#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 246 of 1
Yea, that makes perfect sense.
Okay, so we'll say J is an ideal containing I.
So, let's take an element in J, call it a for old time's sake, and see what we can get from a+I.
Well, since R/I is a field, a+I has a mult. inverse, call it c+I.
Then, using the ideas from before, we have that ac-1 is in I.
However, from here this tells us that there is an i such that ac-1=i -> ac-i=1. But ac is in J and -i is in J, so this means 1 is in J
So J must be R
all correct, minor issue
you can't just take any a
a must be an element in J \ I
otherwise yes that's correct, so now you've shown that I is maximal iff R/I is a field
This was very helpful, thank you very much Spamakin
ok so back to this
can you show that k[x_1, ..., x_n] / (that ideal) is isomorphic to a field?
basically what was said here
Ah, that is the final goal of the problem in the book is to show it's isomorphic to k
Which would imply that that ideal is maximal through what we discussed
Okay hmm. So let's start with n=1, maybe that will help. Obviously, the point a_1 maps to I
I'm trying to figure that out tbh.
What about x maps to I(x)+I?
It's just variable confusion. I meant x in k.
Let K in k, then my idea is to map K to I(K)+I (I(K) is the set of poly's that vanish at K)
what is I
Oh yeah, I is our ideal
how can you map a single element to an ideal
you need to map elements of k[x] to elements of k
elements of k aren't ideals...
answer this first
you want a surjective map k[x] -> k with what kernel?
(think isomorphism theorems and what we want to show)
Well, if we're going iso, we definitely want I to map to 0 (I forgot k was a ring for a sec)
you want elements in (x - a) to map to zero yes
ok ok what do you need to do to define a k linear map k[x] -> k?
Sorry, I'm back. Umm, one thing we could do is sum the coefficients. I dunno if that plays well with what we're doing though.
answer this
or ok let me be more direct
what must constants in k be mapped to?
Oh, well, the natural thing would be to have them map to themselves
yea they have to
since you need 1 -> 1
and the map, call it f: k[x] -> k, has to satisfy f(k) = k * f(1)
ok so now all that's left is to decide where to map x, correct?
what do you want your kernel to be?
(think isomorphism theorems and what we want to show, that k[x] / (x - a) is a field)
Wait, one sec. Why does f(k)=k*f(1)?
well it has to be a k-linear map
linear over the field k
or I guess it doesn't have to be
Ah, okay I see. You pulled out the scalar
yes that's all I did
but ok lets say elements of k map to themselves
note this means that our map f: k[x] -> k is already surjective, a useful thing because again I want to use isomorphism theorems
so answer this
what do we want our kernel to be
and use that to decide what to map x to
since if we decide where to map x, and we decide where to map scalars, then we've completely determined our homomorphism f
It feels like it'd make sense to map x to a
why
I'm still trying to figure out a good reason for it...
what isomorphism theorem do you want to use
Probably first iso. We want k[x]->k to be a homomorphism. We already determined our map is surjective, so the map from the quotient field to k will be an isomorphism.
quotient of what by what will be isomorphic to k?
k[x]/(x-a) will be iso to k
yea since the kernel will be (x - a)
ok so overall what have we done
we defined a surjective homomorphism f: k[x] -> k by mapping scalars to themselves and x to a. This means ker(f) = (x - a). So like you said k[x] / (x - a) is now isomorphic to k
so what can we say about the ideal (x - a)?
Wait wait wait, have we shown it's a ring homomorphism yet? Or are we just saying f is one (whatever f may be)
So are we mapping x to a? You didn't really elaborate on that
yes
because to define a ring homomorphism k[x] -> k you just need to specify where scalars go and where x goes
since the homomorphism property then allows you to just map arbitrary polynomials
It's gonna be maximal
for example f(x^2 + 1) = f(x^2) + f(1) = f(x)^2 + f(1) = a^2 + 1
yup!
ok so now you've shown that (x - a) is maximal
do the n variable case
it's extremely similar
So follow up, did the choice of what x mapped to actually matter
I'll leave it to you
yes because we need kernal of f to be (x - a)
Yeah, the n case would be to map each x_i to a_i and leave the rest the same
Okay, that's what I was thinking too
Thank you again Spamakin, this has all been very helpful
which proof of quadratic reciprocity is the most intuitive?
i am having trouble understanding the motivation of the gauss sums one
I think the intuition is ||Gauss was just a literal wizard and did magic sorry||
Growing up is realizing that proofs need not be "intuitive"
eh I wouldn't say that
but it might not be worth your time to really drag yourself into a place of feeling intuition
Honestly, reciprocity is a magic, really
Otherwise we wouldn't have as much problem on it, I think?
Well, I only condone magic in so far as it is motivating to learn more about how it works, not as a way of giving up as something not being understandable
The point of the gauss sums one is that if p is an odd prime then the quadratic gauss sum g_p generates the unique quadratic subextension of Q(\zeta_p)
By standard facts about gauss sums this turns out to be $Q(\sqrt{p^})$ where $p^ = (-1)^{(p-1)/2}p$
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
then if q is another odd prime the galois group $Gal(F_q)$ acts on $Q(\zeta_p)$ by $\zeta_p \to \zeta_p^q$. This fixes the Gauss sum if and only if $q$ is in the unique index 2 normal subgroup of $Gal(Q(\zeta_p)/Q)$ if and only if q is a square mod p. On the other hand by Galois theory $Frob_q(\sqrt{p^}) = \sqrt{p^}$ mod q if and only if $p^*$ is a square mod q.
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
this is how I think about what’s going on with that proof of QR anyway
how did they go from $f(x)f(k)f(x^{-1})=f(k)$?
Shouldnt the simplification look like:
$f(x)f(k)f(x^{-1})=f(x)f(x^{-1})=e$
bathroom mug
yeah
Oh, and how do i prove the part that says any permutation sigma is the product of $i$ transpotions, with $i$ being unique upto parity? Im thinking i let n be the least number such that $x_1 x_2...x_n=\sigma$. Then any other sequence of transpositions $y_1 y_2...y_k$ that you can add on to $x_1 x_2...x_n$ such that $x_1 x_2...x_n y_1 ... y_k=\sigma$ will have to first take a number out of its place and put it back. Since every number will be moved an even number of times by $y_1 y_2...y_k$, the parity of n will be preserved, since n+2j = n mod 2.
bathroom mug
Any flaws with the argument?
One final question. How did they figure out that <(123)> ≤ S3 is the kernel of the sign homomorphism f(x)= (-1)^{i} where i is the number of "factors" of x?
Actually i can see why it makes sense. All elements in <(123)> require an even number of transpotions to achieve, and all the other elements of S3 require an odd number of transpotions to achieve, so it makes sense to map it to (-1)^i. But why is it that all permutations generated by <(123)> require an even number of transpositions to achieve, other than "it is true by computation"?
Product of two nonequal, nondisjoint transpositions is a 3-cycle
like (i j)(i k)
But also has even parity
You’re welcome
why must the red box be true? suppose we have
exp:(C,+) ---> (C,*) exp(z)=e^z
and consider the subgroup H= {x:x in R}. H is not contained within the kernel (in this case the set{0}) but it is mapped to the subgroup H'={e^x: x in R}
are you sure the kernel is {0}?
{2*pi*i*k, k in Z} is the kernel
so lets change the domain and range to (R,+) and (R,*), with exp(x) ---> e^x
point still holds, unless im missing something
i mean for nontrivial G, G itself is a subgroup of G, and it isnt contained within the kernel. yet G can be mapped to the subgroup f(G) of G'
maybe it means not containing the kernel?
~~thats impossible (subgroup must contain e which is in kernel) ~~ nvm, you said not containing the kernel
the aforementioned group also doesn’t contain the kernel
idk why they said this tbh, what book are you using?
these are lecture notes provided by mit. i think i should change sources because this is the second mistake im seeing on my first day of learning...
like subgroups of G are literally always mapped to subgroups of G’ by homomorphisms
wdym
in the example with C as the domains?
then H isn't mapped to by H', f^{-1}(H') will be larger than H (e.g. since it contains 2*pi*i)
oh mapped to by any subgroup of G’
I think they meant to say 'any subgroup not containing the kernel'. Now it sounds like they're saying it has to be contained in the kernel...
not containing the kernel seems right
because they show that ker(f) is contained in every such preimage f^{-1}(H')
yeah thats what i thought too
i think this might actually be helping me in learning because im having to verify everything written in here 😆
Yes, that is pretty intuitive to me!
But that way doesnt work with just any old cosets
Non normal coset
It does work in general
indeed this works for any equivalence relation
you only need a set theoretic map G -> G/H (or G/~ for a general relation)
@tardy hedge
Is there a way to see that the set of elements whose a-exponents and b-exponents both add to zero is the commutator subgroup of F2 (the free group generated by two elements a and b)?
or for example, how to write the example element a^7 b^(-5) a^(-10) b^5 a^3 as a product of commutators of F2?
oh yeaaah doing that in general doesn't necessarily have to do with kernels
@sage lodge the commutator subgroup is the kernel into the group’s abelianization, i.e the “most general” abelian group it maps into.
I.e if G maps into Abelian group H, then there is a map from G’s abelianization into H
Now. If the exponents of an element all sum to 0, then consider any Abelian group it maps into. Since the map allows the image to commute, all the powers of that element in the string will cancel out. So if this happens to every element in the string, then the string is sent to 0, I.e is in the kernel of that map into the Abelian group
And this happens for every abelian group the original group maps into, thus strings where the sum of powers of each element is 0 is in the kernel of every map into an abelian group
So therefore those special strings are in the commutator subgroup
But what I leave to you is showing those are the only elements in the commutator subgroup :3
(Assume the sum of powers for one element in the string ISN’T 0 but is in the commutator subgroup, what happens to it under a map into an abelian group?
but i dont see how just a set theoretic map tells us why non normal subgroups partition G
I'm trying to understand why this part follows
the preceding sentence makes sense to me
Well they are sent to the identity for every map into an abelian group
And quotienting out by the commutator subgroup sends it to an abelian group
so poof, they go to the identity and are in the commutator subgroup
ohh got it
You can also define the commutator subgroup to be the intersection of normal subgroups such that their quotient is abelian
A fairly explicit way to do this is that whenever you have a product multiplying by the commutator swaps them.
For example in your case if we multiply
a^7 b^-5 a^-10 b^5 a^3
by
b^-5 a^7 b^5 a^-7
we get
b^-5 a^-3 b^5 a^3
If you continue multiplying by commutators until you reach the identity, then what you started with is the inverse of what you multiplied by
oooooh that’s smart
wow
that's what I was trying to come up with
that makes so much sense
up to multiplying by commutators, we can just reorder the elements, so of course they will cancel out to the identity
Excuse my extremely shategoric way of doing things lol
also I realized I basically used the same thing jagr did to prove the reverse implication lol
So I could’ve started with that
If your want to prove it, I think your argument is nice. But if you actually want to know how this is a product of commutators, then you need a more concrete approach
But if you want to turn this into a proof you need some ugly induction
My first exposure to the commutator subgroup was when I was tasked with funding the intersection of all normal subgroups such that G/H is Abelian lol
That must take some fancy grantwriting.
Universal property of abeluanization 
what
Funding.
Wait my typo was unintentional
Funding for what?
The intersection of all normal subgroups such that G/H is abelian.
It’s easy
You made a typo in your original comment
I wish funding was easy
the fact that f is surjective is used in ensuring that f^-1(H') has a preimage. what is this revising the statement that they are talking about?
forgive the typos i am heavily intoxicated
I think the revision they have in mind is to replace H' subseteq G' by H' subseteq img(f).
ah okya thats actually written in the line above i thoight they had some other condiiton
also i think in the line above they shouldve said subgrups of G' not subgroups of H'
Yeah.
(That does makes it a bit strange that the author would tease the revision in a footnote and then without comment make that very revision in the prose following the formula ...)
OOOOH I see
Maybe because the authors were students
That would make sense.
abuelanization 
Tldr:
By definition the commutator subgroup, K, is the smallest normal subgroup containing all the commutators.
But let H be a normal subgroup, G/H be abelian, and h be the projection. Then for each a, b, h(ab) = h(ba), therefore h(ab)h(ba)^-1 = h(ab a^-1 b^-1) = e, ergo [a,b] is in H so H must contain all the commutators, and therefore must contain the commutator subgroup.
Thus the intersection of all normal subgroups such that ditto contains the commutator subgroup. However, the projection k for G into G/K is abelian for the same reason and thus must contain the intersection. Thus they are equal
How much of linear algebra is covered in abstract algebra again?
Everything
Like basic algebra by Jacobson, chapter 3,6,7 cover basically all basic stuffs in linear algebra as special cases
(Volume 1)
Is this also when taking a course on AA?
One might as well start at abstract algebra then 
How is it a special case? In what sense?
Like chapter 3, structure of finitely generated modules over PID, one special case is when the pid is F[x], so standard form in terms of similarity of matrices is just a special case of the result
Chapter 6, quadratic forms, similar, linear algebra just contains few special cases
You mean like Frobenius and Jordan normal forms?
Yeah things like that
Alright, thanks
So abstract algebra is very similar to linear algebra?
How should I understand the last part of this question? :"Find all subgroups of D_4 (dihedral group) and determine which one is normal. What are all the factor groups of D_4 up to isomorphism?"
I did not pay attention in class at some points so maybe this is where I missed.
factor group is a funny way to say quotient groups
so you're just working out what the normal subgroups and the corresponding quotients are
can someone remind me why S_2 = {id, (12) }
um
oh ok what about S_3
and why A_3 = {id,(123),(132)}
but (123) and (132) are not pairs
ok 1 goes to 2 but where does 2 go
according to (123) it goes to 3
but in the right side
we start from the number on the right ?
like 2 from the right

😭
oh i remembered something
like if we had (1234567) = (17)(16)(15)...(12)
thx
What is "up to isomorphism" in this question? I dont know what that means
Up to {equivalence relation} means that you will consider things related under that relation to be the same
you're just having to list which quotients appear, not necessarily how many times they appear distinctly
So e.g. despite there being infinitely many distinct groups of order 3, there is only one up to isomorphism
like in Z/2Z x Z/2Z the quotient Z/2Z appears in several different ways but they are all isomorphic as quotients
reading an article and this theorem has no proof, the book it uses as reference cant be found as a pdf
does anyone know a proof / a free place i can find it
Yes: the point is that if S is a finite cardinality n multiplicative subgroup of a field F, then (X^n - 1) has exactly n roots over F. But we know that amongst the roots of X^n - 1 is a primitive nth root of unity r (by the theory of cyclotomic polynomials) where r has exactly order n, thus S is cyclic and generated by r
In the special case that F is finite and S is F - {0} this gives your result, and alpha is the same as the r that I mentioned
To elaborate on the “theory of cyclotomic polynomials” part: because S is a finite abelian group there is an element e such that the order m of e is divisible by the order of all the other elements in the group. But then all elements of S satisfy X^m - 1, which is impossible by counting unless n = m
Alternatively: By the structure theorem, the multiplicative group F^× is a product of cyclic groups, and if F^× is not cyclic, there will be two of those factors whose order is a multiple of the same prime p. But then there will be at least p² solutions of x^p=1, which is not allowed in a field.
How is $(\mathbb{Q}_{> 0}, *)$ is a free $\mathbb{Z}$ module since say $2 \cdot \frac{1}{2} = 1$
Spamakin🎷
Right because I'd want to show the only torsion element is 1 since that's the identity of the underlying group
but haven't I just "shown" that 1/2 is torsion?
obv there's a hole in my logic but where
You seem to be getting confused by the difference between multiplicative and additive notation
How so? the underlying group is positive rationals under multiplication
the identity is 1, not 0
infact 0 isn't even in Q_{> 0}
2 * 1/2 does not mean apply the operation to 1/2 two times. That would be (1/2)^2
So for the question posted. I found 4 normal subgroups of D_4, let just denote as A,B,C,D. Am I good to just answer the last question as:" The factor groups are D_4/A, D_4/B, D_4/C, D_4/D " ?
yes but you should work out what those quotients actually are more explicitly
also assuming D_4 here is the dihedral group with 8 elements, you should have 6 normal subgroups
I guess you have found the 4 normal subgroups that aren't just 0 or D_4 itself
anyways one of these should have quotient the Klein four group Z/2Z x Z/2Z, the other three should have quotient Z/2Z
is there an error in their example?
I agree that J is equal to matrices that are 0 in the second column
but JM =\= J like he states
JM should be, matrices that have linearly dependent columns is that correct?
actually, idk if that is even a submodule so maybe I'm screwing up somewhere
anyway, JM should be JM as defined, set of am with a in J and m in M, but that can't possibly be equal to J
but it's a left ideal no?
JM = M here.
There's also the mistake that JM should be defined as the submodule generated by am, not just the set am
Mb sorry
I think in this example the set am works because it is a specific construct of a left ideal
I checked
Still doesn't work I'm pretty sure
this is the following
Yeah, it works because J is principal, but not in general
in general anyway
I see, I thought they were defining it. But they were just saying they were equal I guess
when I checked I used that r is in the center, but it is not
let me reset
okay maybe you are right, I'm not sure if the set of am is a submodule
and yeah, it really does equal M
well, that example has like 4 mistakes
not good!
Could someone find a mistake regarding my reasoning about projective linear groups?
So we know $PGL(n,F) = GL(n,F)/Z$ (where Z are nonzero multiples of the identity).
But we also know $PSL(n,F) = SL(n,F)/(Z \cap SL(n,F)$. However $SL(n,F)$ is normal in $GL(n,F)$, so by 2nd isomorphism theorem we should have also $PSL(n,F) \cong <SL(n,F),Z> / Z$. But isn't $<SL(n,F),Z> = GL(n,F)$, from which it would follow that always $PSL(n,F) = PGL(n,F)$? Where did I make a mistake?
Faputa
<SL(n, F), Z> doesn't necessarily equal GL(n, F)
Like if F is the real numbers and n=2, then the first only consists of matrices with positive determinant
In general <SL(n, F), Z> will consist of those matrices with determinant an nth power in F
Ahhh! Okay thank you that makes sense
I proved that finitely generated implies the chain thing, how would I prove the chain thing implies finitely generated?
Say M = (m1, m2, m3, ...) and consider
Ai = (m1, m2, ..., mi)
(m1, m2, m3, ...) goes on how long?
Long enough to generate M. I guess this only works if M is at most countably generated though...
yes
I considered stuff like well-ordering, but then you are no longer a limit of finitely generated so it wouldn't work
but if you are past countable land, A_kappa for a cardinal kappa no longer is (necessarily) finitely generated either, no? how can it work?
So M is the union of A_i, since the union of proper submodules is proper, A_kappa = M. By reordering finitely many elements we may take kappa to be a limit ordinal. But then A_kappa is the union of A_i : i<kappa
Rinse & repeat
hmm, I get the idea
though this book doesn't even cover transfinite induction until 50 pages later, and even then I doubt the book incorporates a fact like "decreasing sequence of ordinals terminate"
tbh I've seen enough mistakes from the book that maybe this is the solution
just can't think of anything that doesn't use AoC
It's weirdly worded that the problem defined a "chain" as an arbitrary totally ordered family that explicitly doesn't have to agree with an ordering of the index set -- but then suddenly jumps to speaking about "every ascending chain" as if that is to be understood as a special kind of chains.
well, it is ascending in terms of inclusion, I don't think the index set has any structure here
But would it mean anything different just to speak about "every chain of proper submodules"?
nope
or
it wants to talk about a situation like A_i_1 cc A_i_2 cc ...
I guess, if it was descending, then it is automatic
But saying "i_1, i_2 ..." there would seem to refer to an assumed structure on I, right?
no, I'm just looking at a subfamily of the (A_i) where we have a minimal element, call it A_i_1
and the rest of the subfamily also has a minimal element
call it A_i_2
is this not a legitimate thing?
well, I don't think it matters and (I believe) you are right, you could talk about any chain here
oh, I don't think minimal works here, call it minimum
or least
Okay, so I have questions about the last paragraph of this proof. By bringing the degree lower, i do understand that difference is in I'.
However, why do we choose to subtract the Q_i F_i's in the first and the Q_j F_mj's in the 2nd.
Doesn't the F_i one accomplish the goal in both cases?
you want to cancel out the leading term in G, if the leading term has degree less than N, it may have degree that is smaller than the degree of some F_i (this is how N was chosen)
and that F_i cannot contribute to the linear combination, because multiplying by a Q_i can raise degree but not lower
and since you may need to use the leading coefficient of F_i to match the leading coefficient of G's leading term, you are in trouble
Ah, i see. And N being larger than the degree of all of them makes the first case when deg(G)>N possible. That makes sense now. Thank you
Got some time again 🙂 I am working on an exercise to show that the free group on a finite set of n elements is isomorphic to the coproduct Z^n. And the exercise mentions to just look at the universal properties. I have also checked a solution that just says oh this and this commutes and done. But I am missing something in that reasoning. Can someone check this for me?
I have already showed that Z is the free group on singleton.
Yeah, the argument is often a bit poorly explained
How do i go from gamma_k(1) = psi phi_k(1) to gamma_k = psi phi_k?
The coproduct X is defined by its universal property. So once you showed the free group over a finite set Y has the same universal property you can then do the following:
You get a unique map X to Y commuting with the inclusion maps. And switching places you get an unique map Y to X commuting with the inclusions
Call these maps f and g, then g o f : X -> X is a map that commuted with the inclusions into X. But the universal property says such a map is unique
Notice then, that the identity also commutes with the inclusion. So g o f must be the identity. Same in reverse and you get that f and g are actually isomorphisms
Ok let me check if my proof follows it
I just saw that I use Z^n for the coproduct but that also works in Ab. Is \amalg^n Z notation used for such a coproduct? or \sum^n Z?
$\amalg$
Kerr
Yeah that
ok. Ah there is just a bigger \coprod
To throw in my own question: If I know that if B is a finitely generated A-algebra and $B \otimes_A S^{-1}A$ is finitely generated as a module, can I say the same about B?
Kerr
In this case S is just one set, say the right hand side is the fraction field if A is integral
Oh I get what you mean now. Problem is I haven't show yet that the free group has the same universal property as the coproduct
Well, do that then
That's usually the first thing you show after defining the free group over some generating set
That's where I am stuck on the second to last line
The solution I read just doesn't mention that part and says well they commute.
(Nvm, take A=Z and B=Q)
Let $R$ be a ring such that we either have $a^2 = 1$ for all $a \in R$ or there is some $n \geq 1$ such that $a^n = 0$ for all $a \in R$.
reach
Isn't R = {0} always? Since in the first case we have 0 = 0*0 = 1.
Yes, and in the other case you have 1 = 1^n = 0
I'm confused because i have three exercises to prove something about the group of units of R
Maybe? You'd have to draw out a different diagram afaik.
I want to note that the argument I laid out above works for any universal property, so I suggest maybe going that route. The argument shown does seem to make use of the universal property of a free group so you probably defined such
Are you sure the question isn't saying that a^2 = 1 for each unit in R then...?
Or perhaps that for all a either a^2 = 1 or a^n = 0
yeah this is my argument. The solution I saw went the same way but just says states that the diagram commutes and done...
Another solution just defines all morphisms and shows there is a unique morphism. It doesn't really use the universal property
ahhh yes that's what is meant for sure
@rocky cloak so for each a either a^2 = 1 or a^n = 0
Yes, so here you have examples like Z/2, Z/3, Z/2[x]/(x^2), Z/4
@rocky cloak I see, tyvm
Alright. I suggest you check that the free group fulfills the universal property of a coproduct given a Z for each x_i mapping 1 to x_i in F(X)
ok
Once you have verified that you can convince yourself that any two objects sharing the same universal property must be isomorphic. Emphasis on the specific universal property not being important here
yeah that part I have already proven earlier in general. Or that is by definition
Kind of, it might not be immediately obvious
Okay looking back at the image that's what you more or less what you tried
You might want to draw out the diagram sequentially. Given for x in X a map Z to F(X) consider a collection of maps into some G.
Aren't those the phi_k?
Then construct a map from X to G with these, then obtain the unique morphism from F(X) to G.
Then check it is compatible with the diagram of the Z. The uniqueness of the map follows the map from X into F(X) specified is unique, and then the induced map is unique
Yeah
It's a bit weird to write them with a dotted morphism, since you are basically starting with them
No. it's the unique morphisms from F({*}) ~= Z to F(X) by the universal property of F({*})
Yes, but you want to show that F(X) has the universal property of the coproduct
So you start with maps Z into F(X) and then extend that diagram into the free group diagram
I mean, sure
Oh like that. Ok let me try that
That's where you got those maps into F(X) in the first place, but you still try to use the X, {x_k} and so on as "scaffolding"
This is the solution I found online. For F({x, y}) isomorphic to Z * Z
It also shows g is forced by the diagram but then it really quickly shows psi is unique sucht that the above morphisms commute
I don't get how he concludes "Then we have a unique homomorphosm ..."
I figured this is faster
I love my convoluted glued together diagrams, but I am not sure it adds much in this case
@wraith swan does this work for you?
I'm trying to understand what you did different than what I did. Thank you for working this out for me.
Oh I see it now. Thank you Kerr.
Mostly just explicitly checking in the end. beta(x_i) = alpha_i(1) is just stating that the diagram below commutes
But the universal property already said that alpha is the unique map making it commute. So alpha=beta
Maybe? I can't honestly tell what that step was for
Hi, can somebody explain how this is a decision procedure for the word problem for a finitely generated free group F_n? It seems to me like it's only a decision procedure for the question "is the reduction of w trivial?"
A link to a better proof would also be fine
Two words v and w can be reduced to each other iff vw^-1 can be reduced to 1.
right but the above algorithm searches for an expression x_i*x_i^-1 in w though, is it missing the first step where it multiplies both sides by rhs^-1?
The point is that determining if a word is 1 is completely equivalent to determining if two words are equal. So which one you call "the word problem" is not particularly relevant. This is a solution to the former
well let's say you want to determine if xyz = xyz, the algorithm goes directly to step 3 because no subexpression of w contains a generator followed by its inverse, and it halts with the answer "no"
so I don't see how it is a solution
unless you first multiply on the right by the inverse of the rhs
So there's two different problems you might call "the word problem"
'Given v and w are they equal?'
'Given w does it equal 1?'
A solution to one immediately gives you a solution to the other, so solving either is sufficient. This is a solution to the second one.
If they explicitly said they were only considering the first problem, then this is a minor mistake yes
Right, so here they're only giving you the solution for the case g=1. But you can easily extrapolate the solutions for the other values of g.
Posted in #combinatorial-structures but I am not sure if it's perhaps better suited here since it's about basic group actions:
Consider the affine plane AG(2,3) (affine plane F^2, where F is the field GF(3)).
The group AGL(2,3) of affine transformations acts on AG(2,3).
A textbook I am reading claims that any quadrangle (set of 4 points, no 3 collinear) in AG(2,3) can be mapped to any other quadrangle under AGL(2,3).
How do we see this?
This is specific to the underlying field being F_3 in particular.
It is clear that we can (for any field) map any such set such that 3 of the points are (0,0), (0,1), (1,0).
So we only need to know that all quadrangles that contain those 3 points can be mapped to each other.
But there are not may possibilities there! Of the 9 points in the plane, 3 are already taken and 3 others are excluded by not allowing 3 collinear points. So there are only three places to put the third point, and two of those obviously give symmetric situations.
So all you really need is to show that {(0,0),(0,1),(1,0),(1,1)} and {(0,0),(0,1),(1,0),(1,2)} are affinely related.
Sorry to interrupt, but so Is this one of exceptional behavior of small fields?
You could say that, yes.
Maybe too trite/uninteresting of a phenomenon
Sorry just to clarify. Here you are saying that we can map any set of the form {(0,0),(0,1),(1,0),x} (where x is an arbitrary point not equal to the other three) to any other set of this form?
It's not like it's a crisply delineated concept anyway.
Yes, except "arbitrary point not equal to the other three" should also have "and not collinear with two of them".
But assuming the former is clear doesn't that immediatelly follow?
Here I was saying that an arbitrary quadrangle can be mapped to one of the special {(0,0),(0,1),(1,0),x} quadrangles. Next I'm arguing that the special ones can be mapped to each other.
Ah okay. Then I agree with the first fact that we can map any quadrangle to one of the special ones (I guess the idea is, that we can map any two linearly independent vectors to another pair of linearly independent vectors, meaning we can make the two sides of a quadrangle parallel with x,y axis and then just add a translation so the corner is actually at the origin?)
Let G = Z_12, H=<4>. The factor group G/H is isomorphic to the groups Z_4 and rotationccw. Specifically and generally, how do we find groups to which a factor group is isomorphic? Any handy tool or theorem used?
Yes.
In the case there's the general fact that quotients of a cyclic group is always cyclic.
Yes this one is understandable to me
But there's no general procedure -- in fact, for many important groups the nicest description of them we have is as such-and-such quotient.
So being able to find something even nicer that the quotient is isomorphic to is the exception rather than the rule.
For example: D_4{(1), r^2} is isomorphic to the Klein 4-group. How do we work it out typically? Or just such and such quotient?
Assume that E is an algebraic extension of F, so that $E\neq F$. Then E's degree over F is larger than 1.
tomer_k
Yup
tomer_k
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Elements
thank you, obliged
This gets interpreted as \inF not \in F btw, that's why there is an error (if you were wondering)
thank you i was
I have a multipart question I would like to solve. Let $G = PGL(2,5), H = PSL(2,5)$.
First part asks you to show that the equivalence class of the matrix [1,0 ; 0 -1] from G is also in H. I managed to do that.
Faputa
Second part asks to find a Sylow subgroup P of H that contains this matrix.
Now since $|PSL(2,5)| = 60 = 2^2 3 5$ it suffices to find a group of order 3 that contains it.
I think the group in question is simply the one consisting of the identity, the matrix [1, 0 ; 0,-1] and [-1, 0 ; 0, 1].
Faputa
I get stuck on the third part which asks to show, that the normalizer $N_H(P) \neq P$. I have no idea how to approach it
Faputa
[1, 0; 0, -1] has order 2, so you want to find a subgroup of order 4. Also the two matrices you've listed are the same element in G
... of course how could I miss that... Thank you
Then perhaps... [1 0; 0 1], [1 0; 0 -1], [0 1; 1 0], [0 -1; 1 0] as a subgroup of order 4 (Sylow 2-subgroup then)
But the third part is still unclear
Perhaps by trial and error to find an element x not in P such that x^(-1) P x is in P..
Ah [2 0; 0 3] seems to do the trick
That's not a subgroup: [01;10] [1 0; 0 -1] [01;10] = [-1 0; 0 1].
Wait, we're in PGL? Then ignore me.
The following question asks how many Sylow 2-subgroups PSL(2,5) has.
From Sylow theorems I get that the possible number is 1,3,5 or 15. Now it can't be one because PSL(2,5) is simple, but Im not sure how to rule out the remaining possibilities
Can you learn something by counting elements of order 2?
The action on the sylow subgroups defines a homomorphism to Sn, so since 60 doesn't divide 3! It can't be 3 either
try looking at other primes maybe? there are 1, 4 or 10 sylow-3s, and 1 or 6 sylow-5s. since 60 > 4! it can't be <= 4. so 10 sylow-3 and 6 sylow-5.
so this means there are 20 elements of order 3 and 24 elements of order 5. That leaves us with 16 elements to play with.
worst case scenario, realize that A_5 is the unique simple of order 60. and look at all order 2 permutations
It's still a little tricky, because you have account for how the sylow subgroups might intersect each other
hmm
Thought I guess if it's been 5 and 15, that difference is quite noticable anyway
5! is 120
But I agree it can't be 5
You just have to rule out it being the alternating group then
Which you can probably do by counting orders of elements or some shit
Real
No wait, I don't
it is the alternating group tho
Chad
yea unique simple of order 60
Is PSL(2,5)=PSL_2(F_5) lol
That is what it is
C'est la vive
If I count correctly, there are 10 elements of order 2. That's just enough to make 15 copies of V_4 if they all commute.
there should be an odd number of elements of order 2
I count 15
Hmm, wonder what I did wrong there.
It is 5 I think
i solved it with a different approach. By using PSL(2,5) = A5, where we know how groups of order 4 look like
Idk, but my count is
(ab)(cd)(e) = 5!
divided by swapping ab, swapping cd or swapping the two transpositions gives 5!/8 = 15
Hm did I mess up?
idts
But... The next (and last) subexercise in this is "Prove PSL(2,5) is isomorphic to A5" so this isnt how its meant to be solved
Oh, I was actually trying to count matrices modulo 5 :-)
I thought V4 in A5 are of form: {1,(ab)(cd), (ac)(bd), (ad)(bc)} and there are 5 choose 4 choices for that
But... it seems there has to be another way of seeing so. Perhaps using the previous exercise (that the normalizer of P is not equal to P for that one specific Sylow 2-group?)
Yeah, it's quite natural to go the other way. Ones you know it has 5 sylow subgroups, then the action gives you an isomorphism with A5
Oh right, ||the index of the normalizer is the number of subgroups||, so it can't be 15
Then only 5 remains
Ahh I didn't know that
why can't the normalizer be the sylow-2 itself?
The previous exercise was to prove that this doesn't happen for one of the Sylow 2 subgroups
It comes from the normalizer being the stabilizer when your group acts on the sylow subgroups
Okay I will digest this all. Thank you all :)
OK, counting more carefully does give me 15 elements of order 2 in PSL(2,5) too.
Yup
Can someone give me a hint for 1.11? There doesn't seem to be enough information to prove that each conjugacy class has one element
It's a fact that $|C(g)| = {|G| \over |C_G(g)|}$ where $C(g)$ is the conjugacy class, and $C_G(g)$ the centraliser of $g$.
Edward II
Yes i know, but I don't have info about the size of G
Also having trouble computing the size of the centralizers
I know there are at least r elements in the centralizers of each g_i
Not much more than that though
you also know the exact size of one of the conjugacy classes
Oh yeah it's 1
and that each element of G is in some conjugacy class
and this gives an upper bound for the size of the other conjugacy classes
In terms of the size of G
In terms of |G| and r.
It sounds crazy, but try to derive an upper bound for the size of G in terms of |G| and r ...
I got that's it less than r squared times its size
Uh, no. What was your upper bound for each conjugacy class?
... technically true though can't see the issue
It's |G|*1/r
Eyup. So the upper bound on |G| we get out of this is?
I got that the order of G is r
We'll need to conclude that eventually if G is to be abelian, but how did you get it just now?
Just some basic algebra gave me that order of g is at most r
It's also at least r
Because r different classes are assumed
So it's r
Since the classes partition G each must have size 1
The class formula gives us that the order of the center of the group is r
you don't even need the class formula because here you essentially found that g1, ..., gr are all the elements of G, and it's given they all commute
"Just some basic algebra" does not fill me with confidence, but if you're happy, I suppose that's as far as we'll get.
One question about this: The homomorphism in action is G acting on the set of Sylow 2-subgroups by conjugation right? But do we know if this action is faithful?
If the action wasn't faithful, it would have a nontrivial kernel -- but you know already that G is simple.
Well, you said you knew it was simple
Ahhh right... Yes yes
Determine $\text{Aut } \mathbb{Q}[\sqrt2]$.
a.b.s._.0.
i'm trying to do this problem
first we did a lemma showing that Aut Q is trivial
so now i'm thinking, if i have an automorphism of Q[sqrt2], it surely fixes Q, right?
Yes, you should be able to argue that in the same way as in the lemma
ok
but now I don't understand what to do with sqrt2
seems independent in some sense
I feel like I should be looking for linear maps of Q[sqrt2] as a vector space which fix the Q axis
does that make any sense
Yes, that's absolutely correct
once I decide where sqrt2 goes, then we're done
i can't send it to any rational number
Indeed
One important observation is that (sqrt2)^2 is rational
And an automorphism would have f((sqrt2)^2) = f(sqrt2)^2
T(sqrt2 * sqrt2) = T(sqrt2)^2 = T(2) = 2
oh shit
so then T(sqrt2) = sqrt(2)
so it fixes it?
wait
Well, maybe.
no
did i fuck it up lol
All you know is that T(sqrt2)^2 = 2
ok
you could also have T(\sqrt{2})=-\sqrt{2}
those are the only two possibilities, your automorphism group is Z/2Z
yeah it's very similar to the automorphisms of C fixing R, the identity or complex conjugation
i'm curious how this would work for Q(sqrt2, sqrt3) though
you're either fixing \sqrt{2} or conjugating it
It works quite similarly
it seems like, if the only rule is that Q is fixed
you could swap sqrt2 and sqrt3 as basis vectors
and then also conjugation
it's similar, such an automorphism would be determined by where it sends \sqrt{2} (either to \sqrt{2} or -\sqrt{2}) and where it sends \sqrt{3} (either to \sqrt{3} or -\sqrt{3})
so the automorphism group is Z/2Z x Z/2Z
hmm, what about Q(cbrt2) then
oh wait
isn't that 3 automorphisms
cuz you can send cbrt2 to the other roots of unity
am i tripping
wait no hold on
hm
err for the Galois closure that's right
if you adjoin the roots of x^3-2 to Q you get a 6-dimensional Q-vector space
so wouldn't it look like Q(cbrt2) = {a + bcbrt2 + c(cbrt2)^2}
yup
yeah
so then, intuitively, a linear automorphism fixing Q would then be determined by where it sends cbrt2 and (cbrt2)^2
right?
I mean in this case you don't really want to talk about the automorphism group
you really only want to talk about automorphism groups fixing Q when the extension is Galois
Notice T((cbrt2)^2) = T(cbrt2)^2, so really it's determined by where you map cbrt2
Just like before cbrt2 would have to map to another cube root of 2, so the question is how many of those are in Q(cbrt2)
ohh
man I gotta keep in mind it respects multiplication
I feel like you will miss out on the importance of Galois extensions if you never try to calculate the automorphism group of other extensions
that sounds like it makes sense
well, none right? because the other cube roots of 2 are imaginary
man
this is uncharted territory
it's kinda unintuitive to me
most group theory felt obvious or like I could intuit it in some way
but this is almost computational
another fun example is to compute the Galois group of Q adjoin n-th roots of unity (so adjoin all roots of x^n-1)
also good to work this out for finite fields
hmm
nth roots of unity are cyclic, right? so wherever the generator is sent determines the whole automorphism
the generator can be sent to any other generator
so I assume it's (Z/nZ)*...
Im confused on how I could prove this
@chilly ocean Can you find a group automorphism that is trivial in an abelian group ?
Automorphism is an isomorphic mapping of a group to itself right?
what the hell does this mean
sorry
Sorry, maybe this was important. I was learning about equivalence classes when this question came up, so I guess the author is talking about equivalence classes here
In the book, an equivalence relation is defined by $g' \sim g$ such that $g'=f^{-1}gf$. So if the group is abelian, we can write $g'=f^{-1}fg=g$ so that the equivalence relations that exist with g' are with itself and it exists in it's own class. Would this be a valid proof?
3.14 rate
Well, it’s an explanation, but not a rigorous proof
You want to say, let [g] be the equivalence class associated to g. Then blah blah blah, so [g] = {g}
How do you do this rigorously? You can say, suppose g’ in [g]. Then …, so …, hence g’ = g.
Therefore [g] is really only one element
Will the logic here work though?
It’s not worded very well
“the equivalence relations that exist with g’” doesn’t make sense
equivalence relations don’t exist with a particular element. I’m being pedantic, but if this is your proof, it’s not comprehensible enough
I'll write it down like this. thanks 
No, thanks for pointing it out. I'd have my marks cut if I was writing this down for an exam
yeah, what I said wasnt very precise on purpose but I can detail more
. when you have an automorphism you can form a quotient group related to the equivalence relation from the morphism
I like math texts that only e.g. define matrices after establishing that a data structure of that form would be useful to nail down linear maps. Can groups/rings/fields be handled similarly? That is, first we identify that precise concept falling out "in the wild", and then we go "Well, if we're going to have to study this pattern, we might as well name it."?
like, exponentiation by an integer, anything with cycles or permutations, symmetries of the plane, symmetries of polygons, RSA encryption, modular arithmetic, finding rational solutions on a curve (e.g., for classifying pythagorean triples) demonstrating the power of group theory, etc
I don't mean merely a list of examples before the definition - what might count is a problem statement to which the solution class is precisely the class of groups
One of the early historical motivations for both groups and fields were about permutation groups acting on the roots of polynomials. What we today call the Galois group of a polynomial.
So assuming you care about solutions to polynomial equations this motivates (number-)fields and (finite) groups
Can you get every (finite) group that way?
this doesn’t seem like the right perspective no matter the answer to this question
you can get every finite group as the symmetry group of some object i think
"Permutation groups acting on the roots of polynomials" seems too... late in the tech tree? to be the... "true address" of groups in Plato's idea-space
Yes, every finite group is the Galois group of some Galois extension (of number fields). But it's an open problem whether the base field can always be Q
that, on the other hand, sounds workable. does this theorem have a name?
cayleys theorem
something something cayley graphs
here is a link you might find useful
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3254492/can-all-groups-be-thought-of-as-the-symmetries-of-a-geometrical-object
"every group is isomorphic to a subgroup of a symmetric group" ...that sounds much less impressive
You can word things differently to make them more or less impressive if you like
i think you’re missing the point, geometric objects are defined by their symmetries, and taking a subgroup of the permutation group perfectly captures such a notion of a “group of symmetries”
I'm trying to get to the concept of group here without starting from it
okay, “what are geometric objects” then arrive at subgroups of permutation groups and then groups in general.
groups literally are geometry, i promise you’ll come to see that you don’t need this kind of question to realize that groups truly are platonic
If you take some examples of symmetry groups of, for example, polygons and polyhedra and write down common properties, the axioms of a group fall out quite naturally.
But after that you'd want to motivate groups as an abstraction of this idea.
3b1b has a video on this very topic
https://youtu.be/mH0oCDa74tE?si=fEgJ3uFJ0u0n6cCt
An introduction to group theory (Minor error corrections below)
Help fund future projects: https://www.patreon.com/3blue1brown
An equally valuable form of support is to simply share some of the videos.
Special thanks to these supporters: https://3b1b.co/monster-thanks
Timestamps:
0:00 - The size of the monster
0:50 - What is a group?
7:06 - Wh...
If that is true, it ought to be formalizable.
okay then go read about it, it’s already been formalized enough probably in the way that you’re asking. but you can’t really formalize the platonic realm through these questions.
How do you know? It sure would be convenient to formalize the platonic realm and finish what Leibniz started.
have fun with that
in the meantime i’m convinced that you’ll end up thinking that groups are platonic once you know more about groups. also, not to be confrontational or anything, but i’m not sure why you brought up matrices when matrices are not platonic.
i also said that in a confrontational way, but i really want you to know that i don’t mean any snark by it, i’m just a bit tired.
Why do you think matrices are not platonic? The data you need to nail down a linear map between vector-spaces-with-basis sure forms a matrix.
yeah but we only came up with matrices to describe the actual thing itself, which is the linear transformation, and when we didn’t understand those, we came up with matrices as a bookkeeping tool to specify that there is a unique linear map sending this (arbitrarily chosen) vector to this one, this (arbitrarily chosen) vector to this one, and so on, and ALSO in which each image was the specified linear combination of the arbitrarily chosen (by us) basis for the target vector space. the property that this data can be arranged into a square grid is the result of our clever bookkeeping and our careful study of the niceness of linear maps, and not the result of the fact that matrices somehow are the actual transformations themselves.
i might have misunderstood you if you really did mean linear map though
which is possible
What else might I have meant?
matrix
- Sure, matrices are merely a bookkeeping-reification of linear maps; I yet find it possible that groups will merely turn out to be the bookkeeping-reification of actions
- By platonic I mean ~"appears reasonably high up in the periodic table of math" - and "the canonical bookkeeping-reification" sounds like a fair concept to me
it’s not canonical
i don’t know whether i agree with you or not. i currently do believe these truly are the same
by that i mean groups and actions (to a certain extent)
maybe we mean slightly different things by canonical? consider the free-forgetful adjunction between Set and Vect. its hom-iso form directly says that the maps S->V correspond to the linear maps R^S->V
by canonical i meant that for a map V -> W the choice of matrix to represent transformations between them depends on a choice of isomorphism V -> R^n and W -> R^m
which you might tell me is bad but i think is important
by canonical I meant that if you try to get a bookkeeping-reification, you straightforwardly get the notion of matrix. maybe you mean that the choice of basis is not canonical? (but then surely you should also reject that every vector space has a basis at all)
You should reject that every vector space has a canonical basis yes
Alright, we seem to understand each other's position here. I claim that, for figuring out what the periodic table of math looks like, my notion of canonical is more appropriate than yours; agree?
no
but i think we can leave it here for now, i enjoy talking to platonists
but i’m very tired
so maybe later
yes, there's more than one basis; but if one grants that every vector space has a basis (which requires the axiom of choice), i claim one might then as well go ahead and choose a basis for every vector space
(hmm, i guess one might have a weaker axiom of choice which only applies to small sets, which is enough to choose a basis for one vector space, but not for each of them at the same time)
I empathize with you here. I know I gave up pretty early on that path myself, best I could really tell myself is that in some sense it's a study of symmetry itself, whatever that means.
Sure you can.
But I think I've lost the thread of what you are actually after. Like you want to build a periodic table of math based on a philosophical hierarchy?
Or are you after a more pedagogical route to learn algebra?
Sure, though the philosophy is instrumental. In other words, a language in which the short phrases correspond to the useful concepts. It's not about pedagogy, in fact "is this useful to recruit human neurons" is a useful question to find weeds that need removing.
The point is to thus become more able to fill in gaps and transfer results.
Allright, then I don't think I have much to contribute
What's a bookkeeping-reification
My archetypal example is that the matrices reify the linear maps.
Represent?
Yh what does reify mean
There may well be existing terms for what I mean! ^^
make an abstract thing more concrete
"Hilbert spaces can be _'d as the L2 functions on some measure space."
Doesn’t it have to be separable
Are groups _'d as permutation groups
hmm do matrices really reify linear maps? Similarly, I feel like laying coordinate lines down on a 2D plane doesn't reify it either.
maybe I'm using a different idea for 'reify' here
the plane was already real, we're just putting lines on it for convenience
No, it should work either way. But the measure space might be big
Oh well, if my word has failed to hone in on a neuron in each of y'all's heads, we can skip that; to recap the state of how answered my original question is: groups are to "automorphisms of an object" as rings/fields are to what?
Or endomorphism rings of objects in additive categories
Rings are rings in the language of rings 🤣
Right that
"groups are groupoids with one object" is the kind of answer that i think i might be able to formally rule out by going "that definition would let you define large groups; what definition would only let you define small groups?"
yeah this question should be answered in chapter 1 of any intro algebra book, but I don't think it ever is
Locally small groupoid with one object
as i would have thought goes without saying: your definition isn't allowed to say "small", either.
honestly idk if rings really are platonic, they are structures that you enrich some hom sets with, among other things, and maybe it just has a nice name because it’s a particularly nice example of the platonic thing
Add in the pseudosentence ‘it is small’
Nevermind lol 🤣
Is that even possible 
Surely you can't just get smallness without using specifying it somewhere
to have a definition that only works for small without saying small? the example i have in mind is "a category is a monad in the spans on Set"
Oh then groupoid with one object such that there exists a faithful functor to Set then
Take first order logic then say The model of the language of groups with order n or less where you pick n surely is fine
i’m gonna regret saying this but my mind is a cloud rn
I think this is correct, rings are preadditive cats with one object
Rings are just fancy quivers
yeah but i feel like rings might already be geometric in a sense, but i don’t know enough about the perspective of people who would say such a thing to conclude whether they are or are not
if that works, my formal rule was insufficient. perhaps it helps to say - categories are only supposed to be defined in the metalanguage as of yet, they only end up part of the language at some later point in the tech-tree
All of mathematics is just applied quiverology.
CRing^Op → Sch is fully faithful I think
i don’t understand what this functor is, nor the implication of it being fully faithful on my religious beliefs
A scheme is a geometric object and a commutative ring is just an affine scheme, I guess is the take away you're supposed to have
i’m not currently convinced that schemes are geometric, because i don’t know what a scheme is
not that i’m unwilling to learn but it’s probably just more efficient to read about it later than to try to do it now
Schemes are manifolds but you glue crings instead of R^n
unless you want to talk and then i’m happy to listen
Where crings = affine schemes
Yeah, the reasoning is somewhat circular as a scheme is just a bunch of affine schemes glued together
But the main idea is if you take some affine variety in C^n (some common solution set to some polynomials), and look at the polynomial functions on that space. The space can be reconstructed just from the resulting ring.
Then you just apply that same construction (roughly) to arbitrary commutative rings, and what you get is an affine scheme
doesn't "polynomial" come after "ring" in the tech tree
I'm still not sure what your tech tree is
The "tech tree" isn't really a well defined thing is it? But polynomials are certainly a motivation for defining rings
Polynomials using universal property is morally correct
the tech tree is just the graph in which circles correspond to circular reasoning ^^
tech tree is neither tech nor tree
Like should abstract stuff come first or last in the tech tree?
Like what comes first out of fields, rings and the complex numbers
What was the joke thread
but now i think i have run into the same problem, i’m stuck trying to understand why doing this for arbitrary commutative rings give us geometry in the same way that polynomial rings or C^infty(C^n)(?) (i was told not to do this, but i was raised wrong as a kid and have to wonder about this, i can’t help myself) do
It just a quacks like a duck situation. We are the ones defining what geometry is after all
It turns out the construction of A^n from C[x1, …, xn] is purely algebraic, and we can do the same thing for any cring
Spec Z is geometry of usual places 
Also good category of weird objects > weird category of good objects
You might also say "what's geometric about linear algebra?", "Sure, in 2D and 3D it looks geometric, but linear algebra is also about n-dimensional spaces for n>3"
And fields that aren't R
stack
i guess if i spent more time with the objects i would be able to see geometry in schemes better
I remember someone once said 'if you want to imagine 14th dimention then imagine 3 dimentions and scream loudly '14 DIMENTIONS''
yeah that’s how i do it
Maybe, I'm not claiming I do, but I'm not a geometer either
lol
Yes. Geometry of quotient set with an operation where each point on x axis represents a set same goes with y axis or x axis with each point being a set and y axis where each point being an element from original set.
only one way to find out 👀
I really tried to apply geometric approach when studying field theory but my head started getting hot. Like car engine.
I did got some intuitions but they were too much to process in short time.
I mean, traditional varieties are pretty geometric, aren’t they
You just restrict your interest to polynomials
From what I can gather, ring spectrum is just extension of this, and a scheme is just a gluing of specs
we abduct chmonkey and force him to finally make that reading group?
locally winged space
algebraic geometers can draw some pictures for arbitrary ring spectra, is that enough to make it "geometric"?
Lol minor thing, ring spectra has a specific technical meaning in homotopy theory and I'm pretty sure AGers say spectra of rings or whatever to avoid saying that
Prime spectra
Poor Lurie having to deal with spectra of spectra
speculative question
wouldnt calling "prime numbers" "maximal numbers" instead make more sense? im saying that because of the (0) ideal that is prime but 0 is not a prime number
ik that this is a convention, but if renaming math was possible would this be sensible? or are there situations which clash with a proposed "maximal numbers" term
In a way yes and prime powers would be “prime” under this definition
(p^2) is not a maximal ideal of Z for p prime. It is contained in (p) after all.
I think one could also say positive prime
But usually "prime number" vs "prime in Z" gets the point across
wait negative primes? wouldnt they be contained in "positive prime ideals" or other general prime ideals
I think I would find it confusing when I wanted to talk about maximal wrt some property. “The maximal number with property xyz is maximal (prime)” 😖
(-3) = (3)
yeah
So -3 is prime
lol fair point
Also, there are prime ideals in rings that are not maximal
It’s arguably a coincidence in Z
So I guess it wouldn’t be wrong per se but perhaps not telling the whole story
hmm
in R[x] theres (x) which is a prime ideal thats not maximal
yet we talk about factoring polynomials into linear terms
No I’m pretty sure that is maximal?
(2, x) would be a proper maximal ideal
You mean R as in the real numbers, right?
yeah
So (2, x) = (2) = R[x].
Because 2 is a unit.
In fact, any element of R[x] differs from some element of (x) by a unit. I.e., (x) is maximal in R[x].
ohhh
On the other hand if you meant Z[x] I would agree with you
yeah ok i think i got confused
Z[x] makes more sense
for (x) being prime but not maximal
Yeah
Probably rings -> fields -> complex numbers. A sufficient condition for A to come before B is if you can only define B if you already have A.
Well, then anything should motivate group theory right, since it's so low on the tech tree
I'm looking for the kind of motivation that proceeds from stuff lower on the tech tree
Good to remember that R being a field iff R[x] is a PID, all ideals look like (f) there
Right, but is there really anything below? Like something as simple as addition of integers would be higher in the tree right?
It is maximal amongst ideals disjoint from R
sets are below. quivers arguably don't need groups
Wouldn't this tech tree need to be continuously updated on the left/top
and "the structure of the set of automorphisms of a quiver" is enough to get all the groups, right?
I don't think we've reached the mathematical object which has every other as a special case yet and probably never will
skill issue
so we only allow ideals that don't have any constant terms as generators?
Yeah, sorta like that
The actual idea behind it was probably looking at the prime ideals of Frac(Z)[x]=Q[x], where (x) is again maximal
Neat thing about localization
It’s like “opposite” of fourth isomorphism theorem
In terms of like how the ideal lattice is affected
And it's even nicely compatible with zariski
Zariski topology’s funny little topology thing comes from the product def lmao
But yeah
I like to view units as non-ideal elements
Hm?
Well inverse-topology
Oh, right. Final topology unless I mixed up my lefts and rights again
Well the chains of prime ideals containing a given ideal form a topology with their complements
And that should come rather intuitively
Like consider binary unions
Instead through products
But yeah my intuition for localization is almost like the opposite of a quotient map
Instead of sending your designated ideal to the additive identity, you are sending your multiplicative set to units
Which are opposite in the fact that 0 is in all ideals, but an element is a unit iff it doesn’t lie in any proper ideal
And how the ideals are preserved or not is from that fact
For proof of this fact, consider that x is a (two-sided) unit, and consider the ideal (x) lol, or imagine x is in a proper ideal
This is a bit of a non-standard way of looking at things to my eyes, but yeah
This is my teacher's proof for a theorem. For the (=>) part, I don't understand why "(1,1) is a generator" according to the preceding clause
That gcd(n,m)=1?
yes with gcd(n,m) = 1, then that would be obvious, then may I ask how gcd(n,m)=1 by the isomorphism?
I agree there is a little bit missing here.
It would be better if the statement was that "the map Z_nm -> Z_n x Z_m, x |-> (x, x) is an isomorphism"
Alternatively you can show that (1,1) is the element with the largest order in Z_n x Z_m
Yikes, if the mapping was explicitly defined, then I should have been good.
It works lo
Yep!
Do you know why?
why
Do you know the equivalence relation for group quotients
If $p$ is prime, then $\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}$ is a field, i.e. $(\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}\setminus{\bar{0}},\times)$ is a group of order $p$.
Then shouldn't $\bar{a}^p=\bar{1},\forall \bar{a}\in\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}\setminus{\bar{0}}$, conflicting with what Fermat's little theorem states?
VirtualCode
oh right
In fact any finite field has a cyclic multiplicative group of order one less than the field’s order
You’re welcome lo
there's also the mild generalisation that this works for any finite subgroup of the group of units of a field
me when polynomials… finite roots of polynomial … order of subgroup gives polynomial… 
Isn’t this the lemma used to prove the finite field case lmao
There are two ways I've aware of actually
Yeah afaik
I mean, this includes the finite field case so idk what you mean
The way it is presented in Jacobson presents the finite field case as a corollary of what you said
oh lol
Well yeah the proof for finite fields doesn't need anything beynod what you get from being in a field ye
Tldr |G| is group in F^x, then x^|G| = x for each x in |G| so each is a root of the polynomial x^|G| - x then there’s a small argument I need to remember to further prove it’s generated by a single element
OH YEAH, it’s by an argument with the powers still being roots
ig the proofs i'm aware of are 1) if G is the subgroup and has order n, show that there is at most one subgroup of order d for each d | n, then compare that that to Z/nZ where we have exactly one subgroup of order d but the same number of elements overall
- classification of finite abelian groups lol
yeah i have rephrased it slightly
I think I tried it myself and got a contradiction in the minimality of the order of |G|
basically uses fact sum of phi(d) over d|n is n
I.e assuming the maximum order of an element is d | |G|
but you can prove that by nonsidering Z/n, say
ah
If there is an element of order |G| then it must generate the whole group
otherwise there would be a smaller order if it pigeonhole’d
I tend to immediately go for contradiction proofs with anything order related
Try to prove there is some smaller order than the actual order contradicting minimality
Here’s what I did explicitly.
Assume G in F^x has order N, then for each x in G, we have x^N = 1 thus each x in G is a root of x^N - 1.
Due to euclid’s algorithm and degree inequalities, there can only be N many roots of x^N - 1, thus the only roots of x^N - 1 are elements of G.
However assume G isn’t cyclic, then assume the maximum order that an element of G can have is d | N. If d = N, then an element of order N must generate the whole group, as otherwise it would have a smaller order.
But if d < N, then for each x in G, x^d = 1, so all of G would be roots of x^d - 1, which can only have d many roots, a contradiction.
Thus G is cyclic
ig you have to justify that d being the largest order means they all have order dividing that
Yep
what exactly is being generalized here?
this
you mean that the finite subgroup is cyclic?
This is a bit more group theoretic yeah, but now that I think about it I don’t think it’s true
Like consider Z/3Z x Z/2Z
that is just Z/6 though
Wait good point
Well if there is an element of order n not dividing d
Then consider the product of xy, x of order n, y of order d or use Bezout yeah
wait is G an additive or multiplicative group here?
Multiplicative
then why is x^|G| not 1?
Mistype on my end
oh alright
I was thinking of if G was a finite field
Because then we’d have the 0
So it would be x^|F| - x
nvm, let me think about this a bit more
ok, thought about it for 1 more minute and decided to ask anyway
how would one prove this without bases?
this is being split just in case terminology isn't uniform
oh okay
maybe you need bases
well, with the knowledge I have available at least
of basis
so, the thing is that the book covers bases in infinite dimensions in the next section
so I'd asssume you wouldn't need their existence for this, but could be an error
(book has a lot of errors)
The statement is equivalent (in ZF) to every vector space having a basis. So you probably want to use bases to prove it
I mean you can prove it with Zorn's lemma or something if you prefer. So I guess it's not necessarily a mishap by the author
no it is, he introduces zorn's lemma literally in the next page
I see
and does a bunch of zorn's lemma related stuff in the section, which includes proving vector spaces have bases
and other stuff
Hi A a ring and I subring of A what is AI subset of I rule for ideal? Wdym on about AI?
AI = {ai | a in A, i in I}
so it is saying, for all a in A and i in I, the product ai belongs to I
Oh okayyyy thanks
"Some vector spaces might not be projective"
Statements dreamt up by the utterly deranged


