#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 237 of 1
Um, because that works?
is a an element from set of Zp
My assumption was that Zp contains some element whose square is -1, and I chose to call that element a.
got it
can you explain about Z2[i]
i^2 = -1, is it not an integral domain then?
The trouble is not i^2 itself.
The trouble is that the element 1, which is already in Z/2Z satisfies 1² = -1.
Another way to look at it is (which unfortunately fails to quite work in the p=2 case):
In an integral domain, a polynomial equation cannot have more solutions than its degree.
If Zp already contains a solution to the equation x² = -1, then going to Zp[i] would add two new solutions (namely i and -i), so suddenly x² = -1 has more than the two solutions that it's possible for it to have in an integral domain. The only way out is to conclude that Zp[i] cannot then be an integral domain.
(This argument breaks down for p=2, because then (but only then!) i and -i are the same element).
this does not imply on Z3? As Z3[i] is also a field
Does Z/3Z already contain an element that squares to -1?
I'm somehow getting the impression that you have completely ignored the many times I've mentioned that condition.
no it does not
Then my argument does not apply to Z/3Z.
i am trying to figure it out with the existing knowledge, the textbook im following does not exclusively mention this condition
it only says Zn[i] is an int domain if n is prime but now that youve mentioned it i will use this condition to solve for sets of complex numbers
it only says Zn[i] is an int domain if n is prime
If it says that, it's lying.
Or possibly it means something different with the notation "Zn[i]" than we assume it means.
i was in the idea that all Zn[i] with n being prime forms an integral domain as Zp forms integral domain which is the generalised theorem written in book
set of gaussian integers
The Gaussian integers are usually notated simply Z[i]; I'm not sure what the n in your book's notation would denote.
modulo
I mean, it is reasonable that you would believe your textbook over a random stranger on the internet who says it is wrong, but if even our concrete examples of cases where Zp[i] is not an integral domain will not convince you, then I don't really think I can be of any further help. ¯_(ツ)_/¯
Like here in Z3[i]
I'm not saying that youre wrong, but at undergrad level maybe they're not teaching us the exceptions before we grasp onto the concept first idk i just want score good in semester exam😭
Hmm, it looks like we've actually given only one concrete example. A few more, then I'll shut up:
In Z5[i] we have (1+2i)(1+3i) = 0.
so its a zero divisor
In Z13[i] we have (1+5i)(1+8i) = 0.
wow
im getting some clarity now
we can not generalise for gaussian integers with prime modulo to be integral domain
Does example 5 hold true in all cases?
That is true for all p, yes.
No, it’s elementary number theory to show gaussian primes are primes congruent 3 mod 4, then modding by a prime gives a field (the justification is more nuanced, but wtv)
Also for example 4, if we generalise it as Z[root B]?
Yes, because all elements of that ring are real numbers, and a subring of R (or C, or any field) is automatically an integral domain.
What is the norm of ring?
And when is the norm zero
Got it got it
What is norm of ring
I havent studied that yet
Just the euclidean norm
Or norm or of a complex number
Not studied
I dont know what norm is, or maybe it is referred as something else in my curriculum
oh right okay okay
So if sqrt(D) is real it’s just the number squared
Your question does not make sense. Please show the problem you're trying to solve exactly as it was given to you, with a picture if necessary.
I’m not asking a question I’m giving the student a hint instead of just giving him the answer
Your hint does not make any sense, then..
Yea it does, sincr we have the norm is zero if and only if there are zero divisors
And norm is homomorphic
Define "norm"?
So the question becomes are there zero divisors in the reals
I assumed, mistakenly, that was already taught
You can sometimes equip a ring with a norm, but it's not something rings come with intrinsically.
Right but for these rings we have it
And I assumed that was covered
Since in D&F it is
should i know about norms to be able to answer such questions? as it hasnt been mentioned in the chapters so far
No.
No, but that’s the most natural way imo
The magical part is that Z[\sqrt{d}] is a vector space
Or, to be precise, a Z-module
Since Z is not a field
A module is basically a vector space but over a ring instead of over a field
im having a hard time understanding this
This seems to be an extremely complex way of thinking compared to simply "a subring of a field is always an integral domain".
I still call vector spaces modules a lot out of laziness
Which is bad
Well, can you see how Q(i) is a vector space
a field always has integral domains but the converse might not be true?
This made me think for a moment but Q[i] = Q(i) lmao
I'm not sure what you mean by "has integral domains".
Subrings of a field are integral domains :3
yess yes got it
And if you have a ring that sits inside a field, then clearly you can't have xy=0 in the ring, because then you would also have xy=0 in the field (the multiplication operation is the same; that's what makes it a subring!) and we know we don't have that.
if all rings between two fields are fields, then it’s an algebraic extension. That’s an iff :3
subrings should have the same operation
Exactly.
Any hint , and I don't want to use group action results here
thankyou🫡
What's the book?
And where in the book does it say that? Maybe they mean something else by Zn[i] in that case
It looks like Seaturtle generalized too hastily from "Zp is an integral domain" and an example showing "Z3[i] is an integral domain", and the book didn't actually make a general claim about Zn[i].
yes that is exactly what happened until Z2[i] didnt fit the generalisation i formed based off an example
that was my bad
the book states for Z[i] to be an integral domain not with the modulo
I kinda wanna say like
Pretty sure Z_n[i] or (Z/nZ)[i] is very nonstandard notation
I for one have like never seen it
I made a walk and thought about the amalgamation of the free product. Is this a quotient set (group?) on the free product?
What structure is normally used to glue those elements?
I think it’s a push out?
yes a pushout, my book calls it a fibered coproduct
I don’t know much about them since I worked on them by accident
Here's how Wikipedia describes it, which seems to make sense.
(https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Free_product#Generalization:_Free_product_with_amalgamation)
Oh I see
(Wikipedia at its best, thinking a reader who has any chance of making sense of this paragraph will benefit from having a link that explains what "left-hand side" means)..
Better than ncatlab
Low bar.
I dont understand this yet, i guess the next few chapters mention normal and quotiënt groups
It’s funny how like some articles on ncatlab are fucking gold
Like the salamander lemma one
Hmm, bit of a bold pedagogical choice of your book to expect you to talk about category-theoretic properties of Ab before it has even explained quotient groups. But I suppose it can be done.
dumb thought that might help others new in their journey:
Center (n):
the normal-est normal subgroup
as a joke definition. it's the normal subgroup that is not only invariant under conjugation, but also unpermuted by conjugation.
it explains CT and AA in parallel, since it had an exercise about pushouts and on Set I guess it isn't that strange to do one on Ab. It isn't a recommended exercise
Sometimes exercises also mentioned it may be better to come back to it later
The normalizer is the stabilizer of G acting on P(G) (powerset) by conjugation
hello, i have a question please 🙏 to prove that H is a Normal subgroup of a group G, the "classic" method is to take h in H and show that for all g in G, g h g^1 is in H, yes ?
that is a method yes
thank you very much
that's the definition, yeah. One thing to notice is that if g works, then so does g inverse, so that can cut your time in nearly half
(assuming the majority of elements in G are not of order 2)
just wanted to ease my mind in knowing that this is <=>
Often it is easier to prove it by finding a homomorphism that the subgroup is the kernel of.
whenever you have a definition of a term, the name of the term and its description are logically equivalent, i.e. <=>, there's no way to be normal without satisfying those conditions, and there's no subgroup which satisfies those conditions without being normal.
there are often other ways to prove that something fits that definition, such as what Troposphere said, but definitions are, by their very nature, slapping a name on all things with these properties, thus rendering the name equivalent to the collection of properties.
I think the question was slightly more substantive than that. It can be read as roughly: "Instead of proving gHg^-1=H for all g, is it enough to prove that gHg^-1 subseteq H for all g?"
english isn't my native language, this is precisely what i had in mind. thank you !
And the answer is yes, but it is not trivial that it is true.
For example, it's possible to find an example of a group G and an element g and a subgroup H such that gHg^-1 is a proper subset of H.
That situation just cannot appear for all g simultaneously.
proper subset meaning a none normal subset of G ?
"A is a proper subset of B" == "A is a subset of B, but A is not equal to B". That is, there's at least one element of B that is not an element of A.
hey guys, i'm trying to understand ring adjunctions (constructing the smallest subring that contains bla), I understand the 1 element case and I think I understand the finite elements case in which you recursively adjoin 1 element at a time. But how does it work if I need to adjoin infinitely many elements? even possibly uncountably many?
Generally you can start by constructing a polynomial ring with infinitely many variables, and then in one fell swoop quotient out the ideal generated by the relations you want your new elements to satisfy.
Proving nice facts about the resulting ring can get complicated, though.
this is used to a horrifying extent to construct algebraic closures
I forget the proof of that, I think you take F[X], then define F[|F[X]|] and use Zorn's Lemma to get a maximal F-disjoint ideal to quotient out by and have a field of,
Yeah because you can kind of pass through F[|F[X]|]
I think you need to be a little more careful than that when you construct an algebraic closure -- you don't want to accidentally adjoin different independent roots to the same polynomial, or you'd end up with zero divisors.
Let me clarify
Monic polynomials
and the maximal ideal needs to contain an ideal with a "representation" you want
The alternative is to adjoin elements one by one, giving an infinite sequence of rings, and then take the direct limits of those rings. That is more flexible, but also more abstract and conceptually demanding.
(That was an answer to Matias' original question, not specifically for algebraic closures).
oh
Even for monic polynomials, you had better not try to adjoin roots of x²+x+1 and x²-x+1 separately, for example.
Would this be a way to construct algebraic closures?
Take a field F, and consider F[X]. Let K be the set of irreducible monic polynomials in F[X]. We want to append each monic polynomial's roots to the field, and so we need to adjoin deg(f) roots for each f in K, so we can identify each root with the pair (f, n) for n < deg(f).
and namely we want $f(X) = \prod_{n = 1}^{\mathrm{deg}(f)}{(X - x_{(f,n)})}$
THE TUBE
Generally, when you adjoin just one root of an irreducible polynomial, you'll get all of the oher roots as linear combinations of its powers, too.
oh that is a good point
shouldnt the coeffieints be quotients of units in A?
then I would have to evaluate all polynomials in elements of my set of elements to be adjoined correct? and that would be my final ring? (say I don't have any relations to be satisfied)
because the quotient of it's principal ideal would be a field hmm
And as the x²+x+1 versus x²-x+1 example shows, you also get roots of many other irreducible polynomials for free.
I wonder if you can construct it as a direct limit
Over the set of irreducibles given some relation
or less so set, more like lattice or pset
Yes, I think a direct limit is what I would go for. In that case, we can choose in each step to either adjoin a new root or to do nothing, depending on whether the polynomial we're looking at already has a root from one of the earlier steps.
If the original field was uncountable, it would need transfinite induction, yes.
I was just going to immediately partition K by degree, well order the equivalence classes and use lexicographic order
But each of those individual well-orders will be complex enough to require transfinite induction on its own.
ah yeah
There's probably a way to get around doing it manually with Zorn...
I was originally going to try instead just using monics in F[X] here and appending x_{f,n}
Hmm, I don't think I get what you mean by "have to evaluate all polynomials" there.
Sorry I mean similar to the 1 element case in which the resulting ring for adjoining an element $\alpha$ is $R[\alpha] = { f(\alpha) : f(X) \in R[X] }$ i.e all evaluations of polynomials on alpha
Matias
Either you need to append "alpha" by quotienting out by an ideal that represents its relations (much like how you construct a free group with relations), or it already exists in some ring with the relations you want, so you map F[X] into the ring such that f(X) = \lapha. Its image is isomorphic to F[alpha]
Oh, so your setting is that the ring you're starting with is already a subring of some larger ring, and you're adjoining a particular already existing element of the larger ring?
Sort of a similar way to this to construct the algebraic closure:
Let {f_i} be the set of irreducible monic polynomials, and consider the ring F[X_i] of polynomials with one indeterminate for each f. Let I be the ideal generated by f_i(X_i) and let M be a maximal ideal containing I. Then F[X_i]/M is the algebraic closure of F.
Like for example, lets say you wanted to take Z and add the inverse of 2?
well this new element, call it a, satisfies 2a = 1. then we know that f(X) = 2X - 1 is 0 at a. So we take Z[X] {ring of polynomials with integer coefficients} and quotient out by the principal ideal (2X - 1). so F[X]/(2X - 1) is isomorphic to Z[1/2].
OR we know that the rationals, Q contains 1/2, so we can just map F[X] into Q sending X to 1/2, then the image is Z[1/2]
:3
One is a constructive approach
it's incredibly similar to how you'd like, append elements to a group
I have seen the statement "In PIDs, (p) is maximal iff p is irreducible" before. How does that relate to what you're doing
Yeah, maybe it'll be best if I give full context. My problem was:
Given a large ring $R$, a subring $S$, and a subset $A \subseteq R$, prove there exists a subring "$S[A]$" of $R$ that cointains both $S$ and $A$, and is the smallest subring with this property (i.e any other subring that contains $S$ and $A$ also contains $S[A]$).
I think I got it in the case $A$ is a finite set, by the ring adjunction construction I mentioned first, but I got stuck in the case of $A$ being an infinite set, thus my original question. I'm trying to self-learn this but all of my books/material I found just gloss over this topic
Matias
Oh, neat idea just to say "maximal ideal" to get rid of the supernumerary roots.
I was going to consider the maximal ideal containing the "relators" lmao
Do you know a priori that the polynomial ring F[S] exists for any indexing set S?
Yes, we delegate the axiom of choice to work in the shadows
You need it to be "a" maximal ideal rather than "the" maximal ideal.
Just realized $R[S] \cong R\left[\bigoplus_{s \in S}{\mathbb{N}}\right]$ as a monoid ring htf did I not notice this before
THE TUBE
Oh, in that case there's a standard shortcut: Just consider the set of all possible subrings of R that contain S ∪ A. (There's at least one of these since R itself qualifies). Take the set-theoretic intersection of all of them. Prove this gives a subring, and that it is a solution to your problem.
Like if I have a a polynomial f in r, I want to find a polynomial g such that fg = 1. Why does finding a g such that fg = 1 + qp for some q satisfy my needs?
To catch others up to speed:
E/Fis a finite extensionris an element ofEpis the minimal polynomial ofrn = [F(r):F]
and I'm trying to show that S = {1, r, ... r^{n-1}} is a basis for F(r) over F.
To do this I need to show every ratio of polynomials in r is in Span(S), or that every f in F[r] has a g in F[r] such that fg = 1
i like this problem
So f and g are in F[X] i take it.
When looking at third isomorphism theorem, (G/N)/(H/N) = G/H, do you guys have any intuition or concrete visualization for it? Like, sure i have a vague idea of why its true, but especially when i look at an example of it being used on say, a dihedral group, im just lost in the intuition, besides being able to follow along the computation
F[r] but basically
do you want me to open up a brief thread
sure
got it, I'll just go with the intersection definition, thanks tropos and tube
it’s just fraction cancelation!
Well, the intuition is basically if you take G, then remove N, then remove H, you get the same thing as if you just removed H to begin with.
do we call associates of the content also a content?
namely, when all coefieints of f are quotients of units in A
since then every prime divides f 0 times so by this definition the content is 0, no matter which set of non-associate primes we pick
but then f=c*f_1 where f_1 has coeffients only in A does not work if f is of the form above and the content has to be one
Ok yeah youre “removing” H by passing through N
As like a bridge
Thats fine like yeah thats how I was thinking about it but with normal subgroups, cosets, quotients i tend to get so hung up on all the mechanics of it and what every piece means intuitively
I think i might be trying too hard on it and would be better off just pushing forward
It's a direct application of that, because the polynomial ring F[X] is a PID.
im thinking more, my question boils down to "why is the content of cx \in K[x], where c!=1 is a unit, one"
I want to show that |F[s_1... s_r] = q^q^r. Does this work?
Let F_n = F[s_1... s_n]
Inductive Hypothesis: |F_n| = q^q^n.
Base (0): |F_0| = |F| = q = q^1 = q^q^0
Step:
F_(n+1) = F_n[X]/(X^q - X), thus is spanned by s_(n+1)^m for m in {0... q - 1}. This is a basis, as the difference of two polynomials of degree less than q who are mapped to 0 must be divisible by X^q - X of degree q, which is impossible.
Therefore every element can be uniquely indexed by a q-tuple of F_n, thus |F_(n+1)| = |F_n|^q = (q^q^n)^q = q^q^(n+1)
this article i’m reading seem to use “G covers H” to mean H is isomorphic to a quotient of G, is this standard terminology?
That means there is a surjective homomorphism (epimorphism) from G to H
Thus im(f) = H, and by first isomorphism theorem
H is isomorphic to G/ker(f)
but that's very dumb and out of the way
or not ig I guess it's nice for shategory theorists
What is the article about?
it is also very possible i'm misunderstanding something 
the distinction between SL and PSL is clear enough... now they just had to bring SL^+- and PSL^+- into the mix as well huh

what book is this from?
Jacobson
Let U, V, W be finite-dimensional representations of a finite group G over some base field. Assume that for every cyclic subgroup H \leq G, U_{|H} is isomorphic to V_{|H} or W_{|H}. Is it true that U is isomorphic to V or W?
(I don’t know if that’s helpful, but in my situation, U, V and W have the same dimension and U embeds in V \oplus W).
I don't know if I understand your question correctly, but
Let G be S3, and let X be the standard representation, S the sign representation and T the trivial representation.
Let U = X (+) S, V = T (+) S^2, W = X (+) T.
Then U embeds into V(+)W, the restriction of U to an order 2 subgroup is isomorphic to the restriction of V, and the restriction of U to a order 3 subgroup is isomorphic to the restriction of W.
Can gHg^-1 be a proper subset of H for a subgroup H of a group G?
yes
the example that comes to mind is some matrix stuff
but maybe there's something even easier
As a medium difficulty exercise see if you can come up with one yourself
yea it's not entirely obvious, it's a good question
I think ||semidirect products|| might yield the easiest examples
maybe yea
A mix of the two might be ||let G be the group of functions f(x) = ax + b with a nonzero. Let H be the subgroup generated by h(x) = x+1.||
||Let g be g(x) = 2x. Then ghg^- = x + 2||
Okay, I guess that makes sense. Thank you!
So you might think of this as ||the semidirect product of Q and Q^||
or as
||the matrix group [Q^, Q; 0, 1]||

The exact sequence at the bottom is not split because Z is not the product of Z and Z/2Z right?
Yes, that's right
hi walter
thanks
thanks, this was very instructive
Automorphisms are like global symmetries of the group?
Hi chmonkey. Sorry for delayed response, I was putting my toaster away
Dear Walter,
Please do not fret, I understand that one has priorities, and the prompt return of a toaster to its dutiful position ranks high on this list
Not a bad way to put it
Yes, if hf = 1, then f is mono and h is epi and fh is idempotent. So the codomain of f equals
Im(fh) (+) ker(fh) = Im(f) (+) ker(h)
Hence ker(h) = cok(f)
Let G be a topological group (assume it is Hausdorff, although idk how relevant this is). Let F, U subseteq G with F compact and U open. Is bigcap_{f in F} fU necessarily an open subset of G?
I would say this is false. But idk counter-examples
So if C is the complent of U, then your question amounts to asking if FC is still closed.
Which seems to be true
https://math.stackexchange.com/q/71983/306319
are you claiming that $\left(\bigcap_{f\in F} fU\right)^c=F U^c$?
croqueta3385
Anyone know any rings where for all subsets X, Y, we have (X)=(Y) implies X=Y?
Yes, complent of intersection is union and
(fU)^c = f(U^c)
If the ring has any nontrivial units, then this does not hold. So certainly at least this ring has characteristic 2.
Now on the other hand
If this ring is not the trivial ring, note (1) = R = (R), so
So in fact the only ring for which this holds is the ring with one element.
Shoot
If we replace subset with element there can be more interesting answers I guess. Like Z/2 or Z/2[x]
I don't know why I find many "simple" problems regarding topological groups somewhat hard...
My friend is interested in taking a subset X and asking what the "smallest" set Y for which (X)=(Y) is, I was thinking this might fail in that way but ig not
I'm not convinced this problem was particularly simple
There is typically not a unique smallest subset, and often there is not even a minimal generating set for an ideal. Nonetheless such things sometimes exist.
Rings are not like vector spaces, they don't have nice bases
I guess Z/2 and Z/2[x] are examples where its always possible to find such a unique smallest set
I wonder if Boolean rings are also examples?
Well. Finitely generated ones are, if I'm remembering the structure of Boolean rings correctly
No, scratch that.
Yeah, I guess any ideal of (Z/2)^n is just generated by a single element. And that should be unique
Wouldn't this property be had by Z though?
(1) = (-1) for example in Z
if u have any n in {2, 4, p^k, 2p^k | p > 2, p is prime} then (Z/nZ)^x = <m> for which m?
hint: (Z/nZ)^x is cyclic due to the conditions and is the ring of units
aka multiplicative group mod n
/nick ping when responding
ik it's a primitive root modulo n
ya
what would be a general form for a primitive root mod n?
The section I linked to explains that the way you find a primitive root is generally by trying small (coprime) numbers one by one until you hit one, with various tricks to speed up the test of whether the one you're looking at has the right order.
what does it mean to take a quotient group to a power
Context?
No simple general formula to compute primitive roots modulo n is known
ah ic ty
I think they confused the ^x in (Z/nZ)^x with an exponent
Wow i just got new intuition for the gN = Ng criteria for N being normal subgroup
And how it relates to being able to quotient by N
That made it click more for me rather than thinking of it as gNg^-1 = N somehow
Yeah. But like ive already studied this before yet im STILL trying to think about it 😂
Going back to review things rn
of course of course
Yeah thats crazy how that works hahaha
Like it does take a long time to really internalize concepts and understand them better
It *can at least
For some things
I been hung up on normal subgroups and how it relates to kernel, quotients, cosets etc etc
For a while
I understood it somewhat but it didnt feel satisfying
Cause ppl ALWAYS just say something like “normal subgroups are somehow compatible with the overall group structure”… but like, what does that actually MEAN?
Why arent exactly any old subgroup compatible with “overall group structure”
Etc
Cuz you can show that if G satisfies P, N satisfies P only when N is normal
Cuz of weird stuff, it just is how it is
Yes but im trying to think in terms of intuition so that the results seem to make more intuitive sende
Sense
If i just see algebra symbols and im not “understanding”, thats not satisfying
If you get what i mean
Yeah
Maybe some ppl “see” it quicker ofc
But it’s just something that you justify by observing how it’s different
You see enough theorems that justify the statement that you need normality to pass down properties from G to N
You would gain better intuition based on what u said
Yea thats interesting and true!
And then somehow the statement that you need normality becomes the intuition
Yeah so true! Im noticing that myself rn!
Because you look at a new situation and think “hmm I think I need this to be normal”
Im learning new material i havent before and its cleared up things
A bit more at least
Providing new perspectives on i
It
It’s unsatisfying that sometimes it’s this way but it’s just how it is sometimes
Yeah
I think i like algebra a hell of a lot more than analysis thats for sure hahaha
I was studying analysis before this and didnt get nearly as hyped
Maybe im not at the more interesting parts though
Im not that far in it admittedly so
I decided like 1 week into algebra that "it just doesn't make as much sense as analysis :("
and that I wouldn't like it

Yeah i dont know i just dont find convergence that interesting
The kinds of questions that “come up” in analysis i just dont really care that much about
my favorite part about algebra is having access to a lot of tools and being able to use them
analysis is just trying different inequalities
Yeahhh
I guess studying universal algebra provides some intuition too!
taking the rotations in D_4 as a subgroup. why is it not eneough to see that it is abelian to know it is normal?
Why would it in general be true that an abelian subgroup is necessarily normal?
well every subgroup of an abelian group is normal. the rotations are an abelian group. and is a subgroup of itself, thus it is normal?
Every subgroup of abelian group is normal in that group, yes
Is D_4 abelian?
Ah
Is your conclusion that <r> is normal in <r>?
well yes but i guess i just dont see the difference i guess. gotta get more familiar with the definition.
A subgroup H of a group G is normal iff is it closed under conjugation by every element of G
It is trivial that every group is normal in itself, you don't need it to be abelian
<r> is normal in <r>
<r> is normal in D_4 as well but <r> being abelian is not enough to show that
I'm struggling to make progress on 8
I have that p | a^2 + 1 for some a
so bp = a^2 + 1
And i am completely stuck. Can anyone give a pointer please?
Use that it is not a prime in Z[i]
So there exist a, b in Z[i] such that p | ab but p doesn't divide a or b. Should I then claim that a^2 + b^2 satisfies this property?
Hey guys I have a question that I am not sure how to solve and any help would be appreciated greatly.
Let F be a field. Suppose that f = x^2 + x + 1 ∈ F [x] is irreducible, so F [x]/(f ) is a field.
(i) Find q ∈ F [x] so that deg(q) ≤ 1 and q+(f ) = ((x+3)+(f ))·((2x+1)+(f ))
No
Well, there's not so much to it. You just multiply out the expression, then use that
x^2 + (f) = -x - 1 + (f)
yeah so im sure that im not thinking about the question right, so if i multiply that expression out it gives a quartic polynomial and then I have: q + (x^2 + x + 1) = some quartic polynomial and q cant be higher than degree one so it doesnt make sense to me. do you know what im saying?
Irreducible implies prime, so not prime implies not irreducible, so p = p1^e1 ... pn^en, pi primes in Z[i], as p has complex part 0, it follows that p =zz* so p = a^2 + b^2?
I'm not sure I do follow what you're saying.
But if you multiply (x+3) and (2x + 1) you should get a quadratic polynomial. Then you can remove the x^2 term using that x^2 = -x - 1
That's all there is to it
I dont understand why I would multiply (x+3) and (2x+1) because it is ((x+3) + f) ((2x+1)+f)
and f is a quadratic
so it becomes a quadratic times a quadratic
It's not (x+3) + f, it's (x+3) + (f) where (f) is the ideal generated by (f)
Do you know how multiplication in F[x]/(f) works?
ye
ahh ok yeah well I am confused but I know what you are getting at. No i am not totally sure how that multiplication works, I dont get where the question specifies that we are working in F[x]/f
Well the notation (x+3) + (f) is how you would notate an element of F[x]/(f). So I guess that's the main reason. And then the start of the exercise also hints at it a bit
Ok, forgive me I'm not well versed with this, but does it go this way? ((x+3) + f) ((2x+1) + f) = (x+3)(2x+1) + (f)(x+3) + (f)(2x+1) + (f)^2, then do we divide out the (f)?
So when you multiply an ideal by something you just land in the ideal again. So this whole thing actually just reduces to
(x+3)(2x+1) + (f) In the quotient ring.
sorry bro Im so confused im trying to read up on this stuff but I cant find much. ChatGPT which is terrible at math is telling me its equal to the remainder of (2x+1)(x+3) divided by f.
Im trying to find the operations in F[x]/(f) online
Well, they're pretty much what you've shown already.
If you have p + (f) and q + (f) then their product is pq + (f) and their sum is p+q + (f).
And for any polynomial r that is contained in (f) (i.e. is a multiple of f) you have p+r + (f) = p + (f)
So by choosing r appropriately you might be able to reduce the degree of p, and this is exactly the division algorithm
@languid trellis alternative ending: p=xy, with x and y non-units, so N(x)N(y)=p^2, so N(x)=p
Ok first up thankyou heaps for your help. I did everything you said and I got q = 5x+1. I just dont really understand the last part where you said x^2 = -x -1. ChatGPT is telling me some other way where it divides the expression 'pq + f' by the ideal x^2 + x +1 and takes the remainder and it gives 5x+1 as well. I dont really get what weve done here and why both methods work.
Yeah, so since
x^2 + x + 1 is in (f) we would have
x^2 + x + 1 + (f) = (f)
which we can rearrange to
x^2 + (f) = -x - 1 + (f)
This means that every time we have an expression of the form x^2 + (f) we can replace it by the right hand side.
Another way to think about this is that were just subtracting by x^2 + x + 1, cancelling the x^2 and leaving -x - 1.
The division algorithm just determines which multiple of x^2 + x + 1 we should subtract to get the polynomial to lowest possible degree.
For example (x+3)(2x+1) = 2x^2 + 7x + 3
So we want to subtract 2 times x^2 + x + 1, to get it down to degree 1
Im trying to show a group G of order 36 is simple. i first showed G can have 1 or 4 sylow 3-subgroups and 1,3 or 9 sylow 2-subgroups.
i then assumed G has 4 sylow 3-subgroups and 3 sylow 2-subgroups. each sylow 3-subgroup has order 9 and each sylow 2-subgroup has order 4. the only common element in each subgroup is the identity.
i then showed the 4 sylow 3-subgroups contain 4 * 9-3=33 unique elements, and the 3 sylow 2-subgroups contain 3 * 4-2=10 unique elements, which exceeds the order of G. Therefore G has either 1 sylow 3-subgroup or 1 sylow 2-subgroup => not simple
is this valid?
Uh, if you have 1 sylow subgroup, isn't that group a normal subgrouo
yeah, hence => not simple
I think you mean hence not simple
oh yeah, my bad
Anyway, there is some issue with assuming the only common element between sylow groups is the identity.
It could for example happen that the intersection of two subgroups of order 9 has order 3
can i assume the intersection has at most 3 elements, and then show that it still exceeds the order of G?
Yeah, that's possible, I guess
Hmm but I think you need to be careful in counting
how so
Thanks heaps, makes sense to me especially the example at the end. Btw, does the same method work to do (q + (f)) ((x+1)+(f)) = 1 + (f)? Ive done multiplication using the rule for multiplication and I get 'qx + q + (f) = 1 + (f)'
If H = {a1, .., a9}, potentially {a1, a2, a3} is in another sylow 3-gp, {a4, a5, a6} is in yet another sylow 3-gp, and similar for {a7, a8, a9}.
Well, the identity element is in all the sylow subgroups, so you can do a little bit better I guess
i see, but wont assuming that the total intersection has at most 3 elements cover all those cases?
Ah, yeah
Yep but in this case, you can't like (9-3) * (number of Sylow subgroups)
yeah that makes sense
counting gave me 27 unique elements in the sylow 3-subgroups and 8 unique elements in the sylow 2-subgroups, which gives me 34 total elements.. so i guess this method wont work
How does this get us to a^2 + b^2 = p sorry
the norm of x is a sum of two squares
If you say every group intersects every other group in an order 3 group, and no three groups have nontrivial intersection. That means you have 2 unique elements for each group, 2 unique elements for each pair of groups and the identity.
Totaling 4*2 + 6*2 + 1 = 21 elements. Now, I don't know if there's an argument for why such a configuration can't ocour, but naively you can get it down that low.
Oh wow, ill try a different approach then😅
Oh right of course, definition of norm in Z[i]
Here's a hint for a different approach
||If you have four 3-sylow subgroups, then G acts on them by conjugation. This gives you a homomorphism G -> S4||
||Think about what such a map could be||
ah okay, ty
I guess from this you get the more general statement that ||anytime you have four 3-sylow subgroups bigger than C3, they must have a common intersection.||
kernel cannot be trivial as |G|>|S4|, so we get a nontrivial normal subgroup of G (?)
Indeed
perfect, ty
can i strengthen this to iff?
yes, theyre equivalent
but what do you even mean? that's a definition; we don't use iff in definitions
well all definitions are iff
i got that
any idea abt what naturally identified means
im guessing "identification" means isomorphism?
it means that the class of an element is identified with that element
ok it does NOT feel right that the tiling of hyperbolic plane by ideal (∞,∞,∞)-triangles is a quotient of the tiling by (2,3,∞)-triangles
totally unrelated but real
i like my unique factorization domains chinese
What's a Chinese domain?
i have no idea, i just have a (bad) habit of just clicking on and glancing through random things
Chinese rings now 😭
wait can this possibly be true
the automormphism group of the (∞,∞,∞) tiling is isomorphic to the group presented < x,y,z | x^2 = y^2 = z^2 >
while the group for the (2,3,∞) tiling is < x,y,z | x^2 = y^3 = xyz >
Sorry another question about the fibred direct sum, pushout in Ab. Does A +_C B contain elements from A and B that are not in the image of alpha and beta?
guy who named them is european lol
I mean it's named after the Chinese remainder theorem, so I guess where the author is from is not that relevant.
You mean in the image of iota_1 and iota_2? You will also have sums of things from A and things from B, but otherwise that's everything
Right so there does not exist a c for every element in A + B
That's only for elements in A and B that are equivalent
You have a surjective homomorphism from A(+)B onto A (+)_C B, so every element of A(+)B gives you something in the pushout
Really, the pushout is just A(+)B where we identify elements that come from the same element in C
Ok thank you
You don't actually need to assume it. Identities are always unique (try proving it yourself!)
in showing that Inn(G) is a normal subgroup of Aut(G), they played with B(a(B^-1(x))a^-1) = B(a)B(B^-1(x))B(a^-1)
idk why im confused on how they split the function composition like that
ohh because they are all isomorphisms
so its just using homomorphism property
wb in a boolean ring? there -1 and 1 are both
also we use d&f
The definition of “group” on page 16 of Abstract Algebra by Dummitt and Foote (2004) says “(ii) there exists an element 𝑒 in 𝐺, called an identity of 𝐺, such that for all 𝑎∈𝐺 we have 𝑎⋆𝑒=𝑒⋆𝑎=𝑎.” Note that they say there exists “an element” not “a unique element”, and that say that 𝑒 is called “an identity”, not “the identity”. The axioms do not require that there is only one identity, only that there is at least one
Yes, but 1 = -1, so that's still just one element
Exactly, you don't need to require it, because you can prove it
True?
how is a subring a ring itself?
when you dont require it to be an abelian group under addition
If you require it to be a ring, then by definition it is a (sub)group too
- Any subgroup of an abelian group is also abelian
- Read the definition
i didnt know 1 😮 ty, makes sense since if they were abelian before then theyll still commute since they were in G
If R has zero divisors then so does R[x]
does the converse hold?
an american would never honor the chinese like that even if due
Can anyone help me with part b and c?
For part b, consider the subgroup generated by 3
OK yeah i am definitely off... i have a mostly clear geometric image in my head (each (∞,∞,∞) triangle consists of six (2,3,∞) triangles) but i struggle to translate it into algebra
i'd imagine that gluing six of these (2,3,∞) triangle corresponds to simply quotienting out the generator x of order two and y of order 3 but i may have that wrong
I did, but I was told this:
it seems rather like (2,3, ∞) ought to be a quotient of (∞,∞,∞)
"I actually meant u_10 so you could use previous part..."
U(Z/nZ) is direct sum of U(Z/p^e Z) where n=Πp^e
So you can start factorizing 10
Or 12
If S is a subring of R then S[x] is a subring of R[x],
does the converse hold?
also bump on similar but unrelated q
yes, hint: look at the leading coefficients
Could someone help me with this problem?
hint: consider constant polynomials in S[x]
Right now, I have this, what are your thoughts guys?
What is R_n
not defined
Oop so how are we supposed to help you
is there a straightforward way to prove that (x+1)^n - x^n has no roots in Q other than -1/2.
for even n
and then for odd n prove no such roots exist.
Shift it to $(x + 1/2)^n - (x - 1/2)^n = 0$. since $x + 1/2 \ne 0$ we have $1 = \Big(\frac{x+1/2}{x-1/2}\Big)^n$
Crystalline Potato
so (x + 1/2)/(x-1/2) = 1 (or -1 if n is even)
So x + 1/2 = x - 1/2 [impossible], or n is even and x + 1/2 = 1/2 - x so x = 0
ah well done
But yeah bit of a trick i suppose
indeed
I wonder if there is a nicer way lol
Yeah so uh
If $f_n(x) = (x + 1/2)^n - (x-1/2)^n$ then $f_{n}'= nf_{n-1}$
Crystalline Potato
f_1 has no roots [it's just costantly 1]
how does the formal derivative relate roots again?
im sorry, this is it:
No need to even use the formal derivative since we are over Q lol
But yeah it's more an analytic method rather than algebraic
but how does f_'n not having any roots imply that f_n doesnt have any.
ah tahst what i thought -- just to confirm in writing (haha) it is true, right?
i didn't finish the argument
yes
So uh suppose n is odd and that f_n(x) > 0 for all x
Then f_{n+1} is monotonically increasing since its derivative is nf_n, and f_{n+1}(0)=0 [so it has exactly one root]
Since f_{n+1} is monotonically increasing with f_{n+1}(0)=0, it follows that f_{n+2}' > 0 for x > 0 and f_{n+2}' < 0 for x < 0
So f_{n+2}(x) >= f_{n+2}(0) > 0
Yeah that's a funny proof lol
lol nice argument
isomorphisms map generators to generators
could we go over this?
what have you gotten so far
How do you determine all isomorphisms from Zn to itself?
I used the fact that if f(1) = a is an isomorphism then g(a) = 1 is inverse isomorphism of f. Then |a| divides |1| and |1| divides |a| so |a| = |1| so |a| = n, and in Zn order of generators is n so all those homomorphisms that map 1 to a generator are isomorphisms. So there are phi(n) isomorphisms in total
Is this valid proof?
anyone?
Yes, nice (though i wouldn't just say "g(a)=1")
One way to look at this is as follows: every map $\mathbf Z/n \to \mathbf Z/n$ is given by multiplication by something. It's invertible iff you multiply by something in $(\mathbf Z/n)^\times$
Crystalline Potato
for this problem, can i just say that by bazouts, there exists a, b in Z for which 2a+3b=gcd(2, 3)=1, which is a generator of Z. qed
Yeah. Better give one specific pair of a,b
u just need any bijection from Zn to Zn such that the isomorphism is also a bijection between the set of generators of Zn and the set of generators of Zn right, so varphi^2 of them?
Just φ(n)
specify just one generator of the domain
This is a proof from Artin's Algebra textbook.
What I don't understand is, if a is the smallest postive integer in S, then how does that imply r=0?
“When a is the smallest positive integer in S”
r=n-qa is in S, and it’s non-negative
by construction 0 < r < a
ye thats true
is it true that every irreducible polynomial in Fq divides x^p^r-x for some r
where q is a power of p
i think it should be true cuz the splitting field for f is an extension over Fp
so it divides the characteristic polynomial?
I mean f^-1(a) = 1?
In Z[x], the ideal (x - 2) is prime but not maximal, correct?
Yep, looks good to me. With this one in particular you can verify that by saying that (x-2) is the kernel of the map evaluating a polynomial at x = 2, and Z is an integral domain but certainly not a field so the ideal is prime but not maximal
Lmao I was asked to come up with a prime ideal in an integral domain that isn't maximal
When I could've just done (0) in Z
I also had brain fog and showed (x - 2) was not maximal by showing that 1 isn't inside (x, x-2)
quotients is way cleaner
To be clear, the surjectivity part is only necessary for the diagram to commute; an isomorphism phi^bar always exists regardless?
Nope. If phi is not surjective them phi bar isn't an iso, it's just an injection
Its always an iso between G bar and the image of G under phi though
sorry, I also meant to add that we change the range of phi^bar to be im(phi)
Wait in that case, if we change G' in the diagram to im(phi) as well, does the diagram also commute then?
Wait, isn't G bar initial and therefore there is a unique morphism phi bar whatever phi is?
Bro I don't know what initial is
Yep and yep
Oh sorry, unique not a unique isomorphism
Initial in which category
testing my knowledge 😛
Uh, coslice category Grp/G ?
But G bar shall depend on both data of G and data of phi
I only know about Set/X so I guess you need extra restrictions on the morphisms
Difficult stuff
Can someone give some feedback on the first part of my proof that Ab has fibred coproducts? The first part only constructs it as a group on the quotient set A x_C B.
The next chapter is about quotient groups, but this exercise let's you optionally try it out before.
I have implicitly used that all morphisms are homo and all elements are commutative.
Are there some things straight-up wrong? Have I done some things I can't just conclude and need additional lemmas first? Maybe some critque on my notation and way of writing it down?
With defining this operation on A x B/~ have I shown A x B/~ is a group and am i now only left to show it is a pushout?
The diagram
I am also not really sure if my notation and usage of the equivalent relation is that correct... Like i_1 a = i_2 b, but that does not define an equivalence relation explicitly, do I need to define this first? Can I just say that from i_1(a - a') = i_2(b' - b) that there exists a c by the equivalence relation?
We have already shown that primes of the form 4n+1 in Z aren't prime in Z[i]. Moreover, it's clear that if gcd(a,b) = 1 in Z, then a + bi is prime in Z[i]. Now, I suspect that primes of the form 4n+3 in Z remain prime in Z[i] just from working with a few small examples, but I don't know how to prove this. Does anyone have any hints?
gcd(11,3) = 1, yet 11+3i = (1-2i)(1+5i)
ohhh that complicates things
also 2 = (1+i)(1-i)
thats a prime not of the form 4n+1, 4n+3
the only one
but there we are
the whole 4n + 3 thing is because 3 is the only non residue mod 4 right
it may be
Let me check
it’s the only non qr mod 4
i don't know anywhere near enough numebr theory. fuck this book
That’s more ring theory

A lot of basic number theory is flat out just basic ring theory in a way the integers are the simplest domain
now I'm not convinced anything of the form a+bi, a,b neq 0 should be prime tbh
check it’s norm
3 is also the only residue mod 4 that is not the sum of two squares.
Which is multiplicative
why can i never speel gruop correvtly 
Two squares within Z/(4)Z or in general
Squares in Z/4Z (but those are also the images of squares in Z, so it doesn't really matter).
x^2 = 1 (mod 4) iff x = 1 (mod 2)
x^2 = 0 (mod 4) iff x = 0 (mod 2)
Do analogies like this hold for other Z/p^2Z rings?
The point is that if p is prime in Z, then its norm is p², so it if factored, each of the factors would have norm p. However if p = 4n+3, it is impossible for it to be a²+b² for integer a,b, because 3 is not a sum of two squares mod 4.
Oh shit this implies the sum of two squares can only be 0, 1, or 2
Can you explain to me in full detail how we get to "However if p = 4n+3, it is impossible for it to be a²+b² for integer a,b, because 3 is not a sum of two squares mod 4.", in particular from "because"
I don't see why we start to work mod 4
I by default if I see a square i take shit mod 2
And then take shit mod 4
If a²+b² = p = 4n+3 in Z, then (a mod 4)² + (b mod 4)² = 3. But we have just seen that isn't possible.
Hey Tropo
"we have just seen that isn't possible", where?
Because the only squares in Z/4Z are 0 and 1, and no combination of those add up to 3.
oh of course
Let’s say we have a monic integer polynomial p(x) with root u
Then does Z[u] necessarily have a norm?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sum_of_two_squares_theorem gives a useful converse.
I assume for each element x in Z[u] you can take the product of all its conjugates to get an integer?
<@&268886789983436800> ^ 18+
and to check whether e+fi is prime, we need to show that there is no (a+bi)(c+di) = e+fi. in other words, e = ac-bd f = ad +bc. Intuitively, this seems like the result that A: V->W a linear map is surjective if dim V >= dim W
except 1+i
maybe that's prime
can xi still be prime
even though it’s x * i
I forget how prime elements are defined in general
yes because i is a unit
Assume a + bi is prime
Assume both are nonzero too
then a and b must be coprime as otherwise d | (a + bi)
I’m working my way to a condition and then trying to find an if
yeah i agree they should be coprime
well then the norm is multiplicative
N(a + bi) = a^2 + b^2
hmm
N(a + bi) must be coprime to a and b
sps a+bi is prime. then if a+bi | cd, then a+bi |c or a+bi | d. also a^2 + b^2 | N(cd) = N(c)N(d)
also a^2 + b^2 | N(c) or N(d)
Hm
sps wlog a+bi | c
actually
actually idk
doesn't this imply a^2 + b^2 is prime in Z ? ( i dont think so)
by the norm argument
The fuck
I have no idea what you did here
What is cd here?
c, d gaussian integers
just any two Gaussian integers?
You’d need to show there is a Gaussian integer x with norm N(x) = n for any n to show primality, no?
But no 4n + 3 can?
what does this sentence mean?
Why are you doing this?
I'm trying any idea
Are you trying to show N(a + bi) | N(c)N(d) => N(a + bi)|N(c) or N(d)
oh shit I see. I assumed a+bi is prime to conclude that
I'm not sure what I'm trying to do
wiat wait wait wait
Our goal is to show N(a + bi) is prime
consider 1+i. suppose it is not prime. then it is reducible, so there are xy s.t. 1+i = p, so 2 = N(x)N(y), but 2 is prime, so x or y is a unit and hence 1+i is irreducible hence prime
I think the norm being prime might be what we need (unless the norm is a prime of the form 4n+1)
Obviously if a²+b² is prime in Z, then a+bi has to be prime (or at least irreucible) in Z[i].
On the other hand, 3 is prime in Z[i], but its norm is 9, which isn't
jeebus christ
i though irreducible -> prime (in UFD's at least), isn't irreducibility a stronger condition?
actually I think they're equiv in ufd
In UFDs primes and irreducibles are the same, yes.
And primes are always irreducible anywhere.
But there are non-UFD rings where some elements are irreducible without being prime.
lovely
How does a + bi being prime imply N(a + bi) being prime
other way around
I see
No i mean if a + bi and both a and b are nonzero then does N(a + bi) have to be prime
we're assuming a+bi prime right
Yes
a+bi reducible implies N(a+bi) reducible as a+bi = xy (x, y non-units), N(a+bi) = N(x)N(y). so N(a+bi) irred implies a+bi irred by contrapositive and hence prime?
If a+bi is prime, I think that is true, but I don't recall how to prove it.
There need not exist an x such that N(x) = 4n + 3
this isn't saying anything beyond a^2+b^2 prime in Z then a+bi prime in Z[i]
which was said earlier
"And hence prime" if you already know Z[i] is UFD.
we've already shown the norm makes Z[i] into a euclidean domain and hence ufd
Okay then.
okay to summarise. primes of the form 4n+3 in Z are prime in Z[i]. primes of the form 4n+1 aren't. also, if N(a+bi) irred in Z implies a+bi is prime in Z[i], so anything of the form 4n + i is prime in Z[i] if 4n+1 is prime in Z (as is 2n + (2n + 1) i and other combinations of the sort)
what is missing to complete this "classification"?
Also note that xy = a in Z iff x and y are conjugates up to scaling
yeah i used that a few days ago when showing primes of the form 4n+1 can be written as a^2 + b^2 in Z
Thus a + bi | x iff a^2 + b^2 | x I’m pretty sure
so anything of the form 4n + i is prime in Z[i] if 4n+1 is prime in Z
That doesn't sound right.
(3-2i)(i+1) = 5+i
neq 4+ i
Oops, I misread.
I feel like the condition may still be wrong but the sentiment may be there xp
So assume p > 0 is prime in Z[i]. Then there doesn’t exist a, b such that a^2 + b^2 | x. Assume p ≠ 3 mod 4, then there exists a, b such that a^2 + b^2 = p
thus (a + bi)(a - bi) = a^2 + b^2 = p, contradicting p’s primality
So p = 3 (mod 4)
(5-2i)(2+i) = 12+i
p is a positive integer
Now assume a + bi (a nor b is nonzero) is prime in Z[i]
god damn it
im getting very close to giving up and going to play video games
now assume N(a + bi) is not prime in Z, equal to xy
Thus (a + bi) | xy so (a + bi) | x or (a + bi) | y
Oh that’s fucking smart
@languid trellis i have an idea how to show a + bi’s norm is prime if neither a nor b is zero
Take a + bi right, then (a + bi)(a - bi) = a^2 + b^2 = N(a + bi)
Thus (a + bi) | N(a + bi)
Because a + bi is prime, N(a + bi) must divide one of the prime factors of N(a + bi)
Which can only happen if N(a + bi) is prime

so a^2 + b^2 is prime
i dont see what you're trying to say here
If prime a + bi is not strictly real or imaginary, then it’s norm is a prime number
And you can prove the reverse to get an iff
And the other case is where it’s just a or ai
Which you can prove is an iff
Providing a classification
pause. "Because a+bi is prime, N(a+bi) must divide one of the prime factors of N(a+bi)"
explain that sentence
a + bi is prime
So for any x, y in Z[i]
If a + bi divides xy, then it must divide x or y
And a + bi | N(x + yi)
so a + bi | p for some prime factor p of N(x + yi)
thus N(x + yi) | N(p) = p^2
Why?
Mistyped i meant a + bi
a + bi | N(a + bi)
For any x in Z[i], x | N(x)
Since N(x) is the product of x and its conjugate
why can't the prime factor p just be a+bi
Yeah, it looks like there's some confusion between Z-prime factors and Z[i]-prime factors going on.
no,
a + bi is prime in Z[i], and divides N(a + bi) in Z
N(a + bi) has prime factorization in Z, subring of Z[i]
So a + bi must divide some prime factor of N(a + bi)
That doesn't make sense; a+bi is not even in Z.
a + bi divides N(a + bi) = (a + bi)(a - bi) in Z[i]
and N(a + bi) has prime factorization in the subring Z, so a + bi must divide one of those prime Z-factors because it’s prime in Z[i]
Okay, with you so far.
a + bi | p for Z-prime p
I need to show this implies N(a + bi) is prime
Take any x + yi, assume x + yi | n for n in Z
This can only happen if N(x + yi)^2 | n^2
As that’s the only way for the imaginary part to vanish
So N(a + bi)^2 | p^2
Stop a moment.
Ergo either N(a + bi) = 1 or p
What does x,y,n have to do with the a,b,p you were talking about?
It’s a lemma
I probably should’ve stated that
What does the lemma state?
What does z now have to do with a, b, p, n, x, y?
Which lemma?
The one stated above, that z | x => N(z)^2 | x^2
It looks like you keep just piling on new letters.
State. The. Lemma.
Forall z in Z[i], x in Z
z | x implies N(z)^2 | x^2
You need to explain how all of the equations containing totally different letters you keep throwing around relate to each other.
Okay sorry,
3 | 6 but 81 doesn't divide 36
sorry z in Z[i]\Z
1 +i | 2 but 16 doesn't divide 4
Oh shit i meant N(z) | x^2
oh wait
The last time I had any idea what you were doing was here.
I'll let you guys have fun, im done with this problem for today
What I’m doing is using a + bi, a ≠ 0 ≠ b, primality in Z[i] to show it’s norm is prime in Z, since a + bi must divide some Z-prime factor of the norm, which then forces the norm to divide a Z-prime factor of itself
I don't follow that reasoning.
What part are you confused about
And you seem to have stopped distinguishing betwee Z-prime factors and Z[i]-prime factors again.
I said Z-prime factor
N(a + bi) factorizes over Z
Which kind of prime factor do you mean when you say "forces the norm to divide a prime factor of itself"?
Thus over Z[i]
A Z-prime factor
Then say that.
Sorry i corrected it
I did the work symbolically and I’m trying to translate it based off of that
Okay, I accepted your argument at a+bi divides a Z-prime factor of a²+b².
How does that imply that a²+b² "divides a Z-prime factor of itself"?
a + bi can divide a positive natural number p if and only if it’s conjugate does aswell
Okay.
So thus (a + bi)(a - bi) = N(a + bi) | p
By which I mean, I agree that is true, but I don't see how it relates to my question.
p is a Z-prime factor of N(a + bi)
Yes.
so p | N(a + bi) and N(a + bi) | p
p is a Z-prime factor of N(a + bi) thus by definition p divides N(a + bi) in Z
Yes.
but we showed N(a + bi) divides p too
I didn't follow that.
It must have been one of the things you posted while I was typing clarifying questions to something you posted earlier.
Here
That asserts that N(a+bi) | p, but what is the argument that this would be true?
Assume p is in Z, and (a + bi) divides p
Therefore there exists (c + di) such that
(a + bi)(c + di) = p + 0i
p = ac - db
0 = ad + bc
-ad = bc
because a + bi is prime in Z[i], no n in Z divides both a and b, so a and b are coprime
Thus d = b, c = -a, or d = -b, c = a
They could be multiples of that.
Or multiples yes
Sorry, thanks for clarifying
d = -mb, c = ma
so (c + di) = m(a - bi)
m(a + bi)(a - bi) = m(a^2 + b^2) = mN(a + bi) = p all in Z
Okay.
Ergo, N(a + bi) divides p, which is a prime factor of N(a + bi)
Thus N(a + bi) = p prime
Okay. I see the structure of your argument now.
My other attempt uses that same Z[i] element dividing Z element argument
I think I was confused by speaking about (a+bi)(a-bi) as the norm in this context, since its multiplicative property never was used. All you really needed is that a+bi divides some integer.
Yeah
Sorry
So for prime a + bi, we have two cases:
a ≠ 0 ≠ b : N(a + bi) is prime
else: a = 4n + 3 prime or b = 4n + 3 prime
Thanks for the patient explanation. :-)
No worries, thanks for helping me get better at explaining things
Have we excluded the possibility that a Z-prime of the form 4n+1 could still be prime in Z[i]?
(The sum of squares theorem does do that, though).
The converse of these two cases is way easier
No, can’t be
Because a^2 + b^2 = 4n + 1
(a + bi)(a - bi) = 4n - 1 = p
so it factorizes over Z[i]
Yes, I wasn't sure if we officially know that a prime of the form 4n+1 is the sum of two squares.
(Or rather whether Swifteee oficially knows it, but he has left the room by now ...)
I’d need to think of a way to prove that there is a pair (a,b) such that a^2 + b^2 = c for c not congruent to 3 mod 4
Might be an inductive approach
(a - b)^2 + (a + b)^2 = 2(a^2 + b^2)
Or the Pythagorean route
Gonna ponder for a bit
Btw we are both working from the same textbook
Swifteee and I
lurked back in here. that was the previous exercise : )
Was this a problem at the end of the section lol
idk where my textbook is rn
After contemplating I think understand the first part of my proof. Just some small things missing, I think. THanks!
its 2.15 ex 7
ooooh number 20 looks fun
Wait FUCK I can’t use strong field theory stuff yet
Shit.
all of these exercises look hard
Some of them just look like annoying induction arguments
Particularly the Euclidean algorithm one
Some parts of my life I will not get back
,rotate should work
F_q[X]/(p(x)) ~= F_(q^deg(p)) if p is irreducible
we’ve done something similar to this before
Finite field theory is probably a detour there -- just count the total number of monic polynomials, and use combinatorics to count how many reducible ones there are.
There’s q^(n - 1) monic polynomials of degree n hmm
Oh I see
wait
Let $N(d)$ be the number of irreducible monic polys in $F_q$ of degree $d$ then wouldn’t $N(x) = \sum_{d | n}{N(d) N\left(\frac{x}{d}\right)}$
THE TUBE
wait no
No, for two reasons. First, you add degrees rather than multiply them.
Not dirichlet convolution it’s regular adding
Whoopsie on my end
Let me rewrite it rq
$N(x) = q^{x- 1}- \sum_{n = 1}^{x - 1}{N(n)N(x - n)}$
Also make sure that e.g. cubics that split into 3 linear factor are not overcounted or undercounted.
I think it's deliberate that the exercise stops at degree 3, because the combo gets wilder the higher the degree.
But as long as we're only looking at cubics, a reducible onea are either an irreducible quadratic times a linear factor, or a product of three linear factors (and the latter can be counted by stars-and-bars, without needing to split into whether some of the factors are identical).
So… multindicies?
That would be a way to phrase it.
$N(d) = q^{d - 1} - \sum_{|i| = d}{\prod_{n = 1}^{d}{N(i_n)}}}$
THE TUBE
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The combo psycho in my head wants to try fucking with generating functions but this seems like a very very bad idea
That is incorrect but idc
Is $(x^{-1})^n = (x^n)^{-1}$ for x in a group G only true when G is abelian?
sheddow
No, since the proof doesn't refer to any elements of G other than x
you can think of this as being contained in the the subgroup of G generated by x, which is abelian
Yeah, good point 👍
commutivity isn't even needed
$(x^{-1})^nx^n = x^{-1}...x^{-1}x^{-1}xx...x = x^{-1}...x^{-1}x...x = ... = 1$
Wew Lads Tbh
x^(-1) and x commutes 
Prof. First I will show that x^-1 commutes. [...] It remains to show that x also commutes. [...]
Anyone have an idea on how to factorise the elements of A x_C B (abelian pushout) in terms of element in the image of \alpha and \beta?
I have a problem with constructing a unique morphism from the equivalence classes of A x_C B. If the class is just {(a, e)} or {(e, b)}, it is easy. But what if it is {(a + alpha(c), b + beta(d)), (a + alpha(c-d), b), etc..}, I want to deconstruct all the elements in the class into (a, e) + (e, b) + ...
Hm well for a pushout, just use the universal property
(Or first isomorphism theorem)
thats what i want to prove
Ah
Well then use the first iso theorem
Like you can view the pushout as A (+) B / (subgroup generated by f(c) - g(c))
Where f: C -> A and g : C -> B are the maps
You can let stuff with quotients do the heavy lifting rather than worrying about finding unique represenatives
(Uniqueness is the easy bit - existence is what you need this for)
I have forever wondered why this kind of stuff takes effort to prove
Haven't yet read about quotient groups, iso theorem, etc. This is an exercise that mentions that it is easier later on
Quotient set and then proving it is a group, etc.
Then just use that instead of quotients yeah
So like
Say you have maps f:C -> A and g: C -> B
And you gave maps A -> D and B -> D compatible with f and g
right
Well you can define a map A (+) B -> D, let's call it h
And your task is to check you can "factor that through"
As in, show that if (a, b) ~ (a',b') (where ~ is the equivalence relation defining the quotient set) then h(a,b) = h(a',b')
Does that make sense
oh I can do that as well of course
I wanted to create an algorithm
Idk what you mean
The point is you can just pick any representative and send it according to h
I wanted to construct an algorithm that deconstructed all elements in the quotient set into (a, e) + (e, b) + alpha(c) + beta(d). Then I could just map (a, e) and (e, b) with the standard morphism from the coproduct/direct sum and use the commutativity of the diagram to map alpha(c) + beta(d)
this is difficult to explain 😛
Okay yeah
Well the point is you can always write as (a,b) anyway and map that according to ur things
And the representative doesn't matter at all by how it is set up
I guess maybe what you mean is like you want to find subsets of A , B, C such that you can uniquely write stuff as combinations?
Right but the problem i had is that the quotient set contains multiple elements and I wouldn't know if mapping one of them with the unique morphism from the coproduct would also work for the other elements in the set
That's just what you check using the various assumptions on ur maps
But just like I checked if the operation on A x_C B is well-defined, and can just check if the unique morphism is well defined on the equivalence class
Altough how do I then show it is unique
Thank you Crstalline, I think I just need to think about it a little
Ah I get it now, the problem I had with this was how to show this is the unique morphism by just looking at one representative. Because obviously A x_C B is not isomorphic to A x B. But I guess the uniqueness follows from 1 representative and proving it is well-defined show that it actually exists
I have a question
what does it mean for a group to be transitive
im suppose to solve the following question
Let G act transitively on X, and let N be a normal subgroup of $G$. Prove that the orbits of in other words: for all x and y in X, $#Nx$ = $#Ny$
Mootje
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G acts transitively on X, means for any pair x,y in X there is a g i G with y = gx
which one can show is equivalent to there being only one orbit
Im working in SLn(Z) (n >= 3), If I have two unipotent elements u,v such that $u^r = v^s$ and rank(u - Id) = rank(v-Id) = 1 for some integers r,s, why does Im(u-Id) = Im(v-Id) and Ker(u-Id) = Ker(v-Id)
Symmetry enjoyer
@winged void
Not able to see either direction : (
So let N = u-1. Then N is nilpotent of rank 1, so must have N^2 = 0.
Hence u^r = 1 + rN.
Similarly v = 1 + M and v^s = 1 + sM, so M = (r/s)N, so they have the same image and kernel.
Omg
It was easy
I jhst needed to see N^2 = 0. It was staring me in my face, especially since i was thinking if rank(N) = 1 it has to act by scaling on that one line if N^2 != 0 but this can't happen cus it's nilpotent... but I kept brushing it aside
hello, If $A = {a + ib\sqrt{2} ; a, b \in \mathbb{Z}}$ and $N(z) = z\bar{z}$. $\exists x, y \in \mathbb{Q}$ such that $\frac{z_1}{z_2} = x + iy\sqrt{2}$ and u, v $\in \mathbb{Z}$ such that :
abyssworld
abyssworld
can someone help me pls
Notice that by dividing by z2 you have
r/z2 = z1/z2 - q
So you just need to show that the norm of this is less than 1.
ok
be careful to distinguish groups and their elements from group actions!
the archetypical example is the group $S_X$ of permutations on a set $X$
rødbet
the group consists of all bijections of $X$ with $X$ under composition, and the obvious grouo action is to map each pair $(\alpha, x)$ in $S_X \times X$ to $\alpha(x)$ in $X$
rødbet
My book defines an action of a group G as a homomorphism G -> Aut_C(A). That is in Grp, right? since Hom(A, A) is a group?
Hom(A,A) isn't a group (not all homs A->A are invertible), Aut(A) is a group.
Oh right, Aut are the automorphisms. Thank you