#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 251 of 1
Well yes if you're just looking for a choice of representatives (via axiom of choice)
But not a homomorphism
Thanks , could you explain a bit more on the choice of representatives ?
Suppose we have a quotient q: G → G/kerφ
For each coset g ∈ G/kerφ, pick some f(g) ∈ G whose coset in the quotient is g
i.e. q(f(g)) = g
Then there's your function f: G/kerφ → G
Yes but would this not led to one input being sent to multiple outputs?
We pick an output among the possible ones
To see it’s not gonna be a homomorphism, Z -> Z/pZ very much so won’t have homomorphism inverses
Which is where axiom of choice is involved
Say q: Z → Z/3Z, then I could pick f([0]) = 3, f([1]) = 7, f([2]) = 2
Now I get it . Thanks 🙂
Let ( X ) be a set and ( \Sigma(X) := { f : X \to X \mid f \text{ is bijective} } ).
( (\Sigma(X), \circ) ) is a group (the operation is the usual composition of functions).
Now define the operation ( g \cdot h := h \circ g ).
I have to find a isomorphism of ( (\Sigma(X), \cdot) ) onto ( (\Sigma(X), \circ) ).
Heywood Jablome
$\phi(g)=g^{-1}$ doesn't work
Heywood Jablome
well the identity does though wtf
Are you sure?
oh no yeah I see my mistake now
By the way, there is nothing special about the group that they show you. Let $(G, \cdot)$ be a group and define a group $(G, \odot)$ by $g \odot h = h \cdot g$. It may be worth thinking about why these two groups are isomorphic.
\bigskip
If you are seeing this before you know what groups really are, I apologise.
Boytjie
(tbf every group is isomorphic to one of the given form)
wait
no nevermind
ignore me
that's Sym(X)
Every group is a subgroup of one like that :P
yeah
Often solution manuals don't exist. I would suggest just asking about questions here
Can someone help me with item d)?
I dont know how to prove that zeta_n is in Q(i,sen(2pi/n))
what is zeta_n
as a complex number
as a + bi with a, b real numbers
e^2pi*i/n
please provide your answer in the form suggested above
cos(2pi/n)+i*sen(2pi/n)
yes
okay so now you just need to show that the extension contains cos(2pi/n)
do you see how to use the hint?
No
ok
Maybe proving that sen(4pi/n) belongs to the extension, it is proved
yes that would be enough
But i dont know how yo prove that sen(4pi/n) belongs
well cos^2(2pi/n) belongs right?
Why?
because it's 1 - sin^2(2pi/n)
so then cos(4pi/n) belongs
so then sin(4pi/n) belongs
so then cos(2pi/n) belongs
now you can fill in the reasoning yourself
Why cos(4pi/n) belongs?
you should think about it! But every step only uses standard angle identities
in fact just the double angle identities
And why that cos(4pi/n) belongs implies that sen(4pi/n) belongs?
if the cosine value belongs, doesn't its square also belong?
This is my problem
i would pull up a list of double angle identities for cos, sin, tan and stare at it
if i were you
You are using sin²+cos²=1?
For each element of generating set, take the r in R that kills each element, then the product of each ri is an element of R that kills every element in M
Is that the idea?
You cant use this propery
Integral domains are commutative right ? So this would work
we already used this for the first step, but afterwards we don't need it
I dont know why this is true
do you know about a relation between sin and cosine
coming from translation
hint hint
I dont see it
Following that cos(4pi/n) belongs
You obtain that sin(pi/2 - 4pi/n) belongs
Why it implies that sin(4pi/n) belongs?
Alright dudes its time for me to learn measure theory. Been on modules for too long
I think i will learn a bit of tensor products first and then go to measure theory
I am trying to prepare for all my classes this september is the goal
Prepare as best i can
Can someome explain me why this is true?
Yes
cos(2A) = 1/(2sin(A))(sin(3A) - sin(A)) by the angle addition formula for sin
when A is 2pi/n
Hello, I am very new to group theory and not working from a curriculum so I have a question which is maybe kinda silly:
I am trying to number the 4 edges of a playing card 1-4, and understand all the different ways of doing that as a group. One way to do it is to say that we number them clockwise from the top edge and it’s the permutations of (1, 2, 3, 4). But this doesn’t account for the fact that the physical object has 180° rotational symmetry, so (1,2,3,4) is congruent to (3,4,1,2). I don’t want to have 24 elements, I want to have 12.
My thought is that I want to treat the permutation (3,4,1,2) as a kind of pseudo-identity
Can someone explain how to do this or give me some keywords or videos to learn more?
sorry is your playing card a square?
Rectangle
okay then the symmetries are not all permutations of the edges
it's not an issue of there being relations between the permutations, its that some permutations are not symmetries of the card
I hope they meant vertices
I might have meant vertices. Like I said I don’t know anything
anyway its still not true
I donk know this formula but you will obtain that sin(3A) belongs
okay so number your cards corners (1, 2, 3, 4) then the rotations that are allowed are only 1 \to 3, 2 \to 4 or in permutation notation (13)(24)
sin(3A) is just -4sin^3(A) + 3sin(A)
so it's obvious that it "belongs
But
I want to prove that sin(2A) belongs
You say that is was easy? Many People dont know this formulas
Why did you say that use the translation?
because it's easy if you use the translation formula
the identity i showed you follows from the translation formula
you can't just berate people into solving your homework for you
My problem was to prove that if cos(4pi/n) belongs to Q(i,sen(2pi/n)) then sin(4pi/n) belongs to Q(i,sen(2pi/n))
ye
and it's sin not sen
And why belongs?
You look like ChatGPT, you say things that have nothing to do
If you werent going to help, dont respond, but dont leave ideas to waste
all ideas i could provide to you would be wasted
you've made that pretty clear
Can someone who knows math help me?
i wouldnt assume he is trying to get his homework done, maybe he just wants to understand the solution to his problem properly
without doing any work
we dont know how many time he has spent on his own thinking about the problem, you are just assuming :/
suit yourself really
I wouldn't say that if cos(2pi/n) belongs to a field then sen(2pi/n) belongs
here n is odd
and the problem is to prove the reverse not that it makes a big difference
You have that the degree of the extension of the cosine over Q ir the Euler function divided by 2, and you can see by item e) that the degree of the extension of the sine over Q is the euler function at n
Yes i know
I'm not seeing then why u can say that sen(4pi/n) belongs to the extension using that cos(4pi/n) and sen(2pi/n) belongs
because n is odd
are you the same person?
chill
I would like if anybody else agrees with that and could explain to me how you get to that
You dont know that it is our question? Why if n odd, implies that if cos(4pi/n) belongs then sin(4pi/n) belongs?
Whats going on here lol
By symmetries I just meant elements of G. I am looking at the action of G on the vertices and using the orbit-stabilizer formula
how do you see that the exponents must all be the same if the reduced words are the same?
this is from D & F section 6.3
c squared
You're right I don't think it's as simple as they're saying, I can't see an immediate argument at all.
I think you have to argue by induction on the length of the word s, by which I mean the smallest k for which s_{k+1} = 1
Oh no wait hold on
Hold on a frikking second
lul
These are literally just sequences of letters
Like the last letters must be the same, etc etc
On the contrary, I don't see how this is valid at all
could you clarify?
I would like you to clarify!
no, like, i don't know what you meant by this lol
i would also like myself to clarify haha
What a coincidence, I don't know what you mean by that!
What is the claim here.
is you have two reduced words which are equal but there is an index where their exponents are opposing, then we reach a contradiction
This is just by definition
Remember they are literally just sequences of elements
And sequences are equal iff their indices are equal
N.b. this doesn't require the definition of reducedness, just the definition of this notation (a, b, c, ...)
right, so you get s_i^{ep}_i = r_i^d_i
what's p_i
but this doesn't restrict me from writing
$$(s_1,s_2,s_3,\dots,1,1,1,\dots)=((s_1^{-1})^{-1},(s_2^{-1})^{-1},(s_3^{-1})^{-1},\dots,1,1,1,\dots)$$
c squared
And?
the exponents are not the same
oh oh
They did say specifically, in the paragraph where they simplify the notation, that s_i in S
i did not see that
OK that would explain it
so if you did have s_i = r_i^{-1}, then S and S^{-1} would have non-empty intersection
Yeah
thanks. reading is hard
is this also justified by a modified version of eckmann-hilton?
no wait
this operation isn't commutative
nvm
the free product of two groups is just F(G U H), right?
Well, you also have to impose relations so that G and H become subgroups
why?
Because otherwise it wouldn't be the free product
Like F(G u H) only depends on the underlying sets, not the groups
Yes you can do that. Or just impose the relations that
g * h = gh
whenever g, h, gh are in G, and similarly for H
am confused
why do i need to impose relations on F(G U H) then
oh wait
the F's
what the F
Yeah, free functor plays nice with free product. As one might expect from the name
okay, so G * H = (F(G) * F(H)) modulo all reduced words consisting of elements only in G or only in H
fr
well
wait. is this the normal closure of G and H?
no normal closure is with respect to an overgroup that contains both
but G, H will not be normal in G * H
no not modulo the reduced words involving only elements of G, just modulo the relations in G
but jagr also mentioned this
or if you like just modulo $g_1g_2 = m_G(g_1, g_2)$ and the same for H
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
where $m_G: G \times G \to G$ is multiplication
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
o
why are those not the same
one way to think of it is that its words in H and G but consecutive strings of elements of either H or G can be evaluated as if they were in H or G
if you mod out by all reduced words in H and all reduced words in G then you have nothing left
since every string is a conglomerate of blocks which are either in H or G
its still not right even if you make an exception for strings of length one
okay
cool
thank you 🙂
yeah even then it would get you something weird
oh, and for this, when we mod out by these guys, how do you get the normal subgroup that you mod out by?
I would think of it as like the simplest group containing both H and G, where "simplest" means with the minimal possible generators and relations.
sorry that was wrong
just to be clear
the relations are like
if * means composing strings
then g_1*g_2 = (g_1g_2)
so the word of length 2 g_1*g_2 is equivalent to the word of length one (g_1g_2) which is some element of G
artin nor dummit and foote discuss this. do you know of any other books which go into more depth?
i do not know
okay. was worth an ask. i think i need some more detail on how this process works. I found a book that i think goes into this more
thanks for the explanations tho
is there any good notation for indicating the field we are talking about when talking about minimal polynomials?
Since of course the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt(2)$ differs over $\mathbb{Q}$ vs $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt(3))$
Spamakin🎷
but $m_{\sqrt{2}}^{\mathbb{Q}}(x) \in \mathbb{Q}[x]$ is ugly
Spamakin🎷
because otherwise you don't have a valid inclusion map i: G → G * H into the coproduct
let's say you have a free groups F(C₂ ∐ C₃) without any relations
then if you have a map i: C₂ → F(C₂ ∐ C₃) having i(g) = g then gg = i(g)i(g) ≠ i(gg) = i(e) = e from
so it's not a homomorphism
but the universal property for coproducts requires it
so you need to quotient it with the relations g² = e in C₂ and h³ = e in C₃
I guess you have to prove it yourself
what book is this from? allufi?
will try to do this exercise when i get some time
I have a question about where to peek at current, pure or applied, problems in Algebra? I'm an amateur and don't have access to other than a local Collge Library.
There is a big pfd somewhere on google titled “unsolved problems in algebra” that you can find
pdf*
okay, I'll google it, thanks.
How do I prove identity (ii)? I've proven everything before. I feel like there's gonna be some clever choice of x for binomial expansion but I got nothing.
Has anyone heard of this "Unsolved Problems in Group Theory. The Kourovka Notebook"?
Yea I have. Link for those curious: https://kourovka-notebook.org/
It's cool, wish something like that existed for algebraic combinatorics and related stuff
Maybe one day I'll start such a thing
Even just Wikipedia has good lists of open problems. E.g.: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homological_conjectures_in_commutative_algebra
In mathematics, homological conjectures have been a focus of research activity in commutative algebra since the early 1960s. They concern a number of interrelated (sometimes surprisingly so) conjectures relating various homological properties of a commutative ring to its internal ring structure, particularly its Krull dimension and depth.
The fo...
Yeah, I was wanting to look at something that wasn't "Mellinial Problems"-like, lol. I'll check out that link.
Millennials are all very concerned about the Hodge conjecture
yeah I agree
😭
you can just write f(x) like a normal person
you sure about that?
Ok this was a bad example
The minimal polynomial of i over C vs R
(that 2 should have been a 3)
Anyways notation hard
I am waiting for your answer sir
just use succinct notation like f(x) and explain it separately
Here
use noggin
And also, the third non identity element is the product of the other two non identity elements
waow there are so many groups of order 4
This is the necessary condition?
Yeah, or else the order of the group might not be 4. If e,u,v,w are in the group and
w=/=uv,then wu, wv might also be in the group
https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Klein_four-group the verbal definitions section contains more info
More simply, to see why it is necessary, the multiplication tables wouldnt match up if the product of two non identity elements isnt the third non identity element
What in peoples opinion is the best comprehensive book for groups alone?
Tough question. I don't know many books that are purely group theory and no rings and fields. But in my mind Fraleigh's book has a group theory section that covers more than enough. If you skip rings only and read fields, then you also get to read some Galois Theory(which uses groups a lot). But if you want something comprehensive as in "teaches all the group theory you will need for grad school and get into research," Lang's Algebra is the holy grail.
Some books I haven't personally read and have heard good things about: Dummit and Foote, Artin
why do you want groups alone
I think they mean the best book to learn the material of groups, regardless of how it treats other topics
not the best book that only mentions groups
Rotman has a groups specific book
Which I’ve been pointed to by an old group theorist (since retired, I believe)
But I’m not a group theorist to comment on the quality of its exposition and choice of topics covered
I am trying to understand the statement that a discrete normal subgroup of a group is closed as written in this answer https://math.stackexchange.com/a/511612/343701
I don't see why it is the case.
Please let me know if I should ask in the Alg Top channel. Sorry if it is case.
Let $F$ be a field. A non-constant polynomial $f \in F[x]$ has a root with multiplicity greater than $1$ if and only if $\text{gcd}(f, f') \neq 1$.
Is this meant to be up to associated elements to $1$? I remember seeing it with $\iff \text{gcd}(f, f')$ is not invertible, but I'm having trouble prooving it:
if $f$ has a root $r$ with multiplicity $\geq 2$ I get that $r$ is a root of both $f$ and $f'$, so $x-r$ divides $\text{gcd}(f, f')$; this however doesn't necessarily mean that $\text{gcd}(f, f')$
is not invertible, right? It could be $\text{gcd}(f, f')=(x-r)h(x)$ with $(x-r)h(x)$ invertible...?
Heywood Jablome
(x-r)h(x) cannot be an invertible element in the ring F[x] as it will have degree at least 1.
Can't there be invertible elements of degree greater than 1?
Nope. In fields, or more generally in integral domains, degree of p(x).q(x) is sum of their degrees, and 1 has degree 0.
oh I see, so this could happen for example in F_4[x] but not F_p[x]
no nvm F_4 is a field, brain fart
Z_6[x]
Think so, although I don't remember an example rn
is units of Z[G] isomorphic to G?
No
right I guess Z[Z]=Z[t, t^{-1}] and the units are +- t^k, so Z/2Z x Z I think?
Prove that there exists no rational fraction $f \in \mathbb{Z}_p(t)$ such that $t=f(t)^p$.
Heywood Jablome
writing $tq^p(t)=h^p(t)$ is supposed to give a contradiction modulo $p$...
Heywood Jablome
Presumably Z_p is meant to be integers mod p?
yes
This should be true over any field
Yes, for example use unique factorisation
And the fact t is is prime
you can just count degrees
thanks
allright, so I get deg(LHS) =1 mod p and deg(RHS) =0 mod p
I'm not sure it's true.
Certainly if H is just the trivial subgroup it's discrete, but only closed if G is Hausdorff. And I guess this example can be expanded by taking the product of a non-Hausdorff group and a discrete group.
True
gcd is only defined up to associates yes
If I have a ring R[x,y] and an ideal I=<x-2> can I show that R[x,y]/I=R[y]?
Yes
Is it basically obvious that since I is generated by elements in R[x,y]\R[y] that the ideal I is in R[x,y]\R[y]? Does this have to do with I being a subring
Well you can apply the first iso theorem to an appropriate homomorphism R[x,y] -> R[y]
It is probably easiest to see once you note we can replace x-2 with x
clubsoda14
Is this fine? Seems easier than showing a map between Z[x] and Q[x] is not surjective.
I don't think Z[x] and Z are isomorphic
Z[x] is not ismormophic to Z
Oops
Z[x} is not a PID
Phi_1 has not been defined, but I have a strong suspicion it’s not an isomorphism…
Triple whammy
😭
anyway you can just show there’s no surjection Z[x] \to Q
that’s the way to go it feels
I don't really understand the first answer
If two rings are isomorphic they have the same units
but these rings do not have the same units
the ^X refers to the units (multiplicative invertible elements)
Yea ik
a polynomial over a ring is invertible if and only if its constant and that constant is a unit in the ring
How do you prove this
I don't think it was mentioned in dummit and foote
it’s automatic from the fact that a homomorphism preserves the identity and respects multiplication
ab = 1 iff F(ab) = 1 iff F(a)F(b) = 1 iff F(a), F(b) are both inverses of each other
for F an injective map of rings
then if F is surjective this shows the map on units is surjective
I have no idea where they're trying to lead me when they bring in exercise 12. For reference, this is $$R^{n}/I R^{n} \cong R / IR \times \cdots \times R / IR$$, where $I$ is an ideal of $R$, $IR = { \sum_{\text{finite}} i_j r_j, i \in I, r \in R }$
swifteeee
Any push in the right direction would be appreciated (:
R^n an R-module btw
R/I is a field iff I is maximal....
So R/IR is a submodule of R/I. We already have (R/I)^n = (R/I)^m iff n = m.
hm
from (12), we immediately get $R^{n} / IR^{n} \cong R^{m} / IR^{m}$
swifteeee
Bruh i just did that one
Im so mad i have to go to measure theory now. I wish i could just study algebra tbh
but you can study sigma-algebras
Not the same 😡
I'm getting lost in the sauce. For the forward direction, suppose Rn and Rm are isomorphic. I want to show that n=m. Suppose that n != m. Then this contradicts (12), as both R^n/IR^n and R^m/IR^m are isomorphic to each other and to the cartesian product R/IR n or m times. For the opposite direction, suppose that n=m. I want to show that R^n and R^m are isomorphic. What from here?
if n = m then its trivial isnt it
Yeah you're right actually
then I'm questioning what I wrote for the forward direction
I have not invoked maximality of I once
I dont think doing it by contradiction is the way
R/I being a field is equivalent to I being maximal. So that's where it's evoked
I understand that, could you elaborate on where specifically we're using it?
you want to show that your statement is equivalent to the statement that F^n = F^m if and only if n = m for F a field
Say R^n is isomorphic to R^m, that implies (R/I)^n is isomorphic to (R/I)^m . By linear algebra dimension is well defined so m=n
because F^m and F^n are vector spaces over F and it's known that two vector spaces are isomorphic to each other if and only if their dimension is the same
Oh right I see
Welcome back swift. Exams went well I hope?
I actually worked for them and I am very pleased with how they went
Quite a nice experience actually
Congratulations!
Here's hoping the markers are accurate, and when innacurate they are in your favour :P
You'll be well-prepared
(Even if you do nothing over the summer, which I encourage)
I find studying very rewarding, and I have literally nothing else to do, so I will be ignoring your advice haha

I'm glad, just don't wear yourself out
It wouldn't do if you started your degree with no motivation
If Z[G] iso Z[H] then G^ab iso H^ab, right?
Of course, and I would've said before that I would stop before this happens but it turns out that my burnout gauge is not very good lmao
Im good homie haha
Do you have an argument for why?
Are you looking only at finite groups, also?
well I was doing this exercise, here they want G and Q to be abelian in (iii), but iirc H_1(G, Z) is the abelianization of G, so it should still work I think
but
I was wondering about a more direct proof, if that is possible
:(
I think it should also be true for infinite groups (?)
Maybe but the proof might be easier 
Me
Well, with these hints I guess it's true yeah. Since H1(G, Z) is the abelianization of G
is there some shortcut to prove this, tho?
Do you mean to ask if there's a proof without homological machinery? I think it'd be tricky, since we can't easily describe the commutator subgroup purely in terms of the ring
Or at least I can't see an easy way to do so
well it's basically saying the co/homology is the same, then they calculate one homology group
yeah, something like that
I guess something that's not so obvious is that {}^\phi Z is isomorphic to Z...
the action is trivial, isn't it then obvious?
Yeah I'm not sure I follow jagr
Like hypothetically if phi(g) = -1, then the action of ^phi Z would not be trivial
(but then phi would not be an isomorphism of course)
uhh good point
In fact if G = C2 = {1, g} then phi(g) = -g should be an isomorphism for which the ^phi Z is not trivial
So then it's not as straight forward as it looks I guess...
Ah I see what you're saying now
in this case, you could consider the "group basis" {1,-g} then this maps 1 to 1 and -g to g, and the action would be trivial (?)
The action of g on ^phi Z would be multiplication by -1
but the action of -g on ^phi Z would be multiplication by 1
and {1,-g} is still a group
Yes but still ^phi Z is not the same module as Z
Which is an important observation
but it is a trivial {1,-g}-module
We would maybe want to prove that for any such isomorphism phi there is some phi' for which ^phi' Z is Z
You say 'but' but you haven't really indicated why this is fixing the issue
It's a trivial module for a different group, but we don't know if this is generally the case
{1,-g} is isomorphic to {1,g}. Both modules are trivial C_2-modules then, regardless of the isomorphism you choose, they will obviously have the same homology/cohomology
Can someone help me with item d)? I dont know how to use the hint (without using item e)
I thought the whole point of this conversation is to do this without cohomological machinery.
My problem is proving that Q(i,zeta_n) is content in Q(i,sin(2pi/n))
TTEG gave you plenty of info yesterday. Think about the multiple angle formulae.
It is significantly harder than the other qns, and I think this was an oversight, but the info is there.
Please can you explain me?
well, Jagr didn't change the group G, the group rings are obviously isomorphic and G is isomorphic to itself. I believe jagr was pointing out that there are some subtleties in the outlined proof (in the hints)
I would rather you think about it yourself
Perhaps someone else will choose otherwise
Oh my bad, I thought we were going for a different proof
oh yeah I'd still like a more "direct" proof, but I'm just saying that the conclusion of the problem is obvious in Jagr's example
Sorry, i have spend many time thinking it, and i dont know how to prove using the hint
anyway, I was wondering if from an isomorphism Z[G]-->Z[H] we can obtain an isomorphism Z[G^ab]-->Z[H^ab] ?
therefore reducing this to the abelian case
Is ZG / [ZG, ZG] just straight up isomorphic to ZG^ab ?
Feels like yes, but I don't have the energy to think right now
Some girl said yesterday that cos(4pi/n) belongs implies that sen(4pi/n) belongs to Q(i,sen(2pi/n))
But i dont know why it implies
That "some girl" has a username, and she said a lot more than that.
This is the step that i dont understand
Shee said the steps before
But this step i dont know
Airtight, so every element of ZG is a linear combination of elements of g, so a commutator is a linear combination of commutators of elements in G, which generate the kernel of ZG -> ZG^ab.
So indeed ZG = ZH implies ZG^ab = ZH^ab
@rotund aurora
how are you defining a commutator of ZG? ZG is just a ring
[x, y] = xy - yx
[X, Y] = ideal generated by [x, y], x in X, y in Y
This may be crossing into extremely difficult territory because this looks a lot like Kaplansky's unit conjecture (which was disproved)
It obviously contains +- G, so the question is if it contains anything more
okay yeah that's what I was wondering about
uh but K is a field
Yes I'm looking at this now
I just want K=Z
I think it is still subtle
This is why I said it looks a lot like... :P
This is related to my thesis, perhaps...
I'm looking at some slides by Higman and he apparently claimed that his example works in characteristic zero, which is to say it would work in QG since the example is defined over Z. But I cannot see proof of this claim, and I don't know what the inverse would be.
btw is Z[G x H] easy to express in temrs of Z[G] and Z[H] ?
(I.e., I don't know if the inverse would also be defined over Z)
Z[G x H] is isomorphic to Z[G] (x) Z[H] where the tensor is over Z
Hmm good question
Isn't that with free products
No I don't believe so?
I don't see why that'd be the case, the free product would be very complicated indeed
Well was because Z[]: Groups -> Rings preserves colimits
Appearantly the units are exactly ±g, and you can use this to prove that G=H when ZG=ZH (G abelian)
https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007/978-3-0348-8658-1_7
Would be surprised it if sent products to tensor products
But sure when G,H are abelian all these coincide
A GxH-module is a G-module and H-module such that the actions commute, so you can see why you get a map one way. The other way is also not too tricky to see
Like you can just define the maps without much of a hitch
Yes
I think you'd need a more complicated thing for the free product of groups because you'd need to distinguish order very strongly
Okay hmm
yeah I guess it's obvious if you write g otimes h instead of (g,h), for (g,h) in G x H
Perhaps the tensor product isn't the coproduct for noncommutative associative R-algebras?
Yeah
ok then if G is finite maybe using the structure theorem of fintie abelian groups allows for a direct calculation of the group rings
Yeah, if you know k[x] (x) k[y] is k[x,y] from your algebraic geometry days this follows
By which I mean it's the same argument
Tensor product is coproduct in the category of commutative rings, not in Ring
Yes
I am wondering if there is a normal subgroup that has the same order as An, i think it should not exist because it must exist odd permutations, but I am not sure how can I argue that
Normal subgroup of what?
of Sn
No, there is no such thing.
I just knew it sent free products to tensors for abelina groups and would assume that was what would continue to hold or whatever but ye
how can I argue that? I think there must have odd permutation
and I think it relates to clousre of product
if that exist
and make contradiction
It doesn't though. It sends direct sum to tensor product and send free product to coproduct of rings
If I'm not mistaken, Z[Z/nZ]=Z[zeta_n] where zeta_n is a primitive nth root of unity (pretty much just by definition). Dunno if this is too helpful, tensoring these rings looks annoying
Not quite
Z[zeta_n] is a domain
As a Z-module, Z[Z/nZ] will have rank n, whereas Z[zeta_n] will have rank phi(n)
Yeah
so how will you argue that it is impossible to exist?
Oh wait ignore my brain was dum
With great pain, I expect
you mean if I want to argue it?
I found a pdf online that contains an (alleged) proof which looks just about as painful as I would've expected https://www.billcookmath.com/courses/math4720-fall2010/math4720-fall2010-An_is_simple.pdf
Okay and $\Z[x]/(x^n-1)\otimes_\Z \Z[x]/(x^m-1)\cong \Z[x,y]/(x^n-1, y^m-1)$ ?
croqueta3385
In general the question is can we express the units of A (x) B in terms of the units of A and B where these are all commutative rings
Even if we calculate the units of the group rings of the cyclic groups, I'm not sure this step is easy
Maybe I'm asking for something too strong here, but it is still difficult
Can you help me?
For n>=5 any normal subgroup would have to either contain An or not intersect it at all, because An is simple.
For n<5 you can check case by case
it doesn't look like you can say something too general. But for this simple example, you are looking for polynomials P, Q such that $P(x, y)\cdot Q(x,y)=1+R(x,y)(x^n-1)+S(x,y)(y^m-1)$
croqueta3385
Ah right, yeah I suppose if we just stick to polynomials we have nice algorithms and whatnot
ok so if I'm not mistaken, here we want to show that P(x, y)=+- x^a y^b
mmh I mean this is a functional equation at this point, looks cute
I dont know why the implication is true, i thing that the argument is wrong
First part was easy via rational root theorem. Not sure what to do for the second part. As far as I can tell there's nothing I can say about the degree of [K_a : Q]. I also tried to see if I could find some contradiction via assuming that there were only finitely many such a but no such luck
And then this one I'm still bashing my head against and getting nowhere. In fact I don't even intuitively see why it should be true?
do you know what L^alg is? I don't think the way they are using this notation is standard, maybe that's your confusion
yea it's the algebraic closure of L
I mean then it's false
the algebraic closure of Q(t) contains Q(t)
I mean in the first place, Q(t)^alg certainly has a square root of -1, and Q does not
wait no
I mixed up \bar{L} and L^alg
L^alg is set of elements of L which algebraic over K
which I see how to prove
ok ignore me for Problem 9 >_>
yea >_>
maybe you can bash this. Like if $\alpha$ is a root of the polynomial $f_a(x)=x^4-ax-1$ and there exists a subfield $E$ of $K_a$ different from $\Q$ and $K_a$ then this means that you can find integers $x,y,z,w$ such that $x+y\alpha+z\alpha^2+w\alpha^3=\sqrt n$ for some integer $n$. If you square you will get some equations with $a$ as a parameter
croqueta3385
I would just try doing that, but there may be something smart
This is probably overthinking it, but the resolvant of
x^4 - ax - 1
is
x^3 + 4x + a^2
If this is irreducible, the order of the Galois group is a multiple of 3, so it's either S4 or A4.
And the only index 4 subgroups in S4 and A4 are maximal, so the result would follow.
Hence the problem reduces to
x^3 + 4x + a^2
Being irreducible for infinitely many a. Not sure if that helps....
There's gotta be something simpler since technically this HW assignment comes before talking about Galois Groups or resolvants...
just want to verify, the direct product of a family of groups is the quotient of their free product by its commutator subgroup, right?
Wdym commutator subgroup here?
Ah, ye the quotient should be same as the direct product of abelian gps.
alr cool
so
trying to show that the free product is the coproduct in Grp
um
the arrows from G into G * H are supposed to come from the universal property of the quotient group
but i messed up the direction originally and i am realizing now
how do you get natural maps from G and H into G * H?
where G = <S_G | R_G> and H = <S_H | R_H> are presentations of G and H
and G * H is the quotient group F(S_G U S_H) / ncl(R_G U R_H)
There's just one way
Send g in G to g in G*H
unsurprisingly
but this says i should be able to do it naturally
tbf, i have no idea what natural means
but uh
i was hoping it meant, coming from some other property or something like that
but sending g to g ker(pi) works
for g in G
but is that, in some sense natural?
like, what is an unnatural map?
They don't quite mean natural in any formal sense
but more like
consider the direct product of G x H
what is the natural map G -> G x H
natural as in "the obvious map"
natural in that sense is what they mean
but it says i should use two properties to construct these maps
doing this doesn't seem like the intended solution
also, how are we splitting up g if S_G isn't all of G?
ig im not seeing the 'obvious' way to construct the map
oh wait
Either they want you to argue that it is kind of natural,
Or you are asked to prove that it is natural transformation.
Like you can prove the naturality square:
G -> G * G'
H -> H * G'
i think its like this
where the map from G into F(S_G U S_H) is from the universal property of the quotient group
since G is a quotient of F(S_G)
and the natural maps are the unique maps from the quotient property composed with pi
here is the full diagram
are there groups with uncountable order with subgroups isomorphic to itself?
Z times any uncountable group
Are there simple groups with a proper subgroup isomorphic to themselves 
I think the 'infinite alternating group,' namely the union of all A_n for n >= 5, is an example.
You just shift all numbers up by one and you get an isomorphic group
Oh right
It feels like sequential colimits of simple groups are simple
Wait does this hold for arbitrary colimits
Surely at least it does for filtered colimits 
I would expect so yeah
Is $C_2 \oplus C_2 \oplus C_3$ a subgroup of $C_4 \oplus C_6$? I have a suspicion that not, but not sure how to show it ($C_k$ being a cyclic group of order $k$)
Faputa
There is a subgroup of C_4 x C_6 which is isomorphic to C_2 x C_2 x C_3.
Ahh there is? Alright then
It is helpful if yu knw something abuot C2 x C3
I got it, C2 x C3 is isomorphic to C6 right?
I have a new problem I am trying to solve now, quite different from the previous one.
I am given this presentation for SL(2,Z)
And I would like to calculate its abelianization
Which, to my understanding simply amounts to adding a relation for commutativity?
From which I would conclude that the abelianization is C4 x C6. However, a few results I found on the web claim that it's C12
You have seen x^4 = 1 and y^6 = 1 and concluded C4 x C6 but you have not paid attention to x^2 = y^3
So the fact is they are not independent I suppose? But I am not sure how to account for that (it doesn't seem like I can, for example, explicitly express x in terms of y). Let me try a few things
Would the following be correct:
$\langle x,y | x^4=1, y^6=1, xy = yx \rangle \cong C_4 \oplus C_6$. But the group we are actually computing is $C_4 \oplus C_6$ with the additional relation $x^2 = y^3$, which is $(C_4 \oplus C_6) / \langle 2,3 \rangle$?
Faputa
Which then really is $C_{12}$
Faputa
Is there a better way of doing this?
Yup
Idk how it could get better than this method lol
This is very nice
Alright, thank you
Is there any easier method to find that $C_4 \otimes C_6 / \langle (2,3) \rangle \cong C_{12}$ than the following:
Faputa
We know it's an abelian group of order 12, so the only two options are $C_2 \otimes C_2 \otimes C_3$ and $C_{12}$. Since $(1,1) + \langle (2,3) \rangle$ has order 12 (this was basically just brute force to find), we know it must be isomorphic to $C_{12}$
the universal property of the quotient group gives you a canonical projection from the group being divided into the quotient, not the other way around
idk where you pulled that from
Faputa
Are you sure you mean the tensor product \otimes?
If so we're talking about a very different problem
Yes sorry I meant \oplus
my G is the G/N in this picture. my F(S_G U S_H) is the H
notice what the kernel of the homomorphism has to be
which one?
the homomorphism from F(S_G) into F(S_G ∐ S_H) is injective
the kernel is trivial
or the homomorphism is trivial, but that case doesn't interest us
but we are assuming the possibility that G is the quotient of F(S_G) by some nontrivial subgroup of relations
q : F(S_G) —> G is a quotient map. the inclusion map is a map F(S_G) into F(S_G U S_H) so by the universal property of the quotient, the inclusion descends to a unique map G —> F(S_G U S_H) for which the inclusion factors through it via q
where have i applied the universal property incorrectly?
it says here clearly that f: G → H has to be a homomorphism with N ⊆ ker f
if the quotient is G/N
what is the kernel of the inclusion F(S_G) ↪ F(S_G ∐ S_H)
how r u supposed to do this then
thanks for pointing this out btw
F(S_G) to G * H works if you follow the injection through pi.
then the kernel of that map contains the normal closure of R_G (by construction). then you get a map directly into G * H from G
yes
was just kind of blindly smashing diagrams together without reading their hypotheses
i have learned 🙃
I mean in general it's pretty easy to see that if A generates G then you have a map G → F(A)/ncl(R) where you map elements of A to themselves and the rest follows the homomorphism property
you have an isomorphism G ≅ F(A)/ncl(R) by definition
thats the inverse of the induced map of F(A) —> G from the universal property of the free group
nope
S_G —> F(S_G) —> G gives you a presentation of G with kernel ncl(R_G)
Yes
if you have a map φ: F(A) → G then you have isomorphism F(A)/(ker φ) ≅ G
φ doesn't have an inverse but F(A)/(ker φ) → G does
that’s why i said inverse of the induced map
The point is it is more natural to map out of the free group
what else am i mapping out of?
wdym induced map
this isomorphism coming from the first iso theorem
is what i mean by induced map
I guess that makes sense
yes, I misunderstood you slightly and wanted to be a bit more precise
again, thanks for pointing the initial error out to me
appreciate all the feedback from you guys
will be sure to check the conditions on uni. props. b4 using them next time
You can prove this for linearly ordered embedding things easily model theoretically
Is this like "∀∃-axiomatizable implies union of sequence of embeddings is a model" or something along these lines
Simple iff $\forall x.\forall x’ \bigvee_n \exists_n \bar y . x’ = \prod_i^n x^{y_i}$
Sharp-Malliaris regularity lemma
So yes
I.e. if the simple group <Inn(G)•x> = G for all x :3
This isn’t AE, because it’s not first order, of course
But it doesn’t have to be a sequence of embeddings either
Is this infinitary logic
Yeah
But the same trick applies, pick a pair x, x’, it’s contained in some G_i, so reachable by conjugations
Oh right, add in a v for x=1 but uh
Close enough
This looks like a useful algebra tool 
Do you have recommended readings for category-ish model theory stuff
This is pretty easily doable by identifying things w/ the image in the colimit here but uhh
I know Baldwin’s Categoricity has a bit of AEC-ish stuff, I think Makkaï has a thing for accessible ones
But idk anything much about category-ish model shenanigans
Okie, thanks for the pointers 
Let $\varphi:R \rightarrow S$ be a surjective homomorphism of rings. Prove that the image of the center of $R$ is contained in the center of $S$.
\begin{proof}
Given $x \in Z(R)$, $\varphi(x) \in \varphi(Z(R))$. Since $\varphi$ is surjective, for all $s \in S$, there exists an $r \in R$ such that $\varphi(r) = s$. Observe that:
$$s\varphi(x) = \varphi(r)\varphi(x) = \varphi(rx) =\varphi(xr) = \varphi(x)s.$$
Thus $\varphi(x) \in Z(S)$ which gives $\varphi(Z(R)) \subseteq Z(S)$.
\end{proof}
clubsoda14
Trying to figure out why x in Z(R) implies φ(x) in φ(Z(R)). Can anyone explain?
It is not obvious for me
phi(Z(R)) means things of the form phi(x) for x in Z(R). That's just what that notation means
so theres nothing to show
No, or you have to show phi(x) is in the center, as they do
eesh to be honest a lot of this stuff from discrete really confuses me
in general if f is a map from X to Y, then does x in X imply f(x) in f(X)?
Yes, f(X) aka the image of X by f is exactly the set of things of the form f(x) for x in X
Eric Weinstein holds a PhD in mathematical physics from Harvard University and is a member of the Galileo Project research team.
www.ericweinstein.org
www.geometricunity.org
Terrence Howard is an actor of stage and screen, musician, and researcher in the fields of logic and engineering.
www.terryslynchpins.com
www.tcotlc.com
what do yall think about Weinstein bringing up group homomorphisms around minute 23 lmao
I dont actually think it was relevant because it seeemd like Terrence was asking a question about how addition relates to multiplication but then Weinstein's argument was using groups ... shouldnt he have responded with a ring theory POV instead since that is the structure terrence is talking about
i dont see how Weinstein saying how real numbers under X is isomorphic to some real numbers under addition is relevant
I think anyone giving Terrence Howard the time of day is very silly indeed
Lol
Anyway yes you are right, clearly the disagreement (lol) is about ring structure (god why am I pretending this is so intellectual)
😂
The real problem is that Howard is attention-seeking and this is his way of staying in the spotlight. \end{document}
yeah this talk is genuinely awful
i thought it would be a bit interesting or entertaining at least
But what does it mean to multiply.... to increase, right? So how is 1x1 = 1? 1x1 is at least 2...
Yooooooo
the thumbnail gives me too much cringe to even consider clicking it
it's not intelectual if they don't discuss why negative times negative is positive
how can I prove that $x^{p-1}+x^{p-2}+\dots+x+1$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$?
Heywood Jablome
Hint: if that polynomial is f(x), what is f(x+1)?
Remember the formula for a sum of powers
(rational root theorem go brrrr also)
unfortunately I don't think that'll work unless there's some magic trick I'm not seeing, since it could factor into quadratics or cubics etc that are nonlinear
Aren't the only possibilities over Q ||-1, 1|| and it's clear that evaluating that polynomial at both is nonzero?
try this polynomial:
x^4 + x^3 + 2*x^2 + x + 1
But this does not imply irreducibility
(x^2+1)^2 also has no rational roots
that only rules out linear factors, not quadratics, cubics, etc
Oh wait I'm dumb
spoiler this is ||(x^2+1)(x^2+x+1)||
idk why I got into my head that it was asking about the polynomial splitting
all good 😎
No
I always wonder what the nicest way to show that cyclotomics are irreducible is
I think I remember there being a funny slightly fancy way
By definition 
But yeah these particular ones I always knew via ||Eisenstein|| spoilers
Yes I think this is how any sane person does them
To be fair, reasonable lol
I mean then the best way to compute the degrees of cyclotomic extensions
So wise...
idiot's smart person versus smart person's idiot
which is which
Terrence Howard is full of BS
Like,
he says things like "Tone of the Sine Curve"
What's tone?
don't waste your time
Lmao true
I initially read terrence howard as terrence tao
Is there a difference between a monoid and a group or is it just terminology?
There is a HUGE difference.
Every group is a monoid, but very very few monoids are groups.
What makes you think they're the same thing?
Elements in monoids may not have inverses
whats the context from your bio lmao
physicists
YOOO PUPPY MONKEY BABY
I may or may not have forgotten group theory, specifically the inverse property.
nice gregory edgeworth pfp
Very observant
Spamakin🎷
Spamakin🎷
How do you define algebraic closure?
Splitting field of k[x] over k
How is that different from all Algebraic elements over k?
Like the fact it's contained in K sure but K has all of them
Uh
Good question
Maybe this is why I felt I was going in circles?
I guess I'm done idk it feels like I proved nothing (but the statement seems very nothing)
I can't think of a reasonable definition of Algebraic closure under which this isn't immediate
How long does it take to get to this level of understanding of algebra
?
I would love to one day really see and understand these algebraic structures and how they all intimately relate to each other but being at the level that these guys in the answer are at seems soo far off!
Although I am happy that I nonetheless have seen myself learn a lot especially compared to when i first looked at group theory last year
am I going nuts or is this missing a squared for each product term
cause otherwise how is this symmetric in the r_i >_>
I'm guessing they would have say, (r_1-r_2)(r_2-r_1) as terms
cool
Let $S$ be a subring of $R$ and let $I$ be an ideal of $R$. If I define the map $\varphi:R \rightarrow R/I$, why is $\varphi(S) = (S+I)/I$?
clubsoda14
I don't understand why
Are yous struggling with φ(S) ⊂ (S+I)/I or φ(S) ⊃ (S+I)/I
They are cosets of I
It is?
Isomorphic to S? 
Oh I left out a crucial piece of info
S ∩ I = {0}
So (S+I)/I ≅ S/(S ∩ I) ≅S/{0} ≅S
by the second isomorphism theorem
Oh S is a subring
Noice
But I don't understand why φ(S) = (S+I)/I
But for any subset S of R you have φ(S) = (S+I)/I too
Cant u just look at the elements and work it out pretty directly?
It doesnt seem that hard is it?
Oh
Well, right?
You could try directly bashing out both directions
Ya thats how i thought to do it how else would u
S + I = {s + i | s ∈ S, i ∈ I}, so an element of (S+I)/I looks like (s+i) + I = s + I
which is just an element of φ(S)
Yup
Honestly it be like that sometimes
I feel like an idiot 99% of the time and then u see it and then it seems obvious
It always feels so extreme like that lol
Yea
I'm doing problems in Dummit and Foote and the phrasing also kind of threw me off
Let $S$ be a subring of $R$ and let $I$ be an ideal of $R$. Prove that if $S \cap I = 0$ then $\bar{S} \cong S$, where the bar denotes passage to $R/I$
clubsoda14
Yes this is chapter 7
Yea that wording is weird to me too
Why exactly is C not empty here
It looks like they're doing some sort of replacement in the process above
If AnB is non empty then we can see that C is non empty
But what if it isn't
You can always that S=Ø and get at least one element of C that way.
pick any single element of A and map it to a single element of B
Oh we can define functions on empty sets?
Wait, the sentence starting with "We also impose ..." is part of the definition of C even though it follows a full stop?
If so, you need to set S = A cap B, and f the identity on A cap B in order to get at trivial element of C.
And they did ?
Wait i don't understand from here?
Okay
this is the important part
Then how does that guarantee the linear independence part of (A-S) U f( S)
If S is a subset of A and f is the identity on S, then (A-S) cup f(S) is just A, which is linearly independent by assumption.
I agree
I was saying about the mapping a single element part
I think the empty set map is our only option for a candidate?
Are you assuming A and B are disjoint when you say that?
Yes
even if you map a in A to something in span(a) cap B, you still have (A - {a}) U {ca} being linearly independent
Right then. Though, of course, the third part of (5) (with the hint) asks you to prove how you can make more elements of C if you know one where S is not A.
I don't understand...B is any set of generators ...this is just a process of replacement right, how do we guarantee that the one that b replaces in A still results in a LI set
You do need to be a bit careful which element of B you replace.
Somehow im confused on “the ring R can always be embedded as an R-submodule of the S-module S”.
I see, why does such a replacement always exist
We are assuming btw R is subring of S
Im a bit confused on saying R-submodule of the S-module
We cant say its an S-submodule because we cant generally extend scalars right
Yea
The hint seems to sketch an argument why there's always an element of B that we can use to replace v.
(I don't quite feel confident I can start explaining that right away, though).
Say A is the empty set and B is {0} and we are taking about the trivial vector space
There is nothing to replace in this case
In that particular case there's nothing to do: (Ø, empty function) is already maximal in C.
So as we don't know about our vector space i think we have to start from the empty function (in the case AnB is empty)?
forget what i said.
We start from the identity function on A cap B -- when A cap B is empty, that is the empty function.
Alright
Thank you @tribal moss and @kind temple
I never knew the existence of empty functions
Now I do
They're not very interesting, and mostly just useful for avoiding a need to have pesky "unless such-and-such is the empty set" conditions in your theorems.
And also, when we say R is a subring of S, we can also more generally just say there is a ring homomorphism from R to S and everything still works out in this way right
Then you get a morphism of R-modules R→S
In what way is this different
Only difference is that if its not an injection right
For R a subring of S, how is the ring action of S-modules related to the action associated with R-modules?
I know for a given ring R you can have many different R-module structures. So for S which has R as a subring …. How is the action of S related to R
Is my question specific or well defined enough? Im not even sure
The action by R is just the restriction of the action by S
Ohh ok
That is, if you have f: R→S and S acts on something, then r ∈ R acts as f(r)
Yea
When I look at something like a Q-module, i mean, how do i know what actions it could have
I mean i know Q is a field so that module is a vector space so its probably limited or something
But im just not sure of the specifics
I suppose im also not sure on how the field is related to the vector space structure in general, in what way does the field matter
Because to be honest even when i took the course in “abstract” linear algebra, even still the fields we worked with were always just R or maybe sometimes C
So im not even really sure in what way is the field relevant
Im not sure if Im interrupting a previous discussion (and I apologize), but I just had a very quick question: is every simple semigroup also D-simple? I have proven the other implication, but I think my brain is starting to melt and I can't find an example where this fails.
Many results from linear algebra carry over
Though some results require the ring to be nicer
For instance every vector space is classified by the cardinality of its basis, and more generally the finitely generated modules over a PID have a simple classification
For this free abelian group, we do not specify what (si,ni)+(sj,nj) is, right?
Like, its just that
I didnt cover free groups before so just making sure
I meant more specifically for a vector space how does the field interact with the elements , what kind of ring actions are allowed i guess?
Ok sorry my question is not well posed, of course the ring action needs to satisfy the module axioms, i guess im trying to ask like, for say a Q-module, what kind of Q x N -> N maps are there?
Let $\varphi:R \rightarrow S$ be a ring homomorphism. Prove that if $J$ is an ideal of $S$ then $\varphi^{-1}(J)$ is an ideal of $R$.
My question in this: Assuming that $J$ is an ideal of $S$, does it follow that $\varphi(x-y) \in J$ implies $x-y \in \varphi^{-1}(J)$? Wouldn't it be required that $\varphi$ is surjective? Or is this just by definition of pre-images?
clubsoda14
That is by definition.
This has nothing to do with ideals or rings, this is just how preimages work.
Ok
So if $f:X \rightarrow Y$ is a map between two sets, then by definition $y \in Y$ implies $f^{-1}(y) \in f^{-1}(Y)$
Firstly: you mean f, not phi presumably
yes lol sorry
Secondly, no: f^-1(y) is not defined.
Uhh
clubsoda14
Why
Consider the map f : Z → Z defined by f(x) = 0
What is f^-1(0)?
What is f^-1(1)?
Ah
f^-1({y}) will be defined, though.
In general the correct definition is $f(x) \in Y$ iff $x \in f^{-1}(Y)$.
Boytjie
This is a definition of the set f^-1(Y)
When f is a bijection, this aligns with f^-1 applied to Y (i.e., the image of Y under f^-1)
I see
Again this has nothing to do with algebra, this is just elementary set stuff
Yes I know
My discrete is really bad
I've always had trouble with images/preimages and stuff
Well now you know the definition so you can apply that in the future
What's the geometric interpretation of the conjugacy classes of D_3?
Have you calculated the conjugacy classes? What do you notice about them?
This is what I got. Alpha is rotation, b is reflection
So it looks like the conjugacy classes sort things into rotations and reflections :)
Ah got it. The elements in the last class are all reflections
And the elements in the second are all rotations. By the same angle, even, if you consider one to be clockwise and the other anticlockwise
Hm but e there is also a^3, so why is it not in the same class as a and a^2?
- the identity is always in its own class
- I gave a pretty big hint just above
Ah understood
Is the solution like consider the set of indicator functions on elements of I
They form a Li set
And so from this their cardinality is ....
Now all i need is to show that if a LI set has cardinality equal to that of the Basis then it is also a basis
This is where I am having difficulties
And I don't think that's true
Yes
This is false!
Because I can exclude a 1 dimensional subspace by removing 1 basis element easily
Yeah I got like {1,2,x,x^2...} And {1,x,x^2..}
That’s not linearly independent but yeah
But watch this
You have a linearly independent subset of size bigger than I
So you’re done
But i haven't proved that yet huh
That said, the set of indicator functions is, in fact, not linearly independent
Huh
Indicator for {1, 2} = {1} + {2}
Right
So all the finite subsets are spanned by (indicator functions for singletons)
Yea...I agree
So I would get all the kinds of functions that are non zero only on a finitely many of Is
Taking the indicator functions?
Why is it not LI tho ?
For any Finite subset , given a linear combination we can show that all the scalar are 0?
Just make the others vanish
Again, $1_{{1,2}} = 1_{{1}} + 1_{{2}}$
Sharp-Malliaris regularity lemma
So those 3 already aren’t linearly independent
Okay but how do I show that cardinality is strictly bigger?
Now, consider a function f: I -> K
Okay
That’s not gonna, in general, be of finite support, but that is a dual space element of a K-vector space with basis I
Ah yeah that’s just the “here’s how it related to the last part”
But uh, have you seen the cantor diagonalization thing?
Yes
We can do something similar I think, just with a bit of tweaking to exclude things like how we can reach any finite subset by adding singletons
Hmmm
