#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 232 of 1
Anyone able to discern what a is in part b?
An integer
Ah wait we know that since r1 is in I1, there is a so that alpha is in I. I think that's how a is defined
That is indeed how they defined I1
Although there may be different a so that alpha is in I1, so it's not clear how we know what a or alpha is...
It's just any such alpha
Ah, ok. I am not used to such terse definitions
Yeah, it's a bit terse
Can i get a hint on how to show that [Q(zeta_12) cap Q(3^(1/12)) : Q] = 2
i’ve realized that Q(zeta_12) contains sqrt(3) which i think is helpful but im not sure how to construct the minimal polynomial
Is this a Galois theory class or a number theory class
But anyway I am would use Galois theory
Although there is also a nice proof with ramifications theory
But the point is that Q(zeta_12, 3^1/12) is galois
it’s a galois theory question
i am really after showing the degree of the splitting field of x^12 - 3 over Q is 6*phi(12)
i know that the degree of x^n - a over Q is either n*phi(n) or (n/2)*phi(n), so i need to show that the degree of the intersection over Q is 2
12th root of 3 times zeta^i _12 for i ranging between 0 and 11
i think it’s Z_4
No
klein 4 then
i mean that will have order 2 so couldn’t it be any of the three
Well yes
But why don’t you fix an identification of the galois group with Z/12^* explicitly
This will make everything easier to describe
Although it doesn’t really matter I suppose
The point is that Q(3^1/12) is contained within the fixed field of complex conjugation
Do you see how to conclude from here?
i don’t think so
okay well the intersection of these two fields is totally real right?
since one of them is a field consisting only of real numbers
so $Q(3^{1/12}) \cap Q(\zeta_{12})$ is contained in the fixed field $F \subset Q(\zeta_{12})$ of complex conjugation
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
And thus F has galois group K_4/c \cong Z/2Z
So the intersection is either Q or a real quadratic field
and you have already seen that in fact the intersection contains Q(3^{1/2})...
this follows because Gal(Q(zeta12)/Q) is K4, which only has elements of order 1 or 2?
yep, and complex conjugation is not trivial since Zeta_12 is not a real number
so is that what says the intersection is a quadratic field, or is it that along with the fact that sqrt(3) is in the intersection
i see that the degree should be atleast a quadratic extension since sqrt(3) is in the intersection
i think i get it, it follows from the fact that the intersection is atleast a degree two extension, but i have already shown that the intersection is at most 2 in a previous problem
yep you got it
most useful technique in math is that if $x \leq y$ and $y \leq x$ then $y = x$
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
Source
This is the foundation of all analysis p sure
just shuffle the inequalities until it works
That and summing countably many things
kind of rusty on algebra - here $\mathbb{H}$ denotes the upper half plane. what do they mean to identify the two matrices? consider $SL_2(\mathbb{R}) / \pm I$ where $I$ is the identity matrix?
okeyokay
consider the algebra you get by quotienting out by the relator M ~ -M
"Identify" in math means "to make identical." So indeed they are trying to describe SL_2(R)/{\pm I}
this terminology is more common in topology where u can quotient by whatever you want
Is it true that a+bi is irreducible in Z[i] if and only if a^2+b^2 is prime or =p^2, p prime and congruent to 3 mod 4?
I am seeing somewhat confusing results when looking online
Or is this correct?
Hang on isn't a Gaussian prime different from a prime element of Z[i]?
yeah
yes but it is not trivial to show
Does this use quadratic forms
i mean a^2 + b^2 is a quadratic form
but otherwise no
3blue1brown video 
Bombed my final 
Thanks
it happens
you'll bounce back
Yep. Such is life
does every function f: Z -> R have an extension to a polynomial?
I don’t think so, like, perhaps you can think of concrete examples
Any function that takes some specific value infinitely many times but is not constant cannot be extended to a polynomial
oh I see, if c is taken on infinitely many times then f - c has infinitely many zeros
Yes
Exactly. For another example, f: n |---> 2^n cannot be given by a polynomial because it ‘grows too fast’.
However, IIRC (although my memory is a little rusty) that any function f: Z -> R can be extended to a function given by a power series (that converges everywhere); this follows from the Mittag-Leffler's theorem and Weierstrass infinite products in complex analysis.
(It is essential for this that Z is closed and discrete: there is no point "approached" by integers.
This is analogous to the fact that functions on finite sets can be represented by polynomials.)
I am so lost, can anyone help?
Thats more suited for linear algebra, but id suggest looking the vector spaces axioms up and then start proving my dude
If K is a subgroup of G(finite) whose order is divisible by p, then K is contained in a Sylow p- subgroup of G, right?
I guess you can also just construct the power series directly:
f(0) + x(f(1) - f(0)) + (x/2)^2 (x-1)(f(2) - f(1) + f(0)) + (x/3)^3 (x-1)(x-2) ....
The coefficients converge, because each coefficient only depends on finitely many terms. And yeah, I only did positive integers here, but same construction works for any countable set.
The constant coefficient only depends on f(0), since everything else is a multiple of x.
But I see now that you might get some alternating series, when you evaluate this at x other than 0. And then I guess you might get some well-definedness properties
Like does
1 - x + x^2 - x^3 ... vanish at x=1? Hard to say
So yeah, I retract my statement, you might need fancypants analysis stuff
But the x-coefficient is then n! or something like it.
Thrs does actually sometimes work in p-adic settings, and you can use it to show that every function from N to Z_p which is p-adically (uniformly?) continuous (a purely number-theoretic condition) extends to a power series with Z_p-coefficients.
Well, in what I wrote above the x coefficient is just f(1)-f(0), but as n gets bigger the x^n coefficient becomes more complicated yes
Hmm, but still doesn't converge with no conditions.
What do you mean?
For any family of polynomials fn (or even power series)
Sum x^n fn
Is always a power series
When I started writing this message, I was going to say you can always interpolate if you use Z_p instead of R, but you can't.
(But maybe if you use Q_p?)
Conditions on the original function.
Let $F = \mathbb{Q}(x,\sqrt{1-x^{2}})$. Show that $F$ is a purely transcendental extension of $\mathbb{Q}$ by showing that
[
F = \mathbb{Q}\left(\frac{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}{x+1}\right).
]
Jaxon
Is the idea to do subset arguments, like clearly if I have x and $\sqrt{1-x^{2}$, then I have $\frac{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}{x+1}$
Jaxon
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for the other direction. I want to right x and $\sqrt{1-x^{2}$ as some combination of $\frac{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}{x+1}$?
Jaxon
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That's right
I think that i could write $x = \frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2}$ and get $t$ back
Jaxon
and then from that, I can get $\sqrt{1-x^2}$
Jaxon
I am confused with what I underlined (like shit)
So is (a,b) ~ (c,d) if bd_1 is not equal to db_1 vacuously?
No you need ad1 = cb1
The bd1 = db1 line is saying these are things which realize the right common multiple property for this pair
So it's (a,b) ~ (c,d) iff bd_1 = db_1
(a,b) ~ (c,d) implies ad_1 = cb_1
No that’s the condition to define ~
It sure implies it because that’s literally how you define ~
I'm saying is [(a,b) ~ (c,d) implies ad_1 = cb_1] a byproduct of common multiple property or necessary to define (a,b) ~ (c,d)
it's the definition
like I don't know how to make it clearer without just writing it in set builder notation
So (a,b) ~ (c,d) <=> bd_1 = db_1 AND ad_1 = cb_1
$(a, b) \sim (c, d) \iff [((b_1, d_1) \neq (0,0)) \wedge (bd_1 = db_1) \Rightarrow ad_1 = cb_1]$
Wew Lads Tbh
wait what the fuck is this notation
my brain kind of just smoothed out the fact that a and c fucking vanish
oh no
there they are
what I wrote is correct
funny uh
field of fractions but weird
so what the fuck am I showing after that then
independent of b_1 and d_1 is literally WHAT HE IS SAYING
how on earth is that independent of b_1 and d_1 apriori
they're right there, three times each
Hey, I have this problem where G is an abelian group and g, h are elements of G such that ord(g) and ord(h) have no common divisor and I'm supposed to show ord(gh) = k = ord(g)*ord(h). The thing I'm struggling with is why (gh)^n is never 1 for n < k.
So (gh)^n = g^n h^n, so if this is the identity
g^n = h^-n
Now think about the order of g^n
I'm not sure how the order of g^n would help, but it has to be the gcd(n, ord(g)), no?
gcd*
and that has to also be equal to the order of h^-n
It would be ord(g) / gcd(n, ord(g)), but yeah follow Filips hint
I am still confused as shit
Let me phrase what I am confused about better
I am wondering which does he mean:
-
for a FIXED (x,y) ≠ (0,0), (a,b) ~ (c,d) if and only if bx =dy implies ax = cy.
-
(a,b) ~ (c,d) if and only if **for each ** (x,y) ≠ (0,0) we have ditto
-
(a,b) ~ (c,d) if and only if ** there exists an ** (x,y) ≠ (0,0) such that ditto
(2)
… then how the fuck is it dependent on the specific d_1 b_1?
Well, if bx does not equal dy, then the implication trivially holds
What “choice” are we making if it’s a forall statement
Trivially or vacuously?
Well, same
I feel like you're overthinking this a tad
If it's supposed to hold for all x,y, then it's independent of which x and y you look at right
Yeah, which is how he stated it, so why is he asking me to show the way he stated it is the way he stated it????
I agree it's a bit stupid
Their asking you to show it's independent though.
So why should there be a dependence
Can't be both dependent and independent
jagr that's not what miz is saying
The way he stated it is without a dependence in the first place
^
that’s what’s frying my brain
the exposition is just garbage, the author should've labelled the relation according to a fixed pair (b_1, d_1) first and then shown that all of the relations are isomorphic (or asked the reader to show)
So the way he stated it was by fixing a (b_1, d_1)
no, he did what you said
So basically (1) => (2) here
I think actually just removing the phrase "show it's independent" is the cleanest
Cause it's sort of irrelevant
Fuck it moving on to the next part of the problem
Well, I think you should still do the problem
Just worry about it being an equivalence, and not what "independent" means
Next part of the problem, I.e that it actually is an equivalence relation
Well, I’m doing a slightly more general problem
I think what I'm doing isn't exactly the intended solution. Is it just something very simple that I overlooked like "ord(g) and ord(h) are relatively prime so ord(g^n) can't be ord(h^n)"? That doesn't sound right at all though
The definition as stated used (1) and he’s saying it didn’t matter what elements that satisfy the property of b_1, d_1 (I.e (2)) is the exercise
no, the argument leads to ord(g) | n and ord(h) | n
but the use of the order formula is not really necessary:
by raising g^n=h^-n to the power ord(h), you get g^(n * ord(h)) = e, which implies ord(g) | n * ord(h), so ord(g) | n (because ord(g) and ord(h) are coprime), and in a similar manner you get ord(h) | n
Dunno what the problem is, but I just thought I’d mention that statement in quotations is true if both g^n and h^n aren’t the identity - it follows by Lagrange if you define order of an element to be the size of the cyclic subgroup generated by that element
yeah this makes a lot more sense. since both ord(g) and ord(h) are coprime the least common multiple has to be ord(g)*ord(h), which is what I needed
If the order of my group is Prime, it implies the group is cyclic. By contraposition, this means that if my group is non-cyclic, it implies its order is non-prime?
yup
Thanks!!
I see, thanks fam
My confusion lies with the fact that the way it’s stated, I cannot tell if $d_1b \neq b_1d$ implies $(a,b) \sim (c,d)$ vacuously
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
I think that’s the wrong order, but uh
You pick b_1, d_1 such that db1=bd1
This whole shit is confusing the ever living fuck out of me
So how does he define the fucking relation
Like just imagine you have a function on pairs, so you give me (b, d) and I give you (b1, d1) which satisfy this
This works via choice and your ring property guaranteeing such pairs exist
Show that any other choice function gives the same definition I guess?
?????
Then how the actual fuck is the relation defined this fries my fucking brain still
Aaaaaaaa
I'm starting to side with mizalign on this one. What is going on
well written book!
This is case 3 as I mentioned
No?

Fuck it just going to prove the “forall” one is an equivalence relation
Makes more sense from the get go anyway
Real
something something roots
When is R[x]/(f) not a field
H is a subgroup so think about what elements ah look like and whether there are any ones that are easy to figure out
Think about what aH = bH means
Thank you. This is what I have thusfar. What are your thoughts?
How does G being commutative imply that all of these elements are distinct. Couldn't it be that one of the g^{-1} is one of the g?
Maybe this is more of a confusion about the semantics of the notation
The way I'm interpreting this is that there are these elements g_i and these elements g^{-1}_i, and g^{-1}_i is the inverse of g_i and vice-versa. In total there are 2m elements apart from f and e. But couldn't it be the case that the inverse of, say, g_3 is the same as g_7 and in this case there are actually 2m - 2 of these elements?
if g is not the identity and g = g^-1 then g has order 2, but f is the only element of order 2
I think you misinterpreted my question.
I'm saying that some element $g_j$ might be the inverse of some element $g_i$, in which case $g_i^{-1} = g_j$. And in this case we would have a set ${e, f, g_1, ..., g_i, ..., g_j, ... g_m, g^{-1}_1, ... g^{-1}_m}$ that does not include $g_i^{-1}$ and $g_j^{-1}$ because they are just $g_j$ and $g_i$ respectively
Sayu
@delicate orchid

IT WAS (3) FUCK
Every resource says it’s this definition
Problem is it’s not immediate that it’s symmetric
sorry if this is a stupid question but is Z_n the same as Z/nZ? i am seeing some sources saying that they are just alternative notations of the same thing, and some sources saying that they are not equal, but isomorphic and it's confusing the hell out of me
This is scuffed af looking again ngl, look at how asymmetric af that definition is. This seems rather different to the original b_1, d_1 definition
I mean it’s not actually asymmetric since if I swap the two around ~ why not just swap bar s bar r
It’s sorta like, not but also is
But it reads weirdly sorted
It’s the standard Ore construction
They’re isomorphic absolutely, but Z_n is usually just “cyclic group of order n”
Makes sense
But they go “lol it’s an equivalence relation” when it’s not at all obvious that it is
Which is the set {1,g,…,g^n-1} with multiplication given by g^a•g^b = g^{a+b mod n}
It’s kinda bleh
Giving me a damn headache, I’ve been on this problem for 2.5 hours
I can’t even show symmetry of the relation
Hey, at least you can blame someone else
Now wait until you get stuck for 2.5 hours on something because you forgot some assumption or misread something
😎
At like 3am
The day of a presentation
On that topic

So, take \bar s, \bar r witnessing those \exists, then \bar r s1 is in S
Oh my fucking god yeah
Use the common left multiple in S between s1, s2 shenanigans
As for the right hand part about r1, r2, I dunno offhand immediately but you should try using that Ore condition and trying out whatever you get?
If the group is generated by {x,y | x has order n and y has order 2 and x^(i)y = yx^(-i) } , how can I show that there are exactly 2n elements, how can I prove that uniqueness of elements?
It is a dihedral group, I want a algebraic explanation
I think you can use induction on the length of words generated by x and y to show that they are elements of the form x^ay^b; From there it's obvious
I still can’t get symmetry
For the life of me I can’t cancel out enough stuff, the common multiple shit just keeps appending extra terms to the end I can’t get rid of
assuming s_1 r* = s_2 s* => r_1 r* = r_2 s*
I can’t show s_2 r’ = s_1 s’ implies r_2 r’ = r_1 s’
If I use common multiple stuff, I have extra terms I keep adding to the right but cannot cancel out
That’s what I’m trying to do
And from there things work nicer maybe
But getting back to the implication is what I get stuck at
Because then I have extra terms to deal with
Ah wait, see the Ore condition, that lets you pull things nicer than just in S
Because you get s in S, r in R
what
Which I mean is strictly weaker but it’s already asymmetric
Def. 2.1
Can get common multiples not just of the s terms
Wiki states that ore condition lets you move around elts of S
Well when I do that I just get extra factors I can’t get rid of to get the implication I want on the right side
What kind of factors?
Well we don’t need the same witnesses to be witnesses, we can have em be whatever
?????
Also yeah idk what factors exactly arise
I mean the terms that give the common multiples
Like, how does it look if you try to work it out
They linger on the right end and I cannot cancel them out
Like for example, start with s_2r’ = s_1 s’
You just need to find one r' and s' satisfying the property.
Quantify r’s* = s’r*
But multiplying both sides of the above equality by either s* or r* gets you fucking nowhere
Hnn
s_2r’ = s_1s’ => s_2r’s* = s_2s’r* = s_1s’s*
Fuck this
It’s so confusing to type out
Wait, where is this implication from?
I don't see it from the definition
There we go
s_2r’ = s_1s’ => s_2r’s* = s_2s’r* = s_1s’s* but now we’re stuck
s_2r’r* = s_1s’r* = s_1r’s*… stuck again
Can’t do shit with that
Read it more carefully
I have been on this for 3.5 hours
And it is past midnight
how am I too fucking stupid to solve this
“Trivially it’s symmetric” is what another source says
Cool.
Very helpful. Not a single goddamn resource on why
It is still "exists s, r: ss2 = rs1 and sr2 = rr1"
I am trying to find another one that satisfies the criterion
But swapping 2 and 1 assuming the first
But I can’t
Because I am accumulating too many terms on the right I can’t do anything with
This does not make sense to me, it seems you are confusing specific case exercise and the general definition
rS cap sR being nonempty just doesn’t seem helpful because when you add more terms to the right you literally can’t cancel them out when using the relation in the one direction
I don’t even know anymore
Sorry for annoying you, maybe you are exhausted
I’ve been on this problem for like several days too
I just can’t do it, it’s extremely embarrassing
It’s a simple textbook problem
Well, average noncommutativity exercise
It holds for monoids.
I can’t even find a goddamn resource on it
They all just imply it’s trivial which is borderline insulting
My approach for showing commutativity of Theorem 2.5:
||Suppose "s0 s2 = r0 s1 and s0 r2 = r0 r1" for some (s0, r0).||
||One has "s3 r0 = r3 s0" for some (s3, r3). Then,||
||s3 s0 s2 = s3 r0 s1 = r3 s0 s1,
s3 s0 r2 = s3 r0 r1 = r3 s0 r1.||
||Take s' = s3 s0, r' = r3 s0 and you are good.||
But I dunno if you are solving the exercise or making sense of the theorem
This doesn’t show anything
Wdym?
See my struggle here
To get an element of s in front of the s_1 is where I get completely lost
Let me think for a while
Because we’re still going to have an r at the end of our product so it can’t be in s unless we show the product ending in r is in S
How can I show that if x^(a)y^(b) = x^(c)y^(d) then a-c=0 mod n and b-d = 0 mod 2
x^(a - c) = y^(b - d)
The element on the left belongs to <x>
The element on the right belongs to <y>
What's the intersection of <x> and <y>?
Identity e
Right, so x^(a - c) = e and y^(b - d) = e
Oh got it, y not belong to <x> , that's an assumption I forgot
Thank you ❤️
@cobalt heath I think I have another route
Oh
Instead showing equivalence to a more “obvious” equivalence relation that is more obviously symmetric
Also something of note
assume st is in S
Does this not work?
then there exists a t* s* such that
(st)t* = (s)s*
so tt* = s* in S
It did not swap 💀
WAIT THIS IS THE IMPORTANT BIT
Ah rip
multiply both sides by t*, we have that the tt* part is in S
Satisfying our criterion
Ye
Fucking hell FINALLY
Of which I stumbled across by accident instead trying to prove transitivity 
tldr if there exists an s such that st is in S, then there is a t* where tt* is in S
Hmm, how does this help?
multiply both equalities to the left by t*
Like, t* s s2 = t* r s1 ?
Assume $s_1r’ = s_2s’$, then $s_1r’ \in S$. However we know that $(s_1r’)r^* = s_1s^* \Rightarrow r’r^* = s^* \in S$ \\
Thus $s_1r’r^* = s_2s’r^$, and $r’r^ \in S, s’r^* \in R$
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
But why is s1r' in S?
Ah wait, do we assume multiplicative set here?
Of which it’s equal to
Ah, it is given by iteration, duh
In other words the relation is symmetric
However we have the beast known as transitivity now 
Why are s1 and s2 on the left?
Oh, I was using the right version
Same but everything is swapped lol
Ahh
Actually transitivity might be easier
Clever, making r'r* into S is wild lol
@dull ginkgo thank you for trying this stuff, cautionary tale for me to never go into noncomm territory
can anyone give me a proof in affirmative or negative, that for a group. there does not exist an uncountably infinite number of subgroups?
a link would suffice.
if 0 is in S then every pair is related to each other by taking s'=r'=0 and the theorem is trivial. So then we assume 0 isn't in S.
if (s1,r1) ~ (s2,r2) we have r,s' such that s' s2 = r' s1 (and s' r2 = r' r1).
s' s2 is in S, so there is another pair r'',s'' such that r'' s' s2 = s'' s1.
Then s'' s1 = r'' s' s2 = r'' r' s1. Since R is a domain and s1 is nonzero, you get s'' = r'' r'.
now picking s''' = s'' = r'' r' and r''' = r'' s', we have s''' s1 = r'' r' s1 = r'' s' s2 = r''' s2 and similarly s''' r1 = r''' r2, which shows (s2,r2) ~ (s1,r1)
If X is a set, then in Z^X you can think of the subgroup generated by (1, 0, 0, ...), (0, 1, 0, ...), (0, 0, 1, ...) respectively. There are |X| such subgroups, so Z^X has at least |X| subgroups (in fact it has many more).
And of course |X| can be as big as you like.
Is there a specific type of morphism for group rings that respects the structure? Or is it just like, well you can have a morphism of groups between them and you could also have a morphism of rings between them
I guess you could say the ring of scalars is compatible? Otherwise I can't think of the structure of a group ring that would be natural to preserve
Well, any morphism of groups induce a morphism of rings, so one is just a special case of the other there.
A group ring is a hopf algebra, so I guess you could look at homomorphisms of Hopf algebras, but I think that will just end up being the same as group homomorphisms.
so we can have uncountably many?
Yes, just pick X to be uncountable for example
Oh so then are the laurant polynomials a hopf algebra then? What is the structure maps that make this ring a hopf algebra?
Yeah, the Laurent polynomials are just the group algebra of Z.
A hopf algebra is an algebra together with a comultiplication and antipode that satisfy certain relations ( https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hopf_algebra )
For a group algebra kG, the comultiplication is given by
g |-> g(x)g
and the antipode is given by
g |-> g^-1
In mathematics, a Hopf algebra, named after Heinz Hopf, is a structure that is simultaneously an (unital associative) algebra and a (counital coassociative) coalgebra, with these structures' compatibility making it a bialgebra, and that moreover is equipped with an antihomomorphism satisfying a certain property. The representation theory of a Ho...
I need help in solving this problem:
If G is metabelian and ϕ : G → K is a group homomorphism, then ϕ(G) is metabelian.
I am supposed to use the homomorphism/isomorphism theorems, but we've never worked with metabelian groups or group homomorphisms before so I don't know what to do here or how to even approach this.
For reference the only definition of a metabelian group we were given is as following:
A group G is metabelian if there exists a normal subgroup A < G such that both A and G/A are abelian.
Phi induces morphisms on A and G/A via restriction and composition with the canonical surjection respectively, now you just need to show that the image of something abelian (or normal) is abelian (or normal). This seems easier than the isomorphism theorems
Or just use the presentation of a group extension and one line it :trollface:
I mean there aren't so many things you could do.
Just start with A and look at at phi(A), then see that it works.
Hello, I need some help with this question -
Let R be a commutative ring with identity. Let M be a maximal ideal of R and R* be the group of units. Then prove that M is a unique maximal unique ideal if and only if R = M union R*
I looked around for help and it seems that using the fact that, "Every ideal is contained in a maximal ideal" almost trivialises it. I am wondering if there's a proof that doesn't use that as the book hasn't introduced it yet.
you can use Zorn's lemma to prove that every ideal is contained in a maximal ideal
then go from there
True but like is there no way to not use Zorn's Lemma
hmm... I'm still unsure how to show that phi(G)/phi(A) is abelian, does that derive from G/A being abelian or is it something else?
Well where I looked, all proofs use that fact
what does it even mean for G/A to be abelian? Is it g1g2A = g2g1A for all g1, g2 in G? If yes then the rest should be easy
same thing it means for any group to be abelian
Every ideal being contained in a maximal one is equivalent to the axiom of choice. And it wouldn't surprise me if the statement is no longer true when you remove choice. So I wouldn't think so.
all rings are artinian and noetherian buster
Indeed, if we assume the negation of choice, then there is a ring R without any maximal ideals. Then for a field k, kxR has a unique maximal ideal 0xR. But (1, 0) is a non-unit not contained in it.
Interesting... Are there any examples of such a ring
Well, the axiom of choice is equivalent to "no such rings exist"
I mean if we do not assume choice then is there a ring which doesn't have a maximal ideal
Like a concrete ring

I guess you want a ring, where is independent of ZF whether it has a maximal ideal.
I'm sure things like that exist, but I wasn't able to find anything by googling.
I found out that there exists rngs which do not have maximal ideals. Not sure about rings.
Also you mean unable to find?
Yes, that's what I meant
@rocky cloak
relevant asaf karagila post
I guess a maximal ideal of R^X modulo finitely supported functions is exactly given by a non-principal ultrafilter on X. And the existence of non-principal ultrafilters is a weak form of choice iirc. So that would be a pretty concrete ring
Im not sure what it would mean to do it constructively
Like the bijection between maximal ideals and ultrafilters feels pretty constructive to me
So if we assume N doesn't have any non-principal ultrafilters, then we have constructed such a ring
Thanks, this cleared up the confusion
Good explanation
Well, you can’t prove it doesn’t have a maximal if you don’t prove X has no such ultrafilters etc, but yeah this seems fairly constructive up-to-acceptance of “X has no non principal ultrafilters”
But ya know, it’s strictly weaker than choice etc etc
But with AD, you have no such ultrafilters on N
So like, look internal to HOD which models AD iirc, maybe?
Karagila is goated
I’ve heard people hate these type of questions
If AC is false then there is a finite set with an infinite subset or something like that
Math gets suuuuper weird
You have to be a little careful with statements like this. Just because a statement is independent of ZF doesn't mean that it follows from the negation of AC.
Also, you need to use a slightly more unusual definition of 'finite' for this to work. Namely, Dedekind-finite.
👍 So if you don’t assume AC. This isn’t the same as assuming not AC?
Wack
Axiomatic consistency

Also I had searched for that result for a long time, thanks for telling me about Dedekind finite lol now I can tell people this with confidence
That's right. But also, even if you assume the negation of AC you cannot prove the statement you gave. That would only be the case if the statement was equivalent to AC
(which it isn't)
Ah
We don’t have enough information/axioms to answer it one way or another basically
Yeah this stuff suuuuucks
this rarely happens in algebra with ZFC apparently
Well, if you assume AC then you can determine it (in the negative)
Assuming AC can show that finite sets do not have infinite subsets ?
That’s good.
Or countable choice, even
is showing that [x] doesn't always have an inverse sufficient for a proof?
You aren’t trying to show it’s not always a field, you are trying to show it is never a field
i see
When is R[x]/(f) a field?
when f is reducible
mb i meant irreducible lmao
cubic… intermediate value theorem… 
I'm pretty sure the more general criterion is R/I is a field iff I is maximal, which in this case corresponds to the ideal being generated by an irreducible polynomial
Yes
yes
For A, consider the map sending (12) to the reflection in D_3 and (123) to the rotation (this is natural if you label the corners of a triangle and think about D_3 acting on it)
B) is just computation of how {1,3,5,7} multiply mod 8
C) let (1,1) in G, show that this has order nm and thus generates all of G (hint: bezout’s lemma)
D) H is cyclic and G isn’t
how does one send (1 2) to a reflection in D_3
not sure how to think of that one
and overall how do u actually check if two groups are isomorphic to one another
also i havent learnt bezouts lemma yet
Construct an isomorphism as I just did for D_3 and S_3
for b i keep getting that there isn't an inverse for some reason
what should i ponder to try and construct an isomorphism
for this question, i guess its easy bc of what you said for D
that I cant
But in general
(x+4)(ax+b) = ax^2+(4a+b)x+4b = -3ax-a+4ax+bx+4b = (a+b)x+4b-a = 1, now solve for a and b
Idk just try the obvious things? D_3 is defined by permuting the three vertices of a triangle, and S_3 is defined as permutations on a 3 objects, so send elements of D_3 to their corresponding permutations
That’s the only tricky one
The inverses are 1/45 and 1/(x+4)
don’t you mean -45 and -(x+4)?
Well, multiplicative inverse
Hi! could someone help me with this?:
Let $H,K\leq G$ and let $H'\unlhd H$ and $K'\unlhd K$, then $H'(H\cap K')\unlhd H'(H\cap K)$
Gkn
Use if H and N are normal then HN is normal , so H' and H intersection K' are normal in H intersection K
So both are normal in H'(H intersection K)
I want an example G is a non-empty set closed under binary operations and associative property hold. But only one cancellation.
So if let G = {a,b} and a•a = a, a•b = a, b•b=b, b•a=b then it is closed, associative and only right cancellation hold but it is not group.
Is it correct?
Yes
Okay, thank you
Hello guys,Im trying to understand koszul duality, I've showed dualoty for symmetric and exterior algebra, and now I wanna find dual algebra of Weyl algebra,and get stuck,ars there any reference for this,or hints?
do f(x) and f(-x) have the same galois group? It’s just a reflection over the y-axis so my intuition tells me the automorphisms mappings will just pick up a negative but i’m not sure
they have the same splitting field
assuming you mean galois group of the splitting field
AB/gcd(A,B) = lcm(A,B)
Once again struggling to interpret a jacobson problem
can "then" be replaced with "and" here
oh shit
misread it
nvm this problem isn't horrible
Lol
like finding the arc of the fucking covenant for jacobson
$b_1 b_2 = (b_1 a_2) (a_1 a_2)^{-1} (a_1 b_2) = (b_3 a_4) (a_3 b_4)^{-1} (a_3 b_4) = b_3 a_4$
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
i think it was a mistake and $b_4$ was supposed to be $a_4$
yeah it was looking later at the problem at the equivalence relation
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
Okay Malcev's construction is kinda sick
Freeness vs what happens when it's already in a group because embedding it in a group basically forces the extra relation which destroys the injectiveness
that's awesome tbh
okay thanks jacobson for the actually fun problem
You’re welcome
the problem before it was absolutely fucking abysmal
wait I realized the first part is fucked
$a_1 a_2 = a_3 b_4 = a_1 b_2$ in a group implies $a_2 = b_2$
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
i don't think that was intended
I am going to take a wild guess that the intended relations are $a_1 a_2 = a_3 a_4, a_1 b_2 = a_3 b_4, b_1 a_2 = b_3 a_4$ so that $b_1 b_2 = (b_1 a_2) (a_1 a_2)^{-1} (a_1 b_2) = b_3 b_4$
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
@next obsidian actually how would I "formally" prove the free monoid doesn't satisfy the last relation
What last relation
$b_1 b_2 = b_3 b_4$
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
Let $M = \langle a_1 ... a_4, b_1 ... b_4 : a_1 b_2 = a_3 b_4, b_1 a_2 = b_3 a_4, a_1 a_2 = a_3 b_4 \rangle$ as a monoid.
Let $\phi$ be a map from $M$ to group $G$. Then $\phi(b_1 b_2) = \phi(b_1) \phi(b_2) = \phi(b_1) \phi(a_2) (\phi(a_1) \phi(a_2))^{-1} \phi(a_1) \phi(b_2) = \phi(b_1 a_2) \phi(a_1 a_2)^{-1} \phi(a_1b_2) = \phi(b_3 b_4)$, so it CANNOT be injective
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
b ecause the free monoid doesn't have the relation b_1b_2 = b_3 b_4
but idk how to formally prove that
I mean that’s true because they’re formal now
But I don’t know if this construction is implicitly modding out by that relation
Cuz otherwise it doesn’t really make sense
I feel like it depends on what’s written on p 68
what do you mean
Like if it’s just the free monoid
M is the free monoid with the relations given
You turn these things into formal objects which only satisfy the most trivial relations
that's basically it
And then b1b2 ≠ b3b4
But if it went through the effort of saying it started with the given relation
but i need to prove that b1b2 = b3b4 is NOT implied
I expect that you’re also just forcing those relations
it's saying that there is no injective map into a group
because phi(b1b2) = phi(b3b4) for any phi to a group
So I don’t have the mental energy to explain what I mean
fair
No that’s not true is my point if this is JUST the free monoid
get some rest and hopefully you feel better
But I suspect this is the free monoid mod out by the relations that ai bj have coming from G
And then you mod out by even more
This is cuz if this wasn’t true, there’s literally no fucking point in specifying that the elements satisfies relations
Coming from G?
Like for example modding out by [b1][b2] = [b3][b4]
Where [-] is indicating it’s the formal object inside the free monoid
Like my point is okay
Let’s say g in G and g^2 ≠ g as an object of G
Then when you take the free monoid generated by g and g^2
The fact is that those three relations without the fourth implies that there is no injective monoid morphism into a group
Yeah I don’t believe this
Because if you don’t mod out by the relations that the bi had coming from G
I don’t think those are ever of relevance ever again
Idk maybe I’m smoking pack
Okay maybe it’s true
But then I hate this problem because
The only way it would be true what you’re saying is if the b1b2 = b3b4 relation comes about from the other 3 relations
Which I guess is what your computation says
But umm
Yeah it shouldn’t have specified at the start you pick elements satisfying that 4th relation too cuz it isn’t a real assumption
anyway
It’s true
Ummmm
Look at phi
I mean to me it’s kinda clear idk
But I guess if you really wanted to prove it
You come up with a monoid M
And a set map {a1,…,a4,b1,…,b4} -> M
This defines the map from the free monoid to M
And you want to cook it up such that im(b1b2) ≠ im(b3b4)
Yeah
So I would just grab a group
I know some relations together can imply other relations
It’s showing that the three by default don’t imply the fourth
And pick 4 elements which don’t satisfy b1b2 = b3b4
But I guess you’d need to construct a monoid where the fourth doesn’t hold
Like pick Z/2Z and Z/2Z
Map b1,b2 to (1,0)
Map b3 to (0,0)
And b4 to (1,1) or whatever
The ai go to literally anything
Okay tadah
But the other 3 do
What's the difference between a free abelian group and a finitely generated abelian group?
Every finite abelian group is finitely generated for one
Just that the basis for a free ab grp need not be finite?
And free abelian need not be finitely generated
Z x C_3 is finitely generated, infinite, and not free abelian
Whats an example of a non-free finite abelian group? Sorry
?
Uhhh, any of them? (Except 1)
C_3 (I.e. Z/3Z)
Q is neither finitely generated nor free also
Why could you not choose {1} as your basis?
the representations wouldn't be unique
basically finitely generated abelian groups always have a free part and a torsion part, and the free abelian groups have no torsion part (https://crypto.stanford.edu/pbc/notes/group/fgabelian.html)
Free abelian has to map to everything doesn’t it?
C_3 -> C_5 is obviously never surjective
So this is a problem
Ahh ok
free abelian groups are basically Z^n, but you can also add on a bunch of cyclic components and they'll still be finitely generated
Don’t conflate finite generation with a basis, since we can also represent every integer with multiples of {2, 3} also
Even though Z is in fact free
thank you
I have trolled my algebra prof with lines like “there are only countably many free abelian groups”
“Up to forcing”
wtf is forcing
forcing is very strange
take a model of set theory, get a new model of set theory, CH holds in new model
or ~CH
It’s a way to make new models
Generally speaking
And specifically the usual ways make a new model which preserves “what is an ordinal” and such
roughly though, you start with a model of set theory, within that model you can construct sort of "virtual models of set theory", and you also have a way of collapsing a "virtual model" into an actual model, and depending how you do it, you can "force" statements to hold in that new model
this is how is was shown in the 60s that CH is independent of ZFC
for which Cohen won the fields medal
lol had your algebra prof heard of forcing?
He had read Hodges’s building models by games a long time back
Nilpotent groups were the reason though
I don’t quite get how to make the generic ultrafilters for the Boolean valued approach still though
But trying to learn forcing is why I’m doing the CST thing 
yeah I prefer the approach which doesn't use boolean valued models, I admit that the boolean valued contruction looks nicer, but the whole jump from the poset to the CBA generated by it is I dunno, abstract isn't the right word
something lol
it's too "something"
I mean, the regular open sets then it’s dense iff order isomorphic or wtv yada yada
Just take the limit of your finite embeddings 
I don’t know the way to sidestep V^(B)
like how to do it without V^B?
Ye
you define M^P directly, instead of partial functions V^B -> B they're relations on M^P x P
I dunno, the V^B approach is nice honestly
lol I waffle on which I like better
but the two approaches aren't like, hugely different in spirit
and in the end M[G] is the same thing
Yeah
Uhh names not being unique moment?
I'm surprised that it doesn't use some sort of "collapsing" terminology, it feels like a sort of Moskowski collapse sort of thing
No idea, hopefully I’ll better know after Halbeisen shenanigans (this is an ad :3)
I literally just mean why they use the terms "name" and "value" rather than like
G-sets
or like P-sets and G-collapse
I dunno lol!
Idk on that tbh, probably because labeling or something?
oh is this an alt-account for you?
what
are you also sagesharp or is that someone else
Same account
oh just different name
Also smh didn’t join
Anyhow, I mean the name-value rather than just G-set or wtv is maybe since they’re not quite sets in that they’re only “up to Boolean valued” shenanigans maybe?
Nah I meant “this might be stuff you already know”
Since like, literally talking about forcing and the like right now even
yeah, I'm still new to the subject, I want to mainly reinforce ideas, make sure I have good intuition
I hadn't heard of the name Jech or Kunen before October lol
Anyhow, combinatorial POV might be good anyway
yeah, chapter 9 in Jech I haven't read yet
Still been meaning to read more of jech
There’s always the contingency 

I’m rather poorly versed in set stuff though oop

I assume the first k should be a K
But does anyone know what (K^x)^2 or D could mean
I think D is the discrimenant. It’s trying to say that if the Disc(f) is a square then Gal(L/K) is a transitive subgroup of S3 contained in A3, so is A3. If disc(f) is not a square then Gal(L/K) is a transitive subgroup of S3 not contained in A3, so is S3
wait, is f a cubic polynomial?
and yes, this is exactly it
I want to prove that if G is a non-empty group which has no non-trivial subgroup then G is a finite set of order p.
So let a≠e belong to G(infinite )then <a> = G and similarly a^2≠e because if a^2 = e then G has a non-trivial subgroup. So <a^2> = G.
So a in <a^2 > which shows that a has finite order , which contradicts that G has no non-trivial subgroup.
Now let G have order mn(both are greater than 1 ) then let a≠e then a^m ≠ e but it shows that (a^m)^n =e which contradicts that G has no non - trivial subgroup. So G must be the order of some prime p.
Is it correct?
(note every group is non-empty, so you should say non-trivial)
But yes, this is great
Yes, thank you
This is cool
Does someone familiar with the theory of finite monoids here ? I’m reading a book on it and the author wrote « a finite monoid is a collection of finite groups loosely tied by a partially ordered set ». But he didn’t explained exactly what he meant by that.
he could be referring to some kind of idempotent decomposition (with the normal ordering on idempotents), or is trying to (vaguely) describe partial groups?
Is it possible to represent a polynomial as a sum of two squares iver a finite field
What do you mean by partial groups ?
I was misremembering the definition of a partial group so don't worry
is it true that in a finite monoid we have "Islands" of elements that are all mutually invertible connected by non-invertible elements? This is sort of how partial groups work but without inverses
no that clearly isn't the structure - all units are connected through the identity
not necessarily
in characteristic 2, the square of any polynomial has the coefficient of any X^(2n+1) equal to 0
in particular X cannot be expressed as a sum of two squares
I don’t understand what you mean by « mutually invertible connected by non-invertible elements ». Are you talking about pseudo-inverse, i.e., about inverse monoids ? If it is the case, I was wondering the same, can we describe a finite monoid by a set of submonoids such that they are inverse monoids.
Can someone help me with a problem? Let K be an extension of F and a an element in K but not in F that is algebraic over F, b an element in K that is transcendental over F. I have to show that there does not exist an x in K such that F(a,b) = F(x). I am struggling to see where I have to begin? Can anyone point me in the right direction? I've been trying to do something with tower rule and degrees of extensions but I am not sure that's the right way.
(sorry if it's the wrong channel)
@stiff kraken if F(a,b)=F(c) for some c in K, then c cannot be algebraic over F (because of b)
prove that c being transcendental over K produces a contradiction with a∈F(c)-F
trying that, I've already concluded that c must be transcendental due to tower rule but now I'm stuck, currently trying to see if maybe I can get a contradiction due to the fact that F(c) would be isomorphic to F(b), but not sure if that's the way
you can prove that the elements of F(c)-F are transcendental
Is there a characterization of the elements in F(c)-F? Is there a way to write them other than f(c)/g(c) for some polynomials f,g?
I don't understand what I get by knowing that a is in F(c) but not in F, how does that help me compared to just knowing that a is in F(c)? If a is algebraic and it's in F(c), then there exists a polynomial p(x) such that p(a)=0 and a = f(c)/g(c) for polynomials in F[x]. Then p( f(c)/g(c) ) = 0 and I can conclude that if p(x) = x^n + c_(n-1) * x^(n-1) + ... + c_1 * x + c_0 then for h(x) = f(x)^n + c_(n-1) * f(x)^(n-1) * g(x) +... + c_1 * f(x) * g(x)^(n-1) + c_0 * g(x)^n, c is a root, therefore h(c)=0 and that would be a contradiction, as long as I know that h(x) is not the zero polynomial, and I assume that's where the assumption that a is not in F comes handy, I just can't figure out how.
@stiff kraken we only care about the characterization of the elements of F(c), and we get a contradiction with the fact that a is not in F at the end
so, since a is in F(c), we have a=f(c)/g(c) for some f,g in F[x]
this implies f(c) - a*g(c)=0
so c is a root of the polynomial h(x)=f(x)-a*g(x), which is a polynomial in F(a)[x]
||if h is not the zero polynomial, then|| ||h(c)=0 implies that c is algebraic over F(a),|| ||but a is algebraic over K, so it follows that c is algebraic over K, contradiction||
||therefore h is the zero polynomial||
||in particular h(s)=0 for some s in F with g(s)=/=0 (we can find such an s because g is not the zero polynomial), which implies a=f(s)/g(s)∈F, contradiction||
need a few mins, not reading spoilers yet, will try to figure it out on my own, thanks for the help and pointing me into the right direction
btw, is F assumed to be infinite? I feel like we need this for the existence of s in the last spoiler
if g(x)=0 for all x in F, then we can conclude that g is the zero polynomial provided that F is infinite (because 0 is the only polynomial with infinitely many roots)
otherwise, if F is a field with q elements, then g(x) = x^q - x is zero for any element in F, but it is not the zero polynomial
Isn't the fact that we know g(x) is not the zero polynomial enough for us to conclude that there is an s in F such that g(s) is not 0?
no; see the counterexample above
how do you mean x^q - x is zero for any element in F?
so F-{0} is a group with q-1 elements, so a^(q-1)=1 for any element in F-{0}
then a^q=a for any element in F (including 0)
yeah but the g(x) = zero polynomial (classes wise) no?
then we are working with classes
you are talking about a quotient ring right?
or field
no
we can't really reduce things modulo here due to the elements that are not in F
yes, but the problem arises when you evaluate the polynomial in elements that are not in F
so for example in Z/3Z the polynomial X^3-X when evaluated in any element is 0
but if you extend Z/3Z to some other field K, and decide to evaluated X^3-X to an element from that field, it might not be 0
yea but we used the argument that g(x) is not the zero polynomial in F[x], not in F(a)[x] or in some other extension right?
so you are saying there can be a polynomial p(x) with coefficients from a field F that is not the zero polynomial but p(x) = 0 for every x in F?
yes
that sounds counterintuitive
yeah, the thing is that equality as functions does not imply equality as polynomials
so in the case of p(x)=x^3-x in Z/3Z we have p=0 as functions, but not as polynomials
maybe
how would you even extend a field like Z/3Z though? Is it even possible to create for example Z/3Z(pi)? I am not even sure how it would work tbh as the addition and multiplication defined in Z/3Z is modulo wise but pi is not even an integer
anyway, thanks for the help
It may be easier to consider Z/3Z[x] first
then we many quotient out by an ideal to get an extension
For example, Z/2Z[x] / (x^2 - 2 )
which has the elements 0, 1, x, 1+x, and the relation x^2 = 2 = 0 (mod 2)
So, in some sense this is Z/2Z[ \sqrt(2)]
it is possible to create Z/3Z(pi)
it's isomorphic to the field of fractions of Z/3Z[x]
Is it a general result that if u is transendental over R then R[u] is iso to the field of fractions of R?
yes
hm
Hello @dire siren about what i asked before polynomial as sum of squares of two other polynomial in same field
Its possible in real field but how do you do it if its under mod n where n is a prime
https://ask.sagemath.org/question/10062/polynomials-as-a-sum-of-squares/
This post shows how to do it in a real field but
For example how can i represent
(x^16 + 1 ) %p = (P² + Q² )% p
where p is a prime
P and Q are polynomials under same field
Is it possible find a decomposition of a polynomial as a sum of squares in Sage if such representation is possible? For example, if I want to prove that $x^6 - x^5 + x^4 - x^3 + x^2 - x + 2/5>0$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$ then Sage would return for example $$\left (x^2\left (x - \frac{1}{2}\right)\right )^2+\left (\frac{\sqrt{3}x}{2}\left (x - \fr...
How would we find P and Q
R(u)
and R[x]
is it typical to use square brackets for indeterminates and parentheses for a specifed element?
My book uses R[u] and R[x]
ah gotcha
usually from context you'll know whether it's an indeterminate or not
though x,y,z,t are typically reserved for that
mhm
@languid trellis I realize my replies were not clear; so what I meant is that the result is "if u is transcendental over R then R(u) is isomorphic to R(x)"
where R(a) means the field of fractions of R[a]
I understood, but I appreciate the clarification nonetheless, thank you
it can't be true over the reals, because the degree of a sum of squares of polynomials is always even
I'm not sure about the problem modulo p
what how
Z[\pi] iso to Z[x] methoughts
It is
The valuation map of Z[X] into R that sends X to \pi is injective as the kernel is trivial (no poly evaluates to 0). The image, Z[\pi], by first isomorphism theorem is iso to the domain, Z[X] 
yeah my point is that this isn't Q[X]
For integral domain R, R(u) is isomorphic to the field of fractions of R[u] if and only if u is transcendental over R, or the valuation map is mono
I don't understand how this sus lossible
Oh
reading comprehension
Yup checks out
Honestly the easiest route is the universal property of the field of fractions itself
Yeah
Because the injectivity of that valuation map allows the field of fractions to factor through it
If E is an extension field of F and $\alpha\in E$ is algebraic over F. For any $\beta\in F(\alpha)$, why is it the case that $F(\beta)$ is a subfield of $F(\alpha)?$
CaratCake
R[x] no, fractions of R[x] is same as (fractions of R)(x)
Yeah, I think there might’ve been some [] vs () shenanigans
Or like (fractions of R)[x] vs fractions of (R[x]) etc
Mfw associativity failure
RAAAAA BULLSHIT NOTATION RAAAAAAAAAAA
Yeah basically
C[x] isn’t C
Which is field of fractions of C
And fractions of C[x] (i.e. C(x) here) is not C
Since I don’t think you get a sqrt of x
So not alg closed
I mean this example doesn't satisfy hypothesis of having an element transcendental over C, unless technically the indeterminate x is transcendental over C
x is indeed transcendental over C
Since I mean, it’s kinda impossibly to satisfy a C polynomial
I think we also need the minimal polynomial of u to be irreducible over K
else K[u] isn't even a field
can i be clear here
I fucking hate $F(\alpha)$ as a notation if $\alpha$ is an element
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
I'm pretty sure ther exist algebraic elements with a reducible minimal polynomial, in which case K[u] is not even an integral domain
IT'S EVEN WORSE IF IT'S JUST IMPLIED WHAT FIELD IT'S IN
OR HOW
Like imagine going "oh yeah, we have $F(\alpha)$... alpha's a hyperreal"
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
Well, u is in a field (since alg closure), and this is a subring, so…

god the amount of notational misery I have about shit like, $\mathbb{Q}(\pi)$
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
Unless you’re doing something over some very non-field-like ring, I’m pretty sure minimal polynomials are irreducible also
So uh
I mean, an idempotent does satisfy x(x-1) but that’s not in our field except 0 or 1
this is the result I was referencing
I can't think of an example rn
oh
Z/(2) / (x^2 - 2)
which is Z/ (2) [sqrt2]
I've never actually formally proved this it just kinda makes sense in my head
i wonder how much math I know is actually me just gaslighting myself
This just adding a nilpotent x yeah?
I wouldn’t wanna call that algebraic 
But I mean pop off ig
It is indeed satisfying a polynomial but 
Integral extensions
I wouldn’t say it’s algebraic since it’s not in the algebraic closure
does jacobson cover the proof of the existence of closures lol
its very silly and goofy
Appending elements not in any field extension be like
Oh yeah, we like variables. What if we had as many as the fucking polynomials
i'd say it's algebraic because its a root of the polynomial
don't call it sqrt2
just call it "x"
such that x^2 = 0
:trollface:
But yeah if your u is actually algebraic and can live in a field at all
oh boy a lot of it is like
Then the minimal polynomial is reducible
what's the difference between isomorphism and actually being an "equal" field
Since you wanna include dumb ring extensions here it is quantified more tightly :3
fuck
fuck it unfields your field extension
Usually you can be like "hehe" $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$ just has an element that is the root of $x^2 - 1$ easy. Good luck describing $\mathbb{Q}(\pi)$
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
i hate notation
once again, integral extensions
Q(pi) = R bc i said so
Wrong!
doesn't model theory give us some pretty fucked fields
i think -1 is a square for p-adics which completely destroys any semblence of an order that works well with its algebraic shit
If you consider them as sub fields of where the elements you’re adding lie ig
Algebra gives you awful fields, model theory just says bad ones exist
admittedly ostrowski's theorem is kinda cool and isn't too hard
Because Z exists
Are there any fucked infinite fields that I might understand
F_p((t))
because there was a result about finite subgroups of infinite fields being cyclic that i want to be more impresssed by
Isomorphism between the completion of the closure of the p-adics and C with choice
what is this
is this referring to the rational functions of F_p or
if it's like a field of fractions of like the fucking ring of Laurent series I'm going to implode
It is
AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA
oh wait it's a field by default
I HATE ALGEBR
is it defined differently than $\sum_{n = -N}^{\infty}{a_n x^n}$ for char not 0
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
I think $\int \bQ_p\dd\mu$ is isomorphic to $\int F_p((t))\dd\mu$ as a valued field
Everlasting Sharp
Ultraproduct

can you think of any finite subgroups of this?
Anyhow, point being somehow this encodes all the data of the p-adics
thank god nGroupoid isn't here because he'd raise Adele rings from the depths of hell (langlands)
anyway I have some shit for EE to do so smell you later
these are awful lmao
even just F_p(t) is not that well understood
i'm doing a reasearch project this summer on the model theory of analytic functions... i'll get back to you at the end of it about it lmao
but yea as far as I know for non char 0 fields it's pretty rough out there
On like, uhh, these analytic function rings like this one, or like weird ones like R with all the analytic functions
If you end up reading stuff like Montenegro explain it to me

I think mostly on analytic function rings. I think it will mostly be focused on the type of model theory that you can do when you add the analytic functions (over some field like C I think) as constant symbols. Or at least I think it is along those lines
Spooky stuff
hi do anyone know
about spherical harmonics and its relation with wigner d matrices
Does anybody know why $\hat{G}$ has to be discrete?
justuswie
$\hat{G}$ is the Pontryagin dual of G here
justuswie
Adele rings are not that bad tho
Since the topology on the dual is the compact open topology, and G itself is compact, it's enough to show that any homomorphism G -> S1 that maps everything close to the identity in S1, must be the identity.
It just comes down to f(g^n) = f(g)^n, and that any nonidentity element in S1, can get far away from the identity by raising it to some power.
alright thank you, that helps!
Hello, I am reading that if c is transcendental over K and K(c) is an extension of K, then "there is a map deg: K(c) --> Z such that if a is not in K then deg(a) >0 ", can someone explain why that's true or point me to this theorem's name if it has one?
and does anyone have to suggest any good textbook on galois theory? Currently studying without one so it's a bit hard
Are there any assumptions on this map? Like you can of course just define deg(a) = 0 for a in K and deg(a) = 1 otherwise...
I am not sure, I found it online on an answer on math stack exchange from 3 years ago and I am trying to make sense of it
I am confused what you mean by map
I'm not sure either, that's why I thought I'd ask, maybe it's something I haven't learned yet, but it turns out everyone is just as confused
this sounds like viewing K(c) as the quotient of some polynomial ring and then defining deg: K(c) -> Z to be the standard degree function K[x] -> Z but factored through the quotient, so you get a map K[x]/(f) = K(c) -> Z.
maybe this works
I'm also using the weakest variant of "map" to literally just be a set map but this probably has nicer properties as it's coming from a valuation
I wouldn't know, sorry
Hey I'm confused about some statement I saw that said the alternating group An is a subgroup of the permutation group Sn but the rep theory of Sn is nicer than rep theory of An. In what sense is it nice?
the representation theory of Sn is very combinatorial and thus has a bunch of easy formulas (hook length formula comes to mind) to work out character values and stuff like that
young diagrams are the best way to view the "niceness" imo
(another nice fact is that, since S_n is ambivalent, all of the characters have real values - which isn't S_n specific but it's still nice)
okay I see yeah that makes sense thanks. Does An have representations that come the restrictions of reps from Sn? Or however you could get reps of An from Sn
Restrictions to An is very nice because it's an index 2 subgroup
so not only is it normal, so you can use loads of clifford theory like things only splitting into at most two S_n-conjugate things upon restriction
index 2 is nice for other reasons I can't quite recall properly rn
ah yeah, you're also guarenteed to find every irreducible of A_n by restricting irreducibles of S_n and then taking decompositions
A reasonable guess might be that the answer is just wrong (it has 0 upvotes and doesn't seem to be accepted).
They seem to be confusing K(c) with the polynomial ring. K(c) is isomorphic to the ring of rational functions, which does have a degree map, but it's not true that deg(a) > 0 nor that deg(f(a)) = ndeg(a).
One thing you can do is look at [K(c) : K(a)], it's not too hard to show that this is finite for any a not in K, and that [K(c) : K(f(a))] <= n[K(c) : K(a)].
Greetings! While navigating through some exercises I stumbled upon the following one. It had three field extensions K over $\mathbb{Q}$.
- $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt3,i)$, which I proved is a splitting field over $\mathbb{Q}$.
- $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{3})$ which I proved is not a splitting field over
$\mathbb{Q}$ - $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt[3]{3},i)$ also not a splitting field over $\mathbb{Q}$ (for this I’m not sure but I took the polynomial $(x^2-3)(x^3-3) and \sqrt3$ does not belong in that extension
Now the exercise asks which of these have the property that there exists unique isomorphism of fields K->K. I’m thinking that for the second one, which is the only splitting field there could be multiple isomorphisms since a root can map to its conjugate through an isomorphism. So I’m clinging towards to the result that this one doesn’t have this property since we have at least two isomorphism, the identity and the one that maps an element to its complex conjugate. For the others, since they are not splitting fields and are just fields I don’t see why we could not have multiple isomorphisms. So, does none of the above extensions have the property? Am I missing something here?
Alma221
Hey in my notes it asks us as an exercise to prove by induction the formula for the number of k cycles (k-1)!*(n choose k how do we do this?
note that we can form any (k+1)-cycle by taking a k-cycle (x_1, x_2, ..., x_k) and appending an element x_(k+1) to it, where x_(k+1) isn't equal to x_i for any i < k+1
you'll need to count then number of ways you can get a particular (k+1)-cycle like this but that shouldn't be too tricky
yes this is the part that I am stuck on
not sure how to do it
I assume that I can take each k-cycle and add the new element to k different spots ( between two elements or in front of the first one)
but then I don't know how many times I get the same cycle
that's equivalent to adding it at the end and then counting the number of ways you can do it
two tuples (x_1, ..., x_k), (y_1, ..., y_k) corrispond to the same cycle iff they are cyclic permutations of one another
like (1234) and (4123) are the same cycle but (1234) and (1324) are not
yes I understand this
but let's say that I can choose from two new elements and append it somewhere in these two cycles
well then if you add the element to a different spot you're guaranteed to get a new cycle, assuming k > 2
Try to find all the automorphisms of Q(cuberoot(3))
wait is this true for k = 3? one moment
ah no there's a slight subtly
I think its not
appending it to either end will get you the same cycle
(123) -> (1234)
(123) -> (4123) = (1234)
I was aware of that
but otherwise they're unique, because the adjacent numbers will be unique