#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 240 of 1
Yeah lol
One nice application of this theorem is with separability
You can call a polynomial f over a field separable if f and f' are coprime

And this shows that that is preserved under field extensions
Sometimes different definitions are used tho
wait lol
Well one thing is that x^2 is always separable according to some definitions and never according to others
aE + bE = dE, a = ux, b = vx
dE = (ux)E + (vx)E = (u + v)xE subset of xE so x | d
so if d | x | a,b then x | d thus they are associated, d is still GCD
ax + by = d. Assume a = uk, b = vk
ukx + vky = (ux + vy)k = d so k | d
just that there's a unique maximal divisor
There is a unique minimal principal ideal containing a and b
In GCD Domains: $(a) + (b) \subseteq (\gcd(a,b))$ while it's an equality for Bezout domains.
Ah, so only minimal among principal ideal?
Arzela-Açaí Theorem
principal ideals containing (a) + (b)
Yeah
ax + by = d, Assume a = uk, b = vk
ukx + vky = (ux + vy)k = d so k | d
this implies that every common divisor divides all elements of (a) + (b)
it's just with the assumption that (x) + (y) EQUALS (d) then we have the funny
Okie so
(a) is maximal in a pid if a is prime, since if (proper) J contains (a), then (a) must strictly be in some (b), so b | a and is therefore not prime
so it's a field from there
otherwise we have some xy = a where neither x = 0, y = 0 (mod a), and xy = 0 (mod a)
(a)/(a) = (0) is not a prime ideal lmao
Assume x and y have degree leq 0, then d(x + y) = max(d(x),d(y)) <= 0, so the set of degree leq 0 elements is additively closed
By euclidean-ness, for x of degree 0 , there must exist a q, r such that 1 = qx + r, d(r) < d(x) = 0, so r = 0. Thus 1 = qx. Thus every nonzero degree 0 element is a unit.
idk how to show the multiplicative identity is degree 0
Oh my fucking god I skipped over d(ab) = d(a)d(b)
d(1) = d(x)d(x^-1) = 0
So the set of degree 0 elements is a field
Assume there exists x, y such that d(x) and d(y) are greater than 0. Let y = qx + r, d(r) < d(x)
if d(x) >= d(y), then d(q)d(x) = d(y - r) <= d(x), so d(q) <= 1
might try this tomorrow morning
Let N be a normal subgroup of a group G. Suppose that | N | = 5 and that |G| is odd. Prove that N is contained in the centre of G.
Let G act on N by Conjugation, because N is the normal subgroup of G.
Then by the class equation we get |N | = sum of |G|/| stab(n) | , n runs over conjugacy class.
Since |G| is odd so |stab(n) | must be odd then |G|/|stab(n) | be odd.
Now we have only two ways to write 5 as sum of positive odd numbers , 5 = 1 +1 +1 + 1 +1 and 5 = 1 + 3 + 1.
If we have the first one then N is contained in the centre of G. How can I eliminate second case?
So in the second case you’ve confirmed there would be 2 elements from the centre in N, N is order 5 and so can be generated by almost every one of its elements, so try and use that to show all of N must be in the centre
|N| has prime order so it is cyclic so it will be generated by all non-identity element, right?
Yep
So we have shown there are two elements that are in the centre of G so one of them is the non-identity element in the centre of G. Hence N is in the centre of G.
But I doubt if N is contained in the centre of G then how N have conjugacy class of order 3?
Well really you’re just showing that isn’t possible, if it helps you could view it as a proof by contradiction
Yes got it, thank you
where did i mess up? my conclusion is clearly false since then every Z/pZ for prime p is a multiplicative group
firstly i think this notation of considering Z/nZ as residue classes of Z is quite eccessive. it leads to an abundance of overlines and +sn / +tn, but we don't really care about Z itself anymore. if youre being taught to do this, then fair but i really think its not a great way to think of cyclic groups
also notationally alpha and a together are difficult to read
oh sorry about that. yeah i really wasn't thinking with the notation choice i guess
i csn rewrite if need be
all good!
but im not sure how else to define Z/nZ
ok actually nvm i think its fine here because its pretty instructive
but re: your error, consider a = 0
or $\overline{0}$ lol
hk
okay so that one doesnt have an inverse i see
but its not the only residue class without an inverse for prime n, right?
you did not make any logical missteps
you just have to interpret what it means for gcd(a, n) to be 1 for all a
it means that a and n have no common prime factors, right? but then example $(\mathbb{Z}/7\mathbb{Z})^{\times}$ does not include $\overline{2}$
esca | এস্কা
why doesnt it
oh wait hold on
whats 2*4
sorry i totally misread the thing i was reading
lol
yeah youre totally right i just skimmed over this part and interpreted it wrong lmao
sorry about that
then would it be sufficient to say that $a = \overline{0}$ contradicts the assumption?
esca | এস্কা
sure if you show that
that there exists no 0 + mn congruent to 1 mod n?
well thats trivially true
okay i think i got it now. tysm!
cheers
i feel like im missing some notation info - im seeing $U(\mathbb{Z}_p) = \mathbb{Z}^\star_p$ in reference to the subset of elements with a multiplicative inverse and $\mathbb{Q}^\star = \mathbb{Q} \setminus {0}$
what does the star next to the set indicate o . o i see from google that it has a certain meaning in discrete math and that it has meanings as an operator (kleene star) that im familiar with, but those don't seem to apply here
haru~
does it just mean nonzero
For any field F, F* generally denotes the unit group of F
That is, the multiplicative group formed by all elements of F with a multiplicative inverse
this definition of symmetry isnt making sense to me. specifically, i dont see how rigid motion in 3-space permits all permutations of the vertices. i am conceptualizing rigid motion in 3 space as rotation about 3 linearly independent axes that intersect at the n-gon's center. but then the permutation, say $\sigma(2) = 1$, $\sigma(1) = 2$, and $\forall n > 2\space(\sigma(n) = n)$ for some n > 3 cannot be achieved by just rigid motion in 3-space? or am i misunderstanding something
esca | এস্কা
Rigid motion does not permit all permutations of vertices
Only some permutations can be achieved by rigid motions, obviously
Since we need to preserve the manner in which the vertices are connected
i thought the unit group was denoted U(F)? and here the sets arent necessarily fields (like Z), so they present that U(Z_n) = Z*n iff n is prime
Both of those notations are used
then why does it say that U(Z_n) = Z*_n if and only if n is prime
Then they probably use R^* to mean the nonzero elements
Are the number of elements of order 5 in a group of order 20 is 4?
Because by the Sylow theorem we have subgroup H of order 5. And using the Sylow third theorem we get there is only one Sylow 5-subgroup.
Since H is a group of order 5 so all non-identity elements have order 5. And there is no other Sylow 5-subgroup therefore only 4 elements have order 5.
Is it correct?
Yes
To prove that no group of order pq, where p and q are prime, is simple.
First, if p=q then the order of the group will be p^2 and it is abelian so it cannot be simple because the order is p^2.
Second, if p≠ q then there is the result that if there p is the smallest prime number which divides |G| and H is a subgroup of index p then H is normal in G.
Let p<q, So by Sylow there is subgroup of order q which has index p, and using the result we have normal Subgroup of order q.
To find a sylow p-subgroup of GL_2(F_p).
If I let the subgroup generated by [ a 0; 0 1 ] , where a is non - identity element of F_p , F_p denotes the field of order p.
Is it correct?
That group is order p-1
Yes🥲
So you’ll have to try a different subgroup, try finding a matrix of order p
[1 1; 0 1 ] ?
That sounds good
This is the transformation f: (a,b) | -> (a +b, b) so you can easily se it has order p
Oh
I find it quite mysterious how we can directly see how multiple action behaves here, while matrix power is more difficult to compute.
Ermmm… what the Aff_1…
Yeah
I guess philosophically it's like, matrix multiplication is essentially always the same difficulty, whilst composing linear maps varies ig lol
and here the map is so simple that it happens to be that the latter is easier lol
Is {e} is the proper normal Subgroup?
Yes
I think {e} not considered as a proper normal subgroup because there is a question, if G has order n = p^e × a where 1<=a < p and e>=1, then G has a proper normal subgroup.
If yes then this question is trivial
Maybe the question means a nontrivial proper normal subgroup
But {e} is certainly both a proper and a normal subgroup of any group with more than one element
But if a = 1 = e then G has order p then how does it have a non-trivial proper normal Subgroup ?
to prove that the field Q doesn't contain any nontrivial subfield is it enough to show that Q is the field of quotients of Z, hence Q is the smallest field that contains Z, there doesn't exist any field properly containing Z and contained Q
And to prove if G is a group of order 385 show that it's 11- Sylow subgroup is normal and it's 7- Sylow subgroup is in the centre of G.
To prove the first part, let s be the number of Sylow 11- subgroups but s=1 mod 11 and s divides 35 so s has only one choice , s=1. Hence, Sylow 11- Subgroup is a normal subgroup.
And
Second part, let G act on H, where H is Sylow 7-subgroup of G then by Class equation we have |H| = sum of order of orbits of a, where a runs over conjugacy class. Since order of orbits divides order of G.
Hence order of orbits can be 5,1,7 because it cannot be greater than 7. Thus there are only choice to write 7 = 1+1+5 or 7 = 1+1+1+1+1+1+1.
So the centre of G has a non-identity element of H and H has order of p so it is cyclic hence H is in the centre of G.
Is it correct?
you can also take any non-trivial subfield K of Q. it contains the integers, so you can show that Q is a subfield of K directly
yea that also works thanks
i have another question, it's about showing that every subfield of R must contain the rationals. i think the multiplicative Identity 1 of R is contained in any subfield, and 1 isn't irrational. so This subfield must contain rational numbers as well. but the thing is does the subfield contain all of Q?
A field of characteristic p contains Z/pZ
p = 0 included
And if it contains Z, it contains Q
Oh that was mentioned
A curiosity which arised from some other exercise: what is an example of a non abelian group G with an element x of infinite order such that G is the normal closure of x?
Yes, it contains all of ℚ because one can obtain the integers from 1, and therefore the multiplicative inverses of all nonzero integers must also be contained in the subfield
holy shit how did i forget about inverses 😮💨 thanks
Normal closure ?
Any hint? To prove that if G is a group of order p^2q, p and q are distinct prime numbers then it is not a simple group. I have shown for when q< p but when p < q, how can I show that?
Have you tried counting the elements
Yes
If p< q and number of the Sylow q-subgroup is p^2 then there are p^2(q-1) elements of order q
The smallest normal subgroup of G that contains x
Intersection of all normal Subgroups that contain x ?
Yes
I got an exercise to prove the additional groups Z, Q, and R are not isomorphic. Now I think proving that Z is not isomorphic to Q and R is because Z is generated by 1, while Q and R do not have such elements. But can someone give a hint on what to do with Q and R?
We can't have a bijection between ℚ and ℝ, immediately ruling out the possibility of an isomorphism
Oh right, let's see if i can prove that
Or you could consider a homomorphism from ℚ to ℝ and prove that it cannot be surjective. That way you don't need to deal with cardinalities directly
Ok thank you Knight
The cardinality method is straightforward, but here's a hint that I think provides a cool way to prove this.
In Q, consider the subgroups <1/2> and <1/3>. What's their intersection? What about <x> and <y> in general?
In R, consider the subgroups <sqrt(2)> and <1/2>. What's their intersection? What about <x> and <y> in general?
Ah i think i know where you are going
But I'm not really sure what the implications are. Subgroups are in the chapter after free groups :p
one of the more backwards methods of teaching I've heard
Haha
What on earth
I don't know how you construct free groups without mentioning subgroups lol
Categorically
How are you doing stuff categorically without having touched subgroups 😭
Is this following aluffi or something
Yeah
interesting
I tend to find it cringe when people rib on category theory by saying it gets in the way of actual maths.
However, I think this categorical introduction is getting in the way of actual maths.
Lol
Yeah I find it odd introducing category theory alongside one of the first maths courses people take lol
If you don't already know either basic category theory or basic group theory, this is a bad approach.
like to me it should more be introduced once you have actually done more stuff to motivate it
And I think I am not alone in that belief
i agree and i am generally very pro-categories
I quite like category theory too.
I did read about some category theory, mathematically logic, HoTT :P, but never abstract algebra. So when I read about a book that teaches CT and AA, I though let's read that. It sounded fun.
I am not studying mathematics or something
I am not studying mathematics
What do you mean by this? You are studying mathematics rn
Right, right I meant not at a university or something
I'm glad though that you're not treating this as your introduction to both.
I guess you are an exception in that case aha
It is my introduction to abstract algebra 🙂
But the categorical stuff is still pretty basic. It didn't even touch natural transformations yet
And of course I had my linear algebra in the past
Yeah, I suppose I only like aluffi as much as I do because I already had some prior experience with group theory
I am very ind-categories
Nearly made that joke lol
Lol that's so odd
Doing stuff categorically-theoretically but not defining one of the most basic notions
Lol yeah functors and natural transformations aren't introduced until chapter 8
What is the point of using categories then lmao
I don't know, I am reading it for fun
I mean I guess you learn to recognize functors even if you don't know what they are
Indnouns is one of my favorite jokes 🙂
Hi guys, if I have a generator (a,b). This genereator is equivalent to (g). Where g = gcd(a,b), furthermore if I can find $c \in R$ s.t. g = a - cb then (a,b) = (a-cb). Suppose I have two vectors now $v_1, v_2$. Let $g = gcd(v_1), g'=gcd(v_2)$. If I can find a $c \in R$ s.t. $g - cg' = gcd(g, g') = gcd(v_1, v_2)$ does this imply that $(gcd(v_1, v_2)) = (gcd(v_1 - cv_2))$?
18岁的反应81岁的操作
Sorry but this doesn't really make sense to me
How are you taking a gcd of a single thing?
And what is (a,b) a generator of?
what is R? etc
gcd of a vector, say the vector is (1,2,3), then gcd(1,2,3) = 1.
R is a ring say Z/(s).
Where s is some intger.
What I wanna achieve is given two vectors say $v_1, v_2$ of same size, imagine this as a matrix of 2 columns with n rows (call it M). Apply a unimodular column transformation (say V) s.t. MV = M'. Where the first columns of M' captures all the gcd infromation of the whole matrix. i.e. $gcd(M'_1) = gcd(M_1, M_2)$ where $M_i$ denotes the ith column of M. Is this achievable if we are in Z/(s) for some integer s?
18岁的反应81岁的操作
I still don't know what your gcd notation means
but this reminds me of smith normal form a bit
Yes, I'm working on smith normal form.
you can do smith normal form over any PID, which includes Z/sZ
say my vector is v = (2,4,6). then gcd(v) = gcd(2,4,6) = gcd(2, gcd(4, 6)).
yes but then you took the GCD of two vectors
gcd(v1, v2) = gcd(gcd(v1), gcd(v2)).
The notation C^{>0} is that different from C\{0} ? Is the first the set with elements in polar coordinates (r, theta) with 0 < theta < pi/2? Or just |z| > 0?
Nevermind the exercise was about Q^{>0}, i misread
Is 5/2 and 5/3 not a counterexample to this claim?
Yeah ur right you could just take each bi to be 1 and any non gcd 1 sequence of ais. You def need that gcd of the ais is 1
ye I considered that first, then I thought what if author intended all bi =\= 1 and still found a counterexample so
This seems to be true. I implemented in maple and tested on few thousand random vectors.
How do I rule out n_5 = 16 for (iii)?
Uhh maybe consider normalizer? Idk man I have been thinking about this for a bit
Or intersection of P and Q being trivial
implying that any two 5-Sylow subgroups have trivial intersection
W a i t
@barren sierra I think I know
I arrived at this but got nowhere
assume there are 16 Sylow 5-subgroups, who’s intersection is pairwise trivial, thus we can consider their union. The union would be of size (5 - 1)*16 + 1 = 65?
hm
yea
isn’t this immediate from them being order 5
yea
Yeah it’s cyclic
that's how I got that at least
Anyway uh, 480 = 2^5 * 3 * 5
have you ruled out any possibilities the number is sylow 3 or 2s
Assume there are 16 5-Sylows, so 64 elements get “eaten up” by the Sylow 5 groups
We now have Sylow 3 subgroups to consider
Disjoint (except for identity) from the Sylow 5’s
Oh but there’s a lot of possibilities for that

yeah i thought about that and didn’t get very far
yea me either
n_3 = 1 (mod 3)
n_3 | 2^5 * 5
Sylow 2’s - all of order 32,
n_2 = 1 (mod 32)
n_2 | 3 * 5
omfg
There’s 1
Just one
it’s normal but who cares
So uh there’s 31 nontrivial in that subgroup so uh that’s 385 remaining
oh so uh know how many Sylow 2's there are and assume number of Sylow 5s
Yeah but only a rather small number of elements are actually in a Sylow 2 or 5
yea and there can be at most 119 elements in a Sylow 2
what
tryna rule these out
probably look at the normalizer of the intersections
groups of order p_1^ap_2p_3...p_n moment
they are cyclic so the union of non-identity elements of Sylow 5’s is 4*n
But we run into no issues
I forget how that helps tbh
Of what?
There’s one Sylow 2, and the other Sylow groups are cyclic
i don’t think this is helpful actually that would be to show it’s not simple
So every Sylow subgroup is pairwise disjoint
I think just explicitly computing the normaliser is far easier
should be things that look like
(a b)
(0 c)
Mmm true
a, c \neq 0 b whatever you want
this blows
Very strong should
not really it's obvious
upper triangular matrices preserve the flag
the what?
I'm 99% sure they meant (C)
or eh I guess to compute normalizer you use (B2)
who cares which is which tho
size of orbit then burnside's perhaps
hmmmm
or sorry not burnsides, orb-stab
This problem is more of a pain in the ass than I thought, let d be delta because I refuse to LateX this right now
This is the shit I have thus far
First, assume d(0) = n > 0. Then n = d(0) = d(0^2) = d(0)^2 = n^2. This can only happen if n = 1. Thus d(0) = 1
But then d(x * 0) = d(x)d(0) = d(0) = d(x) implying d(x) = 1 forall x
But by euclidean division: if we have x, y nonzero
y = qx + r, d(r) < d(x)... but d(x) = 1 forall x so that's a contradiction
Thus d(0) = 0
Now assume we have a nonzero x such that d(x) = 0. Then 0 = qx + r, where d(r) < d(x) = 0, which also can't happen
so d(x) = 0 iff x = 0
Now let K_1 = d^-1({0,1}) i.e x such that d(x) <= 1
if x and y are in K_1
then d(x + y) <= max(d(x),d(y)) <= 1 so x + y is in K_1
d(x)d(y) <= (1)(1) = 1 so xy is in K_1
d(x) = d(1 * x) = d(1) d(x) for each x, so d(1) = 1 and is therefore in K_1
Likewise d(1) = d((-1)^2) = d(-1)^2 implying d(-1) = 1 and -1 is in K_1
lastly, assume x is in K_1. then there exists a q and r such that 1 = qx + r, d(r) < d(x) = 1, thus d(r) = 0 implying r = 0. Thus 1 = qx, and x is a unit as d(1) = 1 = d(x)d(q) = d(q) so x^-1 is in K_1.
These properties imply K_1 is a field
If K_1 is D itself, then it's a field
Lets assume it isn't. Let k = min(d(x), x not in K_1)
Now fix a of degree k . Allow the valuation map from K_1[X] to D fixing K_1, but sending X to a
A major observation is that, for all b in D, we have euclidean division:
b = qa + r, d(r) < d(a) = k, then r is in K_1.
This map is onto and this is through strong induction. The hypothesis is:
for d(b) = h then b = f(a) for some polynomial f(X)
Base case is where d(b) = 1, then b is in K_1, so it's just the constant polynomial for b.
The inductive step is assume 1 < d(b) < h => d(b) = f(a)
Let d(c) = h, then c = qa + r for r in K_1, thus
d(qa) = d(q)d(a) = d(q)k = d(c - r) <= max(d(c),d(r)) = d(c) = h. Thus d(q) < h, so q = f(a) for some a
thus c = f(a)a + r = g(a), where g(X) = f(X)X + r is a polynomial in K_1[X]
It's like an "ultra euclidean function"
You can treat d here as a norm, I think
still typing out the last bit gimme a sec
Checking out the kernel: K_1[X] is a euclidean domain, and is thus a PID. So the kernel is generated by a single nonconstant polynomial, call it f(X).
Then f(X) = g(X)X + r. Under the valuation map, f(a) = 0 = g(a)a + r implying r = -g(a)a, so d(r) = d(g(a))d(a) = d(g(a))k <= 1, which implies d(g(a)) = 0, so g(a) must be 0, but g(X) must have degree less than f(X), and is in the kernel. This contradicts f(X) being the kernel's generator
Thus the kernel is trivial. We have an isomorphism by FIT
holy FUCK
that was a LOT OF WORK FOR ONE PROBLEM
I think you can simplify this solution by writing less >.>
I was typing it out not as a proof by itself but my train of thought explicitly so I could keep my train of thought
Ahh
Good that you worked out handling the nonArchimedean norm yourself
Maybe after establishing that you have embedding K_1 -> D, you could use K_1-algebra argument
oh wait it is the nonarchimedean norm
Yes
For general fields I forget if ultranorm-ness and archimedeanness are dual lol
d(x + y) <= max(d(x),d(y)) being dual to there existing an n where d(n) > 1, from Z's canonical map into D
You mean they are complement to each other?
yeah thanks
Yea
actually being able to do this myself without help and in a single sitting actually is very satisfying
but it's kinda obvious where to go when you just kind of ask basic questions like "oh shit what's after degree 0"
time to write it down (hell)
The main bit is realizing K_1 itself is a field
which frankly is NOT OBVIOUS at first
Yeah, it's one of the problem where knowing about things could help
Cool that you managed to pull this off without knowing about non-Archimedean!
I saw the map into N and was like "lol we have minimums for sets" because well ordering and kinda knew where to go
Wait
euclidean map into an ordinal, we just need minimality to basically get the "next elements after K_1"
we could use transfinite induction instead to do the same proof
lmao
actually
this is a very useful result i have used time and time again
Hm I wanna know if the only PID F-algebra is F[x]/I
What is I
Well like
for it to be a domain you need I prime
and then I is zero or maximal
so you either get F[x] or another field
not too exciting
wait in a PID is every ideal prime
Well there are other F-algebras which are PIDs
Not really
Definitely not
wait no
6Z \subset Z
I wanted to ask about this.
wdym
prime <=> maximal for PID
i should've mentioned that lo
I mean, this also holds for fields vacuously
One way to say this is "PIDs have dimension 1 or 0"
Wait
No
Is (0) maximal in Q
Yes
That's a krull result
don't be krull to the joke bro
chat is slowing to a krull bro
Hmm, how does being Krull dimension 1 specify K-algebra
wdym
How to characterize such K-algebra?
i have to write down the entirety of this fucking exercise now god damn it
Like, can we classify them?
It's hard
Meh
Well like you get a whole family from curves
well this is essentially by definition but yeah
like k[x,y]/(x^2 + y^2 -1) i guess
I guess K[x1, .., xk]/I is the easiest reduction and then you need proof after that
and things
Ah, right
So is proof for Euclidean domain field-algebra being k[x] or k bound to be complicated?
That isn't true afaik (well you also need to allow for field extensions but also beyond that)
What I was saying was for stuff of the form k[x]/I, like domain <=> euclidean domain fairly immediately
Well, yeah I noticed that problem
But you can take different field and it holds
..ah wait
okay tbh this is probably one of my favorite ring theory exercises along with local artinian rings being products of finitely many local rings
How beyond field extension?
Well I don't see why it should be true tbh, maybe it is possible
miz's proof does not seem to use non-Archimedean property after showing K_1-algebra.
It's used for the inductive step for the epi part
but that is a finitely generated K_1-algebra part though I guess lmao
showing it's into does not use the ultranormness no
Hmm
The proof is basically that the kernel is principal, but that polynomial is g(X)X + r for some X. Taking the image, we have g(a)a = -r
but the norm's multiplicativity is what gives the contradiction
and d(x) <= 1 iff x in F
I mean, I guess showing the epi part is important (- showing that it has one generator)
Intro ring theory (not really)
I know of "Introduction to number theory" which handles Adele rings and such, currently taking a course using it as a textbook
pages 85 to 156 are about ring theory
though there would probably be problems like that on an exam in a first year abstract alg course though
@cobalt heath want to see something silly and funny
Ohh what is it?
For a general integral domain $D$, we can define $\mathrm{GL}(D,2) = { M \in M_2(D) : \det(M) \in D^\times }$ right, where $D^\times$ is the group of units
I need to write this out formally first
Mistated, sad
SL(D,2) IS
stuck on this again lol
UwU
By Euler criterion, (-1 | p) = (-1)^((p - 1/2) = (-1)^2n = 1.
Thus there exists 0 <= n < p such that: n^2 = -1 (mod p)
i.e n^2 + 1 = 0 (mod p)
so n^2 + 1 = kp for some natural k
the problem is that idk where to go from here
Hint: norm of n + i
not sure how I'd prove that
What is the norm equal to
x^2 + y^2
Z times Z bar right?
for x + yi
And x^2+y^2 = (x+iy)(x-iy) right?
Yeah it’s a proof by contradiction
You’re trying to show p is reducible so assume otherwise
oh yeah i'd have to divide (x \pm iy) which can only happen if p | x and p | y but then p | 1 which is a contradiction
Hmmm, I don't see silly stuff here
LU decomposition on general GL(D, 2)?
So you know it’s reducible
Extended euclidean algorithm
x | p implies N(x) | p^2 implying N(x) = 1, N(x) = p, or N(x) = p^2
Ah, yeah euclidean algorithm is kind of like alternating-ly applying this kind of X=L and Y=U
First case can't happen except for the units, ignoring that
yeah that's what I realized
was weird at first but it proves extended euclidean algorithm and how it computes a pair of bezout coeffs
can the last?
Trying to think
You can prove x | p iff N(x) | p using xy = n implies (x - yi) | p i think?
nice
another way to phrase this is like
Lmao
Try to use integers more
This may seem ad hoc but it actually generalises a lot lol
Assume (x + yi)(a + bi) = p + 0i
p = xa - yb
0 = xb + ya
xb = -ya
This is the type of thing Jagr would send
Try to use norms more
Still trying
Do you want a hint
Alg geo class usually force you to memorize that A/I is domain iff I is prime
I still can't figure it out aaaa
N(p^2) = p^4 = N(x)N(x*) which isn't an issue
Hmm
You aren’t using that p is reducible
asterisk for conjugate
Is x x* = p^2 or p
p^2 by the assumption N(p) = p^2
Eh? What was x?
x | p
... that's how I got x in the first place
Start by writing p = zw for z w no units
assuming x divides p, p doesn't divide x (not associates)
p = xy, p^2 = N(x)N(y) => p | N(x) or p | N(y)
wlog assume p | N(x)
Ah lol
Hmm Do you know N(x) = x x* >.>
Welp
🔠⁉️
🔠 stands for always be clearing doubts and is required to put when you have successfully performed a doubt clear
😀
oh lordie
Oh, how did you know?
I am asserting neither are units
Does N(x) = 1 mean x is a unit?
Same proof as I used for the prior exercise
Ah, my hazy memory
Yeah cuz x* is the inverse lol
that too lmao
I guess for this:
First check which integer primes retain primality
2 is reducible, as 2 = (1 + i)(1 - i)
Thus for odd primes, they must be of the form 4n + 1 or 4n + 3. The former case is reducible
3 is NOT a quadratic residue mod 4, you can verify that
Assume x = a + bi, N(x) = p = 4n + 3 = a^2 + b^2. Then a + b = 1 (mod 2). thus only one of a, b can be odd.
but that contradicts a^2 + b^2 = 3 (mod 4), as a = 1 (mod 2) implies a^2 = 1 (mod 4) and a = 0 (mod 2) implies a^2 = 0 (mod 4)
i want to show that "if U and V are ideals in a commutative ring R such that U+V = R, then prove that UV = U∩V".
UV ⊂ U∩V is true in general, i have to show the reverse and that's where i am stuck now.
Yep in this case
Forgot general logic applying to ED tho
So no element of Z[i] can have norm 4n + 3 in general
Ramification behavior >.>
I wanted to try the same for Z[w]
cbrt of unity
i think i got 3n + 2 primes are still prime
How about 3n + 1?
reducible
Oh so you are done 
Pain in the ass
i forget how I did it
every prime p of the form 3n + 1 has p = a^2 + ab + b^2
Anyway once again
Assume x | p, then xy = p so N(x)N(y) = p^2, so p|N(x) or p|N(y) but N(x) nor N(y) is 1 so N(x) = N(y) = p but no elements of norm congruent to 3 mod 4 exist
Thus p = 4n + 3 is still prime
That U+V = R means in particular that there are u and v with u+v = 1.
Then use that x*1 = x
ok so let x ∈ U∩V. then x*(u+v) = xu + xv = x ∈ UV.
wait a second when did i say R has multiplicative identity hmmm all commutative ring has unity?
alright the claim is false if R doesn't have unity. great.
What is the difference between S and A?
definition if people need it
or is S = A the whole point of the exercise
S contains x^5 y^2 from that example, for instance
Well the exponents of that, at least
I need help with option c, not sure how to proceed
Was A or B true,
Try using 3rd iso theorem if so
Yeah, both are true. B is immediate from 1st isomorphism theorem and then B and A are isomorphic
Any hint? To show that if G is a group of order p^2q then it is not a simple group
Is this p^{2q} or p^{2} q
Nice . So do you remember what 3rd iso theorem is? Bijection between subgroups of G containing N and subgroups of G/N?
You mean the correspondence theorem?
Yes
Alright
So…
The question is the same as finding a proper nontrivial subgroup of G/N right
Yeah
Alrighty, thanks 
🔠
P^(2) q
split it into cases, if q is less than p and if p is less than q
I did for q< p but for p< q, there are 1 Sylow q-subgroup or p^2 Sylow q-subgroup
If there are p^2 Sylow q-subgroup then there are p^2(q-1) elements of order q
i think it would be best to play with the congruence p^2 = 1 mod q
Then p=1modq or p= -1 mod q, right?
p = -1mod q
yeah, but remember p < q, so you know that p + 1 = q
and now you have a reduced problem where you can talk about the sylow structure of a specific ordered group in this case
is part (d) true or false?
I suggest you try to find a counterexample or prove it first. I would hint to you that the quotients depends on how the subgroup embeds into the group.
Another hint: consider the group S_3 x Z_3
Thanks!
And p and q are distinct prime numbers so only choice is p = 2 and q = 3, right
Hence G is a group of order 12
Let G be a group of order 30. I want to prove that either the Sylow 5-subgroup K or the Sylow 3-subgroup H is normal.
Let s be the number of Sylow 5-subgroups and t be the number of Sylow 3-subgroups,.
Thus, we have s= 1,6 and t=1,10. Now if s= 6 and t= 10 then there will be 54 distinct elements which is not possible so one of them must be 1.
Hence either Sylow 5-subgroup K or Sylow 3-subgroup H is normal
Is it correct?
I'm in the process of making a Python package to implement finite group theory. I'm trying to figure out a way to find all subgroups of a group $G$. One rigorous way would be to iterate through $\mathcal P(A)$, filter them using Lagrange's Theorem, and then apply Finite Subgroup Test to each one of the filtered subsets. This works, however with larger groups (e.g., 18 or more order), the computations become very expensive. Another basic way I've thought of is compiling all ``natural'' (?) subgroups such as $Z(G)$, ${C(a): a\in G}$, and ${\langle a \rangle: a \in G}$, then taking their union to get a list. This gives close results. However, still about 10-20% subgroups are not covered in this method. In the case of $\mathbb Z_n$, the method gives correct result. All subgroups seem to be covered (upto $\mathbb Z_{18}$ that I tried), but in $U_n$ and $D_n$, it skips some of the subgroups.
Is there any relation between this union and the set of all subgroups? I need to figure out where can I focus to reach out to the remaining subgroups, if anyone has any idea.
n11
what groups are available to users?
do you have a quick way of telling if a group is abelian or not?
yes
Right now, dihedral, Z_n, U_n, K4 and Q8. And EDPs of any of these groups
Yes. I check commutativity among all elements... and return the answer accordingly
Making python package
The 10-20% is only upto order 18 BTW when I compared results from both methods. I used GAP to find subgroups of D_100 (order 200), it gave over 220 subgroups. The method I'm trying gave around 160
If H is Sylow 3-subgroup and K is Sylow 5-subgroup of G of order 30. And let H is normal in G then HK is a subgroup of order 15. Therefore HK is cyclic normal subgroup.
K is a subgroup of HK it implies that K is a normal in G, because HK is cyclic
How are you concluding that HK is normal?
Because it has index 2? That would work at least I guess
Yes
You're right that technically we do need to check that too
Fortunately, it is easy to see it's also a left inverse since everything written there commutes.
thx!
Why are the concept of group actions introduced?
For a group G and some set S, you can define lots of different group actions on S right? So this group action doesn’t necessarily have much to do with the multiplication inside G itself?
I dunno, im just learning group actions now.
probably most intuitive with practical examples
Defn says its a function G x S -> S such that a(bx)=(ab)x and ex = x
dihedral groups, rubiks cube...
The action makes your ordinary set group-like in a way... is how i might think of it. The set originally has no structure, but once you define an action on it, the action lets you kindof relate elements of it in a G-like way
There's a good argument that the main motivation for talking about groups at all is to have a language for speaking about their actions ....
Dat shit cool
Ok
So take an equilateral triangle. That is just 3 vertices.
but we can have C3 act on it, and that gets you the rotations
D3 (D6 depending on your text) will give you the reflections as well
Ohhh lol thats cool
Permutation groups as well as Symmetry groups of geometric spaces are important examples of groups that are literally defined by their actions on some pre-existing set.
(to add)
The dihedral groups wouldnt be as interesting without the above actions
at least, it wouldnt be used as a common first example 
And then the rubiks cube group can be thought of to act on the cube. If you take each minicube as an element say. Or each sticker as an individual element (lots of ways to choose the underlying set)
right, cayley's theorem says every group is a permutation group
And another way to phrase this is that every group has a faithful action on something.
I agree with this sentiment completely
What does a faithful action mean
the map G -> S_n given by the action has trivial kernel
no 2 elements of the group act on the set in exactly the same way
Or more concretely: the olny group element whose action is to leave everthing unchanged is the identity element.
You can have C6 act unfaithfully on a triangle by making 2 elements do the same rotation if they differ by 3
How do I show that there are no simple groups of order 216 = 2^3 * 3^3? Here's what I have so far. It's not much:
- n_2 = 1, 3, 9, 27 all except 1 seem possible towards contradiction
- n_3 = 1 or 4 so towards contradiction assume 4
trivial by classification of finite simple groups
honestly this problem seems awful
NVM have idea
Thanks to looking at notes 😎
suppose n_3 = 4 then G acts on the set of these 4 groups by conjugation
so get a morphism G -> S_4
And I wanna figure something about the kernel
here's a hint: 216 > 24
I hate groups I hate groups I hate groups I hate groups
💀
Yea pretty much
i wonder if you could automate this sorta problem
Btw @barren sierra for these type of problems you should usually start with the number of the largest p for sylow
2 usually tells you nothing
Yea it's called the SmallGrps library in GAP
it's called the IsSimple functor in MAGMA
optimal
There's a lot of possibilities for the number of Sylow 3-subgroups which seemed more annoying
Don’t u just have 1,4?
I misremembered whoops
7 shouldn't work
Yea
That’s how it usually goes
I mean yes I started with the Sylow 3 subgroups
so it's not literally the worst
bb-0b--b-b-but what baout n_3 = 1?!??!?!?!? we don't have3 an actionerino?!?!?!??!?! Where' --__S---- the MOrphism?!?!?! 🥺🥺🥺🥺

they really don't
True
literally nothing about modules makes sense
i’ve done all groups up to order 300 and the homomorphism into S_n where n is the number of sylow subgroups the most useful tool
or by burnsides theorem lol
burnside is a hack
wait you've done WHAT??
Based
cruel and unusual punishment
if memory serves me correctly, other than prime orders, there's only two other cardinalities of simple groups in that range
so that must have been a really boring endevour
it was actually a final project for my graduate group theory class
but it's just the same thing 300 times... it's too based for me to comprehend
i chose that one because one of my undergraduate homework assignments was the same thing but only up until 100, but at that time i didn’t have the lemma with the honomorphism into S_n so it was much harder
no literally. i think i just like front loaded a bunch of lemmas and group order types and did it that way. there were only about 12-15 i had to do by hand iirc
i think i messed up on 240 though
,w prime factors of 240
hmm
i tried to use this result in D & F let me find what i did
I suppose the only non-trivial ones are where there's more than 3 prime factors and the smallest prime sylow isn't cyclic
yes i think that was the case
the cyclic thing gets you a p-normal compliment so obviously can't be simple
i tried to apply this idea for 240 but i think he said it wasnt quite right but i dont remember what exactly was wrong with my proof
oh lemma 7 was cool too
Hello, my intuition tells me that this should hold, but idk how to show it.
Do you mean G_1 = S_3 and G_2 = Z_3?
No
In fact I'm afraid that I actually was thinking of a counterexample to (e), not (d).
I will give you a different hint: look at S_3 and its normal subgroup Z_3.
i hate that you refer to it as Z_3 and not A_3
OK
I would like to call it C_3 but I fear that early group theorists know it by Z_3
But Z_3 is the 3-adic integers
but Z_3 is the group of 3-cycles or whatever
C_{3?
ok so I made a typo while typing on a phone whilst walking
cut me some slack jack
Oh lol we were always told C_3
And yet now I always view it as Z/3 lol
C_3 = Z/3Z right?
C_n is the Cyclic group of order n
Right ok
Sorry, every time I see your name I ask myself are you Afrikaans?
Well spotted, indeed I was born there and my grandma calls me boytjie
Ah that's sweet, reminds me of my grandpa calling me kerel before he died. Well back to math 😛
Well, not always. Think of additional condition that will make this statement true
I was thinking maybe phi needs to be surjective
is this polynomial well studied? I am trying to find resources on it:
-x^2n - x^{2n - 2} - ... - x^2 + 1
What a shame about that + sign at the end.
is the latter well studied?
With the minus sign it should be
(1 - x^{2n+2})/(x^2 - 1)
I don't know that it is necessarily well studied, or what it would really mean for a single polynomial to be well studied, but at least it has a nice formula
What are the irreducible polynomials of degree <= 4 in Z/2[x] and why?
Which is, up to overall sign, a quite well studied polynomial in x².
So the well-known theory would go quite some way towards factoring it, for example.
A polynomial of degree 4, either has a root, is the product of two irreducible degree 2 polynomials, or is irreducible. The only irreducible degree 2 polynomial over Z/2 is x^2 + x + 1, and it's square is x^4 + x^2 + 1.
Things with constant term 0 has 0 as a root, and things with an even number of summands has 1 as a root. So that leaves
x^4 + x^3 + 1
x^4 + x + 1
x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + x + 1
That's of degree 4, then you can reason similarly for degree < 4
isn't the p'th root of every element themselves?
This is the case for elements of Fp itself, but not for the rest of k.
oh I meant (ii) not (i)
Because f(x) = x^p is a homomorphism, you have f(1+1+...+1) = f(1)+f(1)+...+f(1) = 1+1+...+1.
But every element of F_p can be written as 1+1+....+1.
ah, you can prove that it is the identity
but to even show this is a homomorphism, you must show (a + b)^p = a^p + b^p which requires the very thing which you'd want to prove, so...
you can prove that with the binomial theorem
oh wait yeah, my bad
p choose n for 0<n<p has strictly integers less than p in the factorials in the denominator, so its numerator must be divisible by p
well, "numerator" it's an integer ofc
you use that same theorem for fermat which is why I got confused
at least that's what happened earlier in the book
Yeah, this is essentially Fermat's little theorem in slightly fancier language.
What's the kernel and result of Isomorphism Theorem of f: Z[x] -> Z[sqrt(2)] : f(x) = sqrt(2)?
your f is not a homomorphism
but I'm guessing you meant you want to map x to sqrt(2)
Hm, so maybe they made a typo?
yeah, you should prove it's not a homomorphism to see what I mean before continuing with assuming they mean x |-> sqrt(2)
I see what you're saying Z[sqrt(d)] = {a+b sqrt(d) : a,b in Z} but
that's not really related to their mistake, Z[x] is all polynomials in x with integer coefficients, they're substituting x for sqrt(2)
The "x" in "f(x)=sqrt(2)" is not a variable, but a specific element of Z[x].
It's not a typo, just badly written imo
Specifying where f takes this element is enough to specify a homomophism uniquely.
The unique ring homomorphism which sends x to sqrt(2)
specifically sqrt(2) = f(xy)=f(x)f(y) = sqrt(2)sqrt(2) is not a homomorphism
Hm so example would be x+1 -> sqrt2 + 1
Yes
Yes.
You just plug sqrt 2 into your polynomial
x^2 + x + 1 -> 2 + sqrt2 + 1
And in particular f(x^2 - 2) = 0.
So there you at least have one nontrivial element of the kernel.
oh is that the kernal ?
To be fair they did make a typo elsewhere
What does the theorem tells us
The theorem tell us that Z[x]/<.....> is isomorphic to ...
<x^2 - 2>
oh duh, sorry for misleading you there I'm too distracted @old sun
not sure how to write the kernel tbh. but it makes sense that f(x^2 - 2) = 0
like i just wrote it from the notes but i dont know how to generate it
vs something like <2> in z10
but apparently Z[x] / <x^2 - 2> ~= Z[sqrt2]
???
Yes. Do you know the meaning of the notation <x²-2>?
Ideal generated by <x^2 - 2> = {?,....,?}
Yes.
OK thanks!
Do you know that this ideal is the kernel, or is it a guess?
But since we've agreed that x²-2 is an element of the kernel, the kernel at least contains <x²-2> as a subset.
We need to show that every element of the kernel is in fact in <x²-2>, so assume we're looking at some polynomial p with f(p)=0.
What does polynomial division of p by x²-2 then tell us?
not sure how to divide an arbitrary polynomial by x^2 - 2
Hmm. Not really sure how to approach this problem if you haven't learned about long polynomial division ...
I do know about long division
but i dont know how to divide it if there are no numbers and just a letter p
Oh, what I means was something like: polynomial division tells us that there exist polynomials q and r, such that
p = (x²-2)q + r
and r has degree at most 1.
Yes -- when you divide by a polynomial whose highest coefficient is invertible, polynomial division can always continue until the remainder has smaller degree than the divisor.
what does p = (x^2 - 2) q + r tell us?
Well, if r=0, then we're happy because it then tells us that p is in <x²-2>.
If r is not 0, then it at least tells us that r is in the kernel (since it is the difference between p and (x²-2)q which are both in the kernel).
For a single generator we always have <a> = { ra | r is in the ring }, yes.
but what about the ideals of Z/10Z which are (1), (2), (5), (0)
looks like this is by addition
else (1) = {1}
No, it works there too: <1> = { r·1 | r is in Z/10Z }
Vakil claims that if we have a ring R and an ideal I, then there's a bijection between prime ideals in R/I and prime ideals containing I in R. One way of this bijection feels clear to me (the image of a prime ideal in a quotient is prime) but the other way is less so
how does that bijection go?
third isomorphism theorem
ty
It's a standard fact that the preimage of a prime ideal under any ring homomorphism R -> S is prime. (This follows quickly from the definitions)
Also, this is a special case of the more general correspondence theorem, if you're interested in the bijection
Assume prime p = 4n +3, v_p(a^2 + b^2) = k
x = a + bi. p is prime in Z[i], and p | a^2 + b^2 = xx* implying p | x or p | x*
Is the product of two numbers of the form sum of two squares also a sum of two squares?
Omg. Is this multiplicativity of L2 norm!!!
yeah the reverse is way easy
So cool
Anyway, if n | a + bi then n | a and n | b so n | a - bi
therefore
p^k = p^2n where n = min(v_p(a),v_p(b))
so each prime congruent to 3 mod 4 in m's prime decomposition must have even valuation
converse is easy.
okay idk how to do this hm
wait omfg
a = 0, b = p
allow me to slam my head against my desk :3
weird issue, idk how to describe these "symbollically" without writing it down like with plain english
dont overuse symbols
The mobius function is multiplicative because if n_1 has a squared prime factor then n_1 n_2 has a repeated prime factor, thus mu(n_1) mu(n_2) = 0 = mu(n_1 n_2)
This is good
Otherwise, the mobius function is the parity of the number of prime factors of n_1 and n_2, so n_1 n_2 is just the sum mod 2 and (-1)^n is iso to Z/2Z lmao
so it's multiplicative
It could be annoying to write it all down symbolically
That sum is the part that's easiest in plain english
We can strip out the divisors that have a squared prime factor, so it's a sum over products of n's prime factors
i sorta get stuck here showing if n != 1 then it's 0
because it's multiplicative you can split it up into a product over sums of powers of distinct primes, prod_p (mu(1)+mu(p)+mu(p^2) +...)
product over sums of powers?
for instance n=12 let's say, (mu(1)+mu(2)+mu(4))*(mu(1)+mu(3))
makes sense that we can do this in general or should I say more
is this important for the sum?
it is the sum
the fuck?
distribute it out if you don't believe me
To show that if N is a normal subgroup in finite group G such that order of N is relative prime to index of N then N is the only subgroup of that order.
Let N have order n.
Now, let G->G/N, and if there is any other subgroup M of order n then image of M is trivial which implies that M contained in N.
By cardinality, N=M.
Is it correct?
how the fuck would you prove that?
you get a mu(2^a)mu(3^b) = mu(2^a*3^b) for each term in that example
you already proved it's multiplicative
yeah?
I'll be more explicit about it, if f is multiplicative then $$\sum_{d|n}f(d) = \prod_{p|n} \sum_{i=0}^{v_p(n)} f(p^i)$$, here the product is over distinct prime divisors $p|n$.
Merosity
each divisor d has exactly one prime factorization
partition d | n into sets where p^n | d
For each prime p dividing n, we can consider the divisor set of n, and partition it via preimages of v_p(d)
do you understand why this example works out
yeah because mu(p^n) = 0 for n > 1
OOOOOH
I mean why that sum is equivalent to the original not why after you have it it gets you the solution. I don't quite think you're grouping them in the same way as that
Let D(n) = {d : d | n, d > 0}. We are taking the sum of f(d) over d in D(n)
Recursively start with the smallest prime divisor of n, then we can partition D(n) into preimages of v_p(d). Just calling these preimages v_p^-1(k) in this context
thus for each d in v_p^-1(k), there is a unqiue h in v_p^-1(0) such that d = p^k h
Thus we can split the sum into a sum over subsums over the v_p^-1(k), of which we can factor out the sum of v_p^-1(0)
maybe we should prove that the dirichlet convolution of two multiplicative functions is another multiplicative function instead
leaving a sum over f(p^k)
that would make the decomposition much clearer
i can actually symbolically write that proof out lmao
then we're just using the multiplicativity of the result to break it up into a product over the prime power divisors of n
makes sense?
I think the one I just typed out is very clear
At least to me
just factoring out the sum over divisors of n/p^v_p(n), and leaving a sum over f(p^k)
and recursively doing this until we exhaust the prime factors
sounds off to me
how so?
I only skimmed it
this is the tldr
that's why I suggested this instead
hmm
the convolution is $\sum_{ab = n}{f(a)g(b)}$ right
Miz
yup
Hmm what is this for?
Jacobson
might prove stuff about the convolution first and go from that
Anyway to do this one quickly first
Ah, inversion formula, counting stuff
yeah, personally I think it's criminal to introduce the dirichlet convolution without the dirichlet series to help guide it
... monoid rings
it's much more obvious to guide yourself through what needs to happen when you see that this simply comes from multiplying dirichlet series and their euler products are what facilitate it
Oo combinatorics
doesn't matter
the dirichlet convolution is how you'd describe multiplication on R[N]
wait that's just R[X]
nvm
N under multiplication
There was an exercise on that
the point is it directly encodes the convolution as multiplication of the series
and laurent series too
which is also cool
Ah so you can consider dirichlet convolution like multiplication on R[N]
I guess you have formal power series f(n) q^n in this case
oh lol
.>
lambert series are second rate to dirichlet series here
i know it's funny
also sometimes they are like related in weird ways afaik
well if you knew we wouldn't be having this discussion
But yeah I was introduced to dirichlet convolutions via a monoid algebra on N under multiplication
i read about lambert series a while ago i just forgot the name
I can give a quick rundown of using dirichlet series for the task at hand here
so you can walk through the proof of convolution of multiplicative functions is multiplicative using them as your guide
I realize now it's obvious lmao
good
?
We are summing over pairs (a,b) where ab = nm
are you using dirichlet series at all
I'd prefer not to pass to analytical means to do a combinatorics problem
not analytical at all
holy shit it's 1:10 am
I want to do the irreducibles problem rq then I'll come back to dirichlet convolutions tomorrow morning
Alrighty so
- Every monic linear is of the form X + a, so there are q many linear monics
- Every monic quadratic is of the form X^2 + aX + b, so there are q^2 many quadratic monic polynomials by associating a quadratic to a pair (a,b)
- Every reducible quadratic is of the form (X + a)(X + b), so there are q^2/2 many reducible quadratic monic polynomials
is the last statement not correct?
oh
(X+a)^2 is prob counted twice
Bijection between reducible monics and pairs (a,b) ~ (b,a)
so dividing out by 2, no?
oh shit
(a, a) ~ (a, a) >.>
just realized yeah
Now you know how difficult counting is 
Let L(n) = {(a,b) in N^2 : ab = n}
Assume n_1 and n_2 are coprime, then L(n_1 n_2) is in bijection with L(n_1) x L(n_2)
As if ab = n_1 n_2, then a = a_1 a_2, where a_1 | n_1, a_2 | n_2, and ditto for b
Therefore it's not hard to show a_1 b_1 = n_1, a_2 b_2 = n_2 due to coprimality. Thus (a_1, b_1) is in L(n_1) and (a_2, b_2) is in L(n_2). This is unique for (a,b)
better off counting the other thing and then mobius inverting to get it
Thus: $\sum_{ab = n_1 n_2}{f(a)g(b)} = \sum_{a_1 b_1 = n_1}\sum_{a_2 b_2 = n_2}{f(a_1a_2) g(b_1b_2)} = \sum_{a_1 b_1 = n_1}\sum_{a_2 b_2 = n_2}{f(a_1)f(a_2) g(b_1)g(b_2)} = \left(\sum_{a_1 b_1 = n}{f(a_1)g(b_1)}\right) \left(\sum_{a_2 b_2 = n_2}{f(a_2)g(b_2)}\right)$
Miz
Thus proving the dirichlet convolution of multiplicative functions is multiplicative
because a_1 and a_2 must be coprime as they are divisors of n_1 and n_2 (coprime) respectively
ditto for b
@delicate bloom does this work?
sounds right to me
nice
you are now one step closer to proving it's a group
associativity seems like a symbolic clusterfuck
though it's basically just... sum over f(a)g(b)h(c) for abc = n right
.>
sotrue
How about showing for general monoid ring R[M]
that was an exercise in jacobson I did already


