#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 231 of 1
obvio, i mean a field
okay, Z is not an example of what you’re talking about then
I was giving a example i had with rings
I was asking how does it go, when i have fields
english isn’t my first language, sorry
it’s okay
it’s not a language issue at all, your english is good. i just misunderstood on my end
I asked, what about fields in general
that could imply Z[x] is some specific field im looking
that could be misleading
Surely the answer must be no.
Isn't this basically asking "How does the ring of algebraic integers differ from the field of algebraic elements?"
And, the answer is "more than by nothing"
G->G by x->gx is homomorphism when g=e, right ?
the identity map is indeed a homomorphism
for what value of g it will be homomorphism , g must be e, right?
yes. you can see this right away by plugging in e for x
if it's a homomorphism, then it sends e to e. but it sends e to g, so...
Okay, thank you
I want homomorphism mapping between D_4 and S_3 so if I define D_4 as {1,r,r^2,r^3,s,sr,sr^(2), sr^(3)} and r^4=1, s^2=1 ,sr=r^3s.
If 1 maps to 1 and r maps to (12) and s maps to 12 then is it correct?
I want to show that the Gaussian period is only fixed by the maps that it should- Is there an obvious way to show this?
want to show this is only fixed by sigma^km and nothing else
I have small question regarding when we say that homomorphism preserve the group structure
what do mean actually with the word group structure
i mean those are two groups with two diffrent operation
so what does it exactly mean that the group structure is preserved
a group is made of three things: a set of elements, a "structure" of operations (nullary identity, unary inverse, binary multiplication), and some properties (associativity, left inverse law, right inverse law, left unit law, right unit law). preserving the structure means that you can apply the homomorphism before or after the operations and it's the same
for groups in particular, you can just check that a map f preserves multiplication (f(ab) = f(a)f(b)), which implies that it preserves the identity (f(1) = 1) and inverses (f(a^-1) = f(a)^-1)
in these equations, take the identity/inverses/multiplications to be the appropriate ones from either group in question
sure i agree about that
but i mean are the groups like not diffrent
like G for example here can be integers and say for example H is rational or something but not integers
could you give an example if its possilbe
@amber wraith do you have maybe intuitive way of seeing it ?
Bump 😭
In a group you have a bunch of relations like a*b = c. These together form the structure of the group. Now the names a, b, c or the exact nature of the operation is not really the important part, it's this relationship that forms the structure of the group.
And a homomorphism preserves these relationships.
so its actually sort of preserving the closure
of a group
kind of
like if a * b = c then c must be in that group or somethign
am i right
I mean, c must be in the group sure, but it's saying more than that. Like I couldn't just replace c with any element of the group. It's a special thing that a*b = c
i see. its a really difficult thing
because i have see a lot of example and i can solve the questions
but the intuition behind it kind of vague
like i was solving this
its homorphism
Then I think you might be overthinking it.
It's just that in your first group the operation is + and in the second it's *, then you want the map to take things involving + to things involving *. That's all there really is to it. You take instances of +, replace them with *, and check that things still work out.
I see but then what is here the group structure
I guess at the end
That’s not so important
Was messing around with quotient groups and I made this - is this a lie group? (Also whiteboard flex 😎)
These are indeed lie groups. In general (R/Z)^n is called the n-torus.
Imagine taking the sides of the square you’ve equated and gluing them together
You get a donut
Okay now that’s sick
the way I look at group homorphisms is when I talk about a group - the operations like *, +, x, whatever are really just window dressing or language, What I really have is a bunch of objects, that follow those 3 important properties. A homorphism is in a way, letting me translate the current language into a new language. For example, the exponential map takes these symbols, real numbers, and the operation +, and translates them into the language of x
so while in my first group,
i get a + b
when i do exp, i can trnaslate that structure
so I now get
exp(a + b) = exp(a) x exp(b)
so I've basically just translated the objects into a new "language" (group)
It helps more when you know about for example isomorphisms
which basically mean that
these two groups are the exact same, just described in different languages
I see
so lets say I have a group like Z mod 2
this is just {0, 1} where 1 + 1 = 0
now lets say I have another group like {1, a} where a^2 = 1
so in the first group, I have 1 + 1 = 0
and in the second I have a * a = 1
in both cases the group has two elements, one of which is the identity, and the other one goes to the identity when applied to itself
we say these groups are isomorphic, because the only difference between them is that you're using the symbol + vs *, and differnt symbols for the identity
but you could say "well you're just calling it * instead of +, and using 1 instead of 0, and the identity 0 in the first group is acting like the identity 1 in the second, and instead of calling it a you're calling it 1, but other than that it's the same group"
The set of all g such that mapping G to G x->gxg^(-1) is identity mapping is centre of G, right?
yes
Okay, thank you
For Ideals I,J and Ring R, does I+J=R imply that R is commutative?
Context: This is the assumption of an exercise, I+J=R to show that IJ=I /cap J
Unless its follows extremely directly, feel free to give me a nudge into the right direction
I don't think this result holds for non-commutative rings
Let L/K be finitely generated field extension. How do we show any intermediate subfield E is also finitely generated?
(Problem is, finitely generated field extensions can be infinite. If it wasn't, it's similar to how vector spaces work)
I see thanks, maybe we are assuming commutative Rings now but its weird because usually it was stated If its commutative/or Just a Ring
If you are actually fucking insane you can probably use that every intermediate subring is thus a field, and use valuation maps from the polynomial ring
I don't know what valuation maps are..
But I don't know what to do 😭
Almost all the field shit I have done uses absurd bullshit with polynomial rings that comes to the same conclusions but makes me look psychotic
Are these left ideals or right, or both sided
Usually when left/right is omitted I assume two sided
I think the counter example is when R is a two by two matrix ring, we take one ideal to be generated by one of the columns, and the other to be generated by one of the rows. Then they add to R, have non-trivial intersection (one of the corners), but multiply to give 0
I’m trying to think of ways that don’t use borderline insane methods
L and E are both K-vector spaces
E is a subspace of L and is thus of strictly smaller or equal dimension, hence is also finitely generated
does that work?
Cool counter example, thanks
Would you need to show that its basis must be of E-elements?
Yes
well yes... the basis of a vector space is a subset of that space
Yeah I guess that takes a bit of work but it can be ignored because I’m lazy
how does that take work? b in B, 1b = b in V?
I always get mixed up between module finite generation or algebra finite generation but for fields you don’t need to give a shit due to Noether normalization lmao
Fair
I unironically love the proof of Noether normalization
True!
It’s rather long so fair
Thing is, Q(x)/Q is finitely generated but has infinite dimension
right so you want algebraically generated
When I ask finitely generated I mean there is a finite generating set S= {a_1,a_2,...a_n}
yeah
noether normalisation should do that but lets not just throw that result at the problem
ugh but it's just so easy to jsut go "Krull dimension"
elaborate
”nor do I care because it’s alg geo”
krill dimension
Realized it doesn’t work as nicely as I thought
The superfield is of the form F[X_1…X_N]/M for maximal ideal M
yup
and if that subring does not contain M?
I presume you mean R/M cap R, that I can see
or do I
R/RM
By the isomorphism theorem of rings
Every subring of A/I is if the form R/I for R between I and A
honestly, try this
seems like the easiest way at this point
there's no alg geo involved at least
I need to go soon and my family is pissy because I am procrastinating
f^5 = (12)(354)
There was a mistake here, indeed f^5 was calculated wrongly. All other things written in the screenshot-within-a-screenshot are correct.
Professors are not magical
They make mistakes
As do you.
Note that they got the correct answer, everything else was just a typo.
yeah but... cmon now...
I will be seeing the disciplinary committee about this
and you will be summarily ignored
Oh I'm sorry do you never copy-paste and forget to change something 
no I type things up by hand each time
I honestly don't know what is a Valuation map actually
My only background is Ring Theory and the Galois theory
Whats the usual group theoretic progression after a basic abstract algebra course?
Like usually afterwards you can do commutative algebra and then algebraic geometry (atleast at our uni).
What would be the group theory focussed counter part?
Everyone can answer
It’s the name for the map from a polynomial ring when you “set the indeterminates”
I.e give them a value, valuation
commutative algebra then representation theory
branching off into lie group nonsense if you want or stuff like algebraic topology
or you can do things like combinatorial group theory
these are all intimately connected but have very different flavours
that being said, a basic abstract algebra course does not cover much group theory
Yeah we kinda did a little bit of everything from groups to galois theory in the abstract algebra course
Thanks for the answer
is there an algorithmic approach to finding the order of an element in the multiplicative congruence classes or do i have to keep on multiplying till i get e?
Ofc reducing the congruence class back down each time
Let K/Q be a Galois extension. Let L be the set of elements α ∈ K that are expressible in
terms of radicals. Show that L/Q is Galois and Gal(L/Q) is a solvable group.
I think i need to use the fact that quotients of a solvable group are solvable, but i’m not sure about much more than that. Any hints?
I would first show that L is a field
This follows because sums, differences, products and quotients of elements expressible by radicals are also expressible by radicals
Then show L/Q is a normal extension, i.e. every irreducible polynomial in Q[x] that has a root in L splits completely in L[x]
This holds because if α∈L, then all conjugates of α are also in L, since they differ from α only by roots of unity which are expressible by radicals
So the minimal polynomial of α splits in L[x]
L/Q is separable since char Q = 0
By the Fundamental Theorem of Galois Theory, Gal(K/L) is a normal subgroup of Gal(K/G) with quotient group isomorphic to Gal(L/Q)
Since K/L is abelian, Gal(G/L) is solvable
Quotients of solvable groups are solvable, so Gal(L/Q) ≅ Gal(K/Q)/Gal(K/L) is solvable too
why is K/L abelian?
Well, it's not necessarily an abelian extension
A solvable group can have non-abelian subgroups and quotients too
Only if all the factor groups Gi/Gi+1 are cyclic in the group called supersolvable, in which case all subgroups and quotients are cyclic hence abelian
so are you saying that the galois group with these properties is super solvable?
Nope
The problem states that K/Q is a Galois extension, and L is the subfield of K consisting of elements expressible by radicals over Q
The goal is to show L/Q is Galois with solvable (not necessarily supersolvable) Galois group Gal(L/Q)
A group G is called supersolvable if it has a normal series 1 = G0 ⊴ G1 ⊴ ··· ⊴ Gn = G such that each factor group Gi/Gi-1 is cyclic
Every supersolvable group is solvable, but the converse is not true in general
do we need K to contain roots of unity for this to work?
i’m not convinced that K needs to have the roots of unity in it
If K contains the roots of x^n - a it will also contain the nth roots of unity.
perfect that’s what i needed
how does this determine an isomorphism of real algebras?
is the basis for C + C not 4 dimensional?
Both sides are 2D C vector spaces and this is a C-linear isomorphism
if this is C-linear, why can't I do $(i, 0) \mapsto \frac{1}{2} (1 \otimes i - 1 \otimes i) = 0$?
bacono
then it's not an iso
Potat, hows C (x) C 2d as a C-space? I don't see what's happening here from this alone
So as a C-vector space it's still 1d
so I think this can only be the case over R
Yeah
So this is a tensor product over R, with the obvious left action of C, right?
That should work?
Yeah indeed, so they're both 2D C-spaces as potat says
okay perhaps i'm just having a bit of a morning
,ti bacono
This user hasn't set their timezone! Ask them to set it using ,ti --set.
its 3pm
what are you looking for
leave me alone
ah
okay but back to my point
like did we not just establish that C (x) C = C, so C + C cannot be C (x) C over C
one is dim 2 over C, the other is dim 1
i'm sorry if this is stupid i'm just not seeing it still
Nono as in, tensor product over R, not over C
So C (x)_R C rather than C (x)_C C
The former is 4d over R, and the latter is 1d over C
So if the former has a C-vector space structure, it is 2d.
(And indeed it has such a structure)
I nearly mentioned in my response that the tensor product must be over R oops should've done that
2+2 = 2*2
I won?
this is true
I guess you can just argue via Wedderburn's theorem as a meme proof
I learnt a new proof of Wedderburn's theorem like yesterday
Well "learnt" = i read it and have partially forgotten
I never remember anything so that's ok
sums up my degree 
So basically here you use the following fact:
If F(x_1, ..., x_n) and G(x_1, ..., x_n) are homogenous polynomials in n variables and are both of degree k < n, then if the equality of polynomials F(x_1, ..., x_n) = G(x_1, ..., x_n) holds for all selections of n-k variables x_i as 0, then F = G.
You said this can be proven by induction but I already don't see how to deal with n = 2, k = 1. In that case
F(x_1, 0) = G(x_1, 0) and F(0, x_2) = G(0, x_2).
What was it?
How the fuck am I supposed to interpret this?
$D$ is a domain such that for each pair $(a,b) \in {D^\times}^2$ there is a pair $(x,y) \in {D^\times}^2$ such that $ax = by$
\
Define relation $\sim$ on $D \times D^\times$ where $(a,b) \sim (c,d) \Leftrightarrow \forall (x,y) \in {D^\times}^2 \left[ ax = by \Leftrightarrow cx = dy \right]$
Is that what it's referring to?
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
Ok I guess we are fine with just the base case of n = 1. Now assuming the statement holds for all n less than m, in the case n = m we have that at least one of the equalities holds: F(0, x_2, ..., x_m) = G(0, x_2, ..., x_m), F(x_1, 0, x_3, ..., x_m) = G(x_1, 0, x_3, ..., x_m), ..., F(x_1, ..., x_{m-1}, 0) = G(x_1, ..., x_{m-1}, 0) by the inductive hypothesis, but I don't see how to get F = G from here. @dim widget
then idk what it's talking about in "independent of the choice of b_1, d_1"?
Nvm I figured it out 🙏
idk how to go about the first part
assuming sqrt(3) is in Q[sqrt(2)], then u^2 - 3 = 0 for some u in Q[sqrt(2)]. Every element of Q[sqrt(2)] is of the form a + sqrt(2)b, thus (a + sqrt(2))^2 - 3 = (a^2 + b^2 - 3) + 2ab sqrt(2) = 0, i.e sqrt(2) is rational. a contradiction
You can do it without using the first fact too: after a = sqrt(2)b + sqrt(3) you can just square both sides and isolate sqrt(6)
Or wait I guess this indirectly uses that
The next part uses something similar
these both seem like they are of the same form.
Let $R$ be a ring, $S$ a semigroup, and $I$ an ideal of $R$, then $R[S]/I[S] \cong (R/I)[S]$
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
A bit finnicky because R[S] usually doesn't have a multiplicative identity
If we have a ring R and a subring F that also happens to be a field, isn't it true that R is a F-vector space?
Yes, it’s actually an associative, unital F-algebra
For a commutative unital ring R, in general R[x1, ..., xn] is not an integral domain.
But some polynomials are cancellable. Is there a characterization for them?
Any time you have a ring homomorphism f: R --> S, any S module M becomes an R module by restriction of scalars: r•m = f(r)•m. This includes when you take M=S, which gives your example
I don't think I've ever seen people use "nonassociative algebras" lol I'm just a naive idiot
Well, lie algebras are quite common
Jordan!
Malcev!
Octonions!
Composition algebras over other fields!
and indeed I've seen "nonassociative algebras" used to describe them
I stand corrected then
at the terminology or at if anyone uses nonassociative algebras?
The octonions are probably the most common of the things I mentioned. But I only had occasion to learn about them (and Jordan algebras) due to Lie, so perhaps general composition algebras are more common
of course Lie is king
Lie is life
Lie is god
Lie is daddy.
ok
That being said in my ear "algebra = associative algebra" and if you mean nonassociative algebra you would say what (or specify further)
I'll be honest I just didn't think people used them. But I'm also very tired and not thinking straight
Let F be the additive group of all functions from R to R. Let H be the subgroup of constant functions. Then I need to find the subgroup of F which is isomorphic to F/H.
So if I map f->f -f(c) , where c is a real number then its kernel is H so the image set will be the set of all functions which have at least one root, right?
Should be the set of functions that vanish at c.
If you just consider having an arbitrary root it won't be closed under addition.
Is there a more intuitive proof of the following fact: x_1^k + ... + x_n^k a non zero-divisor / cancellable element in R[x_1, ..., x_n], where R is a commutative unital ring.
The proof I have in mind uses that
- Monic polynomials in
R[x]are cancellable R[x_1, ..., x_n] = (R[x_1, ..., x_{n-1}])[x_n]
An element is cancelable if it's not a zero divisor.
So just directly calculating the multiplication with another polynomial and noticing it's not zero should be enough.
Yes, but it works for all c, right
For some reason I can't manually show that last part.
To me it looks like there's room for cancellation
Like in (x1 + x2)(x1*x2^2 - x1^2*x2), a cancellation occurs
(thought the product is still nonzero)
Say wlog xn is one of the variables that appear in f. Then f has a term of the form xn^r times something, where r is of largest degree. Then the product has a term xn^r+k times something. Nothing else can cancel that since r was the largest degree of xn in f.
(I guess this is just writing out the proof that monic polynomials are cancelable)
Ohhh I see
Nice
If R is the ring of symmetric polynomials over Z (i.e. a subring of Z[x1, ..., xn]), then how can I show that the polynomials f_i = x1^i + ... + xn^i don't generate R ?
so like I wanna show {f_1, f_2, f_3, ...} is not a spanning set
Got it, thank you
Model theory 
Don't forget poisson Algebras also!
Well technically they are part associated
I think for you to understand i just have to rephrase what you're saying. So you have two linear polynomials $P(X, Y), Q(X, Y)$ which are homogenous (so they have no constant term). You know that $P(0, Y) = Q(0, Y), P(X, 0) = Q(X, 0)$. If you write P(X, Y) = aX + bY, Q(X, Y) = cX + dY do you see why they are equal?
missa inte chansen
Let U be the multiplicative group { z in C | | z | = 1 } , I need a hint for which group is isomorphic to U/<-1> ?
is one-sided normality (gN subset Ng for all g in G) a weaker condition than normality? clearly they're equivalent for finite groups
i don't really know any nonabelian infinite groups besides the free group and i can't think of any counterexamples there
Well, try sketching it out
if gN ⊂ Ng then gNg^-1 ⊂ N and N ⊂ g^-1Ng. these inclusions hold for all g so ye
oh my god that's literally trivial
ok i have a little egg on my face hehe
i'll blame it on it being 5 am
thanks for your help!
I don't know how to do it
I have question regarding proving that lcm(a,b)*gcd(a,b) = ab im learining some new notations to writing proves so i proved it using ord_p(a) notation
but im not really sure if its a true prove
though
use the first isomorphism theorem
i said if a or b = 0 then its true
simple
and then i did the following
here is ggd = gcd
and kgv = lcm
but it seems a little bit not true except if its all the time {ord_{p}(a)} < ord_{p}(b)}
it's fine
do you mean that the prove is correct
yes
but i have feeling that its only true if all the time ord{p}{a} < ord{p}{b}
for every single prime number
min{x,y}+max{x,y} is always x+y
how is that true can you give a concret example
I mean, if x<y, then it is x+y
and if x>=y, then it is y+x
that is true
let me just rant about the notation ord_p
that's normally the multiplicative order modulo p
and the p-adic valuation is v_p
that is true btw
well we did not study anything yet about the p_adic numbers
i tried to take the min or the max and i came at the same number
that was not about p-adic numbers
the thing that you used in that exercise is called p-adic valuation
well im not really sure what does p-adic valulation means
i have one comment regarding this
well here the result is true only if all x > y or x < y or x = y that is true but here again its only if all x or y
but i mean for example the example i provided above well we see that the number on left and right = 6 sure
but if i pick like one time min order randomly like one time from right and then left i will get another number
I am not sure about what is G_1 such that U-> G_1 surjective with kernel <-1>
Does anyone know of a universal property that characterises the matrix ring functor? I can't put my finger on what it might be.
I don't think it's left adjoint to anything particularly obvious, which would be my first instinct.
you can force one by joining the universal property of polynomial rings with the universal property of the quotient by describing the matrix ring as such a quotient but that seems really lame
Yeah it just feels cheap
maybe if you actually work out which maps factor it's nice but I am not paid enough to do so
Well, if anything neat comes to mind feel free to ping me. Honestly I wouldn't be surprised if there's nothing super nifty
No, it doesn't have to be always v_p(a) < v_p(b), or always v_p(a) = v_p(b), or always v_p(a) > v_p(b)
the point is that min{x,y} + max{x,y} = x+y is always true, regardless of the relation between x and y
so yeah, it might happen that v_2(a)<v_2(b), while v_3(a)>v_3(b), but that's not relevant
you want to find a morphism f with kernel <-1>
then U/ker(f) is isomorphic to Im(f)
i see but can you give me a concret example because i really do not see how its not relevant
try a = 2^3 * 3^8 * 5 * 7^6 and b = 2^5 * 3 * 7^6
The proof you had in mind seems best anyway
It's on the Stacks project
sure then min{a,b} = {3+1+0+6} max_{a,b} = 5 + 8 + 3 + 6 , v_p(a) = 3 + 8 + 1 + 6 v_p(b) = 5 + 1 + 6
@winged void why are you adding them?
like i took the least power of prim between the two
2^3 is in a and 2^5 is in b so the least is 3
this is the definition right this is what i used to prove the question about gcd * lcm
that is actually what i did but i wrote not good notation indeed
in the example I gave above you have
min{v_2(a),v_2(b)}=min{3,5}=3
max{v_2(a),v_2(b)}=max{3,5}=5
min{v_3(a),v_3(b)}=min{8,1}=1
max{v_3(a),v_3(b)}=max{8,1}=8
yes sure i found that
but how is that going to prove that min{a,b} + max{a,b} = a+b
i do not see it
that was not supposed to be a proof for that
the proof is merely done by inspecting cases a<=b and a>b, as we did before with x and y
the proof uses the identity for x=v_p(a) and y=v_p(b)
i do not get it im not really sure
if x<=y, then min{x,y}=x and max{x,y}=y
if x>y, then min{x,y}=y and max{x,y}=x
No, it doesn't have to be always v_p(a) < v_p(b), or always v_p(a) = v_p(b), or always v_p(a) > v_p(b)
the point is that min{x,y} + max{x,y} = x+y is always true, regardless of the relation between x and y
so yeah, it might happen that v_2(a)<v_2(b), while v_3(a)>v_3(b), but that's not relevant here you said this.
like you have mentioned that
exactly but then the v_2(a) < v_2(b) while v_3(a) > v_3(b) is relevant
right
it's not
i do not know im not seeing how its not relevant
because you first choose
x=v_2(a) and y=v_2(b) and apply min{x,y}+max{x,y}=x+y
and then choose
x=v_3(a) and y=v_3(b) and apply min{x,y}+max{x,y}=x+y
and the identity is true regardless of x<y, x=y or x>y... that's why I say it's not relevant
oh i see right now
i do not know what i was thinking
sorry
both of them are going to be choosen
either way
so order does not matter
Yes, but that's a question what is im(f)
@crystal vale did you find f? it is easy to find Im(f) afterwards
No I didn't find f
you want a function that sends 1 and -1 to 1
But to which group? Like what will be the structure of the Group
the group was U={ z in C : |z|=1 } with multiplication
and you search f:U-->U a homomorphism
with ker(f)={-1,1}
But how do we know that f: U -> G is homomorphism with kernel<-1> then G = U ?
it's not necessary for G to be U
Yes
in my example I have in mind it is
So how do I find that G ?
choose f(z)=z^2 and see its image
in fact it is better to think about a mapping first, and then determine the image
so f:U-->unknown
But how do I guess an unknown group?
Got it, thank you ❤️
in this particular example, since U contains complex numbers, my idea was to have something like f:U-->C
Okay, thank you
Ye I was just sure a “direct” proof along the lines of jagr’s existed, I just couldn’t finish it
Is it easier to prove that every automorphism of a polynomial ring fixes the subring it is a poly ring over through generating sets or through the universal property
I'm not sure I believe this. R[x_1, x_2], the map swapping x_1 and x_2
i MISPOKE
Fixes the ring it's a poly ring over
try the universal property on this one
Wdym 'fixes indeterminates'?
Assume $R[X_1...X_N] = P$. Let $i$ be the injection of $R \hookrightarrow P$, and $\alpha$ be an automorphism of $P$. Thus $\alpha \circ i = \beta$ is a monomorphism of $R$ into $P$. Thus there is a unique morphism $\beta^\prime$ such that $\beta^\prime(X_n) = \beta(X_n) = \alpha(X_n)$, and $\beta^\prime \circ i = \beta \circ i$
Foghorn (*BWAAAA-UNNNGH*)
I don't believe this.
i misstated it
and didn't feel like correcting the message
yes but i mean with your updated statement
there's an automorphism of the polynomial ring R[x] over R = Z[y] given by permuting x,y
which clearly doesn't fix R
ah, i see
the universal property is about R-algebra maps. But then your qustion would become a tautology
yeah actually good point
ah true
are these ring automorphisms or R-algebra automorphisms
then uhhh I don't buy it either
extend any automorphism of R
yeah for ring autos it's wrong, for R-alg autos it's a tautology
uwu
is there like a generalized version that encapsulates both. One has associativity and unitality as a requirement, the other just needs to fix R
AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA
one of them is about normal rings, and the other
Ugh I am confused by a statement in a paper and not even convinced this statement is true after having talked to others
wait can I even draw the triangle from memory?
ok I can
I wont post the full question but generally, If I have a field F and a ring R, and I need to show that there is no ring isomorphism between the two would it suffice to show that the number of units in F and R are different? I'm trying to find a proof that ring isomorphisms preserve the number of units and I cant find one
- Yes, it does suffice
- Have you tried proving it yourself?
I havent give it a red hot crack yet, but I am super busy so was trying to find a source for a proof I can study. My main issue was, I am using the lack of invertibility of all elements in R to prove that there exists no ring isomorphism. 'RING isomorphism' means that the isomorphism doesnt have to preserve the properties of a field ie invertibility of all elements so using the lack of invertibility is not correct because all rings lack invertibility. Do you know what I'm saying. Perhaps I need to review the definition of ring isomorphism.
Yes, because the key fact is that ring isomorphisms preserve units. If φ: A → B is a ring isomorphism between rings A and B, then φ restricts to a group isomorphism between the group of units A* of A and the group of units B* of B
I don't see how invertibility is not a part of the structure of a ring
Yeah actually my brain was malfunctioning lol
But my main problem is now constructing/finding a proof that a ring isomorphism preserves units. Anyone know a good source
You should be able to write down a 1-liner
Consider the image of aa^-1 under a ring hom
I could give you an example proof, but then I would have to write so much, and on the phone it's crap
Maybe this will help you
If a is a unit, then
1 = ||f(1)|| = ||f(a a^-1)|| = ||f(a) f(a^-1)||
Hence f(a) is a unit.
what I ended up with is: consider a field F and ring R, if there exists a ring isomorphism between the two then for any b in R there exists an a in F such that f(a)=b.
Then f(1) = 1 -----> f(a a^-1) = 1 ------> f(a a^-1) = f(a) f(a^-1) -------> b b^-1 = 1. Therefore the ring isomorphism must preserve invertibility
Is this legit?
Very legit
Thanks for the help everyone
Lengthen the arrows more to improve the proof
What are the finite groups G with the property that the sum of orders of all elements ≠ e equals to the order of G
Uhhhh quite literally none other than Z/2Z
The former is bounded below by 2(|G|-1) > |G| for every value of |G| not equal to 2
Can you give me a proof please?
I was thinking about class equation
I literally gave a proof
In the next message
just beacuse every non-identity element has order at least 2, so $\sum_{g \in G \setminus e} |g| \geq \sum_{g \in G \setminus e} 2 = 2(|G| - 1)$
Ultimate Chad
So the tightness condition is you need 2(|G|-1) = |G| so |G| = 2 and every element to have order 2, but the first condition already tells you just Z/2
a poly irreducible over Z_p for some p is irreducible over Z
is there an analogy for prime ideals
I need an example where gof is monomorphism but g not.
So if I take f: Z_3 -> Z_6 such that x-> 4x and g: Z_6 -> Z_6 such that x -> 4x then gof=f and f is injective but g is not injective.
Is it correct?
if g is injective on the image of f, the g o f is injective too
Yes, but here I need an example for g is not injective but gof is injective so is it correct?
every finitely generated and algebraic extension is necessarily finite
is this true?
can't think of a c/e
Try thinking about the simple case first. If an extension is generated by a single algebraic element, is it then finite?
Then note that ||F(x, y) = F(x)(y)||
so this is true?
It's true
oh duhh
degree of minimal polynomial is precisely the dimension
was overthinking
ah but calculating the dimension can get wonky, since the minimal polynomial can change at every extension
is this correct thinking @rocky cloak
The minimal polynomial can change, but it can only get smaller. (And either way it's definitely finite)
But yes, you're thinking correctly
Hey just wanna verify if I have a ring S which is a subring of a ring R then does it follow that there is a ring of the form S/J which is a subring of R/J
When can this go wrong
There is indeed such a ring, though you might want to describe it as S/(J \cap S), since J isn't necessarily contained in S.
You can think of it like
S -> R is a ring homomorphism and R -> R/J is a ring homomorphism, so S -> R/J is a ring homomorphism, and then the image will be a subring.
Hmmm what if I had something like k[aaa] as a subring of k[a,b,c] then considered the ideal J=<bc=1> in k[a,b,c] then does the ring k[aaa]/J exist as a subring of k[a,b,c]/J?
This is a fine subring?
Yes, or rather J is not contain in k[a^3] but if you take the intersection with J and mod that out, you get a subring.
k[a, b, c]/J is just k[a, b^±], so the resulting subring is just k[a^3] again (because J cap k[a^3] is 0)
I want to find the minimal polynomials over Q of e^{2 i pi/p} and e^{i pi / p} for primes p and odd primes p respectively. my approach would be using cyclotomic polynomials, but we haven't covered those so I'm wondering, is there another way using field theory (without galois as well)? or would it just boil down to re-proving cyclotomic polynomial properties without calling it that?
If D and D_1 are division rings such that there is a non - zero homomorphism of rings f: D->D_1 then char D = Char D_1.
So since mapping is non-zero therefore it is injective mapping.
Let Char D_1 = p then for any d in D f(p•d) = p•f(d) =0 and since it is injective p•d=0 so char D =p
Is it correct when Char D_1 is prime ?
What does it mean by the epimorphic image of a prime ideal, does it if here R to S homomorphism then that mapping is surjective?
The image of a prime ideal under an epimorphism
lol there’s epimorphisms of rings that aren’t surjective
You can say it’s essentially surjective tho
I like putting the fear of god into people studying ring theory
Yeah usually the prime ring maps
{0,2} is the prime ideal in Z_4, right?
{0,2} = (2) in Z/4Z
So (Z/4Z)/(2Z/4Z) ~= Z/2Z so yeah it’s prime
If I define mapping Z to Z/4Z then image of prime ideal of Z , im(3Z) is not prime ideal in Z/4Z, right, and also 3Z is maximal ideal so it's image is not maximal in Z/4Z, right?
Well, the first one is a root of (x^p - 1)/(x-1), which is a cyclotomic polynomial. You can directly prove it's irreducible using ||chance of variables|| and ||Eisenstein||.
The second one is similar, being a root of (x^p + 1)/(x + 1).
Any localization would do, which makes sense, since a localization of rings is an embedding of affine schemes.
Yeah. Oh
The image is everything, so yes. Not prime, not maximal.
Thank you
Thank you so much!
Are euclidean domains important in number theory and AG (the only follow-up subjects to ring theory I know of)? My introductory book doesn't define them which seems suspicious
Not really, but ig they're part of the story of algebraic number theory
I don't think so. Euclidean domains are pretty rare, so it's not that often you need to talk about them in general.
But I guess the fact that k[x] is euclidean is important for Galois theory.
Let f : R -> S be a monomorphism of commutative domains (here domains means no zero divisors not necessary unit exits). Let Q(R) and Q(S) be the field of fractions of R and S respectively. Show that induced map Q(f) : Q(R) -> Q(S) by a/x -> f(a)/f(x) is monomorphism. And if Q(f) is an isomorphism then f is isomorphism.
I have shown that Q(f) is well defined and monomorphism but I have not an idea how to show the isomorphism part, any idea?
I have one idea, let s≠0 in S then there exists an element in Q(R) such that f(a/x)= s^2/s, it imply that f(a)/f(x) = s^2/s which gives us sf(x) = f(a) but it doesn't give any useful results
What terminology is used for the set {a/b such that a and b are in Z and p does not b, where p is a prime number}
Is this set the same as the localisation of Z at pZ ?
Yes
Thank you, any hint for the monomorphism question?
you've done the hard part of the monomorphism question
like, what's the obvious extension of f - that one works
maybe think about the field of fractions as the localisation away from zero if you know about the universal property of that functor
If Q is the prime ideal of R then if QR_P = R_P implies Q is not a subset of P, where R_P is localisation of R at prime ideal P.
Let Q a subset of P then since QR_P is subset of R_P but for r which is not in P then r/xr is in R_P but is not in QR_P, it contradiction.
Is it correct?
No I don't know about functor
And for Q is not a subset of P implies QR_P = R_P. Since QR_P is a subset of R_P. Now let a/x in R_P then since Q is not a subset of P there exists q in Q not in P then aq/xq in QR_P which is same as a/x so R_P is subset of QR_P.
Hence QR_P = R_P.
Is it correct?
I'm confused what is the sign of a permutation s of a finite set in Sn.
(132)=(12)(23) so I'm comfortable calling this permutation even. Is there a convention where it makes sense to assign sign(132)=1?
literally every convention will say sign(132) = 1
There’s no convention for the signature, it’s completely canonical.
How are you defining the sign of a permutation
All (standard lol) definitions agree
What questions might a rings and modules exam ask for Jordan normal form
I guess "prove that Jordan normal form exists" might be a reasonable one
Besides computing it
Prof said he was giving us a 3x3
So I dunno what would be entailed besides computing it
?
You're exactly right. I mixed up sign with the two equivalence classes of permutations lol
Trying an exercise from Rotman about group actions.
let p be a prime and X a finite G-set with |G| = p^n and p not dividing |X|. Then there is an element of x fixed by every element of G.
Proof: say $x \in X$. Then we know $|O(x)| = [G:G_x]$ and G is finite, so $|O(x)| \cdot |G_x| = p^n$ . This means the orbit and stabilizer of x both have orders being powers of p. Since x was arbitrary and the set of orbits ${O_j}$ partitions X, we can write $|X| = \sum O_j$. However, by assumption p doesn’t divide the order of X so one of these orbits must have order 1, and the claim is satisfied.
Right?
Ryemo🌾
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
What’s causing the italics 🤔
RAAAAAHHHHH SYLOW
accidental mathmode
Sylow theorems haven’t been introduced yet
it's related
actually a part of sylow
anyway
yeah that proof's right
💪
This I think is a part of proving Sylow 2?
well a related notion using basically the exact same proof
I am wondering if |Gal(Q(2^1/4 i)/Q)|=4, I find it by irreducible polynomial x^4-2 over Q, but can not find exact 4 elements in this galois group, I only figure out identity and 2^1/4 i ->-2^1/4 i, what about the other two?
2^1/4 and -2^1/4 i think
Cyclic extension
2^1/4 {1, i, -1, -i}
Yes
Italics from the p^n in your quote
2^1/4 is not in Q( 2^1/4 i) right, why it can be mapped?
and also, do you mean 2^1/4 i map to these four elements?
Hello! I'm planning an activity for my undergrad abstract algebra students and I'd like to make sure I have some interesting examples.
I have this thing I introduce students to called the "algebra game", which is where you take a given number and your goal is to get to zero using the following operations:
- Add, subtract, or multiply by an integer other than zero
- Raise to a positive integer power
- Store or retrieve a result
The idea is that doing this generates a polynomial in Z[x] that has that number as a root, hence showing that the number is algebraic. For example, if they're given √2 + √3, they could square it, subtract 5, square it again, and subtract 24 to get to 0, which shows that √2 + √3 is a root of (x² - 5)² - 24.
However, I've previously had trouble when teaching this lesson with numbers with mixed roots such as √2 + ³√2. How might one generate a polynomial with that as a root? Do I need to add rules to my game to make that work?
nope, that'll have a minimal polynomial over Q - and thus over Z by just multiplying out denominators
I'll check what it is
x^6-6x^4-4x^3+12x^2-24x-4 apparently
Is that reachable with those operations though?
If you have store and retrieve yeah I guess
But it would be nicer if it was more akin to what I did with √2 + √3
The store and retrieve are very powerful
Do this, do that, get things to cancel out
I would prefer to not have to use store and retrieve
But I don't know if I can do without it
But also that’ll make a disgusting expression because degree 6
yeah I'm not sure how you'd do it with a single value
the fact that we have coprime exponents on the x's makes me doubt it can be done
Yeah idk if it’s possible without memory
maybe starting with x^6 stuff could get you somewhere, but that’s also abhorrent and you’ll certainly not get the minimal poly
Any suggestions for other modifications to the "game" that could make it work?
Actually, come to think of it, Horner's method should show that technically it IS possible with just a single number
which one's that
So perhaps multiplying by the original number could be allowed as an operation
Synthetic division
I'll google
ahhh those geezers
Disgusting
you'd need to store the x though wouldn't you?
This does use remembering x yes
Yeah, but just the x
true, a big improvement
Which is just restrictive enough to be interesting
it's actually really computationally efficient if you need to evalaute some fixed polynomial loads of times
That is a significant weakening but still 
I do not base my aesthetic standards on mere efficiency 
it is aesthetic lil nerd
Ok fusion system enjoyer
:itsmid:... just take the L lil bro...
Gm
Okay that's probably good enough :V
Thanks for letting me hash some of this out
Troll them with a hard to recognize transcendental
Oh I'm gonna give them π at the end. XD
Nah that’s too common
For you maybe!
I doubt most of my students know what a transcendental number is
It's not commonly taught before this point tbh
Ok fair, but numberphile and such online things often talk about pi trivia
it is in any... saved by the bell 🔔
Or at least if it is, it's like a footnote of a footnote
Ye, I wouldn’t expect it to be taught, but I would expect them to have heard about it 
uwu
Tbh like
I've not encountered transcendental numbers at all in ug curriculum lol
Besides by omission in talking about algebraic numbers
did you not do galois theory
That’s because we know like 4 theorems about them
saved by the bell 🔔
Lol
Algebraic numbers of course have come up tons
But like not a single proved example of a transcendental number has come up lol
We're gonna try to get a glimpse of Galois theory at the end
Though it is very cool
Nice
I'm trying to work up to just like a baby version of it
moderators he is making things up again
Witt vectors and Artin-Schreier-Witt theory
Introduce Grothendieck galois theory first
the nG self react
introduce galois cohomology first
Yeah
That's a special case if u do étale cohomology
Can I get a hint on how to generalise CRT for arbitrary commutative rings from two ideals to n? I can't show that for ideals I,J,K, pairwise coprime, we have IJK is contained in contains IJ cap K. I need this to show R/(I cap J cap K)=R/(IJK). (I used n=3 here to be concise)
Also just to make sure... $\bQ(\sqrt2+\sqrt3)=\bQ(\sqrt2,\sqrt3)$ right?
DM Ashura
Clearly including both √2 and √3 gives you √2+√3
I think this is correct
you can get a sqrt(6) by just squaring sqrt(2)+sqrt(3) and subtracting some rational junk
then do sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)-sqrt(6) to get a sqrt(2)
ah but there's a root(3) still in there
ah wait, sqrt(6)/(sqrt(2)+sqrt(3)) = sqrt(6)*(sqrt(2)-sqrt(3))/ -1 = uhhh
3sqrt(2)-2sqrt(3)?
Oh riiiight I forgot about dividing!
Dividing will give you a √2 - √3 with some coefficient
That does it!
then add sqrt(2)+sqrt(3) until u only get one of the mfs
Yup, perfect
nice that this should generalise to Q(sqrt(n+m)) for coprime m, n - I think
I can't do the bezout's lemma in my head
Alternatively, Q(sqrt 2 + sqrt 3) is a subfield of Q(root 2, root 3), and is degree 4
And the whole [A:C]=[A:B][B:C] thing
it's not obvious to me why it's degree 4 so I ignore such statements
Well, minimal poly is degree 4
true!
LMAO
nvmnvm
ye, do note that {y} is independent as long as ry = 0 iff r = 0
but that's kinda degenerate obviously
wait why
well, ry = 0 -> r = 0
what if R is not an integral domain and you look at R as a R module over itself
therefore
then some single elements will suck in this regard
having n independent elements means you have a submodule of R^n, does that make sense?
(assuming unital whatever idc, if your ring isn't unital seek professional help)
lmao
do you see why
no
your saying those n elements form a submodule?
of R^n?
I don't really follow the statement itself
I'm saying they generate a submodule of M that's just R^n
shrubmodule
take Z/4 as a Z-module, 1 + 3 = 0, so 1 and 3 are not independent
also 1 is not independent since $4 \cdot 1$ is 0 (ignore, i misread the message and texit won't let me remove)
|smay⟩
for example
unrelated i like ur banner
oh wait
oh my god i misread your definition, and then thought it was wrong, and then read the rest of your conversation
wait sharp what are you saying here
this doesn't match with the definition
r and y can be nonzero
and ry can be zero
in M an R-module
yeah it does? if ry = 0, then r needs to be 0?
no it doesn't
ack
They say a_i y_i = 0 in the image not a_i = 0 
if it's just a_i = 0 then r = 0 iff ry = 0 tho yeah?
OKAY, i think i get where the def is coming from.
this is kind of dirty, yes it suggests that every singleton is independent
the evil vile clutches of zero divisors
Which since I have realized I'm blind, ry = 0 does indeed imply ry = 0 so {y} is independent for y =/= 0
note that this doesn't recover linear independence for vector spaces since if you have a field, and M is a vector space, then {0} is independent but not LI
oh wtf lol
no it says y_i =/= 0
yep
gerat
okay, then actually this definition is fine. you can think of examples, just use your intuition about FG abelian groups and vector spaces
where if you have two things in the same summand you won't get independence
I am blind for not noticing the a_i y_i = 0 rather than a_i = 0, but yeah it's just counting generators (So <y_1, .. y_n> = R^n/something qotienting each coordinate separately). If you require exactly a_i = 0 and R is unital, this asks for a copy of R^n rather than merely a quotient
you really do recover linear independence from this definition when R is a field
you can do this for general rings
indeed
if you have something like A x B, then a in A and b in B nonzero has {a, b} independent
how do you see then it generated R^n
well, the idea is that if \sum a_i y_i = 0 implies a_i = 0, \sum Ry_i = \bigoplus Ry_i, and each Ry_i ~= R as an R-module
If we just know each a_i y_i = 0, then the submodule generated by the y_i is still \bigoplus Ry_i
and, as you said earlier, is R/Ann(m) or wtv
They define local homomorphism between local rings such as non-unit maps to non-unit.
I want an example, homomorphism between local rings which is not local homomorphism.
Any hint?
If I define mapping from Z to Z such that x maps to 2x then it is not homomorphism but it is ring homomorphism when we consider Z as Lie ring, right?
is there a nice way to classify all prime ideals in Z[x]?
using projection map Z[x] to Z[x]/(x)
and using the fact for a surjective ring hom the preimage of an ideal is an ideal.
prime ideal is prime ideal
preimage^
For preimage of an ideal is ideal, surjective is not necessary right?
for a surjectvie map there is a bijection between those prime ideals in the domain which contain the kernel and those prime ideals in the image
Given integers $a,b$ not necessarily coprime, I'm trying to construct the formula $\varphi(ab) = \varphi(a)\varphi(b) \frac{\gcd(a,b)}{\varphi(\gcd(a,b))}$ by constructing an exact sequence
$$
0 \to \mathbb{Z}/\gcd(a,b)\mathbb{Z} \to U_{ab} \to U_a \times U_b \to U_{\gcd(a,b)} \to 0.
$$
I've got the map $f: U_{ab} \to U_a \times U_b$ by $x \mapsto (x \mod a, x \mod b)$ and I've shown that the kernel of this map is indeed the non-trivial group on the left. I'm trying to show the cokernel is indeed the non-trivial group on the right. I'm kind of stuck though. I was trying to show the image of $f$ ends up in the kernel of the map to $U_{\gcd(a,b)}$, but I'm not sure how to do that.
IAmDerek
Worth mentioning, the map I found on the left is $x \mapsto 1 + lcm(a,b)x$
IAmDerek
And I think the map on the right is just (x,y) -> xy mod gcd(a,b)
I think the usual way is to think of preimages over the inclusion
Z -> Z[x]
For any prime P, P \cap Z is a prime ideal. If it's equal to (p) for some p, then this corresponds to an ideal in (Z/p)[x]. So this is either just the ideal (p) or (p) plus a polynomial irreducible modulo p.
If the intersection with Z is (0), then the ideal doesn't contain Z\{0}, so corresponds to an ideal in the localization Q[x], so is either 0, or an irreducible polynomial in Q[x].
This only sees some of them
For any UFD R the point is that prime ideals in R[X] are (like jagr has said) either (p) for p a prime of R (you could call these horizontal ideals) (q(x)) an irreducible polynomial in R[X] (vertical prime ideals), or a combination (p, q(x)) with q(x) irreducible mod p (the closed points of Spec(R[X]))
That all maximal ideals containing a nontrivial prime ideal of R are of the third type is obvious since R/p[X] is a Euclidean domain
Then one can classify the rest by looking at the prime ideals of Frac(R)[X] using that R[X] is a UFD
Inverse image of a prime ideal is a prime ideal in R if both R and S are commutative, how can I show that inverse image of prime ideal is proper ideal of R?
If you tell me your rings aren't unital I'm gonna have an aneurysm
Anyway, just look at 1.
No it's not given that it has unity
AGgaghaghga the pain... the pain in my brian ahdhdad
Anyway, then it's obviously false. Look at the inclusion 2Z into Z.
Wow it's almost as if nonunital rings suck
Switch textbooks
I can't
Wasn’t a question.
Yes 2Z is prime in Z but not in 2Z, right?
Last I checked
2Z isn't a ring so we can't have ideals surely
Do you think abstract algebra is weirdly placed? Give 5-yo kids some tokens and ask them to make addition/multiplication table with those tokens, then maybe add some more rules over time, then I think they could make groups/fields/etc.
it's a non-unital ring
I'm sure they could, but you're framing this as though the main goal of the education system is to teach people abstract algebra.
As an early university course you reach the people that want/need to learn it, and you still reach them quite early.
It’s a nonunital ring, which notknow is somehow pursuing.
And it is increasing human suffering across the globe
It's not about teaching people AA, it's about how the subject seems to be quite orthogonal to subjects taught in grade schools and so on... but well... you could argue quite the same about algorithm courses.
Yeah, there are lots of subjects that are fairly independent of what you learn in grade school, but I'm not sure that's really counts as an argument for introducing that topic in grade school.
Perhaps the argument might be that learning them can kinda improve abstract reasoning skill?
Well the issue is that I don't believe in nonunital rings.
They don't exist
You and me both
nonunital rings exist, they're just not rings
I'm on the fence about rings with enough idempotents.
u can never have enough
lol
We tried this a few decades ago. Apparently, it worked for very few people.
what does this mean
Like I'm not sure if rings with enough idempotents quite qualify to being called rings. But they're up there.
And a ring has enough idempotents if there are orthogonal idempotents with R = directsum Re
Ah okay thanks that was going to be my question
so for a commutative ring is this just the same as having a non-trivial idempotent
since like R = Re (+) R(1-e)
No, like it's a weaker version of being unital
Oh wait orthogonal
If you have 1, then R = R1
I’m a chmonkeyyyyyyyy
:3
I just… don’t think about what channel I’m in when I type tbh
:3
in French and some English schools basic abstract algebra is part of the grade school curriculum if you specialize in math.
I wasn't aware that we could take aa at A level 😅
I thought some people did! maybe im wrong
People in this discord are doing aa at GCSE 
there are three main exam boards in the UK, and it's only in one (maybe two?) of them
so it's not exactly common
ah okay I don't actually know that much about the education system in the sceptered isle
I went to the airport in manchester once
one of the darkest times in my life
I'm very sorry to hear that
Shite airport tbh
I'd say it is one of our better ones tbh.
glorious newcastle airport
You guys are able to leave that shithole?
newcastle is the shining jewel of europe
Polynomials over a PID don't necessarily form a PID because, for example, (2,x) is not principal in Z[x], right?
Yes
Thanks
I have my final later today so I will likely be asking lots of stupid questions here till then out of nervousness
you say stupid questions, I say easy answers to boost my social credit score in Jagr2808's algebraic utopia
they are never a PID unless the PID you start with is a field
This is good to know
newcastle has, unfortunately, a very nice airport
there's a wetherspoons past security iirc
or just public money in general
as long as you stay inside the city centre
Pog
least alcoholic britbonger
Not sure if I've ever been to Newcastle lol
don't bother
even just more generally compared to the stories I've heard from many years ago
even some places outside of the centre are nice, but nothing south of the tyne lol
You're probably right, but there is a stark contrast between the city centre and everywhere else, especially gateshead lmfao
The non-unit condition is necessary because otherwise you could divide with remainder to get a gcd, which would be a generator for the ideal, right?
Well if it is a unit you get the whole ring
NOTHING south of the tyne is pretty huh?
YUP
you're about to get so owned. what about bath huh?
"baf" more like barf hahahah
Like if u is a unit of R then (u,x) contains R and x hence R[x]
let's not forget that you pronounce bath like a southerner. you are an impostor
Sorry yes my message wasn't any good
Dw
I don't, where have you gotten this idea from
i've literally heard you say it
There's also the fun fact that if R is noetherian then dim R[x] = 1 + dim R
What I meant was that if you take (f,g) with f,g of degree >= 1 you can divide with remainder to get a gcd and the ideal is principal
I say all of my "-ath"s northern
Hm not sure what you mean
Why would you be able to divide like that
Is this Krull dim?
yur
Yh
afaik we only have unique division with remainder in the case F[x], f a field
I think it holds for R[x_1, ..., x_n] as well u just replace 1 with n
although that might just be fields
Well that follows from what we're doing
Yeah I may be confused
Sure but that immediately follows by induction
I probably was thinking of F[x]
Dw
oh yeah lol
R[x_1,x_2] = R[x_1][x_2] moment
Stuck on some AG rn ugh
what a surprise
all euclidean domains are principal ideal domains by your exact reasoning
ironically, your assertion works if a, b are degree 1
same but alg top
Wait isn't this true
yes
yes, it's true - that's why I said it
But I thought my reasoning was flawed
Society if it was:
actually @south patrol while we're here, why is $H^p(S^{2n+1}, H^q(U(n); \bZ)) \cong H^p(S^{2n+1}; \bZ) \otimes H^q(U(n); \bZ)$? My source just says it's because $S^{2n+1}$ is simply connected but I don't get it!
Wew Lads Tbh
Universal coefficient theorem
I don't really know why simply connected is relevant there, rather it is because the stuff is free
I knew it was going to be something obvious
Nice
and that was the hint
Yeah like this is always what u want to be the case for the spectral sequence I'd say lol
Fortunately I mean
Cohomology of the sphere is simple enough that you can just do this by hand though without UCT
what is U(n)
the topological group
the relevance of simply connectedness is that you want to know that the cohomology of the fibers of what you are considering is a constant local system on the base
it has nothing to do with the isomorphism you are asking about
oh ok
They are homotopy equivalent
mfs when KAN
As witnessed by uh
you KAN understand this
Gram Schmidt
as witnessed by uhhh something something equivalence of representations something something homotopy class of maps out of BU(n) something something yoneda
Lol
No it is just that Gram schmidt is a continuous ting
Gives u a deformation retraction
polynomials are NOT continous... they would never...
The point is that if you take the subgroup $B_+$ of matrices which are upper triangular with $R_{> 0}$ on the diagonal then $U(n) \cdot B_+$ is all of $Gl_n$
as Potato is saying this is a fancy rephrasing of Graham Schmidt
Are you implying that this isn't true if R is not Noetherian? And do you have an example of that? Sounds pretty sick.
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
Uhh not off the top of my head but tteg will knowi m sure
it's going to be something stupid with infinite krull dimension
yes indeed
Well that'd be pointless right lol
counter example nevertheless
Not under the convention oo + 1 = oo
unless there's noetherian rings with infinite krull dimension
P sure there are fin dim counterexamples
Counterexampletheless
But if you have infinite Krull dimension then it's obviously true
There are
Im actyually struggling to come up with a counterexample but I know this is a known issue
Ordinal valued krull dimension 
probably it has to be non-excellent
Oh yeah this is fun
So I think u always have a bound like
dim A + 1 <= dim A[x] <= 1 + 2 dim A
harsh...
There's one here
https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1267419/306319
And it's been proven you can get examples with any number in between
Is the content of the third iso theorem for rings the fact that I can write ideals of R/I as {j+I: j in some ideal J of R which contains I}?
What I should ask is, "is that what ideals of R/I look like"
My understanding is no author agrees on which theorem is which number iso theorem. But yes, you're right. Consider a surjective ring hom R-> R'. By the first iso theorem, there is an iso between R/K and R' (K the kernel). By what you call the third iso theorem (some call it the correspondence theorem), there is a bijection between the set of ideals of R/K and R' given by the induced map from the first iso theorem. In fact, there is an isomorphism between R/K and R'/K' (K' is the image of K under the induced map). We can extend this result to any ideal I of R containing K.
Yes, all the ideals are like that.
bro was SO eager to use the sweet jacobson knowledge
except that's not the third iso theorem, that's the corrispondence theorem! better luck next time sweaty...
I was only doing it in the egoistic pursuit of reinforcing my own understanding
um. someone can't read
This makes sense mostly, thanks. In fact I was trying to grok this yesterday out of Jacobson, but I don't have as much time as I want to really be comfortable with it
I don't think Jacobson's exposition of this theorem is too amazing to be honest, I only really understood the result in the rings section after spending an hour reviewing the correspondence theorem for groups lol
That's what I did 😭
But I didn't properly study the group section, just skimmed it to make sense of when he called back to it
(yay, rings-first algebra courses)
It's apparently because a lot of the students in the course are cs majors who are unused to proofs/abstraction, and need lots of concrete examples (hence, not groups)

