#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 245 of 1
nvm that's stupid
but imagine i took 1/2q so we get 2qx = 1 so qx =1/2
nvm this is also stupid
Hint: the rationals have a nice ordering on them.
You want a proof of this rough shape:
Suppose Q is cyclic, then it has a generator p/q. The subgroup generated by p/q consists exactly of (.....). However, the number (...) is not one of those, because (...). This contradicts the assumption that p/q generates all of Q.
Generates all of
Z
Well that still works as a contradiction of course, since Z is not a subset of Q 
This is what comedians call a "callback" sweaty
Alternative idea: prove FTOA holds in Q, primes 1/p and p, then use a divisibility argument (:
So true!!!!!!
should've used my argument with automorphisms smh
Haha 'Q is not iso to Z as group qed'
I guess we'd also need to say it's not iso to any subgroup of Z
Then we've knocked off all the cyclic groups
all subgroups of Z are Z
you want quotients
Z into Q is epimorphic and monomorphic
fuck rings
No thanks
is 2Z not a subgroup?
Yea, but it's isomorphic to Z
me when cyclic
In general whenever an algebraist says two things are the same, it's worth adding (up to some natural/coherent notion of isomorphism) in your head
It’s worse when they don’t specify some structure
Z and Q are isomorphic (sets)
Or when the actual like
Isomorphism in question is vital
Like V and V* for finite dim spaces
Each is to some extent a special bilinear form
I don’t know much about canonicity or naturally of isomorphisms outside of like the specific case of adjoint functors
Does anyone know have tips for showing that the normal subgroup of a set of relations in a free group is the kernel of some homomorphism?
It seems like generated normal subgroups in free groups are too complicated to work with
For example, right now im trying to show that the kernel of the canonical homomorphism from the free group on a group G to the group G is the normal subgroup generated by the multiplication table of G
There is something kind of boring about dummit and foote
Trying to show that every finite group is finitely presented basically
Maybe cause it just feels really serious
You are aware of the first isomorphism theorem I hope...
There is a natural map phi : G → G/N. What's its kernel?
Yes I meant a specific homomorphism, I elaborated in my second message
There you go, it's the natural map G → G/N. Specific.
The canonical homomorphism from the free group on G to G
Well this is like tautological and doesn't need the free group
In Aluffi's Algebra chapter 0 finitely generated uses free groups
Oof
But yeah i mean you don't need the kernel though for that wither
Just the fact that the canonical map is a surjection
Which is clear
You still need to prove that the kernel is finitely generated
That's finitely presented not finitely generated
we want to show G is finitely presented by showing that the kernel of the canonical homomorphism is generated bya finite set of relations
Dw
Yeah I just dont know how to show that cuz free groups still seem complicated to me
I guess one thing is that if G has cardinality n then consider the relations g^n for each g
Once you mod out by those you only have finitely many words left anyway
Not sure I follow
Nvm it was slightly wrong because of non commutativity
The kernel should be generated by the conjugates of the multiplication table of G but idk how to show that
well the usual example of naturality is the isomorphism between V and its double dual
unless you're looking for an intuitive explanation of naturality?
the adjoint functor thing is the same concept of naturality really
so if you have intuition for that it should carry over
If I have a vector space over a field with char=0 $V$ such that End$(V)\cong\mathbb{C}[G],$ can I use properties of the group to determine decompositions of $V$ into irreducible subspaces? Particularly, how many there will be. Can I make a statement like: under suitable hypothesis, it will have |G|/#{generators}? What would suitable conditions be?
Zander
Take G your finite group and let F be the free group on |G| generators {f_g}. Show that the kernel of the canonical map F ->> G is generated by f_g f_h (f_gh)^-1 (which is a set of cardinality |G|^2)
I feel like you're missing some context here. Does V have more structure than just being a vector space? If not, what do you mean by irreducible subspaces?
pi,V can be a representation of some other group. I am thinking about using the fourier transform, but struggling to set it up
I was being a bit vague to see if theres some nice general statement, which there never is
Is it correct to say:"A group G has no nontrivial proper subgroup if and only if |G| is prime"?
some may say nontrivial and proper is a repetition that is not necessary (depending on your definitions) but it's definitely correct math speak anyway
Yes although perhaps the trivial group should be mentioned as a boring exception :)
what is bangbang
Tldr Sylow stuff yeah
No Sylow stuff necessary.
I wonder if there is an easier way to show G has no proper subgroups -> prime order
Wait
It’s very easy
:)
If G has no proper subgroups then <x> must either be trivial or the whole group
If it’s trivial, then x is the identity
lol you didn’t make it clear that this was your assumption about G lol
Oh lmao
I was following this lmao
To show it’s prime just use an argument on if there was a nontrivial divisor d of the order, then <x^d> would have to explicitly be a subgroup and otherwise would contradict minimality of the order of x
Does anyone find the standard proof of the Sylow theorems through like, striating the normalizers of p-subgroups
Like really neat
If it’s cyclic of order n, it’s isomorphic to Z/nZ, then you can say. Suppose n = ab is composite, then <a> has order b < n, so we have a proper subgroup, contradiction.
Can someone explain how this is please?
theres a number of ways you can show this but since it says corollary, maybe you can send what its a corollary of to see how this follows from that
Right sorry
try to derive this fact from 2.23(3)
tfw orbit stabilizer theorem is POWERFUL
Need to ponder for a second
This yields H × A -> H * A = A
Since H_A stabilizes the set A, then we can restrict H_A to act on A.
Now left multiplication by any element is a bijection on G. Thus the restricted action is the same for A.
very much so
Okay this is fucking with me
So for any a in A, we have the orbit H_Aa in A, which is in bijection with H_A by left cancellativity. As these orbits are cosets, we have that they partition A (since cosets are disjoint or equal), so the order of H_A divides the size of A = p^k so H_A has prime power cardinality less
Cancellativity
are you good with this
I don’t like how this is stated
Yee
i remembered inverses exist 
Also quick sanity check, 2Q works right
failed the sanity check I'm afraid
big if true
Wait its not even closed whoops
OH whoops
p/q = 2 * p/(2q)
Ill go review fractions </3
do you want an answer
||the fractions of the form a/(2^n)||
ill open that if im still stuck in like 15 but tysm
I did this by showing $\langle\frac{p_1}{q_2},\ldots,\frac{p_n}{q_n}\rangle\leq\langle\frac{1}{\mathrm{lcm}(q_1,\ldots,q_n)}\rangle$ and we know all subgroups of a cyclic group are cyclic, but is there a (not horrible) constructive proof?
Sara
I assume this is multiplicative
Additive
Clear denominators
wdym
Multiply every element of your subgroup by the product of all the denominators
This makes it a subgroup of Z
Oh W and this is equal to the finitely gen subgroup?
Yeah, isomorphic to it
cool ty
Sometimes I cannot believe that subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic.
for (a), I set $X=F_k$ so $F_5X^3=F_5F_k^3=F_5F_k=R_{5-k}$ and $X^9F_{13}=F_k^9F_{13}=F_kF_{13}=R_{k-13}$. Solving $5-k\equiv k-13$ (mod 28) lends $k\equiv 9$ (mod 28). But verifiably, $5-23=-18\equiv 10$ (mod 28) $\equiv 10 = 23-13$, but $23\not\equiv 9$ (mod 28)? What am I doing wrong
Sara
Not a field. am dumb
is this true for additive groups also
As in the additive group mod n?
yes
yeah, the ring isomorphism restricts to a group isomorphism
Ring homomorphisms are always also additive group homomorphism
Fantastic thanks
what all does serge lang algebra cover
hey i have a small question
is there an easy way to determine all rotation of a platonic solid that is possible
without having one in your hand
for example a cube
its 24 in total but is there a way to determine all of them without having a cube in your hand
and i mean more like not the total number of rotational symmetry
but symmetry per axis or plane
like for example with x-axis you can do 3 rotation not taking to account the identity element or rotation in that case
Wdym, read the table of contents it's free
in (G,+) , G={(0,0),(1,0),(0,1),(1,1)}
Why it's not cyclic
do we need like to get <(0,0)> and from it get all G ?
Not <(0,0)>, that'll always just be trivial. Cyclic means there exists some element a in G such that <a>=G. Here, however, for any nontrivial a, |<a>|=2, not 4, so the group isn't cyclic
so we need to get <(1,0)> and it should generate all G
I mean, it doesn't need to be (1,0) specifically. It's cyclic if any element generates all of G. Here, though, no element generates all of G, so G isn't cyclic
oh ok so can we test <(1,0)> and see what we will get ?
Sure. If you test all of the elements and never get G, it isn't cyclic
Well, using the + operation, <a>={a,2a,3a,...}. If a=(1,1), then 2a=(1,1)+(1,1)=(0,0). 3a=2a+a=(0,0)+(1,1)=(1,1), and we're back to where we started, so <(1,1)>={(0,0),(1,1)}
are we in modlo 2 ?
Yes
because we have a vector from 2 Coordinate ?
Ehh the reason depends on how you define $G$. The way you defined it, as an explicitly written set, it's kinda just a fact that doesn't have a reason other than "that's what works". If you take the definition of $G$ to be $G\cong\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$, then the mod 2 comes from the product of the $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ groups, each of which is, by definition, in mod 2
evelyn
if we had Z3 * Z3 it will be mod 3 ?
Yes
OK THANKS , i have another question
Okay
i have a prove or it's kind of prove like it's short that every cyclic group is abelian
h in <g>
there is n such that h = g^n
h_1 = g^n1
h_2 = g^n2
this say h_1h_2 = h_2h_1
like i don't understand why h = g^n ?
how to try with the TeXit bot
Surround math text in dollar signs to get the tex bot to make it look nice
If you have a group $G=\langle g\rangle$, then for every element $h\in G$, there exists some integer $n$ such that $h=g^n$. That's the definition of a cyclic group
evelyn
oh so h is always g^n
In a cyclic group, yes
is this related with the order of elements ?
kinda! The order of an element $g\in G$ is the smallest positive integer $k$ such that $g^k=e$, where $e$ is the identity of $G$.
evelyn
This is for any group, not just cyclic groups
Another equivalent def of a (finite) cyclic group is a group where there exists an element whose order is equal to the size of the group
Oh, other definition of the order of an element $g\in G$ is $|\langle g\rangle|$
evelyn
yeah but h here is not e right
The definition of the order uses e, the identity
the definition for cyclic groups doesn't use e
No, but the first definition of the order of an element above does
ok cool thanks
Another way to make sense of this is that a cyclic group $\langle g \rangle$ has the set ${g,g^2,g^3,\ldots,g^{n-1},g^n}$, where $n$ is the order of $g$. In this definition, it is clear that any element of that set is some power of $g$
evelyn
oh yeah this is a good one thanks
yup!
What is your definition anyways?
Quick question.
I am confused about how to find the dim of SO(n), O(n) and SU(n) rigorously.
for example, for n=3 the dim of O(3) is 3 and the constraint condition doesn't reduce the dimension further. How to justify this rigorously using an argument from real analysis, perhaps? I know that since the det function is not a constant on O(3) it has disconnected components SO(3) and the other part.
Also, the dim of U(2) is 4 and the det constraint reduces the dim to 3. How to justify this as well? Here the det function is continously maps from U(2) to e^i theta but I am not able to justify it
the dimension of these groups as lie groups?
yes.
you can use the regular level set theorem or compute the dimension of the tangent space at the identity based on the defining maps from Mat(n,R) to itself. what do you mean by, "the determinant doesn't reduce the dimension"?
U(2) has the dimension of 4 right. but for SU(2) we need det = 1 which is another constraint and this makes the dimension of SU(2) to be 3.
Is it possible to prove it without using the dim of tangent space or any other ideas of differential geometry?
i mean, the tools of differential topology/geometry are tailored for tackling problems about lie groups/algebras
im not sure if there is any way to do this purely without differential topology since the definition of their dimension is in terms of the dimension of the manifold they form
Okay. makes sense
one thing you can do if you just care about topological manifolds is note that like it suffices to consider a neighbourhood of the identity and then you can check that that is homeomorphic to R^k for appropriate k
but it is best imo just to use regular values to do this cleanly and show they're smooth at once
how would one go about choosing charts?
like, if all i have is QQ^T = I, where do i start making the correspondence
for topological ones you don't need charts usually though right
oh shoot
my b
well
you need local homeos
(i call charts any homeo from an open subset of the manifold into R^n that is appropriately C^k or D^k for whatever type of structure you want)
though i think if you pick smooth charts in one neighbourhood you can get charts everywhere by post composing with stuff in the group
sure, but how are you going to get a local homeo near I?
true idk how to do that bit any easier lol, seems to basically come down to the same thing
thats what i was thinking too
suppose we have a commutative group (G, +), and 2 subgroups H, H', an element a of H.
if nor H is a subset of H', nor H' is a subset of H, is it possible for the coset a+H' to be a subset of H?
i think that the only elements for which a + a', with a' from H', could be an element of H, would be if a' were the identity element or if a' were the inverse of a. If a' were the identity element, and the only element in H', then a+a' could be indeed be a subset of H but if H' only contains the identity element it is a subset of H so this does not work. I thought the only other possibility could occur if a' is the inverse of a. But if the inverse of a' is in H', the inverse of a', a, must also be in H' or it would not be a group.
But I have no idea whether my reasoning is correct and/or there are other such examples for which this could still happen
If a+H' is a subset of H then H' is too, because a is in H
like H' = (a+H')-a subset H-a = H
@frozen dust
Oh I guess you want the general case hm
if a is in H, a' in H' and a + a' is in H then a' is also in H, so a' is in both
and yeah you can always add elements of the intersection to an element of H to get smth in H
but does this also apply for the a' that are not in the intersection of H' and H?
in order for a+H' to be a subset of H, does it not need to apply for every a' in H'?
Hi i have a question in (Z_6 , + ) or (G, +) i don't know how to write it anyways the order of <2> is 3 does that mean the subgroup <2> is not cyclic ? and the order of <5> is 6 does that mean it's cyclic subgroup ?
they’re not cyclic for the reason that you said, there’s no order-checking needed here. the subgroups that you mentioned are both cyclic, but that’s because every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic
also, subgroups that are generated by a single element are cyclic
by definition
what does cyclic mean to you?
nothing it's just something in math
well if cyclic doesn’t mean anything to you how could you assert that anything is cyclic or not cyclic?
it makes it harder to talk about a concept when you don’t have a clear definition for it
what's inside <2> ? just 2 ? or 0,1,2 ?
in the group (Z_6,+) which you mentioned before, the group <2> would be all the multiples of 2 in that group, so {0,2,4}
well, a group is cyclic if there is an element that generates it
ok wait can we say <5> is a cyclic group not a cyclic subgroup
but <2> is generated by 2
a cyclic subgroup is a subgroup that is cyclic itself, you don’t have to look at the structure of the big group to determine whether the small group is cyclic
it’s not about the relationship between the subgroup and the big group at all
ok <2> is {0,2,4} why it's cyclic
because it is generated by 2
can you write all elements of {0, 2, 4} in terms of one of it's elements?
what does this mean give me an example english is not my first language
if i have {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} i could say 0 = 0 * 1, 1 = 1 * 1, 2 = 2 * 1, 3 = 3 * 1, 4 = 4 * 1, 5 = 5 * 1, so i can write every element as a multiple of 1
so if we say <3> it is {0,1} ig right
does this mean it is subgroup
no wait it is {0,3}
right ?
that’s right, and the group would be generated by 3, since 3*1=3 and 3*2=0
is this what u talk about ?
what if we had some <a> = {e} is it also cyclic
yes it would be generated by a
all of these <a> groups are cyclic by definition
when do we say a group is not cyclic
if it’s not generated by a single element
do u have an example ?
yeah, (Z_3 x Z_2,+) with addition coordinatewise, like (a,b)+(c,d) = (a+c,b+d)
that’s not cyclic
because there is no element that generates the whole group
why it's not a+c , b+d ?
lol yes
ur right i am sick and not thinking straight sorry
but this group isn’t cyclic
is this possible like i know Z_2 x Z_2 but idon't remember soemting like this (Z_3 x Z_2,
Z_2 x Z_2 is also not cyclic
you can take the product of any two groups
like this
ok i have a qustion about Z_2 * Z_3 how do we write the vectors there like Z_2 * Z*2 are like this (a,b) right
yeah, and if you have GxH then the elements will be of the form (g,h) in general
if we had Z_3 * Z_3 * Z_3 does that mean (a,b,c) ?
yes
ok thanks
are there finite abelian non cyclic groups that are not a direct product of cyclic groups?
see the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian geoups
You may later learn a theorem that any finite group embeds into the symmetric group of the corresponding order. So they are a place where often want to check for counterexamples
im gonna bump my question if any1 could help me with this
the original question was this:
suppose we have a commutative group (G, +), and 2 subgroups H, H', an element a of H.
if nor H is a subset of H', nor H' is a subset of H, is it possible for the coset a+H' to be a subset of H?
my attempt was this: i think that the only elements for which a + a', with a' from H', could be an element of H, would be if a' were the identity element or if a' were the inverse of a. If a' were the identity element, and the only element in H', then a+a' could be indeed be a subset of H but if H' only contains the identity element it is a subset of H so this does not work. I thought the only other possibility could occur if a' is the inverse of a. But if the inverse of a' is in H', the inverse of a', a, must also be in H' or it would not be a group.
after getting a reply i think i might misunderstand the question though. do i have to show that for every a' from H', when added to an element a of H, it ends up in H in order for a + H' to be a subset of H
Lets replace H' with K. If a+K is a subset of H, then in particular a is contained in H. Since any element of a+K is of the form a+k, and all a+k are in H, then all -a+a+k are in H. So all k are in H, hence K is a subset of H
Got it. So as your conclusion is that K is a subset of H, and a given is that K is not a subset of H, can we conclude that it is not possible ?
i'm a bit confused about this step though " and all a+k are in H, then all -a+a+k are in H."
Sure, but thats kinda disappointing
yeah? If a is in H, so is -a cuz its a group
ohhh okay i was confused about the notation then
why is that?
A more interesting related result:
If K is a subgroup of H, then H contains all cosets h+K where h is an element of H.
there were 3 questions, but i found the first 2, and one of those questions was to show that
i notice both you and the previous person who helped me started from the assumption that a+K is a subset of H
to then arrive at the conclusion
how did you know you should begin your proof with that?
wdym?
because i was trying to prove "it is possible", but you assumed it was possible and then made some conclusions by which you concluded it's not
is it some intuition u build through repeated exercise? because i feel like i lack that intuition
Uh, well. If you are asking if it possible it makes sense to see what follows if a+H' subset of H was the case
I am still thinking hold on
oh i thought that you were telling me 'it makes sense to see ..' i misunderstood
Z_2 isn't cyclic but 1 is a topological generator
It's mostly about putting the questions into a more "standard form". Your original question couldve been into this form:
Does for all (list your "ingredients", here a random element a, subgroups H' and H) a+H' subset of H imply H' subset of H.
So you either perform a general proof to show that it is always true, or you find a counterexample - in which case finding an example where what you showed was true.
In either case its usually good to try to find a (constructive) proof of the positive, general statement and just "feel out" the situation
Isn't Z_3 x Z_2 generated by (1, 1)? Since gcd(3, 2) = 1
oh fuck, honestly I’m just gonna put all my mistakes on me being sick for now, i for sure am not thinking right
yes you’re right lol
smay remembers the structure theorem
I know the feeling, get well soon ❤️
Given the statement: "If group G is cyclic with order n and generator g, then for each positive integer d that divides n, there exists a unique subgroup of order d, which is H=<g^(n/d)>." I need some hints to prove the unique part of this.
can somoeone please answer my question
regarding if there is an easy way to determine all rotation of platonic solid
if there is an easy way
The nice thing about platonic solids is that the symmetry group acts transitively on faces/edges/vertecies.
So you can describe each rotation by, for example, which face is "on top" and how that face is rotated.
So for example a dodecahedron has 12 pentagonal faces, so a rotation is determined by placing any of them on top, and at one of five orientations. So 12*5 = 60 rotations in total
the easiest one is about the faces
this thing i can do it like in my mind
i was solving a question
What was the question?
this is the question
i do not want to look at the answer
but what i did
well first of all we can draw an axis between the upper one and lower one
then we see that the upper face and the lowe face since they do not change they can have a diffrent color and all other rectangular face
must have the same color
thus 2^3
we can do the same thing for the rectangular face then we will see that they are going to have 2^5
and we should multiply that offcours with 3
because there are 6 faces in total
so 6 / 2
= 3
but now for the vertex rotation and edge rotation is difficult idk where to begin
and yes offcour the one doing nothing
2^8
this is identity rotation
I have this question which i don't understand :
there is m,n . when does nZ ⊆ mZ
the answer is when m|n
let's say m =12 , n=60
12Z ⊇ 60Z
12.5 = 60
60∈ 12Z
Therefore 12Z ⊇ 60Z
i don't understand what is this
mZ is the set of multiples of m.
So this is saying every multiple of 60 is also a multiple of 12, which should make sense, since 60 is a multiple of 12
yeah it is but is this the only thing the question talk about ?
is it 60|12 or 12|60 like i can see i said m=12 but is n =12 ?
12|60 means 12 divides 60, so it should be m=12 and n=60 just like you said first
Yes @rocky cloak did you look at it
Yeah, is a little hard to follow what you're saying. But the symmetries of the prism are the 6 rotations in the horizontal plane, and the 6 ways to "flip it over".
b here is not equal to e right
found this on stack exchange, why cant this 3/4 bound not be increased to 1/2?
what is e?
we know that S^2 = G and everything in S commutes with everything else in S and so s'(s_1s_2) = (s_1s_2)s' which means S is contained in the center of G which means the center has to be the entire group by lagrange? Don't know what I am missing
identity
I think this is well defined if b = e
because then what is the order of b?
1
And then k = n in this case
so then d = gcd(n, n) = n
and order of b = n/n = 1
or you could say k = 0
in which case d = gcd(0, n) = n and it sitll works
mmm
can we build an example ?
like if we in Z_3
what is the order of this group 3 ?
order of a group != order of an element
do you know the definition of the order of an element?
yeah a little bit
tell it to me
when we reach the identity then it's the order of the element i mean the power is the order
like if g^n = e
it's the least such power
then the order is n
oh yeah
but yea you seem to have the idea
ok lets work with a more interesting example than Z_3 since non-identity element of Z_3 has order 3 (check this yourself)
lets try Z_4
ok so Z_4 is integers mod 4 with addition as the operation
what's a generator of Z_4?
wait let me try
omg i did one of these questions like before 15 mins and now i forgot
but does 0 generate Z_4?
no it's just 0 right
1 is a generator
yes
ok so lets take b = 2 = 2*1 so our k = 2 agreed?
(1) * 0
(1) * 1
(1) * 2
(1) * 3
when u wrote 2*1 is the 1 u wrote is the one i put between ()
right so 1 is a generator but I'm just trying to demonstrate the statement of the problem
do you see what I wrote here and does it make sense?
k =2 because b is 2 ? like if we took 3*1 does that make k = b = 3 ?
well our group is written additively
so instead of writing 1^2 = 2 like in the problem
I'm writing 2*1 = 1 + 1 = 2
it's a coincidence here that k = b
it's just that if I want to express the element 2 in terms of the generator 1, I would write 1 + 1 = 2
2*1 is shorthand for 1 + 1 just like how a^3 is shorthand for a * a * a if I were working in a group generated by an element a
so since 2 = 2 * 1 = 1 + 1 we have that k = 2
ok
so do you agree that if b = 2, then k = 2?
there's alot of notation going on here so I want to make sure you follow
yeah i can see this for now but i think we nearly finished right ? we are in Z_4 so |Z_4| is 4! which is 24 then we do 24\2 ?
no, |Z_4| is not 4!
Z_4 only has 4 elements
and that's not what the question is asking
the question is asking about orders of elements, not the order of the group
so we have that Z_4 is a cyclic group of order 4, so n = 4
oh
and our generator is a = 1
true
ok well 1
quaternion group
no wait 2
i -> -i, j -> -j sends 6/8 elements to their inverses
ok so n = 4, k = 2 so d = gcd(2, 4) = 2 and n / 2 = 4 / 2 = 2
so the question aligns with what you just found that the order of 2 in Z_4 is
so that's what the question is talking about. So try the question in general now
wait the order of b is 2 ?
i forgot the quesstion
yeah the order of b is 2
ok i have an example that i want to follow what u said and see if i will succeed
a = 13 , G = <a> and it asks what is the order of 39
i feel like there's something missing
whats wrong with my reasoning?
Why do you say everything in S commutes with everything else in S?
And how do you know S^2 = G?
I see. Yeah, S will not necessarily be multiplicatively closed, so the elements don't necessarily commute with each other.
makes sense thanks again
JACOBSON?
Oh shit this is the one where also if |S| = 3/4 |G| then S is like a normal subgroup right
Or something like that
oh yeah fuck I forgot
yeah lol tryna get through most of the problems
I took a small hiatus but I’m starting the PID section
The problems are hell
honestly, I like they dont put too many
it's like the minimum to feel confident you understood it
but yeah some problems are like wtf, there's no way anyone would come up with that
@dull ginkgo are you also working through jacobson?
O I thought you finished the book, just how long is this dam book 
400 pages
I am a bit slow because I want to finish Abbott analysis but I will come back and go from the PID section
No, not many, but they tend to be very difficult
oh thats awesome
Am talking based on the number of exercises you've shown here
There are just tons of 'em 
I tend to try to work through them in chat
So I realize that I’m a dumbass
I need to start doing that in the thread again
I tried to read vol 2 then went to the module chapter of vol 1 and then the galois chapter and now Im revisiting groups, since I realized I dont know anything about groups
You can't say that when you managed that damn Ore localization
Even nlab said it is difficult 💀
I generalized the fuck out of it
I did a vast majority of the ring section ones
Pretty much every one that isn’t rote showing properties that are obvious pretty much
By far the group theory part though was way harder
Yeah group theory is difficult tbh
It gets easier after Sylow but still
It's just that group (somehow) has less defining properties
Like some problems are annoying by themselves
Like proving <u,v> is dihedral where u and v are involute and uv is torsion is a pain in the ass
Actually frankly anything with presentations is a pain in the ass
Ahhh
Did not learn much but I think rep theory could help there
Volume 2 covers rep theory stuff
Like it’s not unintuitive it’s just annoying
Indeed
Computation galore
(That said, it seems research level is also full of computations
)
Like most of the computation is to show the presentation and any other relations would violate the minimality of the order of uv
a = 13 , G = <a>
what is the order of 39 ?
the answer is 40
not enough information to answer this
also what have you tried so far
well i thought to generate <13> but i don't know what is our group
what is written after the question mark is this i don't know why and how did he know :
k = 3 , n =120
gcd(k,n) = 3
therefore the order of 39 is 40
@delicate bloom
Can you share a screenshot of the problem?
it's not in english
but i said what is wrriten all of it
There is one result that if a has order n then for a positive integer k, a^k has order n/gcd(n,k)
I think they work in Z_m where 13 has order 120
what is Z_m
sorry i didn't see your message it didn't appear
so n is for the order
can u reply to me when u answer because if u didn't i will not see that u sent anything
Since 39 = 13 ×3
Now using this one
Yes
So according to it let k = 3 and b = 39
Yes and here * is addition modulo 13× 120 operation
I am so confused with this n,k
like 13^3 = 13+13+13 ?
Yes
but why they write with powers
It just multiplicative notation
Yes
ok we will find the order of b with n/gcd(k,n)
Any hint for b)? I got that one orbit consists of all invertible matrices, but how do I divide the other in n orbits?
I just assume here the group is Z/mZ, where m =13×120 because you give that n = 120 so I let 120 is the order of 13
i don't know how did he find that n =120
Is there any other information?
no
the orbits correspond to ranks
your invertible matrices have rank n. The remaining n orbits are those with ranks 0 through n-1
the answer is 40 so yes it is 120/gcd(3,120) but how i don't know
Rank of a
Are the groups here Z6 for abelian and S3 for non-abelian?
Yes, those are the only groups of order 6 up to isomorphism.
Thanks 
what is the asymptotic growth rate for groups of order n
like obviously it can't grow faster than n^2
Unrelated: are all lie groups the quotient of two matrix lie groups?
If i am asked to state what is normal subgroup then is it ok to just say ah in H and ha in H
<@&268886789983436800>
wowow <@&268886789983436800>

No, this isn't sufficient explanation. In fact if you are indeed saying what I think you're saying (it's not clear) then this is totally incorrect.
gdi I accidentally misclicked and joined the server
Number of groups up to isomorphism?
I think anything else might be an easier counting problem...
Ah yes, 1 -> a class-sized object, 2 -> a class-sized object...
Why not?
I guess you mean it can't grow faster than n^n^2 ?
Anyway, there is some results here
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/422133/306319
In short n^(c log(n)^2) for some c, seems to be about right
so what would i meed to explain more
Yeah n^n^2 makes more sense
Just state the definition.
👍
Do you mean it can't grow faster than n!?
the order of 5 in Z_12 is 12 or 2 ?
because i'm watching a video now that it says 2 and i was like wtf because i thought it's 12
12
like 15 = 5
25 = 10 = 10
35 = 15 = 3
45 = 20 = 8
55 = 25 = 1
65 = 30 = 6
75 = 35 = 11
85 = 40 = 4
9*5 = 45 = 9
10 * 5 = 50 = 2
11 * 5 = 55 = 7
12 * 5 = 60 = 0
right
The multiplicative order is 2.
but we are in Z_12 aren't we with +
The additive order is 12.
ok this make things more clear but i thought in Z_n we only use +
Z_12 often means the ring of integers modulo 12, so both addition and multiplication are fair game to consider.
You are right that we are no longer working in the group Z_12 but rather the group (Z_12)^x also know as U(12), the group of units of Z_12.
ok cool guys thx
If you want to make it more unambiguous that you're talking about the additive group, the notation C_12 (ie the cyclic group of order 12) is unambiguous.
C for complex numbers ?
No, C for cyclic.
yes I meant this, and that's much slower than I'd expect
no, I mean't n^(nxn)
update on this: I asked my mentor who works with lie groups and he said "I don't know"
By Ado's theorem every connected Lie group is a quotient of the universal cover of a matrix group right 
Are universal covers of matrix groups matrix groups
Not at all
Sometimes but not always
i think the universal cover of SL(2,R) will be a counterexample
but not sure
i want to say that if M := universal cover of SL(2,R) is the quotient G/H of a matrix group G, then G should be isomorphic to M which would be a contradiction
What's the degree and basis of Q(sqrt3 + sqrt5) over Q
oh i guess someone was hinting at this above
how would you show this
you can sorta just write out what k is explicitly
like what do the elements of k(A) look like
alternatively you can show that like
$\bigcup_{A' \subseteq A \text{,finite}} k(A')$ is a field containing $A$
PD potato
so it is k(A)
rational functions in A?
hmm, I guess this leads to the same thing?
because when A' finite it is rational functions in A'
and if you multiply two rational functions in A' and A'' respectively you get one in A' union A''
Well, this way you can do it without knowing anything about what k(A') looks like.
You would just have u in k(A') for some finite set A', and then you're done
I think it is trivial either way, whether you show k(A) is rational functions in A or that huge union
because if u is a rational function in A, there are only finitely many of the guys in A showing up in the rational function
important step is being able to describe k(A) in one of those forms
yes i mean the second was just to avoid knowing what it lookslikeas jagr said
but yeah useful anyway to know it's rational functions in elements of A

I see now
you don't even need the rational function description for that union
you get closure for free
and all field axioms hold cuz u belong to one guy in the union
Is $R / ( \overline{x}, \overline{y} )$ not isomorphic to $k[z] / (z^2)$ so then how is $R / \mathfrak{p}$ a domain?
Spamakin🎷
this is poorly written, k[x,y,y] ?
you could interpret it as k[x,y,z^2], then it's true
k[x,y,z]/(x,y,xy-z^2)=k[z]/(z^2) as you suggested, which is not a domain
yea
it could also be that they meant xy-z instead of xy-z^2
ok cool just wanted to make sure I wasn't doing something dumb
yea idk this wouldn't be the first HW assignment from this course that has some weird typos / questions that aren't well founded
but I wouldn't waste time on this, it's your professors fault, they should know better lol
well I'm not in a course rn
just doing all past HWs from this class to prep for quals
but yea not wasting my time
in this case, Gal(E/Q) has order 27 and the other 2 have order 9, correct?
(Z_3)^3 for E/Q, (Z_3)^2 for the other two
hmm, actually no
that can't be
the other two gotta have order 6
Where does your order 27 come from?
and I hope Gal(E/Q) has order 18
I don't think it has order 27
Yeah, it does
I was first thinking you have to add omega and 2^(1/3), and both of those have irreducible poly of third degree
but that doesn't account the fact that they are linked
You can consider how roots are exchanged.
At least there is
Gal(B/Q) -> Gal(E/Q)
G(C/Q) -> Gal(E/Q)
The secret is that omega has less degree irreducible polynomial!
wait, x^3 - 1 isn't even irreducible
fml
ye it is like x^2 + x + 1 right
cyclotomic guy
Yep.
I just want to confirm what is the notation φ^-1, is it the inverse mapping of φ or something else?
ϕ^-1(H') is the set of elements of G that map to H' under ϕ
What is the fundamental reason behind [C : R] = 2?
Also can one extend exponentation to quaternions? I wonder if noncommutativity poses issue.
I guess you can just take lie algebra for quaternions instead
I'd imagine you have to mess with campbell-baker-hausdorf if you want to do it
I just figured this was a consequence of being the field for the prime at infinity somehow made it boring by comparison to the other Q_p. There's probably someone on this server that can give a real answer to that though, but it ain't me
Wow.
Hmm, did not think about that. That said, Infinity being simpler makes sense.
I just managed to prove the part 4) Is it true vice versa tho? That is, if phi is a homomorphism from G to G', and H is a normal subgroup of G, then phi(H) is a normal subgroup of G'.
no, you can take G itself, normal in G and map it to a subgroup that’s not normal in G’
like if H < G then the inclusion H -> G is a group homomorphism
no matter whether H is normal or not (but H is, in fact, normal in H)
even more extreme, you can map everything to 1 in any group
{1} is normal in every group
though
Hi smay
real it’s all good
hi chmonkey
I am not sure I am understanding, G is a normal subgroup of itself, which maps to G', also a subgroup of itself, that does not contradict my statement
group homomorphisms don’t have to be surjective
like phi(G) may very well not be G’
the statement is fine if you additionally require phi to be surjective actually
A degree n extension of R induces a continuous injection RP^(n-1) -²→ S^(n-1), which must be a homeomorphism
Though that doesn't explain why it's finite 
Hmmm
Where does the map come from?
Squaring
Ah
GUYS I KEEP ON FORGETTING WHY COSETS PARTITION THE GROUP
the fricken cosets, quotients, etc etc stuff i always learn then forget
it does NOT stick in my brain! Damn!!
ik personally that doesnt do much more for me besides just memorizing that cosets partition group
at this point i remember a lot of those facts, but i keep on forgetting the understanding of why it makes sense
Are you able to derive this fact from scratch
If so that's probably good enough
imo the observation that cosets partition the group is an important observation, but it is not deep or anything, in fact it is trivial to prove. Maybe you just lack experience/examples, idk
Yeah im not sure why i always get hung up on it honestly
im just wanting it to be like "yeah obviously" when i recall that fact, instead of me being like "wait why is that true again"
yk what i mean?
You said the word "forget". You don't need to remember the proof, you just need to be able to prove it. In fact, when you "forget" such basic notions I'd suggest that you don't try to "remember", but instead try to prove them as if you had never heard of them before
hm i see
Is it obvious that:
- For any surjection f : A → B, the preimages f^-1(b) (where b in B) partition A.
- The cosets of H are the preimages of the map G → G/H.
If you don't know 2. you should tattoo it on your forehead
bro was a group theorist but ended up in CECOT ☠️
I think face tats should be more popular amongst mathematicians
Does this count https://youtube.com/shorts/hd2J1f3YeQ4?feature=shared
No this is just cringe
Bro has a webpage about his tattoos
This assumes you have already proved that G/H is a partition of G, right? Since it doesn't use the group axioms for H
All you need is that G/H exists (which requires the group ofc)
But from then on this is just soome statements about equivalence classes partioning the set
Yeah, just seems a bit roundabout to think about preimages of the map G -> G/H, when G/H is itself a partition of G
Well that's because one should really think abstractly via the first isomorphism theorem.
What's really happening is that you think of G/H — at least in the case where we have a normal subgroup H — as being some other abstract group A and then looking at preimages of the map f : G → A
Then this is really just saying that quotienting by H is the same as quotienting by the equivalence relation induced by f
In some way the pedagogy is all wrong here. The point first and foremost is that we're taking classes under a nice equivalence relation, it just happens to be that the classes are cosets.
Hmm, it's tricky to understand how you would think about G/H without talking about cosets, but is the gist that you start by looking at some map f : G -> G/H, without assigning any meaning to G/H? Then you assert that f is a surjective homomorphism and ker(f) = H, and from there you can conclude that G/H is (isomorphic to) a partition of G by cosets?
As often as not, we don't start with a normal subgroup and take its quotient. Instead we start with having a surjective homomorphism G -> K where K is some other group that already exists. Then we let H be the kernel of the homomorphism (which we know will be a normal subgroup) and then we know K is isomorphic to G/H. We can then use our theorems about quotients to learn about K.
So what we Boytjie's property 2 actually tells is is that the preimages of any group homomorphism are either empty or cosets of its kernel.
Can we not? And also I think I'm just gonna delete that image.

I see, that makes sense 👍 this way of thinking is still somewhat unfamiliar to me, since most introductory textbooks are very focused on concrete sets. I have started reading Aluffi tho, which I think will help
G = Z_12, H = <4>. Is there a group that has the same Cayley table as the quotient group G/H?
This is a funny thing to say
Yes, because G/H is a group
What you mean to say is probably: what is the group G/H isomorphic to amongst a list of common names for groups
To see what it is: note that the image of a cyclic group is cyclic, and compute the order of G/H.
Yes I can see this, only if the mapping is an isomorphism. I think I am not understanding what that means by two groups with the same group tables, is it equivalent to two groups that are the same?
Me neither. Post the question.
Here it is. The last question
,rotateccw
by "same group table" they just mean "find a group that is more familiar to you that's isomorphic to this group"
there are only two groups of order 4 up to isomorphism, so just see which one works!
n.b. they say familiar group
Which means what I was saying here makes sense.
WHOA
reading my past work and embarrassingly can't understand what i wrote
i'm supposed to show that a group of order 40 contains a normal p-sylow subgroup and then i've written
If the 5-Sylow group P is not normal, then there are 6 conjugates of P.
how does that follow
The sylow theorems tell you (among other things), that the number of p-sylow subgroups is 1 modulo p, and divides the order of the group. And the sylow subgroup is normal iff it is unique.
oh lmao right
i see
and 11 is too large
Indeed
is this guy just k[r]?
k[r] usually means the subring generated by k and r yes
The ring will look like polynomials evaluated at r yes
right
and this guy is k(r)
it must include all polynomials in r (subring generated by k and r)
must include their inverses
so rational functions
so every division ring including k and r must include k(r), but k(r) is a division ring itself
No, not all rational functions. For example Q(i) does not consist of all rational functions evaluated at i, because for example 1/(1+x^2) cannot be evaluated at i.
You need the localisation. In the case of Q(i), for example, you need to consider Q[x]_(x^2+1).
When we want to show Hom_R-mod(R,M) /cong M as R-Modules where R is a Ring and M an R-Module.
Do we assume R commutative? Because idk much module stuff and the (standard (?)) action that makes Hom(R,M) into an R-mod needs commutativity i think
ah, hmm
so like, I'd say all f(r)/g(r) such that g(r) =\= 0? does that not work?
This is the localisation
oh, I don't know the term
No, you don't need R to be commutative.
The action is defined by
(rf)(x) = f(xr)
No worries lol
This works because R is a bimodule over itself
I'm looking for an example where I have a group G, a subgroup H, and a normal subgroup N of H such that there doesn't exist a normal subgroup K of G such that N=KnH.
Any help would be appreciated, thanks!
I feel like there should be an easy example but I'm terrible at finding counterexamples in groups
... G such that K=NnH.
But N <= H so K = N. So you're looking for a normal subgroup N of H such that N is not a normal subgroup of G.
Are you aware of the normal subgroups of the symmetric group S_n for n >= 5?
This is one way to find an example
Is there other normal subgroups of S_n, n >= 5?
This is squeral's exercise tho
It's not really an exercise I'm trying to prove something in universal algebra and I wanna make sure I'm not wasting my time lol
Sorry! I meant N=KnH
Have you seen the wreath product before?
I can't say I have
Well actually now that I think of it, I can just do the simplest example
Ah so there is an example?
Yes.
Well shit that sucks
Consider the dihedral group of order 8, Dih(8) = <r, s | r^4 = s^2 = 1, srs = r^-1>
Now let me see
Right
s and rsr^-1 are both involutions but are these the ones I want...
Right I think this works, I'm terrible at Coxeter stuff but here you go.
So there is a subgroup H of Dih(8) given by H = <s, r^2sr^-2> isomorphic to C_2 x C_2. (I think I corrected an error here)
Now then N = <s> is normal in H
But if we have some normal subgroup K of Dih(8) containing N, then rsr^-1 is also in K, so srsr^-1 = r^-2 is in K, so H is in K.
So such a thing is impossible.
In my head I'm just describing G = C_2 wr S_2, the subgroup H = C_2 x C_2, and the normal subgroup N = {1} x C_2.
@shrewd sandal That's a summary.
Thank you so much!
Have you encountered semidirect products before? They are a good way to construct a large number of groups. The above was an example.
I'm trying to classify all the left ideals in this ring
am I right in observing that any left ideal is of the form (n) in the (1,1) spot, Q in the (2,1) spot and either 0 or Q in the (2,2) spot?
except the 0 ideal
I have but a while ago
That's correct, except there's also the one that's 0 in (1,1) and (2,1), then Q in (2,2)
oh, that's right
Yeah
now trying to think of a right ideal that is not finitely generated... would [0, 0; dyadics, 0] be finitely generated? that kind of stuff is the only thing that comes to mind
there's no way it can
and I believe it is a right ideal too... so I hope it works
It works, but I guess [0, 0; Q, 0] would have been simpler
ah lol, didn't even think of that
just assumed it would be finitely generated... now I realize it is not due to the same reason
thanks for all the help
Okay, I'm struggling a little bit. I need to show that $I=(X_1-a_1,\dots X_n-a_n)\subseteq k[X_1,\dots, X_n]$ is a maximal ideal.
I'm struggling to figure out what I can do for this one.
dackid
Where did you get stuck?
Oh, I should mention, k is a commutative ring with a unit, and a_1,...,a_n are in k
Well, I'm doing Willian Fullton's book on Algebraic Curves. So my attempt may not be made for this channel, but I'll at least tell you what I tried
My idea was to take an ideal that is properly contains I, we'll call it I'.
However, $I\subset I' \Rightarrow V(I)\supset V(I')$ (V(I) is the set of all points in $k$ that make all polynomias in $I$ to be 0).
$V(I)$ is just the singleton $(a_1,\dots, a_n)$, so that must mean $V(I')$ would have to be the empty set. And so if we look at the ideal of this set, we have $I(V(I'))=k[X_1,\dots, X_n]$. Which...would be great if we knew $I'$ was an ideal of a set in $A^n(k)$, but that's not guaranteed.
dackid
So I don't think this idea works.
As for doing it directly in k[x_1,...,x_n], I'm not entirely sure I have an idea of where to start for that.
I know it would be sufficient to show 1 is in I'
I think you might be overcomplicating things
I would agree
I'd like to think of quotienting by maximal ideal, which would give a field.
Are you implying that if the quotient group is a field, then it's a maximal ideal?
I dunno if it changes anything, but I forgot k is a field.
Though, when dealing with poly's, I dunno if that's that significant of a difference
Okay, hmm. So in order for it to be a field, we need the quotient group to have mult. Inverses
Why wouldn't it change anything though?
Can you compute the quotient, like, what the elements would look like?
Yea, so $$k[X_1,\dots, X_n]/I=G+\sum_{i=1}^n (X_i-a_i)F_i,$$
where$G$ and each $F_i$ are in $k[X_1,\dots, X_n]$.
dackid
That sum on the right is what the elements in the ideal look like.
Let's consider simpler cases.
What happens for n = 1?
Okay sure, then the sum is just (X-a_1)F for some F in k[X]
Hmm wait
You know some characterizations of being a maximal ideal?
Just the base definition
Welp I do not want to spoil..
I mean, its pretty essential (comm) alg knowledge IMO
But, can you iterate all elements of k[x]/(x) @lethal cipher
Okay here is a fact, maybe it rings a bell, an ideal I is prime iff R/I is an integral domain
A similar fact holds for maximal ideals, try to figure out what it can be
That's the one absta wants me to get to know (show R/I is a field)
In that case, it might even be easier to do the general proof
Okay, If I have done these before, it was a fair bit ago. Imma see if I can prove these first. I'll be back in a bit
good thing to remember is that x is either in I, or x+I contains 1 when maximal
Oh? I didn't know that.
Ah, I see, yeah.
Huh. For a ring Z and I = 3Z, does 2 + 3Z contain 1?
I need a brain restart. I'll come back to this once I'm ready (and once I try those two problems).
Thank you for the help so far
Ah, do you mean (x) + I?
yup
Take the quotient
to show it is $k$ note you equivalently want to create a surjective (well, that is automatic) map of $k$-algebras $k[x_1,\dots,x_n] \to k$ with kernel $(x_1-a_1,\dots,x_{n}-a_n)$.
PD potato
Okay, so this one's actually easy to prove. As for the maximal ideal one, is the goal just to show 1+I is in R/I?
and you don't have much choice
Well it always is
Yea, I said the wrong thing. We want a field, so I need to show every non-zero element in R/I has an inverse
Sure
Though these things are really fundamental to commutative algebra so I'd make sure you get used to them
From what I understand, that's what I am aiming for
Oh no, I tried hard to not spit this fact
Don't worry. That's the last part of the problem anyways
Just saying, your approach can be different
Okay anyways. I'm currently just trying to show that if I is a maximal ideal, then R/I is a field.
I'm having a hard time seeing how they connect here
The prime ideal one was basically free tbh
This one feels less so
Just to be clear...1+I should be the mult. Identity of R/I right?
Yes
Okay, I'm a bit stuck. So if we let a+I in R/I, then the goal is the show there is a b+I s.t. (a+I)(b+I)=1+I.
I guess this is also equivalent to saying (ab-1)+I=I
What does it mean for a + I to be nonzero in R/I? What is the relation between a and I?
True, that's important
It can't be in I itself
yea
by assumption I is maximal
so now you have an element a not in I, I is maximal
go from there
Maximal just means there's no proper ideal containing I.
ya
So a is not in an ideal (that is not R itself)
sure, but we can do better / be more specific
construct an ideal in terms of a and I that strictly contains I
there are some operations we can do to combine two ideals to form a new ideal, I'm sort of assuming you know these operations
Well, (a) is an ideal
true. But can we say that (a) strictly contains I?
Correct me if I'm wrong, but is (a) the sum of the powers of a? (I remember the group generators, not the ring one that well).
For a finite set ${a_1, \ldots, a_n}$, the finitely generated ideal is $(a_1, \ldots, a_n) = {r_1 a_1 + \cdots + r_n a_n \ |\ a_i \in R }$
Spamakin🎷
so for a single element a, (a) is just elements of the form ra
easy to check that this is an ideal
Oh! So it'd just be ra. That makes way more sense
Okay, so you said we wanted to include I, so why not (a)+I?
you know the sum of two ideals is an ideal right? So yea that's the right ideal to consider
Yea, this makes perfect sense
Okay, so this has to be R since it is an ideal that is strictly larger than I itself
yup
if you haven't proven that the sum of two ideals is an ideal, and that the intersection of two ideals is an ideal, do that after this. It's not hard and comes up a ton, very useful fact
The sum one I can see automatically. That really isn't that hard
do it later, lets not get side tracked from this R/I field iff I maximal proof
Intersection makes sense too.
ok so we have that (a) + I = R
It just comes from the fact we have distribution on our side
and remember our goal is to find an element b such that in R/I, (a + I)(b + I) = 1 + I
Yep, and since (a)+I=R, there is an r s.t. ar+I=1
you mean ar + i = 1 for some r in R, i in I?
yea, ar - 1 in I means that ar = 1 R/I
ok so we've shown that if I is maximal R/I is a field
do the other direction now
Cool!
Ah sorry, were you just beginning commutative algebra
No, I just need to freshen up on my ring knowledge.
Oh. Then sorry for assuming again..
Hmm, okay. Suppose R/I is a field, then for a in I, there is a c in I s.t. (ac-1)+I=I, so ac-1 is in I
So far just treading backwards at the moment
you want to show that I is maximal
so let I be an ideal and consider an ideal J strictly containing I
Ah, okay.
hint: if you can show that J has a unit, then you are done (why?)
Because any idea that contains a unit has to be the ring itself
yea
treading backwards is fine but you have to keep in mind what the goal is
hence your treading backwards should have started with this
True, true.
because in fact c only exists if a + I is nonzero in R/I


