#groups-rings-fields
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then form the triangle using those sides
you now have a triangle that is bigger than the original triangle, yet contained in it
ig by area
ye that is what I mean
basically divide it up into rigth angled triangles
I suppose writing stuff down is not too bad either. Given $x+\omega y$, $x,y\in\Q$ you want to find $a,b\in\Z$ with $|a+b\omega+x+y\omega|=(a+x)^2-(a+x)(b+y)+(b+y)^2<1$, you can choose a,b such that $|a+x|, |b+y|<=1/2$ and then that expression is $\leq 3/4<1$
croqueta3385
that is what I've been too lazy to do for the past 20 minutes
ty for doing it for me lmao
i guess there is also another meme way lol
well it's what you sid ig
the area is like uh sqrt(3)/4 or smth
idk
well eh irrelevant now lol
thanks for the help, tho I still don't think I figured out how the hint is supposed to be used
like
this is part 2 of the question
so surely, rotman didn't expect the reader to use the complex norm
for part i
I'm guessing
@long geyser The complex norm doesn't work though, no? Since a²+b² isn't an integer in general
Let me rephrase that
|x|² for x in Z[w] isn't an integer in general
In Z[i] it is, but here it is not
Yes but that isn't euclidean distance
Which they used because of the triangle argument if I am reading correctly
no, like, the norm of a + bX is (a + b)(a - b) where X is an indeterminant
i think this is how artin defines it
Yes I know my point is that they are trying to prove it is a euclidean domain using a different norm
ah, i missed that. wasn't reading closely enough
um
unsure what you mean, but when I substituted omega = -1/2 + sqrt(3)/2 i
it did turn out to be just complex norm squared
a^2 - ab + b^2 I mean
a + b omega = (a - b/2) + (sqrt(3)b/2) i
(a - b/2)^2 + (sqrt(3)b/2)^2 = a^2 - ab + b^2
unless I fked up a calculation
So this is false
If a n b are integers, then a^2 - ab + b^2 is an integer
I hope that is not controversial
is norm defined anywhere else in the text? @long geyser
He yeah lol
For some reason I thought a²-ab+b² wasn't the euclidean norm squared
@kind temple
Good to know I guess
then all you need to show is that delta is multiplicative lol
my question was related to the hint that was given for the first part of the question
if you show the degree function is the complex norm squared, (ii) is trivial, so I'm assuming the hint in (i) wasn't related to the complex norm
this is part (i)
oh, misunderstood🫡

Let $G$ be a group and ${H_i}_{i=1}^n$ normal subgroups of $G$ such that $H_1 \dots H_n=G$. Assuming that each $g \in G$ has a unique representation as a product $h_1 \dots h_n$ with $h_i \in H_i$, how can I show that $\phi: G \to H_1 \times \dots \times H_n$ such that $\phi(h_1 \dots h_n)=(h_1, \dots ,h_n)$ is a homomorphism?
Heywood Jablome
Use induction on n, and use the fact that all the H's are normal and that the decomposition is unique
Here's the solution for n=2
||Write h1h2h1'h2'. Now because H1 and H2 are normal we can write h2h1' = h1'h2'', so h1h2h1'h2' = h1h1'h2''h2'. We can also write that h2h1' = h1''h2, so h1h2h1'h2' = h1h1''h2h2'. But the decomposition of h1h2h1'h2' into h1'''h2''' is unique, so we have that h2''h2' = h2h2' and h1h1' = h1h1''. Thus we have from our first equality that h1h2h1'h2' = h1h1'h2h2' and hence the map is a homomorphism.||
I maybe didn't use the best notation so it'll take a bit to parse it
I think you have the composition mixed up
Once you apply b after doing a
It sjould be
1 2
3 4
Yeah?
Wait

Sorry
1 3
2 4
The 90 degree counter clockwise should be
aba
Since aba = b^-1
You probably don't want to use both b and c as generators.
So I shouldn't define a, b and c like that?
I'm not sure what your goal is, so I'm a little wary of saying "shouldn't". But usually the dihedral group is considered to be generated by just one reflection and one rotation.
Thanks 🙏
In the third line of the accepted answer, why is Im f = Lhttps://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1350582/equivalent-condition-for-split-exact-sequence?rq=1
this is in the context of adjoining elements of a superring to some base ring, the inclusion doesnt really mean inclusion of sets but the existence of an injective ring homomorphism?
Depends a bit on your underlying formalism. Usually these things are written under the assumption that the base ring is literally a subset of the superring, but if there's a reason you can't keep up that pretense, you'll need to work in terms of injective homomorphisms, yes.
if you use injective homomorphisms formalism, then does inclusion both ways imply equality(isomorphism)?
You'll need some extra footwork to show that in that case, I think.
If psi f = id, then f is injective, so gives an isomorphism between it's domain and image.
I think they got N and L switched up though.
hmm, inclusion notation really makes it confusing I feel like then
There's a reason why the convention is to pretend we're talking about honest subsets of the larger ring.
thats what i was thinking
i am trying to show that condition (1) implies that there is a homomorphism phi:L to M such that g \circ phi=id
do you have any hint?
but doesn't this pretending fall apart, when you try to use two way inclusion to prove equality or something?
I know that M is isomorphic to Im f \oplus Ker psi
which is Ker f \oplus Ker psi since this is an exact sequence
but i dont see how to construct a right inverse for g out of this
If the smaller ring isn't literally a subset of the larger ring, you can start by injecting it; the smaller ring is then isomorphic to its image in the larger ring, so you can do the rest of the argument actually inside the larger ring and once the dust has settled transfer the result back along the original inclusion.
(a right inverse thats also a homo)
The proof in the accepted answer works just fine. They've just swapped the names of L and N
yeah nm actually, the book literally defines R[u] to be relative to a superring R' that contains R as sets anyway
what is the phi?
Yeah. It's possible to do it the other way if you invest the necessary work in keeping the inclusions straight, though -- that can be necessary if you want to phrase the argument in category-theoretic language, e.g. because you hope to transfer it to a different category.
maybe that phi(l)=(0,l)?
You have M = ker (+) Im ~= N (+) L. So phi is just given by this isomorphism
wdym
Yooo, how do I introduce the space that irreducible representation $\rho'$ is a part of when we consider $\rho$ as the representation we decomposed into irreducible representations?
FrankF
yes
Well, just like I said
M is equal to a direct sum, each summand is isomorphic to L and N respectively, so that gives you an isomorphism with the direct sum
im trying to find a right inverse for g
Are you trying to find it or proving that it exists?
prove that it exists
Well then your done
i have an isomorphism M with N + L
so then is the inverse map for g given by phi(x)=(0,x)
do you know why skowronski calls 0 -> L -> M -> N -> 0 an extension of L by N? im assuming i just haven't read enough to understand what motivates this terminology in this context
Like the answer on MSE says, if you restrict g to ker(f psi), you get an isomorphism. So a right inverse for g is just an inverse to this isomorphism
I like the answer here
i meant specifically as opposed to an extension of N by L
which appears to be more conventional in homological algebra - i can accept rationalizations of both
Well, L embeds into M, so L is the thing being extended. And that matches for example "extension of rings" or "field extension".
The other way (extension of N by L) probably comes from N being first in the notation Ext(N, L) (which comes from the Hom-functor)
I'm not sure that one is particularly more motivated than another in any given context. You just have to pick a convention.
I tried to extend GF(2) the finite field of two elements into
$GF(2^5)$ by adjoining $\alpha$ root of $x^5 + x + 1$ or $\alpha^5 + \alpha + 1 = 0$
Jack_The_Wizard
But if I compute $\alpha^{40}$ by using $\alpha^{31} = 1$ then I compute $\alpha^9 = \alpha^4 + \alpha + 1$
But I can also look at $(\alpha + 1)^8$ and get the final result as $\alpha^4 + \alpha^3 + 1$.
This is bad as then alpha cubed = alpha
And I can't figure out what went wrong at all
It's been bothering me
Maybe you can step through what you're doing a little closer?
Like a^9 = a^40 = a^4 + a + 1
I'm with you there
Then you look at (a+1)^8 and what happens exactly?
I consider the binomial expansion
The binomial expansion should get you a^8 + 1
Mhm then I do $\alpha^3\alpha^5 + 1$
Jack_The_Wizard
Sure, so (a+1)^8 = a^4 + a^3 + 1....
Yes
And then what
And $\alpha^{40} = (\alpha + 1)^8$
Jack_The_Wizard
I see, well
(x^2 + x + 1)(x^3 + x^2 + 1) = x^5 + x +1
So your polynomial isn't irreducible.
That should be the problem
Ahh
So the field extension only works if the polynomial is irreducible
I kind of assumed it would be since it has no roots
Like neither 0 nor 1
Yes, the ring
F2[x]/(x^5 + x + 1) will actually be GF(2^2) x GF(2^3), so not a field
And you won't necessarily have a^31 = 1
Thanks a ton
Really i appreciate it, my writeup was a bit rough starting out, thanks again.
Finding a root only tells you whether a polynomial has a linear factor, but polynomials of degree > 3 can be reducible without having a linear factor
If I have a ring homomorphism from a group ring RG does it hold linearity all the way down? i.e
F(Σ r_g . g) = Σ r_g . F(g) ?
since each g is itself embedded in RG?
You need to write F(r_g) unless you’re talking about R-algebras, but apart from that you are right.
say F: RG -> S, then S needs to be a R-algebra?
sorry then I don't see what you mean. aren't coefficients by definition elements of the ring R?
Not of S
how do rings of matrices work? for example, M_3(Z/6Z)? i've been asked to count how many ideals it would have and i have no idea how to even begin to conceptualize this ring
I believe i've just read that there is a bijection between the ideals of M_n(R) and the ideals of R (for any ring R). Is this true?
Yes, J is an ideal of M_n(R) if and only if J=M_n(I) for some ideal I of R
wonderful, thank you
This is how my teacher write down the lattice for Z_18, could anyone help me explain why <1> is at the bottom? Also, he said something about 1 being the identity but I thought the identity was 0
your teacher should have put <0> (where 0 is the identity), I think they slipped up and were thinking of Z_18 as a group with the operation being written as multiplication, maybe with a generator x, so that the elements are
{1=x^0, x^1, x^2, ..., x^17},
and 1 is the identity. however, above they were writing <2> for example, not <x^2>, so again you're right that they should have written <0>
I've just read a bit on fields in my abstract alg textbook, but it didn't explicitly state that it must be closed under multiplication and addition, but are these closure properties not apart of a field?
or is it just that these are so obvious that it don't need mentioning
when the book stated the definition of a field, maybe it stated something like addition is a function
+: F x F —> F
where the notation itself is stating that addition is “closed”, ie addition is a function that takes in two elements of F, and it must give you another element of F (not something in a different or larger set)
i see thank you. In my book it did not state this, so I was a little bit confused.
saying that addition is a function F x F —> F or in words saying that addition is a binary operation (same thing by definition) is I guess implicitly saying that addition is “closed”
right, so I guess in a way it follows quickly from the definition, so the author didn't mention it
and the same applies to multiplication as well?
yep, whenever an author says a binary operation, they mean a function F x F —> F, so it by definition has to land inside F
yeah no problem!
hi i dont understand why the definition of direct sum and product differ for infinite vector spaces
so going by product and co-product
the direct sum is the co-product, so we've got this kind of diagram with the coproduct, with f o i_n = f_n
i just really dont quite get why the direct product isnt also just the coproduct
nvm i understand now
the coproduct is defined st f is uniquely defined by each f_n and i_n
if you have an element e with infinite support, f(e) can be defined arbitrarily
what axis are you reflecting over for a?
Vertical
But why 90° rotations doesn't work
wdym by don't work
I think they mean why don't they commute with reflections
I tried clockwise 90 degree rotation as b but I can't draw it correctly
You've answered your question then 
Yea but why don't they commute
Are you looking for answer more meaningful than just a counterexample?
Meaningful
I'm not sure if it's only I can't draw it or if it's something that can't be drawn
Interestingly enough I think this has to do with the fact that rotation by 180 degrees is equivalent to reflection about the origin when you consider its action on a single line passing through the origin
What if I try to make a group by generators x and y such that x^(p^2) =1 and y^p =1 and xy = x^(-1)y and p is a prime number.
Then is it non-Abelian group of order p^3?
I just try to make a non-abelian group of order p^3.
xy = x^-1 y implies x²=1
So x has order 2
Wait
xy = yx^(-1)
I am trying to find a relation but first I am using this relation which is used in dihedral
Why do you want to make a non-abelian group of order p³?
Because it is a question
That gives you x^n·y = y·x^(-n), in particular x^-1·y = yx.
Now x·y^m = y^m·x^((-1)^m), and setting m=p here gives you x·1 = 1·x^-1 when p is an odd prime.
If you also have x^(p²)=1, that kills x completely.
Hint: The standard example I know of is a matrix group over F_p.
Group of invertible matrix, right? But it has order (p^(n) -1)( p^n - p).....(p^(n) -p^(n-1))
Yeah, you you'll need to restrict to a subgroup of that.
Yes I need to think of it
"A matrix group" generally means a subgroup of GL(n,F), not necessarily the entire GL(n,F).
Okay thank you
Further hint: ||If you consider triangular matrices, there are some entries you can choose freely without risking a change in whether the matrix is invertible.||
I am not sure but what if we take 3×3 matrices with upper triangular matrices with diagonal 1, but its inverse also has this form, right?
Yes inverse also has this form
Is it correct?
Yes :-)
Okay, thanks a lot
Prove that the group of invertible n x n matrices GL(n,F) with entries from the field F is not solvable for n \geq 5.
I thought that maybe this group has A_5 as a subgroup?
prove that the commutator subgroup of Sl_n(F) is Sl_n(F)
That’s another way
Ah yes that was my second guess, thanks!
Actually it’s much easier to show that the group contains S_5
I think your way is better
if I show that xH cap yK is closed under multiplication by H cap K from the right, is that sufficient to show it is a left coset of H cap K?
uh, no
could be a union of cosets
nvm, figured out the solution, just struggled with coming up with a candidate for the coset representative
but it was staring at me
need help with this
if we call Y the closure of X under all conjugates, it is easy to see that the subgroup generated by Y is contained in N (since Y itself is)
I'm struggling with the converse direction, and I'm pretty sure the way to do it is showing that the subgroup generated by Y is itself normal
I tried to use this construct, but unable to show that the set of words on Y is closed under conjugation
Conjugation is a homomorphism, so when you conjugate a word you can conjugate each letter in it separately instead.
How is "generated by" defined here? Intersection of all containing subgroups?
yes
Ok, then it makes sense.
can i use this lemma here?
Hello1
(When showing Hom(P,M) is a functor for P projective defined as above)
Indeed
You can check exactness piecewise, between each 2 arrows.
what do you call a group with no identity element
useless
ok but listen
no
pls
consider the set {i, -i, j, -j, k, -k} in R3 with the cross product
it forms some sort of algebraic structure similar to a group
but there's no identity
let me draw you a picture maybe
its called a semigroup
so it's a semigroup?
no
the thing you originally asked
i took to mean “group axioms minus identity”
your thing is not even associative
wdym? the cross product is associative
no
yes it is
are you sure about that
incidentally R^3 equipped with cross product is an example of an algebraic structure which is more commonly studied than semigroups/monoids/whatever
namely a lie algebra
but the underlying vector space structure is quite relevant there
ok this is cool
this is what i was looking for kinda
is it
i mean it doesn't really describe the i j k thing i was talking about but you gave me something to read
so thanks i guess
enjoy
That's not total either; you'll need a 0 for i×i.
by zero, you mean identity?
I mean the cross product of any vector by itself it the zero vector, which is not listed in {i, -i, j, -j, k, -k}.
A further problem is that if you say "like a group but without identity" instead of "like a monoid but without identity", then you're implying that inverses exist, and it's difficult to define what that even means while still leaving it possible not to have an identity.
The table above suggest that such a thing would be called an "associative quasigroup", but that is just a group.
nvm there aren't even generators
or it can't be generated by i and j alone i think
The trouble there is again lack of associativity, which means that not every combination of generators can be expressed as a linear word.
word?
A product of a finite sequence of generators.
ah i see
that makes sense actually
so i guess this is why quaternions are useful
their multiplication actually forms a group and such
Yeah.
it's almost like you need 4 dimensions
3d doesn't work
i'm sure that's some theorem we talked about in class
That's the Frobenius Theorem about real division algebras.
hmm. i wonder what would happen if you tried 3d. like just 1, i, j with no k. but then you run into the issue of defining the products
like what should ij be
I forget about what is due to whom
Cause there is also Radon-Hurwitz stuff
Ah yeah I think what I have in mind is Hurwitz which is for normed division algebras
But normed division algebras needn't be associative, so they are not even necessarily division algebras
Lol
e.g. octonions
how are alternating groups simple?
oh
normal subgroup
I see.....
nevermind
ignore me
now that I think about it
if it was what I think it was it would have only been prime cyclic groups lol
"the three infinite classes of such, namely" (then goes on to list four classes)
I guess only the first 3 are infinite. And that the last class only contains the Tits group (at least if we removed the overlap)
I guess it is still kinda poorly written imo
It is, but I guess it's fine. They also explain it a little more in [note 1]
I read note 1 and it wasn't even obvious to me what it had to do with the item it's attached to.
It's saying that if you take the derived subgroups of this family of Ree groups you get an infinite family of simple groups. And the first group in this family is the Tits group (and all others are groups of lie type).
It's not saying what "Ree groups" have to do with the text the note is attached to.
The text is talking about the derived subgroups of groups of lie type, then it gives a family of groups of lie type and their derived subgroups
So it's talking about one of the confusingly many families of "groups of Lie type" and saying that the Tits group is the derived group of one of those?
Yeah, it's basically just trying to argue that the Tits group is not sporadic, since it fits into an infinite family
But wait, if the groups of Lie type are simple (they are the family listed just above), how can they have distinct derived groups at all?
Not all groups of lie type are simple
That's pretty confusingly written, then.
I guess. It also just is somewhat complicated and confusing I guess
Especially since they go to the length of specifying "cyclic groups of prime order" and "alternating groups of degree at least 5".
I guess it would feel silly to say that a group is simple if it is a "simple group of lie type"
It also doesn't really help that "group of lie type" isn't really that precisely defined anyway
You mean in the article?
i proved that it is associative but i have a problem proving that it has e
the identity is just 0
(A shortcut is to prove that it is isomorphic as a set-with-binary-operation to R\{0} under multiplication).
how did u know that ? is it the same as normal filed R ?
Yeah, Wikipedia doesn't commit to any specific definition, but just talks about specific families of groups of lie type
that’s annoying. I guess it is kind of elaborate to define compared to the other families
someone should edit
The article (especially the "List of finite simple groups" one) also seems to presuppose that the reader already knows how to read its ^number Letter _number notation for specifying each of the groups it lists.
Just try it out
it is the same identity as in R with addition yes
i guess we want some b such that a + b + ab = a, so b = 0 is a pretty natural choice
indeed it is the only choice
so true
ok thx guys
I was doing an exercise that's like "show that fibre products and coproducts exist in the category Ab"
but i don't think i really understand fibre products
can't you just equip any product with two maps to a final object to make it a fiber product
(pls don't spoil the solution btw)
when is G ≅ (G / N) X N?
Yes, every product can be made as a fiber product, but you cannot make every fiber product as a product.
"Show that fiber product exist" means to show that for every two morphisms with the same codomain you can complete them into a pullback square.
You need to guess a "complement" of N inside G, which satisfies the conditions are given at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Direct_product_of_groups#Algebraic_structure
There’s also a cohomological interpretation (let’s just say stuff is abelian), which is when G corresponds to the trivial class in Ext^1(G/N,N)
what does Ext mean?
Don’t worry about it, it’s more trouble to explain everything. It’s the derived functor of Hom but also classifies extensions. You’ll see it at some point, so just take this answer as a little taste of something to come later
hey a question regarding nomenclature: does 'splitting field of a polynomial' usually mean the smallest field that contains all its roots or just a fileld that contains all its roots?
smallest
My professor seems to be using them interchangably
for example C is not the splitting field of x^2 + 1 over Q
I see, thank you.
so one would just say that x^2+1 splits into linear factors over C because C contains it's splitting field?
Well, saying "because" seems a bit wrong
[whatever polynomial] splits into linear factors over C because C is algebraically closed.
the egg got a crack in it because it was ran over by a dump truck
Up to isomorphism, how many commutative unital rings with 8 elements are there?
Z/8,
Z/4[x]/(2x, x^2),
F8,
Z/2[x]/(x^3),
Z/2[x, y]/(x, y)^2
Should be all the connected ones
Then there's
(Z/2)^3
(Z/2)x(Z/4)
(Z/2)x(Z/2[x]/(x^2))
And I guess that's it
Finite rings are artinian and commutative artinian rings are products of local rings.
To classify local artinian rings you think about what the residue field can be and what the radical can be.
You forgot (Z/2)xF4
I'm struggling with the last sentence here: how do we know that the minimal poly of omega has m distinct roots? to be clear, the entire discussion doesn't depend on this number, just knowing they are distinct is enough
I'm confused about the m part, not the distinct part
A degree m polynomial has m roots
What does the second half of Z/2[x,y]/(x,y)^2 mean?
but why is irr(omega, k) degree m, I guess something fundamental is getting missed by me
Is it a typo and supposed to be (x,y^2)?
I think it's supposed to be product of (x,y) with itself
What is (x,y)?
The ideal generated by x and y
Oh, I see now
I think that might be a typo actually. The minimal polynomial must have degree strictly less than m
I see, thanks
btw this book has its fair share of mistakes so a type wouldn't be out of the ordinary
omega being seperable is the main point anyway
yeah
If H is a subgroup of G, then (aH)(bH) =abH, where a and b are in G, is it correct?
yes
Yes
The question clearly says "in SL_2(R)"
no i mean does this det(AB) = det(A) * det(B) for all matrices
Ah
That holds for all matrices A, B, yes
As long as they are square matrices of equal size
oh ok thx
Suppose that $|G|=p^nm$ with $p$ prime and $gcd(p,m)=1$. How do I show that $\binom{|G|}{p^n} \not \equiv 0 \mod p$ ?
Heywood Jablome
this comes up in sylow's theorems
Consider the set X of all subset of G of cardinality p^n.
Let P be the sylow subgroup of G, and let P act on X by left multiplication. Since every orbit has order p^k for some k
|X| = # fixed points (mod p)
The fixed points are exactly the cosets of P, which there are m of.
So (|G| choose p^n) = m (mod p)
This uses that G has a sylow subgroup, in case you haven't proven that yet, just replace G by for example the cyclic group of order |G|, which you know has a sylow subgroup
It's the nth symmetric group. I.e. the group of bijections from {1, ..., n} to itself
Field with one element has entered the chat (please ignore this message)
so if they asked us to prove that some subsets are sub groups for S_n and if yes show that they abelian or not how to do that
this for example
it's a subgroup
do we need to check the normal subgroubs properties ? like non empty identity etc
In general, you would have to check whether it's closed under the operation, whether ab = ba and so on.
But in this case, if you just try to simplify the equation
w^2 = w
a little, you might realize what's happening
can u show me an example that it is closed under operation
okay $\mathbb{Z}$ is closed under addition because if x, y are integers so is $x+y$.
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
It's closed under inversion because $-x$ is an integer if $x$ is an integer.
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
why we didn't use w^2 = w
because i showed you an example (as you requested), I didn't solve your homework for you.
@ornate tiger you should follow this hint of jagr2808, it will lead you to happiness
no i'm depressed 
that's because you're not following the hint
there are other more important things in life than solving abstract algebra exercises
so it'll be okay either way
i need a degree
there are lots of things to study which are related to math but don't depend on your ability to solve abstract algebra questions
Guys, Supposing r in a ring R, how do I prove -(-r) = r ...I feel like I am being stupid but I am in a hurry tbh and cannot think clearly 
0 = (1 + -1)r = r + -r
Oh yes, thank you I am a tool
What are the possible orders of elements in S_4 and why ?
what i should do to know them
Do you know how to write permutations as product of disjoint cycles?
show an example
right
Ok ok so in general (probably you already know this), any permutation can be written as a product of disjoint cycles
And uniquely
Well "uniquely"
You could have written (124)(3) as (241)(3) for example
But (241) is the same cycle as (124)
ok wait |S4| = 24 so that's a lot like if we considered (124)(3) = (241)(3) then now we have 23 and we still have a lot to check
is this right ?
No that's not right
These permutations are the same
Oh wait I see what you are saying
Thought you were saying something else
Well the point is you don't have to check every permutation separately
Say if you have a permutation of the form (124)(3)
Or in general
(abc)(d)
What is its order?
to know the order what do we need to reach ?
Well you could just compute it
What is ((abc)(d))²
It's (acb)(d) which isn't the identity
the identity here is (abc)(d) ?
But ((abc)(d))³=
((abc)(d))²((abc)(d))=
(acb)(d)(abc)(d)=
(a)(b)(c)(d)
No it's the identity in S4
The permutation that sends 1 to 1, 2 to 2, 3 to 3 and 4 to 4
so it's this (a)(b)(c)(d) ?
Yep
waht is the order of this
3
because it has 3 elements ?
I mean in a sense but no
Think about what happens to a if you apply the permutation three times
oh we reached the identity when we raised to the third power
The first time it goes to b
so it has the order of 3
The next time to c
The next to a
It takes 3 "turns" to reach a back
Same happens to b and c
And d just stays put all the time
this is fales ?
That's true
So in general when you have a permutation of the form (abc)(d) it will have order 3
What other "type" of permytation can we have?
(ab)(cd) ?
so the order is what 2+2 ?
No
so how to calculate it like the prev one
The order is how many times you need to repeat the permutation until you get back to the identity.
so it's 2 ?
Yes.
what are they
the order of this is 1
Yes that's the identity
and this is 4 ?
Yep
ok so we do 1+4+3+2 ?
No no we now know what's the order of each possible type
Hello, sorry to butt in - Are there any good resources for group theory problems with worked solutions? Trying to expand my knowledge
We now need to count how many permutations there are for every possible type
Say for (a)(b)(c)(d) the only option is (1)(2)(3)(4)
So we have one element of order 1
Now how many permutations of the type (ab)(cd) are there?
yeah it's true but how did u calculate it is there a formula for this ?
You have to count them
There isn't a formula
I mean the options were (1)(2)(3)(4), (2)(3)(4)(1), etc.
But here the order doesn't matter
They still represent the same permutation
So it's just one
Lets imagine for a sec we are in S3 and want to count the elements of cycle type (abc)
Let's say we start with a=1
Then there are two options for b and c is forced
so there's 6 ? at the end
And we notice that we already counted every possible permutation of type (abc) since (231) is just (123)
No
there's 2
yeah but that does not help like S3 for (a)(b)(c) is 1 and for (abc) is 2 for (ab)(c) is also 2 ig right
(ab)(c) is 3
it goes for a to b to c ? why not a to b to a ?
What we can say is well
Theres one of type (a)(b)(c)
So theres 1 of order 1
Theres 2 of type (abc)
So we have 2 of order 3
And theres 3 of type (ab)(c)
So 3 of order 2
And we are done
So:
Order 1: 1
Order 2: 3
Order 3: 2
Notice how 1+2+3=6=3! so we counted all permutations
what if we had S12 this is hard
Yes it is lmao
But it's easier than counting permutations one by one
I wouldn't say it is hard though
It is long
yeah i want to see if i understood what u said in S4
Ok lets see
what order is this 2 ?
i hear voices in my head like randy orton i'm going to rko this topic
the other one is (ab)(cd)
so do we sum the 2 ways
Yes
so the order 2 : 4 ? or what like i know (ab)(cd) has the order 2 and (ab)(c)(d) has the order 2 like does that mean we have 4 ?
Yes
so there's 3 here
Yes
One way to think of it is well a has to have some partner
It is either b, c or d
So 3 choices
And the rest is forced
and (ab)(c)(d) we can get (ac)(b)(d) and (ad)(b)(c)
No theres more
did a lost his partner
Yes a can have no partber lmao
and now b and c partners
Or
theres one left
(dc)(a)(b)
Yep
wait i think there's a mistake (ab)(cd) is 2 cycles but (ab)(c)(d) is 3 cycles
do we only care about the order
like the order of 2
Yes
Theres more
Like first you choose who misses out in the fun
4 options
And then it's just counting the possibilities for (abc)
No
Like how do you create a permutation of this kind. Well, you chose one out of the four options you have to leave him out
And then the other 3 can be ordered in two ways
(abc) or (acb)
but they are the same
Just like we did in S3
No they are not
The first one sends a to b and the sexond one sends a to c
They are the same "type" but they are different as permutations
(123)(4) and (132)(4) are not the same
Its what we did here
ok let me try find all of them
(abc)(d) ,(abd)(c) , (acb)(d) , (adb)(c) , (adc)(b) ,(bca)(d) , (bcd)(a) , (bdc)(a) , (bad)(c) , (bda)(c)
i feel there's more
There should be 8
Yes (bca)(d) and (abc)(d) are the same
You are xounting it twice
yeah true
Same with (adb)(c) and (bad)(c)
really i don't see that
Here a->d, b->a, c->c and d->b
Thats true for both
One way to count them is just saying "ill put the smallest one first always"
Like (abc) you can write it as (bca) and (cab)
But following the convention that the smallest one (in this case a) goes first always, you dont overcount stuff
Alternatively you accept the overcounting and correct for it afterwards: There are 4! ways to write something of the form (_ _ _) (_), but each permutation of that type has exactly 3 ways to write it, so divide by 3 to undo the overcounting.
ok i see that they are the same
order 1: 1
order 2: 9
order 3: 8
order 4: ?
i think we will get 6
so we get 24
Yes
ok i will go back to everything u said to understand better and keep it in my head thanks for your time
Ler G be a free abelian group with generators U, V and H be another free abelian group with generators a,b,c. Let f: G -> H be the homomorphism defined as
f(pU + qV) = (q-p)a + (p-q)b + (p + q)c
How do I determine Im(f)?
If I have a polynomial ring in several variables like for instance Z[x,y,z] I'm pretty sure the set of all monomials like XYZ, zzzzz, XYX form a basis of the space. But I'm not really sure how to say this with the language of modules.
Do you say the monomials form a basis of Z[X,Y,Z] as a Z module?
Yes. (It’s an algebra)
Every element in R[X,Y,Z] (R a ring in general) is a finite sum over scaled monomials in 3 variables
The image will be things of the form
(q-p)a + (p-q)b + (p+q)c
or what do you mean determine?
In fact this basis can be ordered. Can you think of a way to order them?
Oh, I want to know what elements generate the image
The image of U and V will, or the image of any other choice of generators for G
2c and a - b + c for example
Well X,Y,Z has an order. I can't remember what the set X,Y,Z is in relation to R[X,Y,Z] I guess it's a subset of the generators as a ring.
But probably if you use the alphabetical order of X, Y, Z then if you have in multi index notation a=(a1,a2,a3) say W^a=X^a1 Y^a2 Z^a3 then I guess if you had another monomial W^b with b=(b1,b2,b3) it feels like you can do some type of lexographical order where W^a<W^b (say i in {1,2,3} is the smallest such that ai not bi) whenever ai<bi
I think I've heard of others but I'm not sure. This makes me think of grobner bases
There’s plenty of them ye
I remember reverse lexicographic order I think because it is way fucking easier to construct inductively
There’s this really silly way of describing it
It’s like a “symmetric polynomial” in the lower ones where addition is instead >
Or at least how I found it when doing some silly combinatorics stuff before I did algebra stuff
Is it possible to define a DFT over an arbitrary ring as long as you choose a unit with order N? And if so, are there any ways to actually compute the corresponding prime?
You need a principal root of unity
That’s literally the whole page lmao
yeah, thats what i figured, ty
Hello, Is there any example of an non connected solvable subgroup of SL2(C) ?
Z as [1, n; 0, 1]
the center is ${\pm 1}$
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
About the 49 exercise in the Gallian's book, 5° ed.
I used the Fundamental Theorem of Cyclic Groups to find all the subgroups of <a> and <b>, which I assumed to be the cyclic subgroups of G with orders 4 and 5, respectively, and I found only <a²> of order two and the trivial {e} of order 1. Is there any other way that can help me derive more cyclic groups of G with orders other than these? I'm racking my brain here and so far haven't seen another way.
4,5 are coprime
Consider the kernel of Z->(Z/mZ sum Z/nZ)
Thank you for your help! However, I am not yet familiar with the kernel concept, as I am still in Chapter 4 of Gallian's book. So far, it has only covered definitions and theories about groups, subgroups, finite groups, and now, in Chapter 4, cyclic groups. Could you suggest an approach that is limited to the elementary theorems about cyclic groups?
It seems that Gallian will only start discussing kernel in Chapter 10.
If x has order 4 and y has order 5, what is the order of xy?
You sure you are saying chapter 10 not section 10…
We might be talking about the same concept but using different names. So far, I haven't come across the word "kernel" or any notation similar to what you showed me. Could it be that "kernel" is what Gallian calls the "generator of the cyclic group"?
And yes, I found the word "kernel" appearing only in Chapter 10.
Just follow sir jagr
Great! 😃
I will check out this one, thanks! 🙂
It only has meaning once you have interacted with the concept of a homomorphism. Once you have, the kernel is just the set of all elements getting send to the identity element and will turn out to be part of a very important class of subgroups having a special property and is generally extremely useful really anywhere in math
(200 pages until group homomorphisms is cursed, jesus)
Should be page 2 lol
grothi is turning in his grave, no relative viewpoint in miles
I just started learning Normal group recently and the definition of an operation being well-defined, that is, if aH = cH and bH=dH, then (aH)(bH)=(cH)(dH).
This brought me to the question related to set theory: Given the sets A,B,C,D. Is it true that, if A=C and B=D, then the Cartesian product AxB=CxD?
Yes, this is true.
Most constructing you'll encounter are well defined, simply because things that aren't well defined don't make much sense
i have a question is it true that for all commutative groups G the centeralizer and the normalizer of any subset A of G are the same ?
Wait, so, given a group G with its subgroup H and a,b \in G. Can aHbH be well-defined, like I described, without H being G's normal subgroup? I doubt it is not
So you can define aHbH simply as {xy| x in aH, y in bH}. But then the problem is that the result might not be another coset.
So this does not define a function G/H x G/H -> G/H
(unless H is normal)
But not that aHbH is completely different from the cartesian product, so not really related to your previous question
It might not be another coset of H. But what I mean is if (aH)(bH) = (cH)(dH)= some subset G' of G then? (if aH = cH, bH=dH, and H is not normal)
This is at best a very confusing description of "well-defined" and at worst directly wrong.
Yes, the definition
{xy | x in aH and y in bH}
only depends on the sets aH and bH. Not by what we chose to call them or anything like that
However, some people might define
aHbH = abH
this does give you a "mapping" of cosets to cosets, but now it might not be well defined
It would be better to write the problematic definition as something like
aH # bH = (ab)H
with an explicit symbol on the LHS to make it clear that it's not (or at least not a priori) trying to define simply the usual product of subsets of a group.
The question is then whether this defines any function from pairs-of-cosets to cosets at all.
If it does (and that turns out to be exactly when H is normal) then there is a function.
If it doesn't then sayign that "# is not well-defined" is common but strictly speaking nonsense because the point is that there is no # which satisfies the above equation for all a and b. So there's no concrete thing that we can look at and say, "that is a thing, but the thing is not well defined".
I think my words here was quite not correct, the full definition should be: "(aH)(bH)= abH is a well-defined operation on left cosets of H in G if aH=cH and bH=dH, then (aH)(bH) = (cH)(dH).
What I really wanted to see was just if "(aH)(bH) = (cH)(dH) without H being normal"
That's still confusing. What you should say is:
aH # bH = (ab)H defines an operation on left cosets of H in G if aH=cH and bH=dH together imply (ab)H = (cd)H.
can we not in general describe k(z_1, ... , z_n) as rational functions on z_1, ... , z_n? that would avoid the need for induction
Yeah lol
More generally given a group G and field K, the fixed points K^G form a subfield
Here take G = <sigma> and K^G contains z_1,...,z_n hence K
the K^G thing comes later on in the book
Lol sure, I'm just mentioning how it fits into smth larger

for this guy, I'm getting confused with regards to the application of second iso thm
for this, you need G_{i+1}N to be normal in whatever ambient group, right? I don't see what ambient group G_{i+1}N is normal in
oh
ok I
'm so dumb
I missed that the entire point of the calculations in between is to show G_i+1N is normal in G_iN
nvm
sometimes I'm so focused on fact checking the individual claims that I miss the big picture
lems
ig I should mention that I know [G : H] is finite as G is
and forgot my final sentence: Now, repeat this process with $ K $ instead of $ H $ until $ \left| G / K \right| $ is of prime order.
What is a basis of the single variable rational functions Q(x) as a Q module?
Is it something like the set of all ab^-1 where b is in Q[x] and is irreducible?
A lot, I bet
Would at least include 1/(q(x))^n for irreducible q.
I think homogenization would be great to simplify this
What is homogenization? Are you talking about the graded structure of Q[x]?
I mean making a polynomial homogeneous.
You introduce additional variable to match the degree.
Oh okay. Hmm let me think about it I'm not sure why homogenization of a polynomial would help
Q(x) sadly does not have a grading structure. Homogenizing is to give it a grading.
Actually I'm looking online and this seems like a more complicated problem that could even depend on the axiom of choice. Hmm..
Well, anything requires axiom of choice tbh
Like IIRC, existence of maximal ideal generally require AoC
Is there a proper term for functions of the form f(x,x) = x akin to idempotence? (Where f does not necessarily give rise to a binary operation)
can you elaborate a bit, do you mean to say f(x,y)=(x+y)/2 would be a special case when f(x,x)=x or something else
What I mean is that $f: A \cross A \to B$ with $A \subseteq B$ and for all $a \in A \subseteq B$, $f(a,a) = a$ (with the rest of $f$ purposely not left defined for generality)
JJCUBER
what's the interest in this
this doesn't feel like idempotence to me, kind of feels like a random thing
well I'm trying to ask if there is a more general class of "functions"/relations which are considered idempotent (more general than that of an idempotent binary operation)
(I'm just curious)
I see I think now, f restricted to A is idempotent
yes
however, is it valid to say this for a function which isn't a binary operation? IIRC, an idempotent function is typically one where f^2 = f (f^2(x) = f(x) for all x in the domain)
well I'm reading it as f is your binary operation, and A is the subset of idempotent elements
As I said, f is not (generally) a binary operation; that would require $f: A \cross A \to A$, but I have $f: A \cross A \to B$ with $A \subseteq B$, which means it could be the case that $A \neq B$
JJCUBER
sure, so what
SayR is a ring and consider the fraction field R(x). I think as R vector spaces R(x)=R[x]+R_p where R_p is a set of rational functions of the form f(x)/g(x)^j with j>0 and deg f<deg g. I think this is basically partially fraction decomposition.
What could be the generalization of this to several variables? Say R(x,y). I'm pretty sure R[x,y] is a subspace with basis the set of monomials. Then R(x,y)=R[x,y]+S where S is some other subspace analogous to R_p but it's not clear to me how I could generalized partial fractions...
I found some description in terms of rep theory but I'm really not following it
You said you are reading it as f is my binary operation, but it’s not…?
the restriction to elements x that satisfy f(x,x)=x is clearly from AxA to A
Ah I see what you mean
Although, wouldn’t it be possible to have $f(a_1, a_1) = a_1$ and $f(a_2, a_2) = a_2$ with $f(a_1, a_2) = b$ for some $a_1,a_2 \in A, b \in B$?
JJCUBER
For example, f(x,y) = x/(y-1) gives f(0,0) = 0 and f(2,2) = 2, but f(2,0) = -2. So let A={0,2} and B={-2,0,2}; in this case, f is not a binary operation when restricted to A x A.
if you call the set A the set of idempotent elements of f, I don't see what being a binary operator or not matters
I guess I just don’t understand from where the terminology “idempotent elements of f” is coming from. Are we just defining it however we want, or does this come from some branch of study relating to functions/relations/etc?
feels obvious enough to me
Say R is a ring and consider the field of fractions R(x) and say I is an ideal of R. I know that R[x]/I=(R/I)[x] . Is it true that similarly R(x)/I=(R/I)(x)?
For a field, the only ideals are the field itself and 0, so the ideal I in R may not be an ideal in R(x)
So R(x)/<I> is either R(x) or 0, <I> means the ideal in R(x) generated by I
R(x)/<I> may not even be a field
is the following true
if (x+1)^n = (x + f(x))^n then f(x) = 1?
Trying to formalize this using polynomial equality
What is x and what is f?
f is a function of x
What set are we working inside
and n is one fixed natural number?
yeah
If n is odd then we can take the nth root to directly obtain f=1 for all x
If n is even then either f=1 for all x or x+1 = -x-f(x) for all x
what are you formally using here
viewing polynomials over which field
field of rational functions?
By R you didn't mean the real numbers?
right but this works in generality over field of rational functions
My bad then
no no R is reals
Ok
What works?
nvm nvm
like for example I am trying to find the roots of this function over R:
but like theres a bunch of garbage that one can get rid of,
and I noticed one can probably get (x+1)^n = (x + f)^n for some f, right
but then f is a function of x, so we just solve for f = 1 to solve for the original equation right?
How?
well I havent worked it out yet
well (x+1) and x + f are polynomials, so their coefficients agree iff they agree
the left hand side is a degree n poly, so the right hand side must also be degree n, i.e., f(x)^n has degree n. if f is of degree m, then you have m + n = n, so m = 0 and f is constant
implying f = 1, but f is a function of x
f(-1) = 1 so f = 1
ah right sorry, I am trying to find x for some function f such that f(x) = 1
what does this mean then? is this equality for all x?
and f is a polynomial?
but its denominator never vanishes
how to prove that (Q,+) is not Cyclic
what do you know about infinite cyclic groups (up to isomorphism, perhaps)?
i know nothing i'm trying to read some stuff about them but i don't know where and what to focus on i don't need to waste a lot of time on it
if you know nothing than how r u going to understand any explanation given for your problem?
give me some fast resource to understand a little about them
wikipedia cyclic groups. or read through the theorems in artin’s algebra or dummit and foote
What is the "lifting lemma" for commutative diagrams?
oh ok does it take a lot of time ? like i have a homework and there's alot of question left
can i fnish this question in 1 hour ?
this question seems easily google-able
oh cool less time
I have replaced G with the cyclic group of order p^nm but now it's not clear to me why Au=A for all u in U \iff A is a coset of U.
Well, do you know the definition of a coset?
Or perhaps better, when are a and b part of the same coset?
Prove that (Q,+) is not cyclic .
is this a good proof ?
This isn't a proof, this is an answer by chatgpt
Good luck learning maths from chatgpt lmao
What's the kernel of G → π1(G)
The map is induced by the identity map G → G
You just have to show that it's the same quotient on both sides
Huh?
H1/N1 and H2/N2 are quotients of G
I claim that the map described by "for any g ∈ G, the coset of g is sent to the coset of g" is well-defined and an isomorphism
not sure how to approach this one, the chapter proves the theorem that any sub module of a free module (over a PID) is free of lower rank, and the proof sort of constructs a basis by quotienting some things. Is that the way to go from here or is there another way I am not seeing?
Composing with H1 -> H1/N1 you get that
H1/N1 = G/N1N2
!nogpt
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
oh i didn't know

Would you at least be able to point me in the right direction (resources, relevant topic names, etc)? I'm just trying to learn about this category of functions, but saying it feels obvious doesn't really help. You have already made a false claim too under the guise of "clearly" being true, which hasn't really helped with my confusion.
For example, all of these refer to a binary operation, but I am asking about whether there exist resources/materials/actual definitions on generalizing idempotency to functions which aren't (generally) binary operations: https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Definition:Idempotence
Idk, sounds good to me
wait what?
Read the 'proof' that ChatGPT provided
im going to have to unlearn math now
Can't wait for classes in two decades called, "MathGPT" where all the material is just AI generated
Clearly the best proof that Q is not isomorphic to Z as Z-modules is that Aut_Z(Z) is finite whilst Aut_Z(Q) isn't
😼
I'm not sure what kind of resources you're after.
Like you can extend the definition f(x, x) = x, to any setting where that makes sense if you want. I'm not sure there is much more interesting to say. Why are you wondering?
Well I was originally merely asking the other person if there was a properly defined/studied class of functions which extend the idempotent characteristic in this way (from beyond binary operations). This was all just out of pure curiosity/in the pursuit of learning something new.
Ok i know a little bit now about cyclic groups how to prove (Q,+) is not cyclic
Give me tips
You can suppose some value is a generator and derive a contradiction
I see. Not that I'm aware of. The important of idempotents really is about how they behave like projections for associative operations.
I don't think functions with f(x, x) = x are any more significant than functions satisfying any other equation.
By projection, are you referring to this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Projection_(linear_algebra)
Ah I found a different definition for projections which is more related to what you are saying; I understand now. Thanks for your insight!
Draw out a picture of what cyclic subgroups of Q look like. Why can this never be the whole of Q? You should be able to spot the issue visually.
And also give me tips for this question
If G in non abelian does G have no sub cyclic group ?
what is a sub-cyclic group?
Do you mean a cyclic subgroup? No, all groups have cyclic subgroups.
(the trivial group)
G is not abelian
So?
Still, like I said, all groups have cyclic subgroups. You need to be clearer on what you are asking.
Wait
first about this question does it not work because like we can send 1 to 1/1 and 2 to 1/2 so we can send n to 1/n but the problem is in 1/n+1
can u give me an example ?
such that H < G
Every element generates a cyclic subgroup
so we can just take H = {e} ?
Sure but I mean this also shows that every non-trivial group has a non-trivial cyclic subgroup
by taking any non-identity element and considering the subgroup it generates
oh ok
what about the first question what do u think about what i said ?
prove (Q,+) is not cyclic
first about this question does it not work because like we can send 1 to 1/1 and 2 to 1/2 so we can send n to 1/n but the problem is in 1/n+1
what do you mean by "send?"
like it's a function
do you mean for any value you claim to be a generator you find a "smaller one" through said function?
um
like wait we need to take from Q some numbers and what they generate right ?
like if we take 1/2
it will generate 1/2 , 1/4 etc
You are trying to prove that it isn't cyclic, not what elements within it generate per se
right ?
No.
so what
(Q, +) is an additive group, so this is not correct
ok so it goes 1/2 , 1 , 3/2 ?
Though this is still false if you take (Q^x, x)
no
there's 3/4 missing
Q doesn't have a zero this is what i know right
This is a good observation. Now take x to be some supposed generator (note that it isn't a generator; we are assuming it is to derive a contradiction)
It does...
By this, are you referring to Q^*? If so, I've never seen the x notation before.
no just the normal Q
potato
Lets start with this: is 0 in Q?
Some people differentiate them unfortunately lol
Like I've met people who use * to mean "non-zero elements" and x to mean units
though ofc here those coincide
for us when we use * that means it has no 0
Interesting. That probably stems from people using S^* before learning abstract, hence leading to them assuming it just removes zero elements.
But no by "them" I mean professors lol
Sorry I was just trying to generalize the set, though it's not necessarily right to just say any set S (I should have written R^*)
oh
so now let's take x to be some generator
how to show this with x it's easier with numbers
like can we say x = p/q
yes! (just don't forget to properly define your variables in your proof)
i'm bad with proofs 😦
first simplification you can make is that
if p/q generates Q, so does 1/q
so can take p = 1 here
yeah true
Chad
now what is the obvious problem, what number can't you reach by 1/q and its integer multiples
1/q+1 ?
that does work for 1/(q+1) yes
well, that would be true if you mean 1/(q+1) but there is a "better" choice
I'd go with 1/(2q)
mmmm
there's also like
if Q were cyclic there'd be an isomorphism Q->Z
so f(x) = 1 for some x
so f(x/2) uh
Jk, that is the same proof
But yeah
But what if it was torsion?
Better to start with a surjective homomorphism Z-> Q, since that does exist for all cyclic groups.
Well I assumed that lol but yeah fair in isolation that isn't right
pinging this
yes this is great
that is not a proof
😦
You have not justified why x does not generate it.

You have asserted it but not explained why.
I might as well say: it is cyclic because clearly x generates 1/(q+1).
I recommend book of proof by hammack
still stuck on this
can u help me what to do now because this homework is for today
oh boy
you just have to justify your steps, that's all I can say
you say we can take p=1 but don't explain why, and you also don't explain why 1/q can't generate 1/(q+1)
because it will not be isomorphic ?