#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 241 of 1
it's just rote checking stuff which is rather obvious at a glance
convolution with the constant 1 function gives the sum over divisors then
and it's inverse must be the mobius function
so i guess it's a unit
working out inverses is pretty easy fortunately
finding a g such that the sum over f(a)g(b) = 1 hm
the "dirac delta" in this case just \delta(n) = 1 if n = 1, else 0
sure, I guess more like a kronecker delta lol
yep
yes
although there is a stricter condition if you want f to be multiplicative which it doesn't need to be
We can consider the ring of characters from N under multiplication to an integral domain R, with multiplication being dirichlet convolution. Wouldn't the group of units of this new ring be the characters such that f(1) is a unit of R
i had to course correct that fast because probably zero divisors will fuck your day up
you can just write out the recursive formula for the inverse of f explicitly
let g(n) be f(n)'s dirichlet inverse
then obviously g(1) = f(1)^-1
uhhh consider dirichlet convolution of g and f being 0 for n > 1
take out the pair where it's f(1)g(n)
then just, move the remaining sum to the other side, multiply by g(1)
boom g(n)
recursively lol or via strong induction
no difference imo
yeh
actually I guess we won't have issues if R is not a domain
since f(1) is guaranteed to be a unit if f is a unit itself
welcome back to psychopathic generalization with miz at 2 am
if you specifically want to focus just on the group of multiplicative functions the condition is a bit stronger
oh i was just considering the whole ring
I know
sure
the coprimality thing probably leaves things weird actually
1 is a unit so it's not coprime to anything
oh wait it's the kernel of the map f to f(1)
wait no
subgroup of that
I'm talking about the group of multiplicative functions
the multiplicative functions don't form a ring
it's a subgroup of the group of units right?
excluding the trivial multiplicative function being 0
yeah, excluding 0
neato
so the mobius inversion formula boils down to the mobius function being the dirichlet inverse of the constant 1
huh
i guess the def of it can be derived from the recursion too
thanks man, that's some neat shit
actually seeing how this relates to dirichlet series would blow you away tbh
Isn't it used to prove infinitude of primes in arithmetic progressions via the characters to C
$$D(f;s)=\sum_{n \ge 1} \frac{f(n)}{n^s}$$
so $\zeta(s)$ is the dirichlet generating function for all 1s.
Merosity
1/zeta(s) must be the mobius above the n^s then
exactly
and this is obvious from the euler product
$$\frac{1}{\zeta(s)}=D(\mu;s)=\prod_p \left(1-\frac{1}{p^s}\right)$$
Merosity
each prime only contributes once
same sort of idea
every multiplicative function has an euler product yes
$$D(f;s) = \prod_p \sum_{k \ge 0} \frac{f(p^k)}{p^{ks}}$$
Merosity
the analytic continuation crap probably isn't too important here because I assume it's just from analyticity and no lacunary bullshit
it's just there
no analysis
Are we doing analysis now 
just talking about formal series here as generating functions
no, also zeta is special because you can just do poisson summation on 1/(n + t)^s and get an immediate analytic continuation anyway so it doesn't work nicely for formal series anyway
analysis is boring
Ah, generating function
unless there's cool algebra shit like harmonic analysis that shit rocks
Anyway thanks man lol
yw
Here’s a little thing I wonder
Assume we have total multiplicative functions $h$ such that $\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}{f(n)h(n)}$ and $\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}{g(n)h(n)}$ converge, then would their product be $\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}{(f * g)(n)h(n)}$?
Miz
@delicate bloom would you need total multiplicativity for this, or would coprime be enough?
I thought you said
convergence is only so it exists so I can ask in the first place about the convolution
I don't really see a reason to be interested in this question
I bet proving this is boring
fair, also it’s obvious now that I think about it
you sure?
We’d need total multiplicativity of h, but if so then we’d have a double series over f(n)h(n)*g(m)h(m) = f(n)g(m)h(nm) so we can add up the terms with h(nm) together as a dirichlet convolution at nm
Thus proving it
I don't buy it
and we know the product series converges if one of them is absolute which we can just append to the assumptions
The convergence itself or the equality if all three converge
Because tbf I don’t care about convergence I’m just assuming all 3 do
not sure if I understand what you're saying now
If all three converge then the product is the sum over (f*g)(n)h(n)
isnt the question asking if 2 converge, does the 3rd?
Moreso if all 3 converge then the product is the same as the third
I stated it poorly
more seriously, if h(n)=1/n^3, this is completely multiplicative and then picking f(n)=g(n)=n makes the sums f(n)h(n)=1/n^2 converge, but the convolution (f * f)(n)= n*tau(n) but tau(n)/n^2 diverges
interesting
while we're here since I just used it, try to prove that completely multiplicative functions distribute over the dirichlet convolution. Then as a lemma you get for $u(n)=1$ and $\delta$ being the identity, $u\star \mu = \delta$ take a completely multiplicative function C and multiply it through, $C \star \mu C = \delta$ so the dirichlet inverse of $C(n)$ is $\mu(n)C(n)$
Merosity
actually I didn't think about it, I just trusted wolfram alpha
,w sum from n=1 to infinity of tau(n)/n^2
but it should just be zeta(2)^2 which converges smh
maybe WA is right and the analysis does shake out that way combining the two infinite series, whatever
Mero stop being gaslight by WA
how to show this
Show that (x^2 + 1, y^2 + 1) isn’t prime
Or that there’s a zero divisor
Want a hint?
does it boil down to showing that x²+1 and y²+1 aren't prime since ideals generated by irreducible elements are prime iff the elements are also prime elements
here’s a hint
Show x + y is a zero divisor
it involves a common identity :3
||x + y does not lie in (x^2 + 1, y^2 + 1) but (x + y)(x - y) = x^2 - y^2 = (x^2 + 1) - (y^2 + 1) = 0 in our ring thus it is a zero divisor||
uhhh
yeah main thing I'd say is just play around with elements, the main red flag is we know C is a field where we've already added solutions to x^2+1, so adding more elements satisfying the same equation squeezes more roots than the degree of the polynomial can handle to call itself a field.
oh yeh there was this easy way 
This is wrong
It says it also diverges for sigma0(n)/n^6
sum sigma(n)/n^s=zeta(s)^2 for Re(s)>1 and at s=1 both sides diverge
this is false for h(n)=1 already
I have been always interested in aspects of non-absolute convergence of Dirichlet series, but never really got the chance to explore it too much I must admit
I wonder what the function $(-1)^n*(-1)^n$ looks like
croqueta3385
I split it up into divisors ab=n where a=b mod 2 and a != b mod 2, something like tau(n)-2tau(n/2^v_2(n))
basically the power of 2 gets forced into one of the divisors when a != b mod 2, I think what I wrote is not right cause for odd numbers we just have tau(n) directly but heading to bed
I think trying to find examples of this form is ultimately doomed to fail since they look like products of convergent dirichlet series
If n=2^k * m with m odd then the positive contribution comes from { d divides n such that d and n/d have the same parity } and the number of such pairs is d(m) · |k-1|
and the negative contribution will be 2·d(m) for k>=1 and 0 otherwise
you have the sum $\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{d(m)(|k-1|-2\chi(n))}{n^s}$ where $\chi(n)=0$ if $n$ is odd and $1$ if it is even
croqueta3385
but $2\chi(n)=1+(-1)^n$ and it is possible that $\sum_{n\geq 1} \frac{d(m)(-1)^n}{n^s}$ converges
croqueta3385
so you will be left with $\sum_{n\geq 1}\frac{d(m)|k-1|-2d(m)}{n^s}$
croqueta3385
Anyone a hint on how to proof there exists no element in (Z/pqZ)* of order (p-1)(q-1), the order of the group, for p /= q are odd primes? The exercise is to proof the group is not cyclic, by showing that element does not exist.
Maybe the Carmichael lambda function could help
Tak alfodr, I will read into it.
Are you familiar with Chinese remainder theorem and how
(Z/pq)^* = (Z/p x Z/q)^* = (Z/p)^* x (Z/q)^*?
No, but I now get another hint they gave. Which was that if gcd(m, n) = 1 then C_m x C_n = C_{mn}. I thought that would only give me the order of (Z/pq)*, which I already got by just counting.
whaaat
why do i have to be so bad at elementary number theory 
oh well summer is coming up and i plan to spend it learning ENT mwahaha
I will look into the Chinese remainder theorem, but where does the other come from? It feels like I missed something in the book, but it really isn't there...
I have proved 4.9, but couldn't see how I can use that
I don't really see how 4.9 is relevant either
Well I guess (Z/pqZ)* ~= (Z/pZ x Z/qZ)*?
Yeah, but without the ring structure it doesn't seem like you can see how ^* relates to it
Ok
Anyway, the Chinese remainder theorem does say exactly that Z/pq = Z/p x Z/q as rings
So two integers are congruent modulo pq iff they're congruent modulo p and modulo q
From there you can use that x^(p-1) = 1 modulo p and x^(q-1) = 1 modulo q
Ok thank you
So like a group action is kind of just realizing the permutations that G contains (cayleys theorem thing) in more concrete settings
does that make sense?
Probably better way of saying it is not "permutations that G contains" but the permutation groups isomorphic to normal subgroups of G?
in essence all of this is just different ways of writing out homomorphisms for G, right?
Yes
One way of thinking about group actions that I find somewhat helpful, conceptually, is that groups are an abstracted set of symmetries, and an action simply un-abstracts it and makes it an actual symmetry again.
Of course this is just how you conceptualise it
Ah yeah
Yeah
Its a fun concept so far
Saying permutation groups isomorphic to normal subgroups of G was the correct way of phrasing it right
hm
Hey I am struggling with proving this, maybe some hints will help!
What do you know about the order |[m]_n| in Z/nZ?
Z_n are the integers congruence modulo n, right?
Z_n is the set {0,1,...,n-1} and a group under addition modulo n
Ok then can you do something with my hint? Can you find the order of an arbitrary element in Z_n?
Do you know Bézout's lemma?
Supopse b = a^k, k being a generator, b has order n/d, n is the group's order and d is gcd(k,n)
Yes
Use Bézout's lemma.
Gonna tell you this now
Lethe's hint requires you to do a much harder proof.
And besides, to prove it you will have to use Bézout's lemma anyway.
huh, does it?
Yes.
You are asking Mike to prove something far more complicated than what's necessary.
Ok I thought that the order |g^n| = |g|/gcd(|g|, n) was something basic to group theory. Was one of the first propositions i learned.
And only that is really needed, right?
So try proving it.
I would rather do this with tools that I know Mike has learned, and generally only with elementary number theory.
It is also completely unnecessary to derive a formula for the order of elements of Z/nZ here
[1]_1 has order n and thus generates Z_n. Any other element [m]_n = m [1]_1 and has order n/gcd(m, n) and generates Z_n if and only if gcd(m, n) = 1. ?
But you can say the same about Bézout then, right?
Not really, it's much easier to prove, and in fact you will likely use Bézout to prove the above.
But more importantly
ok
I asked Mike if he knew Bézout.
I have gcd(r,n) = ar + bn (a,b \in Z). Do I need to consider the order of r at all to continue?
No, you don't need the order of r at all.
Hint: r generates the whole group if and only if 1 is in <r>
if Z_n = <r>, then I have <1> = <r>
hey is the hint saying 1 = r^k or r= 1^k (k \in Z) ? I am not so sure about it
is this correct
Both.
But you are possibly making a mistake: we are looking at the additive group Z_n. No multiplication is happening, only repeated addition.
We would usually write 1 = k.r instead.
well its correct, but what i wanna know is, is this how you normally write these proofs? or do i need to clarify what im doing in some steps?
me when Abelian group sottue
as long as I understand it and I can describe it in English I tend to be lax when writing it down
Sometimes it can be a real pain in the dick to symbolically do, e.g. the shit with dirichlet convolutions I was doing last night
hmm okay thanks. the one proof based course i had so far i had to write down a table and say like, "for a,b in N, a+b in N is true by closure of N under addition" and every step had to be like that

but in books im seeing thats not the case
just be careful, you can only conclude your assumption is correct from arriving at a tautology if each step of the proof is reversable
1:30 am
I am not reading that
yeah you cant multiply both sides by 0 to get a tautology you mean
im pretty sure i didnt do anything like that here
Never told you to britoid
nah dw you didn't (or at least I'm not spotting anywhere where you did)
luckily group multiplication is an invertible operation!
alright ty
please specify wtf you mean here because either you mean left multiplication action on itself, or like the endomorphism ring on Z/nZ under addition 
Sorry for the wrong notation but I know we are using additive operation. I actually still struggles on how to move on from the given hint
What’s the group in context?
Multiplicative group (of units) mod n or just addition mod n (cyclic)
addition mod n sir
r u daft
yes
what are the four properties a function GxG -> G needs to be a group operation
three, I suppose
closure always was stupid
if r and n are coprime what does bezout's tell you
ra+nb = 1(a,b \in Z)
It might help to know that r mod n is just a linear combination of r and n
ok so if we're working mod n this is just ra = 1, agree?
What are we proving 
This one
Ah nice
Yes, ra = 1 (mod n)
can you see that 1 generates Z_n?
I do
so can you see how r therefore has to generate all of Z_n?
You are trying to find the r such that <r> = Z_n.
I have given you the hint that <r> = Z_n iff 1 \in <r>.
So perhaps you can use this to set a new goal that Bézout applies to.
And once you're happy with what Wew's helping you with, come back to this message here 
So it must be |G|/k
Mizalign if you spoil another person's exercise again I will blow my top
Under what valuation
I thought they answered it already lmao and I was providing another way to think about it oof
Thanks for deleting it though I was gonna do that lol
Somehow im confused on that simple proof that p-groups have nontrivial center. The one that uses class equation
oh that's a good one
All time classic
Hahahaha
it's really just orbit stabilser
What's your confusion
Tldr let G (or Inn(G)) act on G by conjugation, then what is Z(G) in this context?
Let's hear the confusion first.
you know each orbit under the conjugation action has to divide the order of p, and thus is a power of p. The identity is definitely in the centre... so u got p^k-1 elements left!! That ain't a power of p!!! U need some other mfs to be in their own crib........ chill ass mfs................................ they ain't sharin this hizzouse....
only one dawg in this jawn...
U can't do this to me................ @ me
4th question
Let A be the set of all real numbers and B be the set of all natural numbers then let the permutation f(x) = 2x but it's inverse is g(x) = x/2 , B is invariant under f means f(B) is a subset of B but g(B) is not a subset of B
Is it correct?
I used a similar technique in one of my results... yet to be published....
Do you manage any blog ?
I am not tapped into the blogosphere, no
yeah
nice counter example
Okay, thank you
Ok, back from dinner. Maybe it's a little handwavy but isn't it essentially
|g^m| is the smallest integer d such that (g^m)^d = g^(md) = e.
Then the order of g, |g|, divides md.
Doesn't it then follow that |g|/gcd(m, |g|) divides d and since d is the smallest such integer d = |g^m| = |g|/gcd(m, |g|)?
Doesn't it then follow that |g|/gcd(m, |g|) divides d
Yes
and since d is the smallest such integer d = |g^m| = |g|/gcd(m, |g|)?
No. It could be any multiple of |g|/gcd(m, |g|) at this point. You haven't justified why |g|/gcd(m, |g|) is the smallest.
hm ok
Hint: a useful lemma is to show that the smallest (by the usual order on {0, ..., n-1}) generator of <r> is equal to the index of <r> in Z_n.
There are other ways, but no matter.
is the writing here sufficient or nah
wait, I got that |g^m| is a multiple of |g|/gcd(m, |g|) and it is easy to show that (g^m)^(|g|/gcd(m, |g|))= e, wouldn't that show that |g|/gcd(m, |g|) is the smallest?
Indeed that does
But now to show |g| divides md... 😛
There are lots of small connecting steps, yes
Ok thank you
I didn't really do any number theory, so it is still pretty handwavy for me.
Suppose that f(x) is reducible in Q[x]. First of all, as the coefficients are in Z, we may take the gcd, d = gcd(a0, .... , an). So, we have f(x) = df_1(x), where f_1(x) is primitive. f(x) is reducible in Q[x] implies that f_1(x) is reducible, say f_1(x) = g_1(x)g_2(x). Call the coefficients of f_1, g_1, g_2, a'j, b'j, c'j, respectively, 1 <= j <= n. a'0 = b'0c'0, as p | a'0 but p^2 doesn't divide a'0, we have that p | b'0 exclusive or p | c'0. I'm slightly stuck from here, I would appreciate any hint
another idea I had was to show that f is irreducible in Z[x], which immediately implies that it is irreducible in Q[x], as Q is the field of fractions of Z
Or irred in Q[x] iff no rational roots
So wlog we may assume p divides b0, and that p does not divide c0.
a1 = b1c0 + b0c1
means p divides b1c0, so p divides b1.
Continue inductively until you conclude that g1 is a multiple of p, reach a contradiction.
oh I literally wrote this down on my page, but I only realise now that g1, g2 are polynomials of degree < n, not n
That's clear now, thank you jagr
I did that then kept thinking. "oh but p doesn't need to divide b'n or c'n", but neither c'n nor b'n exist
Are the prime elements of D[X] for a gcf domain the primes of D and primitive, irreducible polynomials of D[X]
Actually yeah that seems to check out
Also, a very pretty way is to consider this all modulo p
I believe this is probably the standard method nowadays
yeah that's what I did
From this, Z[X]/(p) ~= F_p[X] is obviously an integral domain (this is third iso theorem as X is disjoint from Z)
Hey this is what I have found so far with your hint and still have not made any progress:
1 \in <r> => k.r = 1 (mod n) => k.r = k'.n + 1
tbh bezout here seems like mega overkill if it's for group orders
k.r = k'.n + 1 is equivalent to k.r - k'.n = 1.
Idk how Bezout is mega overkill lol
Isn't that a special case of what is currently being proven
It is
Sorry I mean, idk how to prove it withotu bezout
I don't think it actually follows but like yeah
are we proving multiplicative group mod n has inverses for coprime m
This theorem – that the units of Z/nZ are those numbers coprime to n — is equivalent to Bézout with the restriction that the GCD is 1.
We're counting the number of generators of Z/nZ, which amounts to the same thing more or less
No
or just Z/nZ additive
I am rephrasing it.
I think the two are equivalent tbf
The ring is a quotient of Z so it is generated by {} as a ring.
by (1) mod n
We have to talk about being generated as a group for it to be interesting.
No, I really mean that as a ring it is generated by {}.
The smallest subring of Z/nZ containing {} is Z/nZ.
Of course, unitality makes things work here.
I suppose it is also equivalent if we look at nonunital subrings
But only bc it's a quotient of Z!!!!!!!
It is in fact true
We're trying to prove that Z/nZ (ADDITIVE) has one generator
yes, if that's the answer then I have another question, is k.r the same as k multiplied by r?
mod n, k.r is kr
or just a cyclic group has one generator
But remember your definition of Z_n
I.e there is an element of order |G|
Annoyingly(!) your course defined it as Z_n = {0, 1, ... n-1}
In any case, you can just look modulo n.
You should know that if kr = 1 (mod n) then k.r = 1.
If you're not happy with that, then now is your time to say so
Trying to go about finding a general formula for this possibly
Last time posting this here because I always get stuck lol
Every monic linear polynomial is of the form X + a for a in F, so there are q many. All are irreducible
Now, every monic quadratic polynomial is of the form X + aX + b for (a,b) in F^2, thus there are q^2 many. We can remove quadratics that are squares of monics, i.e (X + a)^2 so there are q^2 - q remaining. Finally, the reducible monic quadratics are pairs (X - a)(X - b) where a neq b, so there are (N 2) many choices, or (q^2 - q)/2, half of the remaining. thus there are (q^2 - q)/2 irreducible monic quadratics
I am also trying to quantify another way that I am partitioning the sets of monic polynomials of degree n
through the divisors of n
i imagine there is a way to interpret in terms of GL_n(F_q)
An alternative approach could be to use that there is a unique field of any finite order.
And any monic irreducible polynomial is the minimal polynomial of some root
like with companion matrices
That is corollary 2 which is almost 100 pages out
That gives $q^n = \sum_{d | n}{dN_F(d)}$
Miz
le moebius
gotem
so I expect there is a connection that I am missing
At a glace it seems like partitioning the set of monic polynomials of degree N somehow
but I can't work it out
So the approach I'm thinking:
g(n) = q^n
f(d) = number of elements that generate the field of order q^d
Then Möbius inversion gives
f(n) = sum_d mu(n/d) q^d
so there are
sum_d mu(n/d) q^d / n
irreducibles of degree n
I mean the exercise only asks you to do it for 2 and 3, which you can just do by hand
though this makes sense to me
If F_q is any field with q elements then x \to x^p is an automorphism, so so is x \to x^q. Because any finite subgroup of the multiplicative group of a field is cyclic we know that x^q = x for all x \in F_q. This means that every x is a root of the polynomial x^{q-1} - 1 (so the field is unique, as it’s the splitting field of this polynomial over Fp), and as the multiplicative group is cyclic of order q-1 we see that there are Phi(q-1) generators of this field.
now you’ve gotten there!
so you can use Jagr’s formula
The number of generators for the field and the number of generators for the multiplicative group isn't quite the same though.
Like for the field with 9 elements, there are 6 possible generators for the field, but only 4 that generate the multiplicative group.
Also, I guess generate the field should really be generate the extension, so actually depends on the base field.
ah I didn’t really see your method
Idk where to use the PID condition in proving a PID is a UFD
or where I'm missing something
but then it’s even easier to find the number of generators, so that’s good news
the two places it’s useful is showing that gcds exist and showing every irreducible element is prime
every irreducible is prime?
yeah
is the main part here showing that principal ideals of irreducibles are maximal ideals
That's a possible approach at least
i'd take that as a yes. Like for example in Z[X], 2 is irreducible but (2) is contained in (2, X + 1) i think
I mean that doesn’t sound like a dumb thing to say
reviewing for quals in the fall
and it's been a while since I looked at some of this stuff
why do I care about
- composition series
- derived series
- lower central series
outside of classifying finite groups
character theory
I haven't learned enough rep / character theory for these to show up I guess
Classifying finite groups is already a good reason tbh
yea fair
Even if you don’t care about the classsification problem it’s a useful toolkit for analyzing how to build complicated groups out of smaller ones, and it shows up in nature
the quintessential example of the derived series is the natural filtration on unipotent nxn matrices over a field (which is the prototypical solvable group)
Trivial means there's a map r: B - A such that r o phi = id
I've gotten that A is abelian and then I'm stuck
usually one says split exact
that'd be a map s: Z -> B such that psi o s = Z
as far as I can tell trivial isn't a standard term
they are the same thing at least in abelian categories
groups aren't an abelian category so maybe the two don't coincide here hm
damn yeah they are different
they don't
left split and right split etc
do you guys recommend that i study number theory before studying abstract algebra?
not a bad idea especially if you don't know proof writing that well
elementary number theory is relatively straightforward
I'd also look at a proof based linear algebra text as well since alot of those themes come up in abstract algebra
but if you feel comfortable with proof based lin alg then just starting with abstract algebra is also fine (I never took number theory before my first algebra course)
you can probably do elementary, or analytic (assuming you know little complex)
well i do understand proof writing etc pretty well but i really sucked my number theory classes back then. I know very little number theory. I now want to study abstract algebra, mostly because it pops up all the time in linear algebra and projective geometry, but from what I've see it in part generalizes many results of number theory, so I was wondering if I would get a better intuition of abstract algebra by first understanding number theory well
maybe but I mean you should be getting enough "motivation" (i.e. why we care about certain theorems and constructions) from lin alg and projective geometry
so I wouldn't say it's necessary
so really I think it's your call
it can't hurt
alright then, thanks!
would I have to use Eisenstein criterion to show that $\sum_{n = 0}^{p - 1}{x^{nk}}$ is irreducible
Miz
No one is telling you to do anything. Do you mean could?
Also, what is k?
any integer
I don’t know if there is an easy proof of this
All the ones I know are just this is the minimal polynomial of some nth root of unity
Is this irreducible?
I somehow doubt it
(I think 1+x+..+x^{p-1} is indeed irreducible)
like putting powers into polynomials I think is finnicky?
Like f(x) = x - 1 is irreducible right
but f(x^2) = x^2 - 1 = (x - 1)(x + 1)
Yep, so you need to, like, verify individually
However $\sum_{n = 0}^{p - 1}{(x + 1)^{nk}} = \sum_{n = 0}^{p - 1}{\binom{p}{n + 1}x^{nk}}$ still satisfies Eisenstein's criterion
Miz
How about other coe- ah
but p divides the rest
p doesn't divide n! for n < p
and the binomial coefficient has p! on the top and a denominator of two factorials with inputs less than p
Interesting, so if Eisenstein holds for f(x), it holds for f(x^p) as well
so p will still divide it
yes
p | 0
This seems off
How does this hold? I think k shouls appear in the coefficients.
oh wait shit
no i don't think so,
it's just me doing x |-> x^k
on the basic sum
Yeah then it should be
\sum (x^k + 1)^n = ...
Also an issue is that pk-th root of unity should be root of this polynomial, which covers almost all roots of unity.
But there are cyclotomic irreducible polynomials which does not have 1 as coefficient.
$\sum_{n = 0}^{p - 1}{x^n} = \frac{x^p - 1}{x - 1}$ so $x \mapsto x + 1$ gives $\sum_{n = 0}^{p - 1}{(x + 1)^n} = \frac{(x + 1)^p - 1}{x} = \frac{1}{x} \left(\sum_{n = 0}^{p}{\binom{p}{n}x^n} - 1\right) = \frac{1}{x} \sum_{n = 1}^{p}{\binom{p}{n}x^n} = \sum_{n = 1}^{p}{\binom{p}{n}x^{n - 1}} = \sum_{k = 0}^{p - 1}{\binom{p}{n + 1}x^{k}}$
jesus christ
there we go
FUCK LATEX ON MOB
Miz
@cobalt heath this satisfies eisenstein's criterion
Yeah, this proves irreducibility for 1 + x + .. + x^(p-1)
so when you put in x^k
your coeffs are just where c_(km) = a_m, else 0
so your leading is still 1, tailing is still p,
and your terms in between are the original (so they are divisible by p), or 0 (divisible by p always)
Transformation x \mapsto x+1 does not work together with x \mapsto x^k, tho
Maybe try computing with small p and k
How about for p = 2, k = 2?
Look at the cyclotomic polynomials for p^n
wait wtf
you can just also have r
what

these LITERALLY ARE what I showed lmao
Not really, this put in x^(p^k) instead of x^k
oh shit good point
Notice pr is still there
Ye-p
typically the affine group is written as a semidirect product between the general linear group and the translation group, I don't get how $(t_2,M_2)(t_1,M_1)=(t_2+M_2t_1, M_2M_1)$ is consistent with $t_2g_2t_1g_1=t_2g_2t_1g_2^{-1}g_2g_1$. How is $g_2t_1g_2^{-1}$ equivalent to $M_2t_1$. Is it some kind of factorization of $M_2$?
criver
I know how to make the above work for SE e.g. if I choose rotors to represent g2 and g1, since then the sandwich product g2 t1 g2^{-1} does what I want
i.e. a rotation matrix can be factorized into two matrices corresponding to the rotors
how does thst work out for the GL(n) case?
it
is agony to try to work out eisensteins
$\sum_{n = 0}^{p - 1}\sum_{m = 0}^{kn}{\binom{kn}{m}x^m}$
Miz
i'd need to rearrange the sum so that m is on the outside
Huh, for which is this
Yeah this is it.
that's the x -> x + 1 substitution
We are summing over pairs $(n,m) \in \mathbb{N}^2$ such that $n \leq p - 1$ and $m \leq kn$
Miz
Yes, you see, pain 
WAIT
WE CAN WORK WITH THIS
The leading coefficient is 1 right, and the trailing is the number of occurances of m = 0
of course there's one per 0 to p - 1
so p many times
p^2 doesn't divide the trailing
In between?
The terms in between leading and trailing
Need to be divisible by p, as well.
yeah
which is some difficult binomial shit tbh
@cobalt heath if $\binom{n}{m}$ divides $\binom{nk}{m}$ then we're golden
Miz
idk if that's true
t2 g2 t1 g2^{-1}(v) = t2 g2 (g2^{-1}(v) + t1) = v + t2 + g2 t_1 actually which is fine
Seems to be true for every example I can think of
oh wait lol it's asking if $\frac{n!}{(n - m)!m!}$ divides $\frac{(nk)!}{(nk - m)!m!}$
Miz
$\frac{(nk)!(n - m)!}{(nk - m)!(n)!}$
Miz
$\frac{\prod_{i = 0}^{m - 1}{(pk - i)}}{\prod_{i = 0}^{m - 1}{(p - i)}}$
Miz
anyway
Hmmm
Assume there exists nonzero nonunit c
If D[X] is a PID then every principal ideal generated by an irreducible element is maximal
So (x + c) would be maximal, but is contained in ideal (x, c)
Every element of (x, c) is of the form wx + (ux + v)c = (w + uc)x + vc
every element of (x + c) is of the form ax + ac
So if those ideals were equal, then (w + uc)x + vc = ax + ac
Isn't it simpler just to show directly that <x,c> cannot be principal?
oh i guess lol
Or perhaps not simpler but at least more enlightening.
But the minimal degree of <x,c> is 0, since the ideal contains c.
hmm ye
@tribal moss Assume $(d) = (c, x) \neq D$, therefore $d$ is a \textbf{non-unit}. Thus $x + c = d(ax + b) = dax + db$. However, the linear coefficient implies that $da = 1$ which implies that $d$ is a unit.
Miz
Yes, but you can also just try to make x instead of x+c.
The underlying point is that in <d>, every coefficient of every element is divisible by d, but that is not the case for x = 1x+0.
that also works lmao
thanks
tbh idk what this is asking. Jacobson hasn't brought up the field of fractions of F[X], denoted horribly as F(X), yet in the textbook
Also, since <x,c> consists of exactly the polynomials whose constant term is a multiple of c, it is not all of D[x], so d has to be non-unit.
(Oh, you already said that and I misread it).
Nevertheless F(t) can hardly mean anything but that field of fractions.
My proof that i wrote down is as follows:
Assume D is a non-division domain, then there exists a nonzero nonunit a. Assume D[X] is a PID.
Let J = (X, a).
J is proper, as if 1 was in (X, a) then there would have to be some A(X)X + B(X)a = 1, but setting X = 0, B(0)a = 1, contradicting a being a unit.
Assume J = (f(X)). Then there must exist some A(X) : f(X)A(X) = c, but deg(f) + deg(q) = 0, thus f is a constant, so f(X) = d != 0. But likewise, there must exist some A(X) : dA(X) = X. deg(A) = 1, thus, A(x) = aX+ b. However, then da = 1, a contradiction again
I actually think I can skip the proper ideal check
Isn't the proper ideal check how you get a contradiction out of da=1?
a is a nonunit either way lol
Why?
oh shit i accidentally wrote c
(X, a), a is the nonunit from it being a non-division domain lmao
brain fart, on my paper I used c as a nonunit, and A(X) = ax + b and jumping between what I used here and on paper fried my brain a bit
oh wait shit yeah
idk where I fucked up here gimme a hot second
oh i know yeah you're right I need the proper ideal check
This is usual notation tho
no but like if you haven't done any abstract algebra before you wouldn't know what to do
Anyway actually showing that, hm
Ah true
F(x)
"What is this, a function?"
kinda not sure what to do here
I guess i could start by assuming f(x) is reducible over F(T)
there we go
Yeah
Proof by contradiction would be good approach
Maybe if you are familiar with categorical approach, you might use universal property? Idk
that's what I've been trying to do
Starting with F[X,Y] as a ring of origin basically
If you start by clearing denominators, you get p(x,t)q(x,t) = f(x)g(t) in F[x,t].
i should've tried a routine like that, i kept going a categorical route
And then you can look at only the terms that have maximal degree in t, in each of p,q,g.
Idk categorical but
f(x) embeds into (F[t])[X] from F[X]
and is irreducible still
You can consider F[x, t] / f(x) F[x, t]
Are you sure about this?
If f(x) is irreducible in F[x] then it is irreducible in F[x,y] as it would factor over the onto-map that sends y to 0 into F[X] no?
Then i can use Lemma 3
Btw can you identify why the same logic does not apply to Q[x, i] ?
Which was from the text lol
Q[X,Y]/(Y^2 + 1) you mean right
Yeah it is equivalent to that
i isn't just some random indeterminate i hate when textbooks do that
Yeaa
What's the relation between F and D there? F is only mentioned once in the statement of the lemma ...
F[X] = D
?
Okay let me be consistent with my variables
D = F[t]
so Frac(D) = F(t)
D[X] is iso to F[T, X] (i forget if it's canonical lmao)
By why doesn't the statement of the lemma simply say F[x] instead of D?
I think tropo mean what they are in this lemma.
This is from the text,
it's a lemma for integral domains
Isn’t F field of fractions for D
There must be some hidden assumptions that relate D and F.
Oookay, it didn't say that.
Does "factorial" mean UFD?
They should have added name like “Gauss lemma”
yeah Unique factor domain sorry
It is Bourbakian nomenclature (IIRC)
Who also calls compactness “quasi-compact”, idk
@cobalt heath Here's the whole proof:
Assume F is a field, then F[T] is a PID and is therefore a UFD. Let f(X) in F[X] be irreducible.
The ring of polynomials over F[T], F[T][X] is iso to F[X][T].
Due to this, F[X] embeds into F[T][X]. If f(X) is reducible in F[T][X], then let h(T, X) | f(X).
However, there is the onto map from F[T][X] to F[X] that sends T to t in F, which fixes f(X) and sends h(T, X) to h(t, X) in F[X].
However that would imply h(t, X) | f(X), and since f(X) is irreducible, h(t, X) must be a unit in F[X], i.e some nonzero constant c in F for each t.
Therefore h(T, X) = k(T) as it is independent of X. However, that would imply k(T) | f(X) in f[X][T]. Then, k(T) would be dividing f(X), essentially a polynomial that is just a constant F[X] coefficient in F[X][T], so k must be ultimately just a nonzero constant in F, thus a unit.
Therefore f(X) is irreducible over F[T][X], and by lemma 3, F(T)[X]
Juggling X and T is awful
The funny thing is that this isn't a proof by contradiction at this level
What is this a proof of
Yeah I believe so, Lang uses this too
And I've seen it basically only in Lang or algebraic geometry
Oh this
What is meant by the statement, unitary modules over Z are simply abelian groups ?
Modules are always Abelian group, right?
There is no extra structure from being a Z-module
i.e. homomorphisms of Z-modules = homomorphisms of Abelian groups
A similar statement is: for commutative rings, an A-algebra is a ring B with a map A -> B. But every ring admits a unique map from Z, so there is no extra data in saying something is a Z-algebra vs just a ring
This often happens w Z ig
Initial object moment
Ye
Another thing is this. A module M over a ring R is an abelian group M with a ring map R -> End_Z(M). By the argument above, if R = Z then this map always exists uniquely
Have you heard of Lang and his entire rings?
A_n is the "alternating group" on n letters.
have you heard of the sign of a permutation?
you can assign each permutation (i.e. element of S_n) a parity ("even" or "odd"), and A_n is the subgroup of even permutations
What does it mean? I don't get it
Not only are Z-modules abelian groups, abelian groups are Z-modules
Do you know what a homomorphism of modules / a homomorphism of groups is
They’re isomorphic as categories
I know about Homomorphism of groups
There's a definition for homomorphisms between two R-modules
It turns out for Z-modules a map is a module homomorphism iff it is a group homomorphism
Oh in terms of linear transformation?
R as in any ring
Yes
But yea module homomorphism is basically linear map
Preserves addition and scaling by elements of R
Often one says "R-linear map". And being Z-linear is the same as being additive i.e. homomorphism of abelian groups
Okay
Let f: M ->N be a module and M and N are Z-modules.
Then f(x+y) = f(x) +f(y) and f(nx) = nf(x).
But how Z-modules help to show that module homomorphism is a group homomorphism because, it is always true on R-module, right?
Yes group homomorphism is not always module homomorphism
how does that work?
So one thing is that you can write any permutation as a product of transpositions. if you write it as a product of an even # of transpositions, then we say the permutation is even. (simialrly for odd ofc). Then you need to check this is well-defined
module homomorphisms are group homomorphisms by definition
interesting
Yes, but every module is an abelian group, right? What is meant by Z-module is abelian group
Here's a fun one: write the permutation as a permutation matrix. Then the permutation is even if the determinant is 1, and odd if the determinant is -1.
Reread the post. Yes, every module is an abelian group
But every abelian group is a Z-module
They're equivalent
Got it
No?
Let R be the ring of 3x3 matrices of the form [a 0 0; b a 0; c d a], where a, b, c, d is in Z/2Z. Is there a way to find all the proper ideals without guessing and checking?
I know atleast that a must be 0, since a proper ideal cannot contain a unit
$\begin{pmatrix} a & \ b & a & \ c & d & a \end{pmatrix}$
Elliptic Potato
Ah, lower triangular
Lower triangular with constant diagonal*
well "ah, they are lower triangular"
jk yeah i should've said that thanks
but yes, agreed, we need a = 0 for all things in there
Well that only leaves like a few matrices and if we look at how they multiply it should be ok
Yeah, there's 8 (?) combinations after setting a=0, so maybe it's not so bad
So there are only 8 elements where a = 0 -- in the first place I would say that guessing and checking is not too hard -- but let's think about this anyway.
Let B, D, C be the matrices where b, d, c are the only nonzero entries. I can see that DB = C and BD = 0. So perhaps this helps you out?
In fact {1, B, D, C} forms a basis for this ring as a F_2-vector space. Kinda cute.
Note also that C multiplied by any other non-unit element is 0.
And of course you've already noted that all ideals are subsets of {0, C, D, B, C+D, C+B, B+D, C+B+D}
Ah, so there's actually 2^8 candidates. But since DB=C, any ideal containing D or B must contain C
That's right
So one way of continuing from here is to classify the ideals generated by a single element and consider if there are any new ones which arise as the sum of these (as all ideals do.)
Since you're working with a finite ring, you only need to consider finite sums too!
That's a nice approach 👍 I've found that {0, C}, {0, B, C} and {0, D, C} are ideals, then taking sums of those yields 3 new ideals
That seems about right to me
I think that's all of them, either way the question asked for only 5 ideals, so it'll do 👍 thanks for the help 🙏
No worries
how is the last statement true? I thought x^p - x = 0 in F_p.
You are confusing the polynomial x^p - x with the function x^p - x.
Remember that polynomials are formal: they are symbols, not functions.
When you've worked previously in rings such as Z, there was no need to distinguish between the polynomials Z[x] and the polynomial functions, because they were isomorphic.
However in finite rings, there is an enormous difference between the two as you have discovered.
The ring R[x] is always an infinite ring when R is not the zero ring.
So to summarise: your observation that x^p - x = 0 is actually saying that when you evaluate the polynomial x^p - x in F_p[x] at any value in F_p, you do get the value 0. But the polynomial itself is not 0; you have just sent it through a ring homomorphism whose kernel it lands in.
is there notation for specifying whether someone is talking about the ring of polynomial functions or ring of formal polynomials?
or maybe the distinsion doesn't come up as often as I am thinking
Haven’t personally seen one
If your field is infinite, then there is no difference.
And if you're field is finite, then every function is polynomial, so there's no need to distinguish between functions and polynomial functions.
Oh wow that second fact is very cool never thought of it like that
So I guess the only time this would relevant is if you're talking about the polynomial functions over varying fields. Don't think there's a standard notation for that, so would just introduce it inline
R[x] means polynomials. I don't know of any standard notation for the set of polynomial functions, but frankly you likely will not need it in your textbook.
in some countries you would use capital letters for the indeterminate when you are referring to polynomials
But this doesn't mean that using a lowercase letter refers to the functions.
It simply means that it refers to an element in a larger ring instead.
maybe it depends? In Romania we really write polynomials with capital letters and functions with lowercase letters
R[x] typically does not refer to polynomial functions on R.
Yeah, what I was saying is that typically that would mean that there is some previously mentioned ring L containing both x and R
So it's just very frustrating notation overall isn't it
Well. For beginners.
when they refer to the ring R[u_1, ..., u_n] do they consider R \subset S and consider image of some mapping phi: R[x_1, ..., x_n] -> S where phi is the identity on R and maps x_1 to u_1 in S, ..., x_n to u_n in S? Or do they literally mean the polynomial ring R[u_1, ..., u_n]?
since otherwise the mapping is always a isomorphism
this is probably better context actually, ignore the earlier picture
Yes well here we are
when they refer to the ring R[u_1, ..., u_n] do they consider R \subset S and consider image of some mapping phi: R[x_1, ..., x_n] -> S where phi is the identity on R and maps x_1 to u_1 in S, ..., x_n to u_n in S?
Yes.
We use the same notation for two different things. Isn't that annoying huh
The universal property of the polynomial ring is that it's the initial thing amongst things that could be referred to with that notation 
What is the notation used for the Lie algebra $${z\in\mathbb{C},:, z=-\overline{z}} = {i\theta\in\mathbb{C},:,\theta\in\mathbb{R}}$$ of the circle group $S^1 = {z\in\mathbb{C},:, \overline{z}z = 1}$? Surely it is not $\mathfrak{so}(2)$ since then I wouldn't be able to differentiate it from the matrix group?
criver
should I just use u(1) for it?
Couldnt you quotient the polynomials by x^q-x?
Well, you would quotient by x^q - x, but that of course only works if you know q before hand
(or know that q is finite at least)
Well right if you want to treat this for all fields uniformly its going to be annoying
It's funny this maybe suggests that "q" should be 1
I mean it doesnt make any sense lol but q=p^f where f is the dimension over the prime field. In char 0 the prime fielf is Q... but maybe some other argument suggests that f=infty for infinite fields and then 0^infty=1 sounds plausible
Im just saying nonsense, nvm me
ok I'm back
I've shown that A is abelian
and B/A is isomorphic to Z by exactness
(trivial means left split)
Ok so in theory I want to show that B/A x A is isomorphic to B
not sure how to do that
Step 1: let x be a perimage of 1 in B, and let C be the subgroup generated by x.
Step 2: show that A\cap C = 1
Step 3: show that B is the internal direct product of A and C
Step 4: C = Z
he uses "entire" to mean an integral domain
Wonderful.
thanks! But is there any way to do it the way I was thinking?
i.e. find such a isomorphism
oh I guess this proof (if I unravel things) gives me that morphism in a way
I mean, that is basically what's happening here. C is isomorphic to B/A and B is isomorphic to AxC
yea
How do I show that B is an internal direct product of A and C?
in particular how do I show that AC = B and C = <x> is normal in B?
is it valid to say that for $b \in B$, $\psi(bxb^{-1}) = 1 = \psi(x)$ so $bxb^{-1}x^{-1} \in \ker(\psi) = \text{im}(\phi) = A \subseteq Z(B)$ so that $bxb^{-1}x^{-1} = e$?
Spamakin🎷
when it says F = {1, a, a^2, a^3}, should the 1 be changed to 0?
doesn't make sense otherwise
So you need to show two things:
That AC = B
And that ac = ca for a in A and c in C.
The second one you get because A is in the center.
For the first one, think about a b in B, and it's image in B/A
yeah
don't you need that A, C are normal in B as well
It follows from B being the direct product of them
oh wait it's sufficent to show AC = CA = B and A cap C = e for internal direct product?
so many typos/mistakes in this book
I thought you also needed A, C normal in B
No, you need ac = ca
I.e. A and C commute
hm ok I should probably prove that equivalence of conditions since I don't remember that one
ok then that makes sense assuming that equivalence
this is obvious with the hint, right? any polynomial in R[x] can be regarded as a poly in Frac(R)[x], where it has at most n roots
if you indeed have that result about polynomials in fields, then yes
yes
do you need to use field of fractions?
Couldn’t you use degree inequality and remainder theorem?
what theorems are you referring to
deg(fg) = deg(f) + deg(g)
deg(f + g) <= max(def(f),deg(g))
For domains
and for even noncommutative rings f(x) = q(x)(x - a) + f(a) for some polynomial q(x)
If you’re a sociopath you can calculate said q(x) in a noncommutative ring
f(x) = q(x)(x - a) + f(a) for some polynomial q(x)
we only proved this in the case of a field

proved in general only for monic f
need a - in there
Miz
The relevant part is really that (x-a) is monic
But either way
the f in the theorem was the divider
If there was more than n roots, then by repeated use of the degree (in)equalities and the remainder theorem you’d run out of degrees to work with
But I guess there is some subtelty with R[x] not necessarily being a UFD
It holds for noncommutative polynomial rings, once again
What holds?
Remainder theorem
Yes, but the remainder theorem is not the question. It's whatever a polynomial can have more than n roots
You need a domain to have deg(fg) = deg(f) + deg(g)
the thing is that division algorithm doesn't guarantee uniqueness, so what if we had 2 different q's you could go down and they give different roots
not possible?
I think this was an exercise in Jacobson I did let me check
Yeah, I guess once you have that you're pretty much good
Like if (x - a)(x - b) = 0, then x is either a or b because you're in a domain
oh wait, you do have uniqueness
in domain
ok
I prefer the solution in the book though
You can still do something like the Euclidean algorithm for general domains
You just need to introduce a power of the leading coefficient to the right side
Which domains don’t have nilpotent elements so idk if that’s a problem tbh
OTOH if ab=0 with a,b both nonzero, then (x-a)(x-b) = x² - (a+b)x has too many roots, namely at least a, b, and 0.
Domains
cool
@long geyser
However the at-most-degree-many-roots thing doesn't hold for general rings. The ring of quaternions has infinitely many solutions to x^2 = -1
Hmm, this doesn't deal with Z/4Z, though -- only one zero divisor to play with. Is there a polynomial over Z/4Z that has too many roots for its degree?
hmm
lol, maybe rings with only one zero divisor still enjoy this property
Formal polynomials over noncommutative rings are still somewhat well-behaved -- the problem with them is that they don't have well-defined evaluation maps -- or, if you try to define such a map in the obvious way you may not get a ring homomorphism out of it. That ruins a lot of properties that we otherwise tend to take for granted.
My take is that it's more formulated for central elements
because commutivity
Or R-algebras
Ah! 2x²=2x holds for every element of Z/4Z.
omg so true!!
There don't seem to be any monic examples, though.
How do I classify all groups $G$ such that $0 \to \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z} \to G \to \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z} \to 0$ is exact? I think it's just $\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$ and $\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$ but how do I show that's all of them?
Spamakin🎷
Imagine a perimage of 1 in G, what can it's order be? Consider the cases
Why would it have to have 4? How do you come to that conclusion?
The morphism into G must be injective, the morphism out of G must be epi
but the image must be the kernel of the next
use legrange's
:3
Is there anything special about F_2 here? my proof didn't involve the fact
Beause you can quotient out the injective image of the first Z/2Z and get a quotient of order 2.
btw F_2(x) = Frac(F_2[x]), is this standard terminology?
|A| = |A/B|x|B|
Yea
Yes.
Ah
R(x) = field of fractions of R[x] for any domain R.
👍
Would people actually use that if R is not a field?
Like saying Z(x) = Q(x) seems weird to me
Awful
Hmm, now that you mention it, I'm not sure if I have seen that.
torture
?
Z(x) 
I actually don’t think it’s necessary
I guess it’s like nudging towards Frobenius endomorphism but that doesn’t cause any contradiction since -f(x) = f(x) anyway cuz char 2 lmao
maybe they want to hint at how to coook up an inseparable extension
ah, you're right
I shouldn't have cropped the stuff in parentheses
fun way to see that is f'(t)=0
lol
nice
another would be to apply Gauss' lemma and say it'd be irredcible over F_2[x]
which is obvious by degree considerations
or by Eisenstein's criterion lol
Lol dumb question
is there standard notation for the non-unital ring generated by some elements
Like a polynomial ring minus the 0th degree bit lol
I've never seen this so probably nothing too standard lol
I literally just used this lmao
For the psycho x^r(x) = x for every x in ring problem
It sucks, and it's named after jacobson, wtf not
lol
the important thing is that like cohomology of a space forms a graded ring, but often you want to consider what happens when you chuck away zeroth degree lol
I imposed a partial order on R that x | y if y = f(x) for some integer polynomial without a constant (because there is no gaurunteed identity)
oof
Well if x | y then xy = yx
but it turns out I think it's a bit easier because I forgot that if nx = 0, and my = 0, then nm(xy -yx) = nx my - my nx = 0 lol
which I think may actually be a route to prove it more easily
lazy
what are the minimal pre reqs to read something like matsumura or atiyah? I am trying to speed run to it to hopefully get ready for ag in the fall
I think I should be familiar with basic ring and galois theory in a week or two, but do I need to know a lot about tensor products, cat theory, or advanced module stuff?
For Matsumura, yeah it helps a lot
For AM, no
If you don’t know much about tensor products Matsumura is above your pay grade atm. AM covers tensor products in like chapter 2 or 3, so that is a better fit
I see, for matsumura, what do you think beyond basic ring/galois and module theory(I only know like structure theorem and nothing else pretty much) is required?
Ill def add tensor products to my list
There’s technically a treatment of derived functors as well as direct / inverse limits in an appendix. I find it hard to believe that someone who doesn’t know them going in however will be able to follow all the arguments
I think a working knowledge of homological algebra (a first course) is probably the main thing, but besides that one just has to have a certain degree of maturity
The book won’t spell out every detail in every argument
I see, it seems a bit far away then, I will try to do jacobson until I know what those mean, thanks for the help
How would you calculate the Galois group of x⁴+4x²+2?
The roots are +-isqrt(2+sqrt(2)) and +-isqrt(2-sqrt(2))
I know the Galois group is Z4 I just have to prove it
Maybe explicitly find the elements of it
So my idea is that since the galois group G is transitive on the roots, there exists an automorphism that sends isqrt(2+sqrt(2)) to isqrt(2-sqrt(2)) and want to prove that it is forced to send isqrt(2-sqrt(2)) to -isqrt(2+sqrt(2))
How would you go about that?
Yeah likely you can use field axioms to show how automorphism behaves
The field extension in between might help as well
Can you identify subfield extensions?
Yep, so you can think of how the automorphism would act on sqrt 2
And infer stuffs from that.
It would take sqrt(2) to -sqrt(2) I have that too
Yeah so
How did you get sqrt(2) btw?
Think about that. How it appears in this picture
I mean I got it by raising phi(isqrt(2+sqrt(2))) and isqrt(2-sqrt(2)) to the power of 2 and
And got phi(-2-sqrt(2))=-2+sqrt(2)
So phi(sqrt(2))=-sqrt(2) since Q is fixed by phi
I was trying to do something like that to prove that isqrt(2-sqrt(2)) has to fall in -isqrt(2+sqrt(2)) but I don't know how to do it as isqrt(2+sqrt(2)) and -isqrt(2+sqrt(2)) feel basically as if they were algebraically the same
What is phi?
Ah, the automorphism?
The automorphism that takes isqrt(2+sqrt(2)) to isqrt(2-sqrt(2))
Yes
I mean it is as of now AN automorphism that takes...
But it should be the only one
Hmm, then let me ask how you got isqrt(2+sqrt(2)) instead. Like how did you compute it?
If the galois group is in fact cyclic of order 4
Well I calculated the roots of x⁴+4x²+2 and well x² has to be -2+-sqrt(2)
So the posibilities are the roots of that
That comes from factorization, right?
Yes
Let me be more direct. What is factorization of the poly on Q(sqrt(2))
Let me do that
Ah wait, now I get your frustration - this does not work easily. Hmm just a sec
I thought I knew where my intuition came from, but now I am not sure.
Anyway, @lilac mango you can try multiplying the two
Namely, i sqrt(2 + sqrt(2)) * i sqrt(2 - sqrt(2)) .
I have tried that already but I couldn't see how it helped really
I thought of something maybe it could be useful
The automorphisms fixing Q(sqrt(2)) are only the identity and conjugation
Did you compute the product? It is simple, isnt it?
That's not too hard to proof I think
We already know where phi sends sqrt(2).
Oh yeah so phi can't fix the product
Yeah that makes sense
Since it doesn't fix the product, we are done
phi has to send isqrt(2-sqrt(2)) to -isqrt(2+sqrt(2)) since if it sends it to isqrt(2+sqrt(2)) then it would fix -sqrt(2) but it doesn't
Indeed.
And a similar argument should prove that there are only 4 automorphisms
Like I would have to prove the automorphism is completely determined by what it does to, say, isqrt(2+sqrt(2))
So the order is 4 and I'm done
Or is there some smarter way of doing it?
You already have the ingredients. Give names to your four roots:
A = isqrt(2+sqrt2)
B = -isqrt(2+sqrt2)
C = isqrt(2-sqrt2)
D = -isqrt(2-sqrt2)
If you know f(A), then obviously f(B) = f(-A) = -f(A).
Since AB = 2+sqrt2, we have f(sqrt2) = f(A)f(B) - 2.
Since AD = sqrt2 we have f(D) = f(sqrt2)/f(A)
And f(C) must be the one left over.
Thanks Absta, you were very helpful 🙂
No problem! Good that you got it despite all my blunders and my mistakes 
Good luck with your algebra endeavour!
Oh wow yeah you're right
I was doing it case by case but yeah this is much more efficient
Thanks
I think you need to check explicitly that it's not V4, though, unless I missed an argument for that.
I think since Q(sqrt(2)) is a subfield, each is a quadratic extension over the previous only gives you +- so you're stuck with klein 4 group
Yeah you missed it. The one that takes A to C is (A C B D) since sigma takes sqrt(2) to -sqrt(2) and sigma(AC)=sigma(-sqrt(2))=sqrt(2) so sigma doesn't fix AC so must take C to B
Q(sqrt(2))/Q has conjugation that fixes Q, Q(sqrt(-2+sqrt(2))/Q(sqrt(2)) has conjugation that fixes Q(sqrt(2)), and then you could conjugate both for the third (non identity element)
I'm not too strong in Galois theory. but does a tower of extensions necessarily give us a direct product? I'd have thought the best we could hope for in general was a normal subgroup and quotient.
That gives you the size by Lagrange and then you can conclude by just knowing groups of order 4
The fact that Q(isqrt(2)) is also a sub field says it isn’t C_4
Except it is C4
Q(isqrt(2)) isn't a subfield
.
Oh teehee so true
teehee
But you can just start analyzing sub fields
Or I guess just get the order 4 automorphism by observation
Yeah since I don't know how I would discard that there were some other subfield of degree 2 over Q otherwise
ah just came back to this, I see my mistake was thinking since it fixed the subfield it fixed the elements cool makes sense
Ahh, Galois is so confusion
Why is this mass spammed
No i think your intuition is right if what you mean is "does tower -> direct product of cyclic groups". That is probably false since there are non-abelian solvable groups
it's definitely false since that example had its galois group a cyclic group with 4 elements
The point I had in mind is that it looked like Merosity was assuming the Galois group would be the product of the Galois groups of each layer in the tower, in the message immediately above mine.
yeah, I was haha
If the permutation groups of two sets are isomorphic does that mean that there is a bijection between them
I think the answer is yes and I was trying to construct such a bijection, does taking x in one set and y in other and if f is the isomorphism then considering mapping n in first set to f((x,n))(y) work?
what do you mean by "permutation groups of two sets". I think generally speaking two objects can have the same automorphism groups but not be isomorphic. That might even mean they can have different numbers of elements
also are these sets finite?
No
I meant of A and B are two sets and S_A ~= S_B then is |A|=|B|?
|X| denotes the cardinality of X
this might get hard then
thats beyond my knowledge, is there a set theory of formal logic subchat here somewhere? they would be quick to create weird counterexamples if some existed
