pick $c \in \mathbb{Q}$ belonging to some cofinite set for which $u+cv$ is primitive, but apparently $c$ doesn't need to equal $1$.
MisterSystem
Hey so I did some silly shit
Want to hear about it
Yea, those 2 facts are what make me think it's probably possible but really hard
I'm going to sleep soon, but you can mention me and i'll probably read it tomorrow
Really quickly, lets say we have like, as an example, a quadruple-complex, indexed by X_(a,b,c,d) with the morphism-"lanes" called A,B,C,D
Then we can create "diagonal" morphisms by composing them and using the commutativity of the complex
We can characterize them by a subset of {A,B,C,D}
and we know composing them is 0 (complex structure) if these subsets intersect?
i.e some "lane" gets composed twice, forcing it to be a 0 map
i wonder if this idea can be generalized
I say lane as in
if f is the "first lane" morphism of X_(a,b,c,d), it sends X_(a,b,c,d) to X_(a+1,b,c,d)
so like the diagonal corresponding to {a,d} would map X_(a,b,c,d) to X_(a+1,b,c,d+1)
but turns out looking at the images and kernels creates this neat elaborate structure
and some wacky diagram chasing schenanigans
if you quotient the images and kernels along with sums of images and intersections of kernels n shit
I just worked out some proofs of my own but Iām not entirely sure how correct they are - are these statements true?
(1) Given a free group G and a subgroup H, if G is generated by generators g_a and H by h_a, and if g(h_a)g^-1 is in H for all g in G, then ghg^-1 is in H for all g in G and h in H
(2) If (g_a)h(g_a)^-1 is in H for all h in H, then ghg^-1 is in H for all g in G and h in H
(3) (both (1) and (2)) If (g_a)(h_b)(g_a)^-1 is in H (for all g_a generating G and h_b generating H), then ghg^-1 is in H for all g in G and h in H
And lastly, is there any efficient way to compute quotient groups knowing just the generators of G and H (assuming H is normal)? It would seem there must be if (1)-(3) are true.
Like for a triple complex, where we have horizontal H (1,0,0) , vertical V (0,1,0) , and forward F (0,0,1) morphisms for the complex.
So if we have X_(a,b,c) and do a {H,V} diagonal map, we map to X_(a + 1,b + 1,c)
But composing a {H,V} and a {F,H} would be a zero map due to commutivity and exactness
You can also create sorta generalized homology groups from these sets
Like
Say we have a {H,V} map in and out of X_(a,b,c), then we can like, take the kernel of the outgoing {H,V} one over the sum of the images of the H and V ones going in
The idea sounds kinda similar to spectral sequences, although not exactly. Seems like this might be useful for something, although I can't think of any uses off the top of my head (and I'm not sure how interesting this is in isolation). Your comment about looking at the images and kernels does make me think of spectral sequences, although the structure is different
I donāt know what spectral sequences are
Taking quotients of images and kernels is what you do yo pass to the next page in spectral sequences
It's kind of really bad to explain and it's even worse if you don't have any examples
That was just my way to diagram Chase
So I wouldn't worry too much about it at this point
I defined a sorta āsubstructureā of kernel/image (vice versa) quotients so i could just weave exact sequences through them
The way I learned SS proper was 2% weibel exercises 98% CHURNING serre-leray SS computations after an initial example
Sounds like (co)homology
Should be
Well they are the only examples of reasonably big complexes i could make lmao
Homology algebraically is the failure of a complex to be exact
Just seems like practice for diagram chasing
These kinds of technical results sometimes matter more to the people setting the foundations than it is to the people using it
This whole exact sequence schenanigans was more of out of interest than use
Just was neat how it existed
It might be used in some abstract proof of some property in a general abelian category
It's even cooler when you have good motivation from algebra/geometry/topology
You should revisit once you get around to any one those (for motivation from algebra i'd say something like group extensions is a good jumping off point for motivation)
I mean like
Complexes of Double complexes are triple complexes I guess
So that can make ābig onesā in a sense
Sounds awful
The only homologies i know the bare bones def of are hom and tensor prodās Ext and Tor derived functors
Thatās about it
And not much at that
Jacobson II covers more category stuff
Might encounter it in AG considering whatever the rhyme in the living fuck this def of multiplicity is by Serre
Tor can show up pretty often in commutative algebra
not even gonna try to understand that one
This just looks like some variation on the euler characteristic/generalisation
What you've just showed that probability of finding elements that aren't in any those ideals is that product, and those are precisely the units of R cause for every non unit we can get a maximal ideal containing that
So you're basically done here
And I believe this same procedure can be done to show that probability of element not being in either M and probability not being in N is independent
So thanks @dull ginkgo
this is a very intuitive definition of intersection multiplicity actually
Can you try to describe what the quotient group is going to be?
Is this really a group?
Ah okay, you said negatives too
But
Why do you think it's the quotient group?
What would 4Z be?
Do you know what "quotient group" means?
{...-8,-4,0,4,8,12,16}
Actually no
Even i trued to look up but I don't understand
My native english is hindi
And all the stuffs are English
Is this 4z?
Yes.
Next is to understand "quotient group" (but I'm not sure how much help I can be because all the explanations I can give would be in English).
I can try to offer help in Hindi
No "sir" please, but I do know Hindi
But standard English word out of mind
Hahaha, it's my native language
Definition pata hain lekin mujhe jyada samjh ni aayi
Integers aur unke subgroups model case hai ye idea describe karne ke liye
Given a group G and a normal subgroup H of G (agar "normal subgroup" ki definition nahi pata, to abhi ke liye ignore kar do)
Left coset=right coset
For now, just assume that G is abelian
Careful, this is only true when the group is abelian
So it works for the above case (integers), but is just false in general
Acha
So the quotient group (as a set) consists of all these cosets
Integers follow commutative
Okay, you answered that here
.
Right
Haan
{.....-7,-3,1,5,9...}
4+4Z is important to see
This is indistinguishable from 0+4Z
5+4z={....-3,-1,5,9...}
And similarly if you just continue with 5+4Z, it ends up looking like 1+4Z again
Ha dono same hi hain
Ha ji
To humare pas kitne distinct cosets hain yahan par?
Both looks same
Quotient group as a set would consist of these distinct cosets
Yes, and why include 5+4Z?
Ohh it is same 1+4z
Yep
Yes, and these are {0,1,2,3} (I'm omitting the coset notation for brevity)
Bhut hi shanadar
Now you must determine the elements of order 2
Instead of jumping to modular arithmetic (it is basically that, lekin terminology laane se pehle use samajhna zaruri hai), let's just work directly with the definition of "order" of an element
What is the order of 1+4Z?
1?
Ohh hang on
-7,-3,1,5,9 so i will get multiple of 2 when i add 2 times
So order is 2

Odd numners odd numbers
1+1 will be 0 remainder
Mod2
Ese karna haina?
5+5mod2
Z/4Z as a set {0+4Z, 1+4Z, 2+4Z, 3+4Z} include karta hai
Hum is coset me addition aise define karte hai: (a+4Z)+(b+4Z)=(a+b)+4Z
Quotient group ke liye identity element kya hoga?
do you know what order is in general?
and what is the result of (2+4Z)+(3+4Z) for example?
Yeah
Addition and get element
Idenity
You should try to answer this
(1+4z)
great
and that's because if you add an integer whose remainder of division by 4 is 2 and another whose remainder is 3 you get remainder 1
(2+3)+4z=(5+4z) and it is same as (1+4z)
for example 6 + 11 = 17 = 1 mod 4
yes
Ha ye toh aata hain sirš„°
Bas itna hi aata bas
cool idk what that means but happy for you
I wanted to know if you understand the operation on cosets
I see
If someone helps and i give simple example
Then i can understand the concept and follow it
the thing about operation on cosets is that you basically take one representative element from both cosets, compose them and get an element from another coset
What is operation here mod?
1+1+1+1+1+mod?
no, I mean the additive group of Z
Order of 1 is 1
0
that's the normal group of integers
without any modular arithmetic, just normal addition
why 1?
If we add -1
you don't understand order then
It is additive inverse
you have to compose the element WITH ITSELF
right, but 1 + (-1) doesn't apply to order
in this case you have to add 1 with itself
not only that, it will never return to 0
this is what you need
which means that the order of 1 is infinity
Hmm
ā
because you can add 1 to itself infinite number of times theoretically and you'll never get 0
well, I wanted to know if you understand order
but your exercise was to get elements of order 2 in the group Z/4Z
and we've not done that yet I think
wait, what?
{(0+4z),(1+4z),(2+4z),(3+4z)}
Order 2 in it?
Am I right?
(1+4z) order 4 right?
(1+1+1+1)+4z gives (0+4z)?
Ahha yoo
yes
yes
Nice nice
Things are easy to learn
If people like you guys surrounded āŗļøāŗļø
Why maths is written so difficult?
Lots of symbols and difficult definition š
well, sometimes you need people to explain things to you
Yeah, these ideas take time to get used to. Even historically, these did not originate in a day or two, but often over the course of decades if not centuries.
Every element trivially gives you the identity if you operate 0 times
not quite, it's 1
I was not able to understand modular arithmetic for a monyh
And by help of a guy named a lonely bean he taught me so nicely and now i feel so good when i see modular
Power 1
Once
Added
Even i tried to look at youtube and websites
But due to english
š«£š«£š«£
0+4Z is itself the identity, so you just take this element once and you have the identity
Order of identity is 1
yes
no, I'm polish
Why my color changed?
you received an "active" label for some reason
I am using discord all the day and this server š„°
but if you don't understand english well and try to learn from english sources then it will be challenging
Learning many things which i didn't learn at school and university
you should either find good sources in your native language or understand english better
where did you get that exercise from?
I can communicate in simple English š
I am learning english too from discord after my graduation
that's great, you should
There is a mathematical telegram group
Where indian giys post question
And i am preparing for a teaching exam DSSSB
But i am learning all the stuffs first so no student complain for meš¤£
You should try to unpack definitions, etc., work with simple examples wherever possible
It's difficult but you get a hang of it as time goes by
The English used in math is generally accessible enough and avoids unnecessary jargon (math itself has a lot of it, so authors tend to be kind enough not to make things worse)
Well, thatās not the end of it
Weāve shown the probability of finding a unit in R/J, not R
I mean to say what you've actually shown is a unit in R/J CAN'T BE IN ANY OF THE MAXIMAL IDEALS
Iām trying to think that if x + J is a unit in R/J then x is a unit in R
And because all the equivalence classes are the same size, means the probabilities are equal
The main thing here is that if x is in J, then 1 + rx is a unit for each r
But you've already done the problem if I am understanding ur argument correctly
A element not in any maximal ideal has to be a unit
is there such a thing as an "order homorphism" between ordered sets
Oh yeah nice
Yes
If you have two ordered sets then an order preserving map is defined in the obvious way
was reading a blog post that gave an explicit map from $\mathbb{R}$ to a chain in $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})$ under set inclusion, does that count? since $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})$ is a poset not a toset
More precisely, we usually require x <= y implies f(x) <= f(y), but not the other way around.
esca (@ with reply)
Well you can just generalise it to posets easily :)
alright thanks 
@marsh scaffold hereās my whole proof. Assume we are working over finite commutative ring R
Lemma 1: assume K is a proper ideal of R. If x is an element of K, then 1 + x cannot lie in K.
Proof: 1 + x ( - x) = 1 must lie in K, implying r(1) = r is in K for each r in R. Then K = R, a contradiction
Let J (Jacobson Radical) be the intersection of all maximal ideals of R.
Assume x + J is a unit in R/J. Let y + J be its inverse in R/J.
Then xy - 1 is in J.
Thus by lemma 1: (xy - 1) + 1 = xy is a unit of R.
Let (xy)^-1 = u. Then xyu = x(yu) = 1, thus x^-1 = yu, therefore x is a unit.
Since this holds for each x in the congruence class, that means that if x + J is a unit in R/J, then each element in that congruence class in R (|J|-many) is a unit in R
Now by Chinese remainder theorem, R/J is isomorphic to a direct product/sum over R/m, for maximal ideals m. An element in this sum is a unit if and only if the nth component in R/m_n is a unit. But R/m_n is a field, so itās a unit iff itās not 0. Thus the probability of being a unit in R/J is the product over (1 - 1/|R/m_n|)
However as shown, if x + J is a unit, then all |J|-many elements in that congruence class are units in R, and every congruence class in R/J has |J|-many elements. Thus the probability of being a unit in R/J is EQUAL to the probability of being a unit in R. This proves your formula
Okay this definitely slaps but hear me out
Once you've R/J
Consider projecting an element to each component of the product that it splits into
Now what is the probability that it's non zero in each component
Thatās basically what I am using
In the ācomponentā part
That itās a unit in the product iff each of the projections gives a unit
Of which the only chance it is a nonunit(as the projections are into fields) is 0
Yeah it's okay but a unit can also be characterized as that it's not a part of any maximal ideal
So itās the probability (1-1/|F_n|)
And that it's projection is non zero in each component
Yes I know
You don't
Wait let me write down what I am trying to say
So R/J splits right
Now do u agree that an element is a unit iff it's not in any maximal ideal
@dull ginkgo
yeah
Okay so now R/J is same as prod R/m
Now define a map from R to prod R/m
Projecting x onto each component
Now each component is independent in the product right
So the probability that it projects onto sth non zero in each component is just the multiplication that you obtain
So 'this' element is 'not' in any maximal ideal
Cause all its projections are non zero
So it's a unit
Cause for each component there can be only R_m -1 equivalence classes it maps to
Ah okay but i believe the iff can also be shown using the zorn's lemma for arbitrary commutative unital rings
I donāt think thatās necessary
The set of ideals if x is not an unit containing it is non empty
xR is in that set
Bound that by union in a chain
It should be intuitive. Image of a unit under a homomorphisms is a unit
mu(xy) = mu(x)mu(y) = mu(1) = 1
I agree
Okay anyways thanks again
But i still believe apart from the lifting that you're doing (which is completely fine)
You solved the problem here
We could actually using the same method that you did but now only on two maximal ideals show that an probability of an element not in them is independent
This is an overkill way to do it
Maybe, unsure if itās independent without doing some trickery (e.g Chinese remainder theorem)
Chinese remainder theorem makes it independent MODULO J which is what i was saying
R/InJ is R/I x R/j
So yeah
Itās just not an obvious problem
Unless you know about the Jacobson radical
Now an element is not in I and not in J iff it's projections are non zero in both components
Yes that works
And the probability of the projection being non zero in each component is (1-1/R_I)
yes
And rest follows
Because theyāre fields
1 - 1/R_i yes
This problem is not something Iād expect to see in an exercise
The 1 + rx for x in J being a unit is not obvious
Plus i looked it up and i didnāt see a proof using this otherwise actually lmao
Usually it uses prime ideals apparently
Could you reference it then
What do you mean
Nvm
The Jacobson radical (intersection of maximal ideals) is actually really cool
If you want, you can show for an arbitrary ring:
Show that the set of elements x such that 1 + axb is a unit for any a and b in R is an ideal, and is the intersection of maximal ideals
It uses Lemma 1 in the proof I did
Namely ideals are additive subgroups, and units cannot lie in any proper ideals
So if i is a unit, K is a proper ideal containing x, then x + i cannot lie in the ideal
mu gives an injection into B right? Or else phi(mu) could not be identity
I also dont understand how the proof is like one line, how does this show that B = A(+)C
I am thinking it has something to do with the kernel being A?
C' is a submodule of B that doesn't intersect A and for which B = A+C'. Hence B is the direct sum A(+)C', and since C' is isomorphic to C, that's it.
5 lemma blush
yea i saw in hungerford they used that
Why does B = A+C'?
something to do with A being kernel and some quotient thing maybe?
yea i feel like im close to understanding but need an extra push in the right direction
this section has been tough for me
Consider b in B.
Then b = mu(phi(b)) + b-mu(phi(b))
Note b-mu(phi(b)) is in the kernel of phi, i.e. in A
Oh ok i think im getting this a bit better now
Ok cool this blurb was helpful actually
I think i got this btw
the linearly independent elements e_{n,m} of matrices (1 in n,m, 0 elsewhere) generate M_n(R) and naturally correspond to endomorphism sending a module element to the nth component in the mth position (0 elsewhere)
They satisfy the same relations
This works in the case of K=R (Although the "1" is actually an endomorphism of R, in this case the identity), but otherwise I don't see why e_{n,m} should generate M_n(End(K)).
Take an endomorphism f of K that is not given by multiplication by an element of R (For example take K=R^2 and swap the two entries).
Define a map on K^n by
(a1,..,an)->(f(a1),a2,...,an)
As a matrix, this would have to be diagonal, but
You can't write this as a linear combination of the e_{n,m}, since that would mean f= r e_{1,1}, i.e. f is multiplication by an element of r.
It works over R since every element of End_R(R) is mult by an element of R
Well.. they generate M_n(End(R)) as an End(R) algebra
Sure
In the case of R they also generate it as an R-algebra
I thought you meant that this should generally generate the matrices as an R-algebra which is ofc not true
No, itās a weird argument to word out
As in the described e_{n,m} endomorphisms are linearly independent over End(M) and additively generate End(M^N) as a module, and you can show abide the same relations as the matrix ring M_n(End(M))
Oh shit yeah
Iām trying to type this out on my phone without any paper or anything
Excuse small errors or big ones lol
The map sending the n-th copy to the m-th copy is represented by e_{m,n}
Yeah
Yea, I get what you mean.
But yeah, End(M^n) is an End(M)-algebra, generated linearly by linearly independent e_{n,m} using the relation e_{n,m}e_{m,k} = e_{n,k} ande_{n,m}e_{a,b} = 0 iff m ā a
And that gives the isomorphism
Thatās what i was getting at
,rotate @chilly radish do you think it would be acceptable to short cut these problems using that idea
Skip a lot of tedious verification work
And one more thing. If we have a free (projective) object A mapping onto (epi) B, then does every endomorphism of B extend to an endomorphism of A
Not sure what kind of shortcut you're thinking of
What if B=A
I think you can choose preimages of the generators of B, and then preimages of their images and freely define an endomorphism of A such that the induced map on the quotient is the endomorphism of B
Don't think it's true for projective non free
Sorry wait
This is only if a basis of A maps to generators of B
If you can choose the surjection this is true but idt it should be for a general surjection
Even for a free module
R module so yes
Im on something that gives a homomorphism between Homās, i dont think ive seen that before
I was a bit confused about a part of a proof, thatās why
Because it was about endomorphisms of a finitely generated module
And it used matrices over the generating set but it confused be because it wasnāt free, just finitely generated
So there should be a matrix extension on the free monoid endomorphism into the finitely generated module
Yea but you're looking at "vectors" of elements of a module
Unless you're talking about smth else
Proving Cayley Hamilton
For finitely generated modules
Uses matrices and determinants
Over the basis but for the matrix to be a thing Iād assume youād need to extend the endomorphism
Just hurts my brain a bit
What do you mean
Show me the text
Iād have to find it again
Itās on my computer, Iām using my phone rn
Like hereās my whole confusion esque sorta thing going on
So letās say
We have a finitely generated module M, rank N
Well i'm not sure what you're confused about without seeing the proof for myself. This is the proof I know (R commutative obvs so no need to worry about direction stuff w matrices)
Just kinda processing matrices and shit here
So
M, easier to phrase here as we have an epimorphic valuation map from R^N to M, sending e_n to x_n
And we have an endomorphism of M, f
We can make a matrix ārepresenting itā
Not sure why you need the free module
Not done typing
I'm saying that the standard proof (above) has no reference to free modules
This is more about matrices and endomorphisms over finitely generated modules
Just ping me when you can take a pic of the text, it's hard trying to parse your confusion without knowing what caused it
Well itās a small part of the text that is more of an overarching thing
Like how to handle matrices over finitely generated modules
Because we can look at the image of the generators, represent them as scaled sums over x_n and make a matrix out of that
But in general itās not a unique choice
Thereās multiple matrices representing the same thing
So the idea that we are working with determinants of those matrices just feels not well defined
So as in the picture I sent you can make a matrix, but it doesn't act on M, rather on M^n. It just represents the endomorphism phi I in End(M^n)
Iād expect it to be a congruence class of matrices
We just need a polynomial
A priori you're right that you might get different "characteristic polynomials"
If you choose different generators
I mean we have the same generators, but the choice of coefficients is not unique
Thatās my point
Oh sure
We get different matrices that āinduce the same endomorphismā
Sure
Iād assume itās a congruence class
And we are taking the determinant of a matrix that doesnāt have a canonical choice
We are just choosing some ārepresentativeā matrix
Iād assume itās modulo the kernel of Hom(R^N, M) into End(M)
Just processing this
How matrices over the finitely generated module work
Actually let me just sorta use an example
Letās say we have rank-2 module M generated by (x,y)
Then if we have an endomorphism, we can observe for example f(x)
But letās say f(x) = ax + by = cx + dy, f(y) = ux + vy
Then we have two different choices of matrices
That when acting on M give the same result
The matrices don't act on M
There's no reason why a matrix of coefficients for arbitrary generators should give you an endomorphism of M
Good point nvm
Itās just the jump to a matrix here
But i see it a bit more clearly now
So the important thing to note here that x I and A are not the same endomorphism
They only act the same way on the vector of generators (m1,...,mn)
And this will be true for any choice of coefficients
A priori, they only have to agree on this vector
I think this is where your confusion stems from
So our matrices are acting on M^N as you said right
Yea, but also you only need it to be 0 on a specific vector
You don't care what it does to the rest of M^N and because of what you said about non uniqueness of coefficients there's no reason it should
Idt the "characteristic polynomial" is ever unique in this scenario
In part because you can do the same thing for more generators and get a degree N+1 polynomial
Iād assume itās a congruence class of polynomials again but still
Possibly
Pondering the matrix part of it
It's just using the fact that End(M^N)= M_N(End(M)) and the fact you can define the adjugate over any ring
It is a trick tho
i like that
I was about to say
If we have an R-module M then we can let the R-matrix ring act on M^n
Yea this is basically what's going on
And that seems like the embedding of M_N(R) into M_N(End(R)) functorially
Not sure what you mean by the embedding is functorial.
M_n(R) for a ring R is an endofunctor i think
I see what you mean, but also M also varies
R embeds into End(M) by left-multiplication so M_n(R) into M_n(End(M)) ~= End(M^n)
Ye
