#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 248 of 1
Usually we use these notation in the context of one specific Sn
Otherwise we'd specify which Sn it belongs to
i didn't understand what u said now
is this true ?
It's the same notation, but it's not the same element
So we need to specify whether we're talking about an element in S4 or S5
what if we are talking in S_5 there is an element such that (xy)(zw)
Yes
It is this one
ok but 5! or 4! are a lot do i need to write each one
Is there an exercise asking you to write all of them
Find all possible orders of elements in S_7 and A_7 ? . like here S_7 omg what they are talking about
do i need to write all of them
Oh
All possible orders is considerably shorter
You just need to look at the different possible forms yea
that's alot
7!/2 ?
oh like we are looking at the forms
?
like (abcdefg) is 7
(abcdef)(g) is 6
like this ?
Yea
Can someone give me a simple example so i can understand 100%
Since (123) = (13)(12), then they want to say that if we write (123) in another transposition then it contains even number of transposition
I think it is not a good example
what could be the other transposition
(23)(13) this work?
no
Why?
Actually I am using right to left notation
If you want left to right then you can use (123) = (12)(13) and (123) = (12)(23)
Are you sure?
Tell me what will be (12)(23) ?
What
After computation of (12)(23) what will be the answer you get
(123)
Yes
So there are two different products of transposition of (123) and both have the same number of transposition
Important is now you can define now length of permutation by using the number of transpositions because it is unique
Maybe this is non-general terminology
ok thx
The rational functions Q(x,y) in two variables is a field and so are the rational functions in three variables Q(x,y,z)
I'm pretty sure there is a field embedding G:Q(x,y)->Q(x,y,z) given by G(1)=1
G(x)=x
G(y)=y
Why is it enough to specify the image of 1,x,y ? It's just because these elements 1,x,y generate Q(x,y) as a ring right? Also is there some concrete way to say how much bigger Q(x,y,z) is as a field compared to Q(x,y)? It has another variable but it's an indeterminate and I feel like this has something to do with transcendental field extensions which I don't know anything about
It is in fact enough to specify where x and y is mapped, since 1 is always mapped to 1. And yes this is because x and y generate Q(x, y) as a field.
There are at least two ways to measure the size of an extension. The degree of Q(x, y, z)/Q(x, y) is infinite, and the trancendence degree is 1.
I guess the trancendence degree would be the most useful measure here.
Thank you! Yeah transcendental degree is probably the most useful.
But (13)(23)(12)(13) is also (123).
Yes still it has an even number of transpositions
Oh got it my mistake
I mean partiality unique
If you have a ring hom f:R-> S and R is generated by R generated by a1,...,an as a ring and f is injective on a1,...,an does it follow that f is injective?
Consider any map Z[x] -> Z. Here x generates Z[x].
This doesn't even work for groups. Take any n>0 and consider the map Z → Z/nZ
So for instance f:Z[x]->Z given by f(x)=5 is a ring hom and x and 1 generate Z[x] a ring but for instance f(x^2-5x)=25-25=0. So clearly f isn't injective?
What about if I have something like G:R[x,y]-> R[x,y,z]/<yz=1> given by G(x)=x and G(y)= y, is it clear that this ring hom is injective since the ideal is generated by elements outside the image of G?
What is "the ideal"?
Oh, you mean the ideal <yz-1>, sure.
No I don't think this is obvious. For example k(x, y)/<y> is the trivial ring, so looking at generators is not sufficient.
But is the reasoning basically something like the inclusion I:R[x,y]->R[x,y,z] is injective then the kernel of the canonical projection pi:R[x,y,z]->R[x,y,z]/I is exactly I so I just need to check that the image of the inclusion I does not intersect J? Does this sound reasonable for this case?
Yes
In this case it is sort of obviouos as it is the inclusion R[x,y]->R[x,y][y^-1] and the kernel is stuff which is killed by a power of y (i.e. 0)
Oftentimes with these sorts of things you can show injectivity by finding a left inverse, though that is not possible here (as y has no inverse in R[x,y])
is (12)(1253) == (253) ?
(143)(23)(24) == (14)(23) ?
(1423)(34)(56)(1324) == (12)(56) ?
I see okay. Maybe this is a bit of a different question but what about checking the map f:k[x]->k[x] given by f(x) =x^2 is this obviously injective? I know k[x] is a k-algebra and there is a basis of the algebra/module given by the monomials. It seems like it's enough to argue this is injective just by observing that it maps a basis element to a basis element and is injective. Does this module basis argument seem convincing?
Yes, you can argue by seeing k[x] as an infinite dimensional vector space, sure

With algebraic structures with a zero element you can also show that the kernel can only contain 0, which happens to be easier most times
You can check all of these yourself by working out the permutation on each side in two-line form.
i did and got these answers am asking if what i got is wrong or right
like i had the left side
then reached the right side
An injective on the basis argument works even over something like Z[x] with Z[x]->Z[x] with f(x)=x^2 even when the ring Z is only a module?
Uh, if it fixes Z sure
The ker = 0 arguments works in any structure with addition and in groups tho, there you just observe that since any non-constant polynomial gets mapped to a non-constant polynomial, the kernel can only contain constants functions
but the map is clearly just the canonical inclusion restricted to the constant functions
I see okay I think somehow I'm using that this is an integral domain thank you.
More specifically, you will be using the fact that degrees of polynomials behave well.
Ah alright
Also lmao funny seeing u here
Done the assgn?
Wait no u took it with yuru already
if we had a group G and a subgroup H do we get from multiplying a coset from the left or right a subgroup of group G because as i can see we don't get back H again we get sometimes something new
A (left) coset in G of H is a set of the form gH for some g in G.
There is only one coset of H which is a subgroup, which is H.
When we multiply a (left) coset (on the left) by an element of G, we get another coset, which may or may not be H.
and it's a subgroup of G
H is a subgroup of G.
Like I said:
There is only one coset of H which is a subgroup, which is H.
so what's the point of finding this another coset
The other cosets don't contain e, for one thing.
If you are just now beginning to learn about cosets, rest assured that they turn out to be useful.
ok i will see how they are going to help
The number of different ways a group G can act on a set S is given by the number different homomorphisms from G to Sym(S) right?
Sym(S) is permutation group of elements of S
Yes, an action of G on S is exactly equivalent to a homomorphism G -> Sym(S)
Does ring actions have an “equivalent” definition like that? Im just beginning to study modules
Yes, if M is an abelian group and R is a ring, then a (left) module structure on M is exactly a ring homomorphism R -> End(M)
Oh ok, I will probably see this when i study further?
Ive seen End(M) but dk what it means yet
Yes, End(M) is just the ring of endomorphisms of M.
So group homomorphisms M -> M with point-wise addition and composition as multiplication
Can you say a rational function such as f(x,y)/g(x,y) is not constant just by observing that deg(f) is not equal to deg(g)?
no
well maybe yes idk
ah, no
Over an infinite field, I think this works
counter-example: ||x^p-x in Z/pZ||
yes, you can reduce this to the case that P(x)=0 for some polynomial of positive degree
I guess "constant" should mean equal to an element of k, not induces a constant function k^n -> k
What id like to say is if I have coprime polynomials f,g in Z[x,y] so that f/g is a non constant in Z(x,y) then the rational functions (f/g)^2 is also non constant element of Z(x,y).
Doesn't something like this follow from the coprimality? I think in the case of elements of Z if a and b are coprime then so is a^k and b^l.
I think this coprime argument still works for elements in Z[x,y] . Then in that case if f/g is non constant with f and g non constant and coprime then (f/g)^2 is also a non constant element.
I was thinking I could do this with just arguing by the degree of f and g but I guess not
Yeah if f and g have different degrees, then f^2 and g^2 does aswell.
But f/g can be non-constant even if f and g have the same degree
Your coprime argument should work though
Thank you!
Hi i'm watching a series on abstract algebra to learn it and he's doing an example on the dihedral group, he wrote this on the board:
\begin{align*}
N &= { e,r^2,s,sr^2 } = \overline{e} \
rN &= { r,r^3,sr,sr^3 } = \overline{r}
\end{align*}
where $N = \langle s,r^2\rangle \trianglelefteq D_4$. Is it true to say that $rsr^2 = sr^3$? I thought $D_4$ was noncommutative. If i use the order-changing rules i get $rsr^2 = sr^3r^2 = sr^5 = sr$. I'm so confused lol
BigBoyConst
rsr^2 does indeed equal sr, but what's written on the board doesn't contradict that
how come?
Sets are not ordered, two sets are equal if they have the same elements
no but when he's doing the left coset, one of the elements will be $rsr^2$ (by mutliplying $r$ with the last element of $N$), but he replaced that with $sr^3$ which i'm unsure if it's correct or not
BigBoyConst
i dont really get what set equality has to do with this
It was rs = sr^3, not rsr^2.
re = r
r r^2 = r^3
r sr^2 = sr
r s = sr^3
OH HE CHANGED THE ORDER
So rN is the set described
Yes, like jagr said, order does not matter in sets.
They probably just wrote it up without paying much attention to the order
ye ik but i assumed he would keep it in the same order to show the correspondence
It would probably have been more pedagogical to do so yeah
well either way thanks for answering my question :D
how
Basically he played it for 19889 days straight
I thought Celeste was only released 2,333 days ago. Puzzling 🤔
a true conundrum indeed
Alright, I think I cracked it. , is not a thousands-seperater but a decimal point, and really you only played for 28640 minutes
Got'em!
So ik for $N\geq 2$, if $n_1\cdots n_k$ is a factorization such that the $n_i$s are coprime, then $\Z_N\cong \Z_{n_1}\times\cdot\times\Z_{n_k}$. Is it true that for $\Z_{m_1}\times\cdot\times \Z_{m_l}$ where there exist $i, j$ such that $i\neq j$ and $\gcd(m_i, m_j)>1$, we have $\Z_{m_1}\times\cdot\times \Z_{m_l}\not\cong Z_M$ where $M=m_1\cdots m_l$?
Sara
Yes
Start with some very small examples. For instance, why is Z_2 x Z_2 not isomorphic to Z_4. Hint for this small case: look for elements of order 4.
ty
What is an unresolvable polynominal?
Context?
Returning to some silly group stuff
did it with ma kinnon, yuru for 348
I am attempting to prove that this set is a field using subfield test, but struggling on how to find the inverse an element.
What are the conjugates of each element?
a -b sqrt(2) - c sqrt(3) -d sqrt(6)
In particular, let’s say we have x = a + b sqrt(2) + c sqrt(3) + d sqrt(6)
Then it’s also
(a + b sqrt(2)) + (c + d sqrt(2)) sqrt(3) right
Let x = (a + b sqrt(2)) + (c + d sqrt(2)) sqrt(3), y = (a + b sqrt(2))- (c + d sqrt(2)) sqrt(3)
Then what is xy @limpid ferry
it is x^2 -y^2
(Alternatively, you can use that for a field F, F[a] is a field if a is a root of polynomial in F.)
For absta ||the idea is to use this product to go down to Q(sqrt(2)), and then further use that conjugate to finally get down to Q to have an inverse||
What
(a + b sqrt(2)) ^2 - 3(c + d sqrt(2))^2
But close enough
So that’s in Q(sqrt(2)) right
I see, thanks
So what you can do, is then find that product’s conjugate, call it z
Then xyz = r for some r in Q
Then xyz/r = 1 so yz/r is the inverse in your field :3
If you expand yz/r out then you have explicitly found your inverse in terms of the a b c d
Does that help?
Yes, that helps me a lot
Okay you’re welcome lol
Tbh this kind of computation is quite messy
But it still works and it seems like an introductory field exercise when a lot of it hasn’t been explored yet
Sure thing
at least to me
Like this will be gotten to at some point but after like polynomial rings and quotients and shit are explored
You don't really need quotients.
I mean conjugates are helpful yeah
What it uses is just that every element of F[a] is algebraic.
The inverses would be the product of the remaining conjugates over the minimal poly’s constant term in the base field
Yeah, but you can instead do like
a^2 + pa + q = 0, then
a(a + p) = - q
We take it irreducible so q /= 0, then a^(-1) is some multiple of a + p.
True
When a is a root of quadratic, basically any element of F[a] is root of quadratic - then you can use this to prove that F[a] is a field.
But yeah I think the idea of using basic quadratic conjugates is enough for the basic exercise
To go down the chain of fields
Hmmm
Like this was similar to one of the first exercises for fields in Jacobson
Without the later theory developed
So you shouldn’t a priori have knowledge of all the extra shit
It would be way less obvious with, like cbrt(2) per say
Or something like that
Hmm, I see.
Ik it's true that for rings R and S, if R has a unit r and S has a unit s, then (r, s) is a unit of R x S with inverse (r^{-1}, s^{-1}). Are all units of R x S characterized like this? I wanna say yes but would like a sanity check 🙏
Acc wait no it's gotta be true
Sorry, another sanity check, $\Z_4[i]\cong \Z_4\times\Z_4$ right
Sara
Wait I'm taking $\phi\colon\Z_4[i]\to\Z_4\times\Z_4$, $\phi(a+bi)=(a, b)$. But $\phi(1+i)\phi(1+i)=(1, 1)(1, 1)=(1, 1)$, while $\phi((1+i)(1+i))=\phi(1+2i-1)=\phi(0+2i)=(0, 2)$. Does this not work as an isomorphism, am I misunderstanding smth, or are these rings not isomorphic?
Sara
Yeah don’t think thats gonna work, if you had a ring isomorphism then 1 would go to (1,1) and so 3 goes to (3,3) and then whatever i goes to say (a,b) would need to square to (3,3) but no a,b in Z_4 satisfy that
mhm
Yeah idt its true ur right
Thanks
Ive already gotten this thru bash but im tryna figure out if there's a clean way that doesnt involve making a table
Well drawing inspiration from the complex numbers I’d look at when a^2 + b^2 is a unit and when it’s a zero divisor, then you can do stuff with the ‘conjugate’
ty
(3+i) is a unit with inverse (2+i) but 3^2+1^2=10=2 mod 4 which is a 0 divisor
(3+i)(2+i)=(6-1) +(3+2)i=1+i no?
ty
I see the pattern between a^2+b^2 being a zero divisor but dunno how to figure out the explicit connection/outline for a proof
Like for if a^2+b^2 is a zero divisor then a+bi is as well?
yeah
(a-ib)(a+ib)=a^2+b^2 so if it is a zero divisor in Z_4(say c annihilates it) then c(a-ib) annihilates a+ib, now you do have to handle the case that c(a-ib)=0 but it implies c(a+ib)=0 anyway
ty
wait sorry this bit i got
the other direction im having trouble with
a+bi 0 divisor implies a^2+b^2 is a 0 divisor
Since I need to find all 0 divisors
multiplication is associative, I'd use that to see it
Well if you show that a^2+b^2 unit implies a+ib unit then that’s sufficient, since in a finite ring it’s one or the other
Let G be a group of order 357. Prove that the centre of G contains the Sylow 17-subgroup.
How can I prove this? I know that for a p-group H with a normal subgroup K one would have Z(H) \cap K \neq {1}, but G is not a p-group.
Did you not get anywhere with these hints? @untold basalt
by one or the other, u mean unit or 0 divisor?
Yeah
sorry I missed them
Np
oh 💀 im dumb its just $(a+bi)(c+di)=0$ with both nonzero implies $(a-bi)((a+bi)(c+di))=(a-bi)0$ implies $((a-bi)(a+bi))(c+di)=(a^2+b^2)(c+di)=0$ where the former has to be nonzero and thus a 0 divisor
Sara
I think I got it. Proving that the 17-sylow H is normal is easy with sylow's theorems; this means that the action by conjugation of G on H is well defined. We now wish to show that this action \phi: G \to Aut(H) is trivial. In order to do so, observe that |Aut(C_17)|=16 and, if \phi is to be a homomorphism, then |g| must be a multiple of |phi(g)|, which leaves only one option for \phi, namely the trivial map g \to id for all g \in G.
Next I have to prove that G is solvable: form sylow's theorems we get that there are one 17 sylow H and one 7 sylow K, both normal, so we may consider the subgroup series {1}, HK, G. HK is abelian and |G:HK|=3, therefore the quotients are abelian.
Is this correct?
also HK is normal in G because both group are normal.
Well ok this is always true for a subgroup that is a direct product.
just the units/zero-divisors of F, no?
Not quite
(there are more units)
finite series would amount to polynomials and ik the units of F[x] are the units of F, so ig I should be considering the infinite series?
Just because something is not a unit in F[x] doesn't necessarily mean it's not a unit in F[[x]]. For example 2 is not a unit in Z, but is a unit in Q.
But yes, in a pair of inverses at least one would have to be infinite
this is what i meant sorry
One example you might have learned in high school: the inverse of ||1 - x|| is ||1 + x + x^2 + ...||
What's the motivation for studying valuation rings?
O do we learn this in highschool?
well I certainly learned about geometric series in the 11th grade, dont know about you
Ah, right. Forgot about geometric series
can the classification of finitely generated abelian groups be re-imagined as looking at prime ideals in some ring?
You mean classification of module over PID?
or that
maybe my question would make more sense if i asked "is there some ring out there in which its elements behave like abelian groups"
or is there some kind of equivalence of categories, the category of abielian groups and some single-object enriched category that represents some ring
The category of Abelian groups is not equivalent to any single-object category
The "smallest" category any category is equivalent to is its skeleton
Where the objects are isomorphism classes
Prove that there exists a non abelian group of order 125.
i see, but is there some other notion of equivalence, or some other kind of mapping which would make sense of "mapping prime ideals in some ring to simple abelian groups"
Well Abelian simple groups are just Z/p so they correspond to prime ideals of Z ig
Except (0)
Oh hm then simple modules over a cring are probably maximal ideals
Maximal ideals have submodules, namely it’s constituent ideals
If we have a group of order p^n, p odd prime, then can we find an isomorphic group that consists of direct product or semidirect product compositions of Z_p^k for k up to n
I think this can be done with finding cyclic subgroups and using Sylow theorems
They meant taking a quotient
Oh then yeah that sounds about right
You can do this using Cauchy's theorem
Cauchy’s theorem says there is an element of order p which seems like the base idea
Like if we have a cyclic subgroup K of order p^k, then we can describe G such that |G| = p^n as
G = K * H or K * H where * is either direct or semidirect product, with the normal factor being the subgroup of most p valuation
And then H would be some group of order p^(n - k)
Seems to hold for p^4 according to this paper
The normal factor seems to be the subgroup of larger p valuation
You can use induction to prove a converse of Lagrange
- the fact that a p-group has a nontrivial center
||This gives you the ability to quotient by an element of order p and use induction||
Also for noncommutative rings maximal (left) ideals give you simple modules. But then two ideals m' and m gives the same module iff m' = mr for some ring element r.
Isn’t the notion of noncommutative ring modules used to generalize commutative ideas of shit like prime ideals and radicals
Like I forget which radical in particular is generalized as elements annihilating simple modules
The Jacobson radical can be defined as
- intersection of annihilators of simple modules
- intersection of maximal left ideals
- intersection of maximal right ideals
- x such that 1-rx is a unit for all r
All of these work and are equivalent both in the commutative and non-commutative case
Oh yeah the last is a consequence of left units being elements not lying in any left ideal and if x being in an ideal then 1 + x not lying in an ideal right
You can also define it as the sum of all superfluousleft ideals (ideals N such that N+I = R implies I=R)
Interesting
Also left units are elements that don’t lie in any proper left ideal right?
I assume you can use left-principal ideals to get to the same point
I am scared of left units that aren’t right units because of the fact that if there’s two nonequal left units then there’s infinitely many
Best to stick to artinian rings
shartinian rings
artinian well
Are left artinian rings also noetherian or is that a commutative ring thing
Left artinian implies left Noetherian yes
Actually I see no issue with using ideal product with M and powers of the Jacobson radical
Using for what?
Make a module “composition series “
Unsure how much the group theory stuff generalizes
I am mainly just desiring J(R) to be nilpotent lmao
Yeah, so if R is artinian, then M/J(R)M is semisimple. So you can use this to make a composition series
I am not very well versed in this stuff because it’s not covered by Jacobson in his basic (but still absolutely absurdly terse) ring theory section
A lot of it is me fucking around and trying to connect names for terms with ideas that I’ve used before in exercises and shit
Is M/J(R) itself semisimple
R/J(R) yes
Does it need to be a direct sum of finitely many irreducibles or can it be a direct sum over infinite?
Semisimple iff artinian with 0 jacobson radical
I am going off into unexplored territory here for me so sorry if these seem like stupid questions
Well, 1 would need to be in the sum
So contained in a finite sum, but then that's it
Even for noncommutative?
Yes
I wouldn't say that, but semisimple commutative rings certainly are
Sure
The theory is much less rich, imo
I also ask
Does Chinese remainder theorem generalize to noncommutative case with two-sided ideals
just using ideal product instead of intersection
Wait no it doesn’t
Okay I see because 1 cannot lie in any of the irreducible submodules (ideals) due to unitality
It works just the same yes
Units being non-ideal (not in any proper ideal) elements is such a useful idea to make so much shit almost immediate and it’s intuitive
Insofar that I often consider that definition first before working with the inverses
Just helps so much when working with ideals
I haven’t done much with modules yet as I haven’t gotten to them in my books,
But are ideals essentially modules that embed into the ring itself as a module
Left/right suppressed
Sure but more simply, they are submodules of the ring.
Got it
[with the ring viewed as a left/right module over itself in the obviouos way]
two sided is slightly different but yeah
Now can you characterize maximal ideals to be ideals such that the quotient module R/M is simple?
Yes
I see
Now I ask, are there simple modules that R can embed into
I assume not at first glance
If R is not simple, obviously not, because R will be a submodule.
correspnodence therem
Oh that’s a theorem?
but like note that these are all fields anyway
Is there more to it or is it just that
It's a more general thing
Oh shit you mean Fourth Iso for modules right
It is called the correspondence theorem more usually
If N <= M is a submodule, then the obvious map
{Submodules of M containing N}->{Submodules of M/N}
is a bijection
(and is order-preserving as is clear)
I just call it quotient lattice iso in my notes lmao
sure
idk what 4th iso is
lol
but yeah corresponodence theorem is much more standard
at least in comm alg
Thanks that helps for me actually being able to communicate with others lmao
what is 4th iso
oh seems it is this forsmoeauthros
I am on mobile so I don’t feel like typing it out
yeah sure
Now if we have a left R module and a right R module can we define a tensor product
I assume the tensor product is a group though
Are you working only in commutative rings for now?
What do you mean
I mean are you only working with commutative rings or are you using noncommutative ones
Noncommutative just for this moment basically
Idk how to make that question clearer
OK
Indeed you need sidendness for your modules for the tensor product to work
I just think that you can define a tensor product of a left and right module but I think that’d be an abelian group
Idk if that abelian group itself would be a module
In general you can only guarantee left or right Z-module structures, so yes indeed you would get a Z-module (left or right, you choose)
But when you have bimodule structure you can get a module over a different ring
So if M is an (R, S)-bimodule and N is a left S module then M (x)_S N is a left R-module
Same on the other side.
So can you also characterize it as an adjoint but instead through a weirdly modified hom that also forgets the module structure of the image
Weirdly modified? Dunno what you mean
It's just the normal hom, you just need to pay attention to the bimodule structure.
I am working with noncommutative
Yes.
Like if we have a map bilinear map from right module R, left module L to abelian group A, then would it factor through a group map from the tensor product to A
Cba to write it out so just look at this
Yep that’s what I was thinking
The small R and S denote left and right R/S modules.
So nothing changes about the Hom, we just note it's a module.
So it’s like the classic (commutative) adjunction but instead of being an endofunctor pair it’s between different categories
Sure
Okie cool
Finally I have another example of a nonendofunctor adjunction
Because I swear to god all the intro ones are that aren’t forgetful/free
Discuss the number of Sylow 3-subgroups of a group of order 357.
Thank you fam
If you want another example of an adjunction that isn't working within subcategories, look at the group of units <-> group algebra adjunction
so true.....................
OOOOO THANK U
Actually here’s a question. Let R be a ring with unity, and let K be the set of all left-units of R. Then is K a monoid, and if it’s a group does that imply that all are two sided units
Because if ax = by = 1, then (ba)(xy) = (ab)(yx) = 1
If ax = 1, and K is a group, then there is a y such that xy = 1 implying it’s a two sided unit
Also that if K isn’t left cancellative then I’m pretty sure it’s infinite
It is right cancellative since if xy = xz then axy = axz implying y = z
Actual brain damage :3
For a finite monoid, cancelability from either side means it's a unit.
Oh yeah true
Can someone please have a look at how I wrote this? I think it's correct but I could do with some advice on the writing.
Let $S$ be a finite semigroup such that, for all $s,t \in S$ we have: $(s^\omega t^\omega)^{\omega + 1} = s^\omega t^\omega$. How do you prove that for any 3 idempotents $a,b,c$ of $S$: $(abc)^{\omega + 1} = abc$?
Eduude
how does injective imply iso here
idk how we have that it's surjective
wait im an idiot and also cant read
that should be im f bar, not im S right
or im f tho ig theyre the same
A while back I was messing around with an algebraic structure defined on R^3 with componentwise addition, and multiplication where each component of the product is the sum of the product of the same components and the products of the opposites of the other two components (so (ab)1 = a1b1 + a2b3 + a3b2). In my document, I called it a non-unital ring, but I just realised it's not that because the multiplication doesn't form a semigroup. Is there a name for this kind of algebraic structure? A non-unital ring minus the associativity in multiplication.
Yeah, should be the image of f. Image of S doesn't really make sense
(non-associative) algebra
A non-associative algebra (or distributive algebra) is an algebra over a field where the binary multiplication operation is not assumed to be associative. That is, an algebraic structure A is a non-associative algebra over a field K if it is a vector space over K and is equipped with a K-bilinear binary multiplication operation A × A → A which m...
Sorry to disturb you now, but keeping in mind of our yesterday's discussion, is this the definition of right cancellativity in this case or is it:
ax = bx => a=b for a,b in K and x in R?
I just want to make sure
Sorry yeah, the easiest def is that you can cancel x off the right side
Is the last part of |b|≤|a| and |a|≤|b| necessary? Since we have already showed bⁿ=e implying it has same order as a
you need to show that n is the least positive integer that satisfies b^x=e
Oh yeah, thanks 👍
Like 90% of shit pertaining to order has to do with making sure you don’t introduce a smaller n such that x^n = e
If by U(8) you mean the group of units modulo 8, this is wrong, because <1> = {1}, since 1 is the identity of U(8).
Remember we are multiplying in the group of units, not adding. The group of units is a group under multiplication.
oh thanks i thought we add
No, we do not add. 1 + 1 = 2 is not in U(8). 1 - 1 = 0 is not in U(8).
so U8 is not cyclic
You have not proved that yet.
Your argument was just wrong, it doesn't mean what you were trying to prove is false.
there is no number in U8 that from it we get back U8
OK prove it
ok i will try lets say by contradiction it is cyclic then there is <a> such that <a> = U8 uhh how to continue
i'm thinking about something to do with a^k
can't i say let's take 1 then we rise it for the power we don't get all of U8
this just shows <1> is not U8
what about <3>, <5> or <7> ?
you can't disprove an existence statement (the group being cyclic) with just one counterexample
Here are two approaches:
- Check every element of U(8) and show that no elements generate the whole group.
- Find some property of cyclic groups and show that U(8) does not have this property.
Hint for 2: a cyclic group has at most one element of order 2.
i would prefer proving for all 2, 4 p^k and 2p^k p odd prime, i wonder if the proof is illuminating
I think that may be a bit far out of Qais' reach

A logician suggested that when trying to prove Feit-Thompson using a machine proof checker, people discovered that "group theory" was really "group-subgroup theory".
Anyway, it makes you wonder: Would abstract algebra be clearer if the "right" category was - instead of let's say, Lie groups and fields - homogeneous spaces and field extensions?
In U8 the identity is 1 right for 3 it has the order 2 O(3) = 2 because 9mod8 = 1 so for 2 we can see this
but the problem ig in 5 beause it's order is also 2
so it's not cyclic
don't worry i think you can do it Qais, i would love to understand it together
No my brain is not braining
i will never reach a good lvl
I also think that, but think of a group like a space, group actions are really illuminating, in fact many things come from group actions
what we get from them
groups
Interesting. Because I was thinking "Really, commutative ring theory takes place in the category of commutative rings and ideals". But you're suggesting instead that it's about rings AND modules. Which is kind of obvious in hindsight, I suppose.
But then fields are really fields-and-vector-spaces.
But now I don't get what my point is...
The origin was trying to formalise the Feit-Thompson theorem. So, maybe it would be good to look up how other hard bits of algebra got done.
I couldn't comment on this entirely, but the theory of group schemes is perhaps one example. Instead of seeing an algebraic group as being merely a variety with a group structure, you can see it as a functor k-alg → Grp, which elucidates subgroups of an algebraic group defined over some field extension of k.
thanks i didn't know this
Prove that G contains either a normal Sylow p-soubgroup or a normal Sylow q-soubgroup.
I'm having trouble with the case where p^2 = 1 mod q and q =1 mod p
Heywood Jablome
You can do this with a direct counting argument:
If there are p^2 sylow q-subgroups, then ||you have p^2(q-1) = p^2q - p^2 elements of order q||
Then ||you have exactly p^2 elements not of order q, and that's enough for no more than one sylow p-subgroup||
the answer could be a^k such that k∈ 2N or a^j such that j∈ 3N
is what i said correct ?
No, the order cannot be (for example) k = 10000000 in 2N.
why i think a ^10000000 will go back to the identity
it should be a^k such that k∈ 6N ?
why
The definition of the order is not that a^n = e
it is the smallest n such that a^n = e.
yeah it is
So it should now be immediately obvious that if a^24 = e then the order of a cannot be 1000000000.
Or whatever enormous number is in 2N.
so it could be 24 is the order or something smaller
Prove it.
i can't
but for example the order could be a^2
2
the order of a is 2
but how to prove this i can't think about anything
Heywood Jablome
in the last equation LHS=0 mod |G:H| while RHS =1 mod |G:H|...
Am I missing something?
Not necessarily? That removal of a factor of |C_G(x)| might really mess things up, right
Ah no I see
the centralizers are divisors of |H|
Yes I should've read your setup
Ah yes you only have this equation for x in H, so you don't get the first sum
If this were true for every x in G you would indeed have a contradiction
thanks, so that's what I was missing.
well I can't really go anywhere from here. Any hints?
From this equation I'm getting |G|=1+n+something, where n is the number of orbits that intersect H
have you tried looking at the equation and assuming to contradiction that they share a prime factor p?
in particular if $p||H|$ then $p||G|$, but…
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
Whats the best way to think of an R-algebra?
As a quiver! (R is an algebraically closed field, your algebra is finite dimensional, and you only care about stuff up to Morita equivalence of course)
Oh yes of course
Let R be an algebraically closed field
Ig one could expect a "ring action on a ring" to be a homomorphism R → Rng(S, S)
But a rng endomorphism of S is just multiplying all of S by the same element in S
You may even let R be not algebraically closed if you loosen your definition of a quiver (and use a species instead)
In case R is not a field I vote monoid in the category of R-modules
(joking, but also not joking)
It seems like the further you go with algebra, even though you learn more abstract concepts, it actually seems to help in understanding all the concepts better
Is that true?
Category makes everything more understandable
I c
It seems like my first encounter with category theory will be later on with modules
Cuz im learning modules now and in dummit and foote theres a section that has something with functors
Indeed R-mod is a common place to start doing homological algebra
The study of Abelian categories ig (?)
An Abelian category is just a category where you have nice kernels, images, quotients, coproducts, etc
R-Mod is one (some) of them
I'd go as far as saying that homological algebra is the study of categories where homology makes sense (abelian categories, exact categories, triangulated categories), and the study of their homology and exact structure (exact sequences, conflations, distinguished triangles)
What is homology?
In an Abelian category, if the composition of g and f in A -f→ B -g→ C is 0, then the homology at B is ker(g)/im(f)
Intuitively it measures "obstruction"
E.g. if you take the chain of Abelian groups of k-forms on a manifold, under the exterior derivative
Ω0 → Ω1 → Ω2 → …
Then the homology at Ωn measures the failure of closed n-forms to be exact, which turns out to be obstructed by "holes" in the manifold
This homology (called the "de Rham cohomology") therefore counts "holes" in the manifold
Oh wow sounds cool
I need to see what a quiver is lol
Homological algebra is the study of stable oo-categories
I still don't see the contradiction.
Heywood Jablome
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from this equation what primes are allowed to divide #G, #H, and [G:H]?
just from basic divisibility rules
Every abelian category is just a bunch of R-mods stapled together with hot glue
Mitchell's embedding theorem is kinda sad man lmao
Like oh here's this cool generalisation of module categories.... could be realllllyyy willdddd... sike they're basically just module categories
I feel like this underestimates how much weirder a subcategory can be than it's ambient category.
Like finite groups are in fact more interesting than just Sn, even though they embed into them
You are right, I'm being facetious
I think the embedding theorem says less that Abelian categories are tame and more that module categories can be wild
or just complicated, I suppose
I mean tame and wild in an informal way
Module categories are often wild in a formal way as well 
Yeah... I regret my choice of words
One day every word in the English language will be made into math jargon
Then no one will be able to speak without making a bad pun
It shall be glorious
Hmm, makes me wonder. What are the abelian categories of interest that are not most naturaly thought of as subcategories of module categories?
There's sheaves, but are there any others?
I know in tau-tilting theory, wide subcategories often arises, that don't necessarily feel very much like module categories. But obviously they are naturally thought of as subcategories, as that's how they're defined.
hello if I have the following equivalence relations (defined by the partition classes):
{1, 2} {3, 4} {5, 6} ...
{1, 4} {2, 3} {5, 6} ...
then there is no supremum of the original relations with respect to inclusion if I require all the resulting partition classes to be of the same cardinality right?
idk this isn't really groups rings fields but it's in my algebra II class but I can move it
I'm unsure if I'm parsing your question correctly, but you're interested in the poset of equivalence relations were all equivalence classes have the same cardinality.
Then I agree they don't have a supremum, but there should be many minimal relations containing both.
yes that's it thank you, the original question I was doing was whether the poset formed a lattice so I wanted to make sure this counterexample worked
hodge structures, and commutative finite type gp schemes over a field and variations of that
For M an R-module that is annihilated by ideal I, it says we can make M into an R/I-module by setting (r+I)m = rm .
My question is, how is this well defined? When r+I = s+I, does rm really equal sm in the R-module?
Oh nevermind all good i think
Cause if r+I = s+I then r-s is in I which means (r-s)m = 0 so rm = sm
Viewing klein 4 group as a vector space over Z/2Z … the basis would just be {(0,1),(1,0)}?
I did a group theory question that the solution somehow involved using that vector space perspective. I forget what the question was about
a fancy way to do this: you can check that providing M with the scalar multiplicatino from R is the same as giving a map R -> End_Z(M) where on the right i mean the ring of group homomorphisms from M to itself
Then this is just factoring that through the ideal I, since it lies in the kernel
Yes
Yes that's right
One could even say that V = F_2 (+) F_2
I already asked this the other day, but I'm still having some trouble with it:
Let $S$ be a finite semigroup such that, for all $s,t \in S$ we have: $(s^\omega t^\omega)^{\omega + 1} = s^\omega t^\omega$. How do you prove that for any 3 idempotents $a,b,c$ of $S$: $(abc)^{\omega + 1} = abc$?
Eduude
Suppose a,b in G have odd order respectively. Then a² and b² commute iff a and b commute
I would like to verify that in general, one can prove that regardless of order of a or b, if a and b commute then a² and b² commute as well
But the other way around is true only for odd order right?
Yes
In general you cannot conclude that if a^2 and b^2 commute then a and b commute. N.b. this is not equivalent to a, b being odd order but this is sufficient.
Alright, thanks
for example note that elements of order 2 would always be in the centre [i.e. commute with everything] if this were true
which is very far from being the case
True
why doesn't the definition of a ring homomorphism include $\varphi (0)=0$?
lazynjnja
That follows from the first condition
Here's my proof (ab = ba <=> a²b² = b²a²)
Is there any shorter/other way of proving this?
Yes. Let 2k-1 be the lcm of the orders of a and b. Then a = a^2k and b = b^2k commute since they are powers of commuting elements.
Neat, thanks!
“A has four distinct C-algebra structures” is just the same as saying there are four distinct ring homomorphisms from C into A?
Four distinct ring homomorphisms from C into Z(A), but yes I believe that's right
How do i show the only ring homomorphisms from C to C is identity and complex conjugation?
If im not mistaken?
do you mean ring automorphism?
Oh i guess
Well this isn't true iff choice holds (I assumed you meant automorphisms)
What are all the homomorphism?
I don't think there's any easy description of those.
Idk why i thought it was simple. I thought cause C is a field then it would be easy
Since kernel can only be 0 or C
Do you know any Galois theory? You should know already that just determining the group of automorphisms of a field can be hard.
Well let it just be known that it's not easy.
I wanted to say these are the same but then I remembered C embeds properly as a subring of itself
In infinitely many ways, even
I don't think there's any description, since it depends on choice
Can someone give me an example of one
In the absence of choice it is consistent that C only has 2 automorphisms
That's impossible, because of what I just said
What does this mean?
Ok yea i have no idea what yall are talking about
It means that you can construct a model of set theory without choice in which Aut(C) only has conjugation and identity as elements
This means that you can't describe another automorphism of C without using the axiom of choice
And using choice is inherently nonconstructive, so I literally cannot give you an example
Just say that one exists
And tell you how to show it exists
To show the identity element of the permutation matrix always has even number of transpositions.
Now if e = b_1....b_n then we need to prove that n is even.
We know that n≠1 then it is not possible and n=2, then it is trivial.
Let n>2, then they hint that there are three cases such that last rightmost entries b_(n-1)b_n maybe
(ab)(ab)
(ac)(ab) = (ab)(bc)
(bc)(ad) = (ab)(ac)
(cd)(ab) = (ab)(cd)
If the first case occurs then e=b_1...b_(n-2) then by the second principal of mathematical induction n-2 is even.
But now I am not sure about the left three cases.
So if one of them occurs then we can replace the rightmost entries for example if (cd)(ab) is b_(n-1)b_n entries then we replace it by (ab)(cd), continuously we are doing this and after some point we get b_1...(ab)(ab)...(cd) then it length reduced to n-2.
But if we don't get this condition that means a does not fix so it contradicts that b_1...b_n is identity element
Is it correct?
I think there is some mistake in my argument
In dummit and foote it says that C x C has 4 distinct C-algebra structures
Is A a ring? If so I would say this is correct. If A is for example a complex vector space I would think they meant something else
Here's a few fun ones:
Pick a transcendence basis {xi} of C over Q (a maximal set of algebraically independent elements). Then C is the algebraic closure of F = Q({xi}), and any automorphism of F induces an automorphism of C. For example, any permutation of the xi.
Another:
Let X be the set of primes, let U be a non-principal ultrafilter on X, and let Fp denote the algebraic closure of the field with p elements.
Define R = Prod_p Fp and let I be the ideal generated by elements supported on sets not in U. Then R/I is a characteristic 0 algebraically closed field of cardinality continuum, hence isomorphic to C. Applying the Frobenius automorphism on each factor gives an automorphism of R which induces an automorphism of R/I = C
the first one uses axiom of choice to ensure the existence of a transcendence basis, and you might need some form of choice to extend automorphism to normal extensions
The second uses the existence of non-principal ultrafilters, but perhaps more importantly the fact that all algebraically closed field of the same characteristic and transcendence degree are isomorphic
Is there some more context to this?
Like if CxC considered as a vector space, ring, abelian group, something else?
How are they defining C-algebra structure precisely?
Does distinct mean "up to isomorphism"?
My guess would be that CxC is a vector space, "algebra structure" means associative algebra not necessarily unital, and distinct means up to isomorphism.
Because in that case there are 4
The second is equivalent to a weaker form of choice
Idt dummit and foote does nonunital stuff
Maybe i'm mistaken tho
Why would it not be unital? If the embedding of C is correct then the image of the unit of C will be a unit
I'm just trying to guess what definition they're using to make the answer 4
I see that
For unital algebras there are only two 2d ones
Are they defining "algebra structure" as ring with embedding of C into center?
I can only imagine so
But I agree with you, this seems to be saying that C x C is a C-vector space
and only then asking about algebra structures which respect that structure
If only there was context 😢
Btw, how did you figure out there are only four 2d associative unital complex algebras?
Is there some trick to that or did you just happen to know that
I'm trying to see how one might get there. We'd have to look at a basis {1, x} with structure constants a, b with x^2 = a + bx and then somehow get this into some normal form
I just looked it up
Oh, no that I just considered basis {1, x} and x satisfies a degree 2 polynomial
So either repeated roots or not
Ah I see, they're isomorphic according to their roots. Nice
Giving either CxC or C[x]/x^2
Yeah I see that
After looking up the context, CxC is the ring. And "has four distinct C-algebra structures" means at least 4, not exactly 4.
And structures are not counted up to isomorphism.

Hi, may I ask which channel should Haar measure stuff go?
I guess it depends what you are asking about it
There are measure theoretic things, groupy things, and even functional analysis things for some proofs
Not really sure what this means
The four distinct ones are the fp,q’s the question is talking about right?
What else is there
Which question? I tried scrolling up but no mention of any "fp,q's".
I'm trying to show that x^2+y^2+x^2y^2 is irreducible in C[x,y]. What's the standard brute force strategy to show this? I tried splitting it up into two factors to derive a contradiction, but I'm unsure which choice of factors will be satisfying. If I choose something like (p(x)y+y)(q(x)y+y), say, I'm missing some x^2.
I am going through its construction
Maybe measure-theoretic?
#real-complex-analysis or #advanced-analysis ? @south patrol
Ah, thanks!
npp
mb
Well go mod x and mod y. You can check that it can't factro as x^2 * 1 mod y, etc, so you wind up with like
(x+Ay+xyp(x,y))(x+(1/A)y + xyq(x,y))
but this is ||x^2y^2 p(x,y)q(x,y) + [stuff of strictly lower degree]||
so ||p(x,y)q(x,y)=1 which means both are constant, so we have (x+Ay+xyB)(x+(1/A)y+(1/B)xy)||
and then expanding out it's clear
@topaz gale
Worked it out, the contradiction is clear with the constants (in C). The first equation was enough for me to solve it; thanks a ton @south patrol!
np!
If you really want to not think abuot it then you can just write as like sum of a_{i,j}x^i y^j and go up the degrees lol
lol yeah, I'll remember that trick!
t1(z) = z, t2(z) = z bar
fp,q(z) = (tp(z), tq(z))
Anyone?
Well, you could take any of the fpq's and compose with an automorphism of C for example
Yeah i think the missing piece here is how apparently there are many automorphisms of C i didnt know about, but i also think that is above the material that is in dummit and foote at the point im at rn
Hi, I just got the book sphere packing and lattices by Conway and Sloane because I was interested in E8 lattices and leech lattices. I was wondering what are the prereqs to learning lattice theory and sphere packing in general? Thanks
Is there any reason why in a sufficiently well-behaved topological group G, the Borel subgroup B is somehow the largest non-compact subgroup, and G/B is compact?
A Borel subgroup is defined as a maximal connected+solvable subgroup. The correspondence between group notions and topological notions is interesting.
P contains maximal connected+solvable B :: G/P is compact
I don't have an intuition for why. And I don't know what general picture this might be alluding to.
I suppose this has something to do with the Levi decomposition, or Jordan decomposition. Though I can't make precise what the connections are.
It seems that
semisimple :: compact
and
solvable :: non-compact
except, of course, that semisimple groups are never compact over the complex numbers. They do though contain a Zariski dense compact subgroup.
G/B is something you get when you keep quotienting by Abelian subgroups right 
It's a coset space. But I guess.
Connected abelian subgroups.
Non-connected would eventually give you the trivial group.
I edited to add connected.
They should be (Zariski-)closed as well.
So they're algebraic groups? 
According to Wiki, yeah. It doesn't mention topological groups.
Apologies if this is not the appropriate channel, can anyone recommend me a resource which exemplifies applying the Todd Coxeter algorithm for calculating the order of a group? Preferrably with coset tables.
I couldn't find anything for the life of me, thanks!
maybe Artin's abstract algebra book?
I'm gonna try, thanks!
This is what I need to apply it on:
I found one in Presentation of Groups, D.L. Johnson
His explanation is kind of rushed though
Can you make any abelian group into an R-module for any R? Might be a silly question but im having a hard time seeing the connection
I know that you can make any abelian group into a Z-module … and the same abelian group can have many different R-module structures (F[x] module example)
But i dont know if for some random group and any R, you can put an R-module structure on it
I was thinking about this because i was looking at the example with if px = 0 for a prime p for all x in group, then u can make the group into a Z/pZ - module
Answer is probably no
No. there are some silly obstructions like every non-zero C-module has uncountable cardinality, so Z/2 can't be a C-module
But more seriously there are many other obstructions
Putting an R-module structure on an ab group M is the same as giving a ring homomorphism R -> End_Z(M) where the RHS is ring of endmorphisms (with multiplication given by composition)
So you can often find obstructions through that
i've been doing some exercises on coefficient rings and whenever i need to use the correspondence theorem, for me to find some homomorphism whose kernel is part of whatever ideal I'm working with, it usually boils down to finding some coefficients to then find some irreducible polynomial that generates the kernel
however im really confused as how im supposed to come up with these coefficients
like
in the second image, how am I supposed to come up with these coefficients? (x^2 and 3x + 1)
they kinda just pop out of nowhere
I don’t know that there’s really a given way to do it
Mostly feel I think
The ring Z[x] isn’t a PID so you aren’t guaranteed that the ideal has a single generator
Which leads me to think that it’ll be hard to describe a process that takes two of the generators and finds their like, gcd or whatever
well that's annoying
anyways thanks for the clarification
What book are these exercises from?
Algebra: Michael Artin 2011 Pearson Education
thank u
Anyone have a good explanation of the Recursion Theorem in Abstract Algebra? I am looking to apply it to the Factorial function.
Let $R$ be a ring, $S\subseteq R$ be a multiplicatively closed set, $f:R\to R_S$ be the canonical morphism (inclusion), and $J$ be an ideal of $R$. Let $f^: Ideals(R_S) \to Ideals(R)$ be defined by $f^(I)=f^{-1}(I)$.\
Prove that the following are equivalent:\
$J\in Im(f^*)$\
$J = f^{-1}(J\cdot R_S)$\
$s$ is not a zero divisor in $A/J$ for all $s\in S$
Casiel368
ii implies i is trivial, so I could start there
But i implies iii is too hard so I might prefer i implies ii first
I know that f* is injective but I have trouble using that
Is the map $V^*\otimes W \to \text{Hom}(V,W), \phi\otimes x \mapsto (v \mapsto \phi(v)x)$ injective for all vector space V,W?
eigenpuppet
In the infinite-dimensional case?
no
i only know why this specific map doesn't work though
i dont have any counterexamples in mind
im too weak
It should only surject onto maps of finite rank
yeah exactly
but in general ofc that doesn't prove that they are not isomorphic
u need an explicit counterexmaple for V and W
which i do not have in mind
I’m not sure how to show injectivity without choosing a basis
yeah u can see why intuitively it doesn't work
for infiite dim
ur isomoprhism is basically just the components
like yeah u
u need a good basis ig whatevers
i just sadly do not have like an explicit counterexample surely someone else does
Consider G/T where G is a linear algebraic group, and T is its maximal torus -- can we say anything about its properties as an algebraic variety?
Let G be a linear algebraic group. What can we say about its properties as an algebraic variety when:
- G is connected and solvable.
- G is connected and nilpotent.
- G is connected and abelian.
- G's maximal connected+solvable subgroup is trivial.
- G's maximal connected+nilpotent subgroup is trivial.
- G's maximal connected+abelian subgroup is trivial.
Property 4 is equivalent to it being a complete variety.
I'm asking because I'm wondering if there's a nice dictionary between algebraic geometry (or topology) on the one hand and properties of (algebraic) groups on the other hand.
@old spire it's better if you don't multipost
does anyone know the equivalents for non-commutative rings?
(english is behind slashes)
At least PID, UFD and integrally closed domains you can just add the word noncommutative in front.
thought as much hehe
I don't know if there are noncomm euclidian domains
I don't think they come up very often in the noncommutative setting though
To prove it, use the fact that H and K are normal subgroups, and H (intersection) K = {e}
||to get started, work around h1k1h2k2(h1h2k1k2)^-1 a bit||
How would unique factorization even work in a noncommutative ring? Usually uniqueness is only up to order, but if the irreducible factors don't commute, that wouldn't work.
You can still require uniqueness up to order.
But then surely this would mean that the primes commute?
So in fact everything would commute
No, like the fact that
ab = cd implies {a, b} = {c, d} does not imply that ab = ba
For example the composition factors of a module are unique up to ordering
But not all modules with the same composition factors are isomorphic
Ah I misinterpreted what you were saying. So you're actually saying that ab and ba may be distinct elements in general.
OK fine
I don't understand nilpotence yet. Can someone explain it intuitively ?
Well, it's a little similiar to order of an element in a group
recall, that order of $x$ is the smallest $n$ such that $x^n=1$
🇵🇸Mína🔆
but then, if for an element of a ring happens to exists an $n$ s.t. $x^n=0$, it's nilpotent
🇵🇸Mína🔆
(I think that they may be referring to nilpotent groups rather than nilpotent functions)
(Perhaps we can ask for clarification)
oh, prolly that,mb
Or who knows, it could be nilpotent Lie algebras, nilpotent ideals...
The idea in any case is x^n = 0.
But ^ and 0 might mean slightly different things
Point set Topology seems a lot easier to digest and understand compared to module theory for me
Trying to learn both rn
ooh nice document, name of book?
Compute the number of additive subgoups H of the field F_p^2 such that | H | = p
I found p+1 such subgroups, is that correct ?
OK thanks i struggled a bit ah ah
OK well there's a pretty straightforward way to do this.
This is really just choosing a 1d subspace of (F_p)^2. You choose a single generator, and this spans a 1d subspace. Yes, I meant (F_p)^2 since F_(p^2) is a 2d v.s. over F_p, so there's no difference.
Now wlog a generator may be chosen of the form (1, x) or (0, 1). These all produce distinct 1d subspaces and there are p+1 of them.
Yeah i did something like that, thanks
Good stuff
for the => direction u just rewrite phi(x, y)=phi(x, x)+phi(0, y-x)=phi(1, 1)^x+phi(0, 1)^(y-x)
and analogously for y
right
Hm idk why you're using multiplicative notation but sure
yeah if it's not there you get a semidirect product
which may not be a direct product
Okay, so let's say we have that R is a UFD. How would we show that R[x] is also a UFD?
Furthermore, this is gonna sound stupid, but suppose the quadratic F in R[x] is reducible. Can it only be decomposed as a product of linear factors?
The answer to my 2nd question is yes. UFD's are conveniently integral domains, which also implies that if F(x)=P(x)Q(x), the degree of P or Q can't be larger than F(x).
how does that follow?
Because the product of leading terms for non-constant polynomials will never be 0 since neither leading term was 0 in the first place.
Had nothing to do with UFDs really
I'm still stuck on my first question though
Suppose you have an ideal I and you know rad(I) is prime. Does this imply rad(I)=I?
I know that prime ideals are radical.
I think (p^2) would be a counter example
Shoot...you're right
all good 😛
So I'm working on 1.39 part a). And, I was able to show that (t) is an irreducible element, and somehow I think I can use that to show there is no non-trivial prime ideal Q contained in (t).
But... I'm having a hard time seeing how
I don't want the answer, but I'm a little confused how to construct $\overline f$. Wouldn't you lose information in the quotient map? Like if two things are mapped into the same equiv class, I'm not sure how you'd differentiate them for $\overline f$
Sara
The nice thing is the quotient map doesn’t destroy anything that isn’t already destroyed by f
OH bc the kernel is a subring right, if the difference of 2 elements is in the kernel, they're in it too, the equivalence classes are the kernel and one for everything else?
like per elem i mean
wait
its just an ideal i think
but still works
Yep exactly. And so each element in the image corresponds to a coset of the kernel.
tyty
Wanna follow up on this briefly so it doesn't get lost
Show that in a UFD a non-zero prime ideal contains a prime(using this on Q), then that prime being in (t) leads to things
Sure but these three given statements in the picture is equivalent to saying H and K are normal subgroups that generate G and that their intersection is ${e}$, which is sufficient to define the inner direct product and prove $\alpha$ is a homomorphism:
Let $a := h_1k_1h_2k_2(h_1h_2k_1k_2)^{-1}$
$\implies a = h_1k_1h_2k_2k_2^{-1}k_1^{-1}h_2^{-1}h_1^{-1} = h_1k_1h_2k_1^{-1}h_2^{-1}h_1^{-1}$
Now using associativity:
$a = h_1(k_1h_2k_1^{-1})h_2^{-1}h_1^{-1} = h_1k_1(h_2k_1^{-1}h_2^{-1})h_1^{-1}$
Using normality of H and K, we see that $a \in H \cap K$
$\implies h_1k_1h_2k_2(h_1h_2k_1k_2)^{-1} = e$
$\implies h_1k_1h_2k_2 = h_1h_2k_1k_2$
iceball
or sorry, (a-b) in I doesnt imply a in I or b in I, but if (a-b) in ker(f), f(a-b)=f(a)-f(b)=0. If a=b, this is fine bc a~a. But if a/=b, we only have f(a)=f(b), not necessarily zero right?
wait im like actually blind
if f(a)=f(b) then there's no distinct information to extract 😭
q(b)=[a], fbar([a])=f(a)=f(b)
So $\overline f([a])=f(a)$ works, injective is straightforward, just have to show uniqueness
Sara
I'm not sure why you'd do this. The commutativity is all that is all that is needed. All the long computations finally rely on the fact that elements of h and k commute with each other. The normality comes from the fact that hk=kh. Using normality to prove elements commute (k1h2=h2k1) is going in a circle when we are already given that hk=kh for all h,k
I do understand this is how to start the problem. But I'm having a hard time coming across the aforementioned things that result from it.
Say p is in Q then p is in (t) so there is r in R with p=rt, both p and t are prime and R is a UFD so this implies r is a unit so (p)=(t) which implies Q=(t)
Why does r being a unit imply (p)=(t)? That's the thing I'm not seeing
Also, silly question, but how do we know p is a prime element?
p=rt and t=r^{-1}p being multiples imply (p) is in (t) and (t) is in (p) so (t)=(p). If you need justification for that write out what the ideals (t) and (p) are
Yeah, I was able to cross that bridge if p is a prime element
We’re using this to get a prime in Q, that’s the p
I see. I misunderstood what you were saying the first time. I'll try that out now
I see. So, if we let q in Q, then since R is a UFD, we can write this as a product of powers of primes. Since Q is a prime ideal, you can iterate through to show that one of those powers of primes is in Q.
And in the end, one of those primes are in Q
yeah
That's very insightful. Thank you very much
Uniqueness is just $\overline f\circ q = f = g\circ q\implies (\overline f\circ q)(a)=(g\circ q)(a)$ for all $a\in R\implies \overline f([a])=g([a])$ for all $[a]\in R/\ker(f)$?
Sara
Of course, I'm just saying that it's equivalent to H and K being normal and their intersection is {e}. If it's given h and k commute (which is a consequence of normality because that's how inner direct product is defined usually) then yes it implies normality and you can continue with that.
I'm emphasizing on normality because such products are generalised using that condition, by just tweaking it a bit.
In inner direct product, H and K both have to be normal.
In inner semidirect product, any one of them has to be normal.
And so on.
What is the map that shows HomR(M,M) is an R-algebra?
Is it r in R maps to rI with I is identity map?
Yup
Thx
Non commutative algebra 
commutative algebra 
Non-commutative algebra is like non-spicy curry
Curry that may or may not have spice in it
I have maybe said the wrong statement
im a bit confused by this proof. the way you normally proceed from the second line (or at least what ive seen before) is that if $v=(a_1, ... , a_n)$ and $M = b \cdot 1_n - (c_{ij})$ then $Mv = 0$ so $det(M) = 0$ (i.e. $b$ is an eigenvalue of $(c_{ij})$). But the way it is written here to me seems like they are deducing $det(M)\cdot a_j = 0$ for each $j$ directly from the second line and then concluding that $det(M) = 0$.
wiita
Why in the definition of an R-algebra, we want f(R) to be in the center?
Bc this is what it means when every element of the algebra is an R-homomorphism
So ok just to use the language of fields here
This would mean that every element's action is R-linear
If the elements of R didn't commute with everything then this would fail
Every element is an R-homomorphism?
Im extreme beginner at this so i already got lost by thay
OK the action of* every element is a homomorphism of R-modules
So to make this precise
Boytjie
Yes cool i was just reviewing how R-algebra is an R-module so this seems more familiar to me so far
Boytjie
Here I am writing r.x instead of rx, as we might write for algebras over a field, because there is no guarantee that f is injective.
But either way it is the action of R upon A
What you wrote now seems way more promising for me to understand it, thank you. I will read now
Another way of seeing this:
- A ring is an Abelian group (Z-module) with a biadditive (Z-bilinear) operation on it.
- An R-algebra is an R-module with an R-bilinear operation on it.
(Ignoring units)
Corollary of course: a ring is a Z-algebra
Lambda_a is an R-module homomorphism from A to A?
So. In general, for A an R-module (and say A is also a ring), to make the map fa: A -> A fa(x)=ax (for some a in A) into an R-module homomorphism, we need the condition that fa(r.x) = a(r.x) = r.(ax) = r.fa(x)
If A is an R-algebra then define the action of R on A the usual way, with r.a = f(r)a, and now this condition there is satisfied
So we need that f(R) to be in centre
Ok…. Then Why do we care or want each a in A to have a module homomorphism associated with it
Because it's nice
Maybe you need to see some motivating examples for algebras. The classic one is the group algebra, whose modules are precisely group representations. Another one is an algebra of matrices. It should be clear why each element of these algebras should produce R-linear maps.
Hmm ok yea true probably if i see more examples id get a better idea. At least i think now i understand the technicalities of it better
Is the convention for multiplying cycles (written in cycle notation) the same as for function composition, ie factors on the left get applied after the ones on the right?
Actually, it shouldn't matter right? If all one ever ends up multiplying is disjoint cycles, and they commute, it's not a problem nevermind
No this is correct, but of course we don't always multiply disjoint cycles.
Unfortunately algebraists also tend to disagree on which way to write function composition.
This is the right way to do it but many people are wrong
So you should look at the context to see if a particular author writes right-to-left (like much of the rest of the world) or left-to-right
And lo, people have strong feelings on it...
Do I ping Wew & start a fight?
They're functions
Yes, and many authors write xf instead of f(x) and f o g : x |-> xfg
Hence they should should follow the common notation for composition of functions
I agree! Don't get me wrong!
But it must be mentioned that some people do it differently
NGL I've seen only arguments for why we should write xf instead of f(x)
I've never seen anyone actually do it
Isaacs does it in Character Theory of Finite Groups
There's another rep theory book that does it but I forget the name
James & Liebeck!
Haven't looked at that text ever
Weird bc that book is supposed to be more accessible to non-mathematicians
It's a good text they do some cool stuff
Do they much rip
Annoyingly often!
Tbh I had never seen anyone use composition etc the other way round but yesterday i saw smth cursed
I should say that this is the major disagreement that algebraists have. We're quite lucky – when logicians disagree... 
It's like uh say A is a ring and consider A' = End_A(A) [viewing A as a right A module], regard A as a left A' module and then view A as a right A'' = End_A'(A)-module
That made my brain hurt
Lol
Idk but it's very standard nowadays
Yeah
And elements of A'' uhh
Uhh
Idk how
Anyway I try to phrase it just sounds like A lol
Which needn't be true
The way I know it is like so
Let $A$ be a semisimple algebra, and $M$ a simple $A$-module. We will write $A_M$ for the ring of additive functions on $M$ generated by $A$, meaning $A_M = \build{m \mapsto am}{a \in A}$.
Let $D = \operatorname{End}_A(M)$. Then $\operatorname{End}_D(M) = A_M$.
Boytjie
This is Isaacs' Theorem 1.16
So it's saying that you don't gain any extra elements of A after double-centralising, but only considering elements of A as functions rather than true blue elements of A
so this might be a dumb question, but is there an efficient way to solve equations in monoids in general? in the group of the integers under addition, if we have x+2 = 4, it's immediate that we can do a right subtraction (x+2)-2 = (4)-2 and get x = 2, but in the monoid of the natural numbers there is no subtraction; although it's still trivial to solve x+2 = 4, i'm worried it isn't in general.
also, side question - is there a way to tell from the getgo if an equation in a monoid can be solved? of course the x+2 = 4 example can be solved in the natural numbers under addition, but x+4 = 2 cannot be, and once again it seems like a lot of monoids would have unsolvable equations in general.
I guess since your monoid lies inside a group, you can just solve it in the group and see if the result is not natural, but that's probably not what you want to hear
yeah, i was kind of hoping for something that helps solve when it isn't inside a group
I guess I'd focus on examples that aren't monoids inside groups for starters
when can a monoid be extended to a group
yeah lol it just occured to me that there MIGHT not be solvable monoids, i should probably find one first
well i guess all it would need is invertibility, and all groups are already monoids
I find this question weird, since I don't think you can write down equations that make sense in all monoids. And the equations are likely to be quite boring
yeah probably
ill get back to you when i think of an example, i guess it was kind of more a question of existence of unsolvable monoids
is there a "canonical" way of doing this? I mean without choosing a generator of G
I could show it is equal to Z/nZ where n is the order of a generator by choosing one and forming a projective resolution from it
You seem to be assuming G is cyclic or smth
But anyway you can use a certain long exact sequence
Namely ||0 -> Z -> C -exp -> C^x -> 0||
@rotund aurora
(Often a good idea whenever you see H^k of one thing iso to H^m of anothe)
You still need to show H^1(G,C) = 0, but that follows from some other facts you may have seen before and I can help if you'd like
on further investigation it actually looks like solutions to equations of that form ARE possible in general - i wrote up a little (probably terrible) proof for it using the category theoretic idea that monoids are given by functions under composition
that holds for any arrangement of functions of x (at least, when x is present once)
yeah idk why I assumed cyclic lol
also in this case, H^2(G, Z)=H^2(G^ab, Z) but is it a general fact?
this is zero essentially because C is torsion-free
H^1(G, Z) is zero
Not for every group